Intro to Physical Fitness and Sport Final Exam – Flashcards
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John recycles and uses public transportation most of the time. He possesses a high level of _____ wellness. A. environmental B. physical C. occupational D. social
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A. Environmental
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Jane believes that she has an ideal job that is both challenging and rewarding. She is enjoying a high level of _____ wellness. A. environmental B. physical C. occupational D. social
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C. Occupational
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Several landmark studies have: A.revealed a consistent parallel relationship between physical activity levels and mortality, regardless of risk factors. B.shown a dose-response relationship between physical activity levels and mortality, regardless of risk factors. C.recommended vigorous exercise and longer duration for anyone who wishes to improve health and fitness. D.confirmed the benefits of physical activity and exercise on health, longevity, and quality of life.
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D.confirmed the benefits of physical activity and exercise on health, longevity, and quality of life.
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The greatest benefit of fitness and wellness programs is that physically fit individuals: A. can always avoid injuries. B .always live a longer life. C. enjoy a better quality of life. D. have optimal athletic performance.
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C. enjoy a better quality of life
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Which of the following is NOT a risk factor that might interfere with safe participation in exercise? A.fainting B. a resting heart rate of 64 beats per minute C. abnormal blood pressure D.irregular heart rhythm
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B. a resting heart rate of 64 beats per minute
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Resting heart rate is assessed when you have been: A.exercising vigorously for about half an hour. B.exercising gently for no longer than half an hour. C.watching an action movie for about half an hour. D.reading in bed quietly for about half an hour.
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D.reading in bed quietly for about half an hour.
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Which of the following is CORRECT? A. A normal resting heart rate indicates a stronger heart. B. A lower resting heart rate might indicate a stronger heart. C.A higher resting heart rate always indicates a stronger heart. D.A lower resting heart rate always indicates a stronger heart.
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D.A lower resting heart rate always indicates a stronger heart.
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Which of the following is NOT an example of exercise? A.walking 30 minutes on the treadmill every day B.walking 30 minutes before going to work every day C.riding a bicycle for 25 miles every other day D.walking to get some groceries from a nearby store
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D.walking to get some groceries from a nearby store,
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Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. As long as Jane exercises regularly and eats nutritious food, she will have excellent health. B.Maintaining an active lifestyle and avoiding risky behaviors will help Jane lower her risk for disease. C.Physical fitness alone is always sufficient to lower the risk for disease and ensure better health. D.Jane's excellent physical fitness alone is sufficient to protect her from getting cardiovascular disease.
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B.Maintaining an active lifestyle and avoiding risky behaviors will help Jane lower her risk for disease.
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Which is NOT true regarding the health care costs in the United States? A.An estimated 1% of the people account for 30% of the health care costs. B.Major contributors to health care costs are unhealthy behaviors that lead to obesity and smoking. C.The U.S. spends less per person on health care than any other industrialized nation. D.Half of the people use up about 97% of the health care dollars.
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C.The U.S. spends less per person on health care than any other industrialized nation.
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Tony is a 30 year old male with a resting heart rate of 72. Tony's target heart rate range at 60-85% HRR is ________________ - __________________ bpm. A.156-180 B.126-176 C.130-138 D.140-169
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D.140-169
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The minimum requirement in 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans is that you accumulate ____________ minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity or ___________ minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity weekly. A.145, 60 B.30, 45 C.60, 90 D.150, 75
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D.150, 75
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Health experts recommend that to be considered active, a person accumulate the equivalent of _____ miles of walking per day. A. 5-6 B. 1-2 C. 3-4 D. 7-8
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A. 5-6
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Daily computer e-mailing, surfing the internet, and conducting online transactions decreases energy expenditure by _____ calories. A. 50 to 300 B. 5 to 10 C. 50 to 200 D. 3 to 10
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A. 50 to 300
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Saying, "I'll deal with the consequences later" demonstrates the _____ barrier to change. A. rationalization B. risk complacency C. illusions of invincibility D. indifference
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B. risk complacency
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People with an internal locus of control: A. are at less risk for illness. B. say things happen by chance. C. believe they control others. D. have better exercise adherence.
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D. have better exercise adherence.
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People with an external locus of control: A. say things happen by chance. B. have better exercise adherence. C. believe they control others. D. are at less risk for illness
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A. say things happen by chance.
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Critical in the move from the precontemplation stage to the contemplation stage of the transtheoretical model is for the individual to: A. get educated about the problem. B. set goals to change behavior. C. control the environment. D. begin an exercise program.
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A. get educated about the problem.
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John has maintained his healthy body weight by exercising regularly and eating right for over five years. He is considered to be in the _____ stage of the transtheoretical model. A. maintenance B. adoption C. contemplation D. action
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B. adoption
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To manage his weight, John stopped eating at McDonald's. He has been packing a fruit, a turkey or tuna sandwich, and a bottle of water for lunch for four months. He is considered to be in the _____ stage of the transtheoretical model. A. action B. adoption C. maintenance D. contemplation
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A. action
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Thinking about controlling your excessive weight after seeing a neighbor die from a heart attack due to obesity is an example of: A. emotional arousal. B. positive outlook. C. behavior analysis. D. countering.
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A. emotional arousal.
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Which of the following goals is most likely to help Jane reduce her body fat from 30% to 20%? A. "I will reduce my body fat to 20% body fat in 20 weeks." B. "I will reduce my body fat to 20% body fat through exercising." C. "I will reduce my body fat to 20% body fat through eating right." D. "I will reduce my body fat to 20% body fat in 2 weeks."
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A. "I will reduce my body fat to 20% body fat in 20 weeks."
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"I will reduce my body fat to 20% body fat (137 pounds) in 12 weeks" is an example of a: A. short-term goal. B. specific objective. C. specific goal. D. long-term goal.
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C. specific goal.
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Proper nutrition means that a person's diet: A. supplies all the essential nutrients. B. has enough vitamins and protein. C. supplies a sufficient amount of energy. D. has enough fruits and vegetables.
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A. supplies all the essential nutrients
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Essential nutrients include: A. meat and dairy products, grains, fruits, and vegetables. B. carbohydrates, fat, protein, vitamins, minerals, and water. C. substrates, protein, calcium, iron, and multiple vitamins. D. water, whole grains, white meat, fruits, and vegetables.
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B. carbohydrates, fat, protein, vitamins, minerals, and water.
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The primary function of carbohydrates is to: A. provide texture and flavor to foods. B. promote chemical reactions within cells. C. supply energy to body cells. D. serve as an important component of muscle.
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C. supply energy to body cells.
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Excess glucose in the blood is: A. not important in controlling body fat. B. converted to fat and stored in adipose tissue. C. converted to fiber and discharged from the body. D. converted to protein and used by the body.
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B. converted to fat and stored in adipose tissue.
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Glycogen is: A. stored in the liver and skeletal muscles. B. made from amino acids and vitamins. C. supplied from adipose tissue breakdown. D. mainly obtained through food consumed.
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A. stored in the liver and skeletal muscles.
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Soluble fiber: A. improves the texture of food. B. binds water in the digestive tract. C. creates a bulkier stool. D. lowers blood cholesterol.
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D. lowers blood cholesterol.
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Insoluble fiber: A. lowers the risk for colon cancer. B. lowers blood cholesterol level. C. binds and excretes fat from the body. D. lowers blood sugar level
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A. lowers the risk for colon cancer.
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Consuming _____ reduces abnormal heart rhythms and blood clotting. A. omega-6 fatty acids B. omega-3 fatty acids C. trans fatty acids D. polyunsaturated fat
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B. omega-3 fatty acids
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The primary function of proteins is to: A. promote chemical reactions within cells. B. provide favorable texture and flavor to foods. C. serve as an important component of muscle. D. supply a high level of energy to body cells.
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C. serve as an important component of muscle.
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Minerals: A. make up about 70% of total body weight. B. help regulate body functions. C. are a good source of energy for the body. D. are found only in animal products.
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B. help regulate body functions.
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A food that offers specific health benefits beyond those supplied by the traditional nutrients it contains is called a _____ food. A. functional B. transgenic C. high-octane D. fortified
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A. functional
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Nutrition supplements: A. supply all the nutrients and other beneficial substances found in food. B. are the richest sources of antioxidants and phytonutrients. C. balance the diet of people who are too busy to eat unhealthily. D. do not supply all the nutrients and other beneficial substances present in food.
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D. do not supply all the nutrients and other beneficial substances present in food.
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Athletes in strength training and body building need to: A. have a balanced diet with a large variety of nutrients from all food groups. B. take at least 10 capsules of amino acids four times per day for a month. C. have a prolonged loading phase of creatine supplementation. D. obtain at least 30% of total daily caloric intake from protein.
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A. have a balanced diet with a large variety of nutrients from all food groups.A. have a balanced diet with a large variety of nutrients from all food groups.
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The two main fuels that supply energy for physical activity are: A. protein and vitamin B. B. vitamins and caffeine. C. sugar and fatty acids. D. amino acids and water.
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C. sugar and fatty acids.
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_____ is used in reference to the fat and nonfat components of the human body. A. Fat body weight B. Body composition C. Lean body mass D. Percent of body fat
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B. Body composition
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When a highly muscular young man who weighed about 225 pounds applied to join a city police force but was turned down without having been granted an interview, this illustrated: A. the bias of the city police force toward obese individuals. B. that the young man indeed has too much fat. C. the inaccuracy of height/weight charts. D. that the city police force makes good hiring judgments.
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C. the inaccuracy of height/weight charts.
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The minimal amount of body fat needed for normal physiological functions is called: A. human fat. B. storage fat. C. body fat. D. essential fat.
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D. essential fat.
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The typical amount of essential fat in men is _____ of the body by weight. A. 15% B. 12% C. 3% D. 14%
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C. 3%
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The typical amount of essential fat in women is _____ of the body by weight. A. 3% B. 15% C. 14% D. 12%
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D. 12%
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Which method of body composition measurement is considered the standard research technique? A. air displacement B. bioelectrical impedance C. hydrostatic weighing D. DXA
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D. DXA
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A technique used to determine thinness and excessive fatness that incorporates height and weight to estimate critical fat values at which the risk for disease increases is called: A. body mass index. B. girth measurements. C. waist circumference. D. skinfold thickness.
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A. body mass index.
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Scientific evidence indicates that there is a significant increase in the risk for disease when BMI exceeds: A. 20. B. 25. C. 22. D. 30.
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B. 25.
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A waist circumference _____ indicates a higher risk for cardiovascular disease, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes. A. above 35 inches in men and 40 inches in women B. below 32 inches in men and 35 inches in women C. below 35 inches in men and 32 inches in women D. above 40 inches in men and 35 inches in women
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D. above 40 inches in men and 35 inches in women
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BMI in conjunction with _____ provides the best combination to identify individuals at higher disease risk resulting from excessive body fat. A. girth measurements B. skinfold thickness C. waist circumference D. waist-to-hip ratio
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C. waist circumference
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Normal physiological functions can be seriously impaired when the percent body fat falls below: A. 12% for women. B. 17% for women. C. 17% for men. D. 12% for men
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A. 12% for women.
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April, a 19-year-old female weighing 160 pounds and with 30% body fat, would like to know her recommended body weight at 22% body fat. Fat weight = body weight (lbs) x % body fat Lean body weight = body weight (lbs) - fat weight (lbs) Recommended body weight (lbs) = lean body weight (lbs) ÷ (1.0 - desired body fat percentage) What is April's fat weight? A. 48 lbs B. 112 lbs C. 144 lbs D. 35.2 lbs
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A. 48 lbs
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April, a 19-year-old female weighing 160 pounds and with 30% body fat, would like to know her recommended body weight at 22% body fat. Fat weight = body weight (lbs) x % body fat Lean body weight = body weight (lbs) - fat weight (lbs) Recommended body weight (lbs) = lean body weight (lbs) ÷ (1.0 - desired body fat percentage) What is April's lean body weight? A. 144 lbs B. 48 lbs C. 112 lbs D. 35.2 lbs
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C. 112 lbs
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April, a 19-year-old female weighing 160 pounds and with 30% body fat, would like to know her recommended body weight at 22% body fat. Fat weight = body weight (lbs) x % body fat Lean body weight = body weight (lbs) - fat weight (lbs) Recommended body weight (lbs) = lean body weight (lbs) ÷ (1.0 - desired body fat percentage) What is April's recommended body weight at 22% body fat? A. 48 lbs B. 112 lbs C. 144 lbs D. 35.2 lbs
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C. 144 lbs
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Starting at age 25, an average person in the United States gains ____ body weight each year. A. 0-1 pound B. 2-3 pounds C. 1-2 pounds D. 3-4 pounds
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C. 1-2 pounds
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Most of the blame for the alarming increase in obesity in the U.S. lies in: A. fewer meals eaten outside the home. B. overeating and physical inactivity. C. less consumption of fast food. D. more time spent doing manual labor.
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B. overeating and physical inactivity.
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Obesity has been defined as a BMI of _____ or higher. A. 29 B. 30 C. 24 D. 20
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B. 30
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The second leading cause of preventable death in the U.S. is: A. cigarette smoking and tobacco use. B. being overweight and physical inactivity. C. excessive alcohol consumption. D. unintentional injuries
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B. being overweight and physical inactivity
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The major risk associated with low-carb diets is an increased risk of heart disease because: A. excess protein is used to produce more muscles. B. high-protein foods are often high in fat. C. few people consume adequate amounts of protein. D. protein-rich foods are often high in carbohydrates.
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B. high-protein foods are often high in fat.
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An eating disorder characterized by a refusal to eat enough food to maintain a minimally normal body weight is: A. binge-eating disorder. B. bulimia nervosa. C. anorexia nervosa. D. dysmorphic disorder.
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C. anorexia nervosa.
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The energy-balancing equation principle indicates that as long as caloric input: A. equals caloric output, the person will not gain or lose weight. B. is less than caloric output, the person will gain weight. C. equals caloric output, the person may gain or lose weight. D. is larger than caloric output, the person will lose weight.
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A. equals caloric output, the person will not gain or lose weight.
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One pound of fat represents _____ calories. A. 2,500 B. 1,500 C. 4,500 D. 3,500
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D. 3,500
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A daily energy expenditure of 200 calories through physical activity is the equivalent of approximately _____ pounds of fat per year. A. 31 B. 21 C. 52 D. 12
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B. 21
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The body fat/weight setpoint may be lowered by: A. following near-fasting diets. B. eating refined carbohydrates. C. eating high-fiber foods. D. following very low calorie diets.
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C. eating high-fiber foods.
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Which of the following is the most effective method of weight loss? A. calorically-restricted diet limiting calorie intake to 1,200-1,500 calories daily only A. moderate-intensity exercise = 60 minutes per day without diet modification C. moderate-intensity exercise = 60 minutes per day and intake of 1,200-1,500 calories per day D. high-intensity exercise of 30 minutes per day without diet modification
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C. moderate-intensity exercise = 60 minutes per day and intake of 1,200-1,500 calories per day
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Compared to low-intensity exercise, high-intensity exercise: A. burns a much higher percentage of fat in theory. B. is not as effective as low-intensity exercise in burning fat. C. is as effective as low-intensity exercise in burning fat. D. raises the metabolic rate longer after exercise.
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D. raises the metabolic rate longer after exercise.
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Maria is obese with a body weight of 200 pounds, and she would like to lose some weight. After interviewing her, you found that she had not been physically active for 10 years and she had been eating a cup of vanilla ice cream (265 calories) and a Milky Way candy bar (254 calories) every day. You advised her that she should lose no more than 1 pound of fat per week. To lose 1 lb of fat every week, what would Maria need to do? A. Exercise only, such as walking, 60 minutes every day. B. Create a negative energy balance of 3,500 calories per week. C. Create a positive energy balance of 4,375 calories per week. D. Use one of the low-carb diets that promise to be effective.
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B. Create a negative energy balance of 3,500 calories per week.
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Weight management is accomplished by: A. following the South Beach diet consistently and correctly for at least one year. B. following a moderate-intensity exercise program only for about six months. C. making a lifetime commitment to physical activity and proper food selection. D. joining a gym that has the best equipment and most qualified instructors.
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C. making a lifetime commitment to physical activity and proper food selection.
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What relationship does sleep deprivation have with body weight? A. Sleep deprivation appears to have no effect on body weight. B. Sleep deprivation causes body weight to be gained. C. Sleep deprivation causes body weight to greatly fluctuate. D. Sleep deprivation causes body weight to be lost.
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B. Sleep deprivation causes body weight to be gained.
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Which of the following is an example of an aerobic exercise? a. jogging b. gymnastics c. sprinting d. weight lifting
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a. jogging
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As a result of aerobic training, the heart: a. has smaller cardiac output. b. delivers less blood per beat. c. has a faster resting heart rate. d. delivers more blood per beat.
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d. delivers more blood per beat.
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The amount of oxygen that is actually used by the body during rest or a hard workout is determined by the heart rate, the stroke volume, and the amount of: a. oxygen provided to the vascular system. b. oxygen removed from the vascular system. c. blood circulating in the vascular system. d. blood the individual has in his body.
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b. oxygen removed from the vascular system.
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Vigorous exercise refers to cardiorespiratory exercise that requires an intensity level: a. above 85% of maximal capacity. b. of 50-60% of maximal capacity. c. above 60% of maximal capacity. d. of 40-50% of maximal capacity.
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c. above 60% of maximal capacity.
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Which of the following is the moderate-intensity cardiorespiratory training zone for a 20-year-old male with a resting heart rate of 68 beats per minute (bpm)? a. 134-147 bpm b. 147-180 bpm c. 121-134 bpm d. 121-147 bpm
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a. 134-147 bpm
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Unconditioned individuals and older adults should start at a _____ training intensity. a. 30-40% b. 50-60% c. 60-85% d. 40-85%
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a. 30-40%
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Three 20- to 30-minute cardiorespiratory training sessions per week, on nonconsecutive days, will maintain cardiorespiratory fitness: a. as long as the heart rate is above 85% of heart rate reserve. b. as long as the individual is exercising, regardless of heart rate. c. as long as the heart rate is in the appropriate target zone. d. no matter how intensively the individual is exercising.
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c. as long as the heart rate is in the appropriate target zone.
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Which of the following is recommended for individuals on a weight-loss program? a. five to six 60- to 90-minute training sessions of moderate intensity per week b. three to five 20- to 30-minute training sessions of low intensity per week c. three to five 45- to 60-minute training sessions of low intensity per week d. two to three 20- to 30-minute training sessions of moderate intensity per week
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a. five to six 60- to 90-minute training sessions of moderate intensity per week
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After _____ of aerobic inactivity, the cardiorespiratory system starts to lose some of its capacity. a. four weeks b. one week c. 48 to 72 hours d. two weeks
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c. 48 to 72 hours
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John stopped his daily 5-mile run for 10 weeks because of his broken ankle. His doctor finally said that he can start running again. What should John do? a. He should start with his regular daily 5-mile run as soon as possible. b. He should run 1 mile per day first and gradually increase the distance. c. He should rest for at least another couple of weeks before he runs again. d. He should catch up on his lost exercises by running 6 miles or more per day.
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b. He should run 1 mile per day first and gradually increase the distance.
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A benefit of strength training, accentuated even more when combined with aerobic exercise, is a(n): a. increase in adipose tissue around muscle fibers themselves. b. increase in muscular flexibility for all major muscle groups. c. decrease in the density of muscle tissues in the affected areas. d. decrease in adipose tissue around muscle fibers themselves.
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d. decrease in adipose tissue around muscle fibers themselves.
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For the beginner, long-term strength training often leads to the decrease of _____ more than the increase of muscle mass. a. protein retention b. lean mass c. water storage d. fat mass
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d. fat mass
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Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. Muscle fibers in women have the same potential for hypertrophy as those in men. b. Hormonal differences do not allow women to achieve the same amount of muscle hypertrophy as men. c. Strength-training programs will result in developing as large a musculature in women as that in men. d. Strength training allows women to develop muscle hypertrophy to the same extent as men.
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b. Hormonal differences do not allow women to achieve the same amount of muscle hypertrophy as men.
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Jane was able to hold a chin-up for 5 minutes. This is the measure of her: a. muscular resistance. b. muscular endurance. c. muscular maximum. d. muscular strength.
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b. muscular endurance.
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The more muscle fibers a motor neuron innervates, the: a. more precise muscle contraction. b. stronger the muscle contraction. c. more refined the muscle contraction. d. weaker the muscle contraction.
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b. stronger the muscle contraction.
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Increasing the number of repetitions can be used to: a. enhance specificity of training. b. change strength-training frequency. c. overload in strength training. d. change specificity of training.
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c. overload in strength training.
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Which of the following principles implies that if a football player wishes to become stronger and faster, he will emphasize exercises that will develop leg strength and power? a. adaptation principle b. the SAID principle c. progressive training d. the overload principle
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b. the SAID principle
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When an exercise becomes easier, the person should: a. apply the progressive resistance training principle. b. use a lower repetition maximum to avoid injuries. c. stick to the same program to increase the strength. d. stop the program and enjoy the strength gained.
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a. apply the progressive resistance training principle.
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Strength gains: a. are seen in the first 2 weeks of training. b. are about 40% in advanced individuals. c. are seen in the first 8 weeks of training. d. can be 10% for strength-training novices.
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c. are seen in the first 8 weeks of training.
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The use of low resistances and high repetitions is recommended to: a. achieve optimal strength fitness goals. b. maximize long-term energy expenditure. c. enhance body composition and maximize energy expenditure. d. increase muscular endurance for a specific sport.
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d. increase muscular endurance for a specific sport.
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Which of the following should be kept in mind when designing a strength-training program? a. Select exercises that will involve some major muscle groups. b. Exercise smaller muscle groups before exercising larger muscle groups. c. Hold your breath while you are straining to lift a heavy weight. d. Select exercises that will involve all major muscle groups.
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d. Select exercises that will involve all major muscle groups.
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A major objective of core strength training is to exercise the _____ muscles in unison. a. abdominals and lower back b. pectorals and latissimus dorsi c. deltoids and trapezius d. biceps and triceps
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a. abdominals and lower back
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Stability Balls are thought to be more effective than similar exercises on the ground because they contribute more to: a. balance. b. flexibility. c. strength. d. power.
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a. balance.
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The range of motion at a joint or group of joints that can be achieved without causing injury is known as: a. elasticity. b. elongation. c. stretching. d. flexibility.
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d. flexibility.
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Decreased flexibility causes older adults to: a. switch lanes and parallel-park better. b. lose mobility for simple daily tasks. c. have a reduced risk for automobile accidents. d. have a higher level of functional capacity
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b. lose mobility for simple daily tasks.
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Taking part in a regular stretching program offers all of the following benefits EXCEPT: a. improving and maintaining good postural alignment. b. promoting proper and graceful body movement. c. preventing low-back and other spinal column problems. d. increasing muscular strength and endurance.
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d. increasing muscular strength and endurance.
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The Modified Sit-and-Reach Test: a. modifies the test results for those with longer arms as compared to legs. b. considers arm and leg lengths in determining the flexibility measurement. c. underestimates flexibility for those with longer arms as compared to legs. d. underestimates flexibility for those with shorter legs as compared to arms.
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b. considers arm and leg lengths in determining the flexibility measurement.
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Ballistic stretching: a. is easy and safe for most individuals to perform. b. has a low risk for ligaments to be overstretched. c. is done with slow, gentle, and smooth movements. d. provides the force necessary to lengthen muscles.
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d. provides the force necessary to lengthen muscles.
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Exercises in which the muscles are lengthened gradually through a joint's complete range of motion are referred to as: a. slow-sustained stretching b. dynamic stretching. c. ballistic stretching. d. controlled ballistic stretching.
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a. slow-sustained stretching
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The general recommendation for a beginning flexibility development session is to hold the final stretch position for _____ seconds. a. 10-30 b. 5-15 c. 15-60 d. 15-40
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a. 10-30
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The general recommendation for beginning flexibility development is to conduct _____ flexibility sessions each week. a. 5-7 b. 4-5 c. 3-4 d. 6-7
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a. 5-7
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A major contributor to back pain is _____, which causes back muscles to shorten, stiffen, and become weaker. a. too much walking b. low body weight c. excessive sitting d. physical activity
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c. excessive sitting
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One exercise that can be prescribed for backache syndrome is: a. running. b. weight lifting. c. walking. d. Cross Country skiing
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c. walking.
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Exercise for backache syndrome should be performed: a. three days each week. b. no more than once daily. c. five days each week. d. two or more times daily.
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d. two or more times daily
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John wants to play college basketball. He must have: a. health-related fitness. b. skill-related fitness. c. muscular flexibility. d. physical-related fitness.
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b. skill-related fitness.
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The principle of _____ of training applies to skill-related components just as it does to health-related fitness components. a. strengthening b. specificity c. simplicity d. sophistication
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b. specificity
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The ability to change body position and direction quickly and efficiently is the definition of: a. balance b. speed. c. agility d. power.
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c. agility
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The ability to maintain the body in proper equilibrium is the definition for: a. agility. b. balance. c. power. d. speed.
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b. balance.
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The integration of the nervous and muscular systems to produce correct, graceful, and harmonious body movements is the definition for: a. coordination b. flexibility. c. endurance. d. composition.
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a. coordination
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_____ is defined as the ability to produce maximum force in the shortest time. a. Balance b. Speed c. Power d. Agility
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c. Power
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_____ is defined as the time required to initiate a response to a given stimulus. a. Balance time b. Speed time c. Reaction time d. Coordination
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c. Reaction time
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Speed and force (strength) are two components of: a. agility. b. balance. c. power. d. endurance.
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c. power.
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The ability to rapidly propel the body or a part of the body from one point to another is the definition for: a. agility. b. balance. c. power. d. speed.
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d. speed.
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The objective of the _____ Test is to measure agility. a. Yardstick b. 50-Yard Dash c. SEMO Agility d. Soda Pop
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c. SEMO Agility
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Jane Doe has asthma and she has decided to start jogging. To reduce the chance of inducing asthma, Jane should: a. drink water before, during, and after exercise. b. exercise in cold, airy, and dry conditions. c. have an intermittent program in the final stages. d. exercise alone, so the pace is flexible.
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a. drink water before, during, and after exercise.
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Heat exhaustion is:Heat exhaustion is: a. the last symptom of heat stress. b. characterized by serious disorientation. c. characterized by clammy skin. d. the first symptom of heat stress.
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c. characterized by clammy skin.
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Heat stroke: a. results in profuse sweating that causes clammy skin. b. stimulates only a slow, weak pulse. c. creates a cold sensation in the body trunk. d. is characterized by severe muscle twitching.
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c. creates a cold sensation in the body trunk.
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Immediate muscle soreness after exercise is thought to be related to: a. actual tiny tears in exercised muscle tissue. b. tearing of connective tissue around muscles. c. general fatigue of the exercised muscles. d. muscle spasms that increase fluid retention.
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c. general fatigue of the exercised muscles.
question
Sleep deprivation: a. results in lower body fatness. b. hampers behavioral patterns. c. strengthens the immune system. d. decreases blood pressure.
answer
b. hampers behavioral patterns.
question
Positive stress is also referred to as: a. physiostress. b. functional stress. c. eustress. d. distress.
answer
c. eustress.
question
Which of the following are the characteristics of Type C behavior? a. hard-driving and overambitious b. calm, casual, relaxed, and easygoing c. aggressive and overly competitive d. committed, confident, and in control
answer
d. committed, confident, and in control
question
Type A individuals who commonly express _____ are at higher risk for coronary heart disease. a. ambitiousness b. competitiveness c. time urgency d. anger and hostility
answer
d. anger and hostility
question
Type B behavior is characteristic of: a. calm, casual, relaxed, easygoing individuals. b. overambitious, at times hostile individuals. c. hard-driving and aggressive individuals. d. hard-driving and competitive individuals.
answer
a. calm, casual, relaxed, easygoing individuals.
question
Which of the following is/are essential to cope effectively with stressful life events? a. cardiovascular endurance b. muscular strength and endurance c. healthy body composition d. social support and self-worth
answer
d. social support and self-worth
question
All of the following are steps to time management EXCEPT: a. increase work efficiency. b. identify the immediate goals. c. conduct nightly audits. d. set long- and short-range goals.
answer
a. increase work efficiency.
question
All of the following can help you make better use of your time EXCEPT: a. delegate less important tasks. b. plan ahead for disruptions. c. eliminate distractions. d. perform many tasks at once.
answer
d. perform many tasks at once.
question
The main value of exercise in reducing stress is related to a(n): a. increase in muscular tension. b. increase in body tension. c. decrease in performance. d. decrease in muscular tension
answer
d. decrease in muscular tension
question
A five-mile jog stimulates alpha-wave activity in the brain. These are the same wave patterns seen commonly: a. during meditation and relaxation. b. while engaging in a stressful event. c. when taking a final examination. d. after the person takes morphine.
answer
a. during meditation and relaxation.
question
Learning to control stress-related body processes not normally under voluntary control is called: a. biofeedback. b. visual imagery. c. meditation. d. autogenic training.
answer
a. biofeedback.
question
Progressive muscle relaxation should be done: a. in a group setting where there is an instructor. b. no more than one session each day. c. for less than 20 minutes each session. d. paying attention to muscle contraction intensity.
answer
d. paying attention to muscle contraction intensity.
question
The focus with breathing exercises is to: a. ignore breathing patterns. b. gain control over one's attention. c. "breathe away" the tension. d. take short, shallow breaths.
answer
c. "breathe away" the tension.
question
Visual imagery should be performed: a. for at least 30 minutes each session. b. no more than one session each day. c. in a quiet and comfortable environment. d. in a group setting where there is an instructor.
answer
c. in a quiet and comfortable environment.
question
The autogenic training technique: a. is more difficult to master than many other relaxation techniques. b. is much easier to master than many other relaxation techniques. c. may interfere with relaxation if moving too slowly through the entire exercise. d. can be done without having to follow the exact sequence of the six stages.
answer
a. is more difficult to master than many other relaxation techniques.
question
The yoga exercises include a combination of postures, diaphragmatic breathing, muscle relaxation, and _____ to relax the body. a. visual imagery b. meditation c. biofeedback d. autogenic training
answer
b. meditation
question
After completing Lab 11A (Self-Assessment Coronary Heart Disease Risk Factor Analysis), John discovers that his score is in the "Moderate" CHD risk category. This means that John: a. has a strong probability of developing heart disease within the next few years. b. is taking good care of his cardiovascular health and does not need to improve it. c. needs to implement a personal risk-reduction program immediately. d. can definitely improve his lifestyle to lower his risk for these diseases.
answer
d. can definitely improve his lifestyle to lower his risk for these diseases.
question
According to the CHD risk analysis, having _____ seems to be the best predictor for developing coronary heart disease. a. excessive body fat b. a family history of CHD c. high blood glucose d. an unhealthy diet
answer
d. an unhealthy diet
question
Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding CVD risk reduction? a. Vigorous-intensity activity is preferable because of greater improvements in aerobic fitness and glucose control. b. Overall management of risk factors is the best guideline to lower the risk for cardiovascular disease. c. Regular physical activity and aerobic exercise by themselves guarantee a lifetime free of cardiovascular problems. d. Moderate-intensity physical activity provides substantial benefits in terms of overall cardiovascular risk reduction.
answer
c. Regular physical activity and aerobic exercise by themselves guarantee a lifetime free of cardiovascular problems.
question
Reverse cholesterol transport is performed by: a. low-density lipoproteins. b. high-density lipoproteins. c. very low-density lipoproteins. d. low-density lipoprotein-a.
answer
b. high-density lipoproteins.
question
_____ tend(s) to release cholesterol, which may penetrate the lining of arteries and speed up the process of atherosclerosis. a. Total blood homocysteine b. High-density lipoproteins c. Low-density lipoproteins d. Blood C-reactive protein
answer
c. Low-density lipoproteins
question
Habitual aerobic exercise, weight loss, high-dose niacin, and quitting smoking help increase: a. high-density lipoproteins. b. very low-density lipoproteins. c. low-density lipoproteins. d. low-density lipoprotein-a.
answer
a. high-density lipoproteins.
question
High LDL cholesterol can be lowered by: a. consuming at least 200 mg of cholesterol per day. b. consuming no more than 25 grams of fiber per day. c. replacing saturated fat with unsaturated fat. d. consuming no more than 25 grams of soy protein per day.
answer
c. replacing saturated fat with unsaturated fat.
question
Triglycerides: a. are transported in the blood by high-density lipoproteins. b. speed up plaque formation in combination with cholesterol. c. are found primarily in refined sugars, starches, and alcohol. d. are manufactured mainly in the liver from trans fatty acids.
answer
b. speed up plaque formation in combination with cholesterol.
question
_____ helps prevent type 2 diabetes a. A low-carbohydrate diet b. Insulin therapy c. Aerobic exercise d. A high-protein diet
answer
c. Aerobic exercise
question
Essential hypertension: a. is the pressure needed for cardiovascular function. b. is high blood pressure with a definite cause. c. is treatable with exercise and diet modification. d. accounts for 10% of all hypertension cases.
answer
c. is treatable with exercise and diet modification.
question
Attaining recommended body composition is best accomplished by: a. seeking medical assistance such as diet pills and surgery. b. following a diet that is low in carbohydrate and high in protein. c. increasing daily physical activity up to 90 minutes a day. d. restricting caloric intake without considering nutrient intake.
answer
c. increasing daily physical activity up to 90 minutes a day.
question
Smoking increases risk for CHD by: a. decreasing carbon monoxide in the blood. b. increasing oxygen levels in the blood. c. promoting dissolving of blood clots. d. damaging the inner lining of arteries.
answer
d. damaging the inner lining of arteries.
question
The major contributor to the increase in incidence of cancer during the last five decades is _____ cancer. a. breast b. lung c. colon d. prostate
answer
b. lung
question
The American Cancer Society recommends all BUT which of the following for cancer prevention? a. Maintain healthy body weight. b. Limit alcohol to moderate levels. c. Limit tobacco to moderate levels. d. Adopt a healthy diet.
answer
c. Limit tobacco to moderate levels.
question
Like coronary heart disease, cancer is largely: a. preventable. b. unavoidable. c. lethal. d. curable.
answer
a. preventable.
question
The most effective way to protect against cancer is to: a. keeps carcinogens from locking onto cells. b. activates enzymes that detoxify cancer-causing agents. c. prevents carcinogens from binding to DNA. d. prevents carcinogenic byproducts from forming.
answer
d. prevents carcinogenic byproducts from forming.
question
Alcohol should be consumed in moderation because too much alcohol raises the risk for developing certain cancers, especially when it is combined with: a. grilled "well done" animal protein. b. monounsaturated and omega-3 fats. c. salt-cured and nitrite-cured foods. d. tobacco smoking or smokeless tobacco.
answer
d. tobacco smoking or smokeless tobacco.
question
Being obese increases one's risk of dying from any form of cancer by more than _____. a. 30% b. 40% c. 60% d. 50%
answer
d. 50%
question
The most deadly type of skin cancer is: a. malignant carcinoma. b. squamous cell carcinoma. c. basal cell carcinoma. d. malignant melanoma.
answer
d. malignant melanoma.
question
The risk for breast cancer is higher in women who: a. have never had children. b. started menstruation at 15 years of age. c. bear children before age 30. d. never used any oral contraceptives.
answer
a. have never had children.
question
Prostate cancer risk is higher than average for: a. men who eat fatty fish regularly. b. Caucasian men. c. African-American men. d. men age 65 or younger.
answer
c. African-American men.
question
Cancer early detection recommendations include: a. an annual mammogram for women age 20. b. an annual pap test for women age 50 and older. c. monthly TSE checks for men and BSE checks for women. d. a yearly cancer-related checkup for people age 50 and older.
answer
c. monthly TSE checks for men and BSE checks for women.
question
The American Cancer Society estimates that _____ of all cancer in the United States is related to poor nutrition and lack of physical activity. a. one-half b. one-fifth c. one-third d. one-fourth
answer
c. one-third
question
Which of the following lifestyle changes reduces cancer development by decreasing body estrogen and insulin levels and cell DNA damage? a. Increasing physical activity b. losing unneeded fat weight c. Drinking green tea d. Consuming soy products
answer
a. Increasing physical activity
question
The most widely used illegal drug in the United States is: a. marijuana. b. heroin. c. ecstasy. d. cocaine.
answer
a. marijuana.
question
Marijuana's effects include: a. increased coordination and tracking. b. short-term memory impairments. c. stimulant effects with small doses. d. increased mental learning processes.
answer
b. short-term memory impairments.
question
Long-term harmful effects of marijuana use include: a. lung cancer. b. sleep disorders. c. loss of appetite. d. impulsive behavior
answer
a. lung cancer.
question
Cocaine abuse is associated with increased risk for: a. weight gain. b. violent behavior. c. heart attack. d. lung cancer.
answer
c. heart attack.
question
Alcohol intake: a. impairs motor performance. b. enhances concentration. c. increases reaction time. d. increases hearing acuity.
answer
a. impairs motor performance.
question
The benefit of moderate alcohol consumption can be equaled to: a. a small dose of aspirin. b. the expert use of any stress management technique. c. weight loss of at least 20 pounds. d. 30 minutes of moderate exercise.
answer
a. a small dose of aspirin.
question
Long-term alcohol use leads to greater risk for: a. cirrhosis of the liver. b. coronary heart disease. c. Parkinson's disease. d. cancer of the lungs.
answer
a. cirrhosis of the liver.
question
Alcohol is a factor in about _____ of all college dropouts. a. 28% b. 48% c. 38% d. 18%
answer
a. 28%
question
Even though professional help is likely required to recover from a serious addiction, the first step is simply to: a. remove all drugs from the surroundings. b. select a qualified professional counselor. c. recognize the reality of the problem. d. ask for accountability from a loved one.
answer
c. recognize the reality of the problem.
question
The largest preventable cause of illness and premature death in the United States is: a. cigarette smoking. b. illegal drug use. c. alcohol abuse. d. drug-related murders
answer
a. cigarette smoking.
question
Smokeless tobacco: a. increases CVD risk. b. causes lung cancers. c. decreases blood pressure. d. decreases heart rate.
answer
a. increases CVD risk.
question
The American Cancer Society reports that _____ of the leading cancer killers is attributable to smoking. a. 100% b. 50% c. 87% d. 34%
answer
c. 87%
question
The American Psychiatric Association and the National Institute on Drug Abuse have indicated that _____ is perhaps the most addictive drug known to humans. a. cocaine b. caffeine c. nicotine d. alcohol
answer
c. nicotine
question
John decided to quit smoking by following the 7-step plan presented in your text. Which of the following would be John's first step? a. John decides positively that he really wants to quit. b. John initiates a personal diet and exercise program. c. John keeps a daily log of his smoking habit for a few days. d. John decides on the approach he will use to stop smoking.
answer
a. John decides positively that he really wants to quit.
question
The United States has the _____ of sexually transmitted diseases of the countries in the industrialized world. a. lowest rate b. highest rate c. most active strains d. least deadly combination
answer
b. highest rate
question
The most prevalent STI in the United States is: a. genital herpes. b. gonorrhea. c. chlamydia. d. syphilis.
answer
c. chlamydia.
question
Which of the following can be treated with oral antibiotics? a. chlamydia b. HIV/AIDS c. genital warts d. herpes
answer
a. chlamydia
question
When the STI spreads to the fallopian tubes, uterus, and ovaries, _____ develops. a. AIDS b. HIV c. PID d. HPV
answer
c. PID
question
Gardasil is a vaccine developed to prevent cervical cancer and other diseases in women caused by HPV. Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. To get the full benefits of the vaccine, women should get it once they become sexually active. b. It is most effective in women who have been infected with the four HPV types covered by the vaccine. c. It protects against more than 30 HPV types that cause cervical cancers and genital warts. d. It protects against four HPV types that cause cervical cancers and genital warts.
answer
d. It protects against four HPV types that cause cervical cancers and genital warts.
question
Chlamydia: a. presents symptoms immediately. b. can damage the reproductive system. c. cannot be treated successfully. d. is caused by a viral infection.
answer
b. can damage the reproductive system.
question
If untreated, gonorrhea can cause: a. blindness, heart disease, brain damage, and insanity. b. blindness in children born to infected women. c. repeated outbreaks of sores in the genitals and rectum. d. severe acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.
answer
b. blindness in children born to infected women.
question
Pelvic inflammatory disease: a. is caused by untreated genital herpes. b. develops when chlamydia spreads to the ovaries. c. is truly a sexually transmitted infection. d. is a complication resulting from HIV infection.
answer
b. develops when chlamydia spreads to the ovaries.
question
Chlamydia can lead to: a. insanity. b. arthritis. c. paralysis. d. cancers.
answer
b. arthritis.
question
Genital warts may lead to _____ cancer. a. breast b. prostate c. testicular d. cervical
answer
d. cervical
question
Death in some people infected with HIV is the direct result of: a. a weakened immune system. b. the human immunodeficiency virus. c. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. d. Pneumocystis carinii (pneumonia).
answer
d. Pneumocystis carinii (pneumonia).
question
People get HIV because of: a. where they live. b. who they are. c. how they look. d. what they do.
answer
d. what they do.
question
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding HIV/AIDS? a. Almost none of AIDS cases in the U.S. occur in homosexual men. b. HIV infection is spreading only among homosexuals and bisexuals. c. HIV is an epidemic that does not discriminate by sexual orientation. d. Heterosexual practice prevents individuals from getting HIV infection.
answer
c. HIV is an epidemic that does not discriminate by sexual orientation.
question
The best guarantee against HIV infection is to: a. use condoms consistently and correctly. b. have sex only with people you know. c. postpone sexual activity until marriage. d. have a monogamous sexual relationship.
answer
c. postpone sexual activity until marriage.
