ACQ101 Section 1- Acquisition Policy and Planning – Flashcards
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1Q: Which is a primary objective of the Systems Acquisition Management process? [Define Systems Acquisition Management.]
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1A: Provide measurable improvements in mission capabilities.
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2Q: What DoD decision-support system being described: "This system is event-driven and involves the process of periodic review and approval of programs to progress into subsequent acquisition life-cycle phases."
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2A: Defense Acquisition Management System
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3Q: What Risk Handling Strategy being described: "Changing the source that is subjecting the program to risk such as reducing the scope of the performance objectives."
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3A: Avoiding risk
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4Q: Probability and consequences are two variables that:
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4A: Comprise risk.
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5Q: Where in the system's life-cycle should a Program Manager consider ESOH requirements?
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5A: In all phases of the system's life-cycle.
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6Q: The ________ provides a simple and flexible management framework for translating joint capability needs into stable, affordable and well-managed acquisition programs.
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6A: DoDI 5000.02
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7Q: The objective of the Production & Deployment phase is to:
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7A: Achieve an operational capability that satisfies mission needs.
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8Q: A description of gaps in capability for a particular functional or mission area is called a(n):
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8A: Initial Capabilities Document (ICD)
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9Q: To guide program execution from initiation through re-procurement of systems, subsystems, components, spares, and services beyond the initial production contract award and during post-production support, each program manager (PM) must prepare an _____________.
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9A: Acquisition Strategy
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10Q: The purpose of the Materiel Solution Analysis phase is to:
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10A: Conduct an AoA to analyze alternative materiel solutions, that meet the user's needs identified in the initial capabilities document.
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11Q: The purpose of the Disposal effort is to demilitarize and:
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11A: Dispose of a system at the end of its useful life.
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12Q: At ________________, the MDA: Approves the development acquisition program baseline, Approves Low-Rate Initial Production (LRIP) quantities (where applicable), Approves Engineering and Manufacturing Development & Demonstration exit criteria (and exit criteria for the Post Critical Design Review Assessment, if needed), and Approves the acquisition strategy.
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12A: Milestone B
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13Q: The purpose of _________________ is to authorize entry into: Low-Rate Initial Production (LRIP), production or procurement (for systems that do not require low-rate production), or limited deployment for Major Automated Information Systems (MAIS) or software-intensive systems with no production components.
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13A: Milestone C
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14Q: In an evolutionary acquisition strategy approach the:
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14A: ultimate capability delivered to the user is divided into two or more increments, with increasing levels of capability.
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15Q: An AIS system that does not meet the cost threshold for a Major Automated Information System is an _________________.
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15A: Acquisition Category (ACAT) III
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16Q: Who provides an independent assessment of the effectiveness and suitability of new weapon systems?
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16A: Director, Operational Test & Evaluation
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17Q: Acquisition Categories (ACATs) are established to:
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17A: Determine the level of management review, decision authority, and reporting requirements.
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18Q: The Milestone Decision Authority for Acquisition Categories (ACAT) IAM programs is:
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18A: Under Secretary of Defense (Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics) (USD (AT))
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19Q: Who reviews programs to ensure money is spent properly and reports directly to the Secretary of Defense?
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19A: Under Secretary of Defense Comptroller (USD(C))
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20Q: ___________________ designs, produces, upgrades, and supports systems.
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20A: Industry
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21Q: For all acquisition programs, the review process depends upon the projected spending level or the level of interest a program may generate. The guiding principle in all cases is that there should be no more than ____________ levels of review between a Program Manager and the MDA.
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21A: Two
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22Q: Interoperability capability needs are documented in the form of a mandatory:
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22A: Net-Ready Key Performance Parameter
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23Q: For a program to receive Interoperability Certification, it must first prove interoperability on paper via the __________________________ Process.
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23A: Capabilities Certification
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24Q: In the Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System Review, Validation and Approval step, Approval is the formal or official sanction of the _______________________:
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24A: Identified capability described in the capability document.
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25Q: What activity is conducted during the Materiel Solution Analysis Phase, and focuses on developing options for materiel solutions?
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25A: Analysis of Alternatives (AoA)
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26Q: The ____________________ validates capability documents for all ACAT II and below programs, where the systems involved significantly affect the joint force such that expanded review is appropriate.
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26A: Joint Capabilities Board (JCB)
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27Q: The Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System is the process used to:
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27A: Identify and describe shortfalls in joint warfighting capabilities, based on strategic guidance.
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28Q: Which of the following does not apply to the formal definition of interoperability? *Ability of systems, units, or forces to communicate via voice when enemy countermeasures are present. *Ability of systems, units, or forces to provide and accept data, information, materiel, and services from each other. *Information or services can be exchanged directly and satisfactorily between communications-electronics equipment. *Ability of systems, units, or forces to interoperate with other U.S. Forces and coalition partners effectively.
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28A: Ability of systems, units, or forces to communicate via voice when enemy countermeasures are present.
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29Q: A Work Breakdown Structure can be used to help the manager:
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29A: Stay within budget by identifying and analyzing tradeoffs.
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30Q: A Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) shows:
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30A: The relationships among the work products.
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31Q: Military Handbook 881:
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31A: Shall be cited in solicitations and contracts as "for guidance only."
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32Q: The contractor that will be performing a portion of the work for a large program must prepare a(n) _______________ Work Breakdown Structure.
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32A: Contract
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33Q: A/An _______________ extends the Program Work Breakdown Structure to a lower level in order to provide management and cost information to the Government.
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33A: Contract Work Breakdown Structure
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34Q: A/An _______________ is defined as the work breakdown that covers the acquisition of a specific defense materiel item and is related to contractual effort.
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34A: Program Work Breakdown Structure
