Mammography Registry Review – Flashcards
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BSE involves
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Looking & feeling for changes in the breast
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CBE is a check of the breast by who?
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Qualified healthcare professional
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ACS recommends women 20 & older perform BSE
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Every month
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Women 20-39 should have a CBE how often?
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Every 3 years
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Women 40 & older should have screen mammo & CBE how often?
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Every year
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Thorough clinical exam will:
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Locate lumps/suspicious areas Nipple changes Skin changes in breast Lymph nodes n armpit & above collarbone
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Medical/family history provides:
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Symptoms & risk factors for breast cancer & benign breast conditions; questions about other health problems
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Effectiveness & sensitivity of mammogram ------- with age.
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Increases
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Average glandular dose of screen-film mammogram with grid
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0.1-0.2 rad
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Biggest risk factor for breast cancer
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Gender
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High risk factors
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Age Genes-brCA1&2... Close blood relative Personal hx breast ca
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Moderate risk factors
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1st degree relative w breast ca Atypical hyperplasia on biopsy High rad dose to chest High bone density after menopause
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Minor risk factors
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No child bearing or after 30 Not breast feeding Early menarche/late menopause Post menopausal obesity Long term use HRT/contraceptive Alcohol consumption Obesity
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Examples of benign breast disease
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Painful cyst Nipple discharge Only detected on mammo: Ca+, circumscribed tumors, lesions, asymmetric densities, skin thickening
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2 main classes breast cancer
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Ductal Lobular
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Most common breast cancer 90% all cases?
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Ductal carcinoma
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Stage 0 carcinoma, confined to duct
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DCIS
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Cancer has spread from ducts into surrounding stromal tissue & possibly pectoral fascia/ muscle
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Invasive/infiltrating Ductal carcinoma
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Lobular carcinoma accounts for --- to ----% all breast cancers
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5-10
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Not seen on mammo in 50% cases, abnormal cells grow w/in lobules not penetrating lobule walls
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Lobular carcinoma in situ
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Difficult to perceive on mammo, may show as spider web or cause skin retraction
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Invasive lobular carcinoma
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Other breast carcinomas account for less than 10% & have ----- prognosis than infiltrating Ductal/lobular cancers
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Better
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Single most effective tool in detection breast cancer
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Mammogram
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Describe malignant asymmetric density on mammogram
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Speculated/stellate lesion w solid central tumor & radiating structures
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Malignant circumscribed lesions
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Ill-defined & high density radiopaque, except few rare are low density
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Ductal ca+
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Granular or casting type Ca+ & usually appear in clusters
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2 types mammography screening
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Conventional-analog Digital-w cassette or wo
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2 types digital detectors
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Direct Indirect (Both are cassette-less)
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Uses high frequency sound waves & based on pizoelectric effect
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U/S
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Highly vascular lesions are often
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Malignant
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MRI based on magnetic properties of ----- ------- in the body.
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Hydrogen atoms
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--------- --------- ----------- involves injecting contrast while breast is under compression
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Contrast digital mammography
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Dual energy subtraction used for what 3 reasons?
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Enhance masses Eliminate obscuring structures Separate soft tissue from contrast or Ca+ deposits
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3 types nuclear medicine studies used w/mammography
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PET Breast scintigraphy Lymphoscintigraphy
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PET imaging uses ------ based on the need that cancer cells have for sugar
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FDG-fluorodeoxyglucose
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Breast scintigraphy aka ------- Or by the trade name -------.
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Scintimammography Miraluma
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Breast scintigraphy uses what isotope? What kind of camera?
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Tc-99m sestamibi Gamma
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_______ can be used to reduce blind dissection of axillary nodes & resultant side effects
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Lymphoscintigraphy
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Lymphoscintigraphy aka
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Sentinel node mapping
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Lymphoscintigraphy uses injection of radio isotope where?
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Around the tumor
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Principle behind Lymphoscintigraphy
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First node, sentinel node, receives drainage from a tumor & can be used to predict presence or absence of tumor in remaining nodes
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Technology that uses 11 low dose images taken during 7-11 seconds; x-ray tube rotates 50 deg. arc around breast
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Digital tomosynthesis
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which technology produces high resolution 3D , cross section images of breast?
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Digital tomosynthesis
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CT laser mammography based on what principle?
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angiogenesis
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______ involves removal of content of cyst and is often performed under u/s guidance
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cyst aspiration
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FNA ideal for cyst eval. and aspiration. Uses ___ to ____ gauge needle
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22-25
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which breast intervention usually requires a cytotechnologist eval of sample
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Fine needle aspiration
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3 treatments for breast cancer
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surgery, drugs (chemo/hormone therapy), radiation therapy
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_________ removes breast tissue and some of underarm lymph nodes
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modified radical mastectomy
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_______ is removal of entire breast
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mastectomy
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which mastectomy removes entire breast, lymph nodes, and chest wall muscles?
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radical mastectomy (RARELY PERFORMED)
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most breast conserving surgery
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lumpectomy
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two common types of flap techniques
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TRAM, latissimus dorsi flap
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more common form of radiation treatment
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external beam
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internal beam radiation usually lasts ______ to ____ days and can begin _____ after surgery.
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7-9; day
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how long does external beam radiation usually last? and how long after surgery can it begin?
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5-7 weeks; 1 month after surgery
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which of 3 treatments is systemic treatment?
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chemotherapy (affects all cells of body)
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common antiestrogen drug
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tamoxifen
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antiestrogen drug less toxic than tamoxifen?
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raloxifene
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SERMS
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selective estrogen receptor modulators
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3 uses of hormonal treatment using SERMS
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prevent estrogen from latching onto tumor cell receptors shrink/stop recurrence of breast cancer lower risks breast cancer in postmenopausal women
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2 newer flap techniques
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DIEP; gluteal free
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____ used to evaluate nipple discharge, duct expansion, defects, or irregularities
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ductography
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_____ is prelude to surgical biopsy & necessary if stereo localization not available
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preop localization
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pre op localization can be performed w/which modalities
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mammo u/s
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______ biopsy recommended with lesions that are difficult to approach or close to breast surface.
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open surgical
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which intervention can be used to confirm finding of FNA or FNB
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open surgical biopsy
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_____ uses 22-25 g needle to remove cell samples from nonpalpable lesions for cytological analysis.; often used with stereo localization
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FNB-fine needle biopsy
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Method of locating nonpalpable lesions by using computer to calculate precise location.
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Stereotactic breast localization/biopsy
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Intensity of x-ray beam is less on _____ side of tube due to _____ effect.
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anode; anode heel
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Cathode side of x-ray tube is always directed to the _______, the thickest area of the breast.
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base
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Material used for exit port or window of x-ray tube
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borosilicate glass or beryllium (Be)
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Why is the exit window of x-ray tube NOT made of regular glass?
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regular glass window would harden the emerging beam by eliminating soft characteristic radiation
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KVp range will depend on ______ material available
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target/filtration
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How does Kvp range affect contrast?
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contrast higher in thinner breast; lower in thicker breast
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Increased kvp allows ____ dose but reduced _____
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lower; contrast
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The ______-_____ combination will essentially shape the x-ray beam, providing the necessary kvp range to penetrate dense/fatty breasts.
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target-filter
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older mammography generators were _______.
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three phase
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All modern generators are _________.
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high frequency generators
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Common target/filter combo: molybdenum target with _____ mm molybdenum filtration or 0.05 mm rhodium filtration.
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0.03
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Common target/filter combo: rhodium target with _____mm rhodium filtration
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0.025
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Common target/filter combo: molybdenum and tungsten alloy target with ____ or ____ filtration
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molybdenum; rhodium
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Common target/filter combo: molybdenum and rhodium alloy target with _____ or _____ filtration
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molybdenum; rhodium
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Common target/filter combo: tungsten target and _____ or rhodium filtration (some digital units)
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silver
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Flat surface of compression paddle must be ____ to IR
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parallel
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Chest wall of compression paddle should not extend beyond chest wall edge of IR by more than ____% of SID
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2
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Lip of compression paddle should have a _____ angle at the chest wall
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right
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lip along the chest wall should be ---to---- cm in height
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2-4
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True or False: A shadow of vertical edge of compression paddle should not be visible on the image
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True
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Recommended focal spot sizes in mammography are ___ (smaller/routine work) & ____(magnification).
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0.4mm; 0.15mm
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Most commonly used focal spot size for routine work
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0.3mm
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most commonly used focal spot size for magnification
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0.1mm
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Size and shape of focal spot size are determined by what 3 things?
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size and shape electron beam hitting anode design and relationship filament coil to focusing cup angle of anode
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In mammography, the aim is to have the _____ focal spot with the ____SID
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smallest; longest
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SID in mammo is fixed
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50-80cm
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_____ cassette systems are used in mammography to provide the best spatial resolution
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single-screen
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AEC controls length of exposure and determines___ of the final image
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density
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Two types AEC found in modern mammography
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ionization chamber; phototimer
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Underexposure occurs when the AEC cell is not placed over the _____ area of the breast.
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densest
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Magnification will _____ scatter and as the mag factor increases, pt. skin dose ____.
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reduce; increases
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Magnification causes ____ in image resolution; compensated by_____
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decrease; small focal spot size
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Common magnification factor is 1.5; others can be 1.6, 1.7,____, or ____.
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1.85; 2x
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Factors affecting image quality: _____ due to long exposure times poor ______ contact increased ______ decreased______ increase in _____ size relationship bw OID & ______ characteristics of _____
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motion screen-film OID SID focal spot SID screen
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Faster screens have _____ spatial resolution
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lower
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Mammography films are _____ emulsion and ____ contrast
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single; high
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High contrast films generally have limited ______ latitude
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exposure
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______ screen cassette systems are used in mammography to provide best spatial resolution
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single
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two common types of film processors for mammography
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standard 90 sec. processing extended processing
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extended processing extends ______ to improve image contrast and reduce pt. dose
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developing time
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Factors affecting film processing include (3)
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developer time developer temp chemistry composition (developer and fixer)
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Grids are used to improve radiographic contrast by ______ the amount scattered radiation that reaches the IR.
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decreasing
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The use of grids will ALWAYS result in ______ dose to the patient.
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increased
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Mammography grids are ______ than conventional radiography grids
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thinner
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interspace material
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carbon fiber; wood
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Grid strip is made of ______
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lead
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mammography grid ratios
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3:1; 5:1
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grid frequency
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30-50 lines/cm
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_____ focused grid-movement in ____ direction only and focused to SID
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Linear; one
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HTC (high-transmission cellular) grid: _____grid that reduces scatter in2 directions ___ as grid strip _____ as interspace material ____ grid ration
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crossed copper air 3.8:1
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Cones, collimators, and diaphragms are known as ____ ____ devices
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beam restricting or limiting
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Collimation should not extend beyond any edge of IR by more than ___ % of SID
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2
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Decreasing the x-ray field will require _____ in exposure to maintain constant density
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increase
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2 main digital mammography systems
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cassette-based; cassette-less
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cassette-less systems can be considered to be___ or ____ conversion systems
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direct; indirect
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_____ _____ is the flat-panel detector often used in the direct system
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amorphous selenium
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____ ____ ____ arrays are used to transfer electronic signals from the selenium photoconductor to a computer
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thin-film transistor (TFT)
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In cassette-based systems, the imaging plate has a ______ ______ with an active ingredient-europium-activated barium fluorohalide which is activated when exposed to x-rays
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photostimulable phosphor
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In all digital systems, the spatial resolution will depend on ______.
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pixel size
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_______ is the smallest discrete picture element of an image, usually a single dot
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pixel
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Increased pixel size will _____ resolution and increase ____.
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increase; noise
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______ prereads the mammograms, identifying areas of suspicion or areas needing additional workup
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CAD
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picture archiving and communication system, enables teleradiography and filmless libraries which can be accessed via telephone, internet, or off-site location
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PACS
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Digital systems approved by FDA
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GE Senographe 2000D Fischer Imaging SenoScan LoRad Digital Breast Imager Hologic/LoRad Selenia FFDM system GE Senographe DS Siemens Mammomat Novation DR GE Senographe Essentials Fuji Computed Radiography Mammography Suite (FCRMS)
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Guidelines for QA and processor quality control are determined by _____ & _____
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MQSA; ACR
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Darkroom cleanliness
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daily
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processor qc
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daily
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mobile unit qc
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daily
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screen cleaning
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weekly
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analysis of fixer retention in film
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quarterly
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darkroom fog
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semiannually
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screen-film contact
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semiannually
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monitor cleaning
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Daily
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compression indicator
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weekly
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laser imager test (including SMPTE detector calibration/flat field)
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weekly
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SNR & CNR, MTF
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weekly
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Automatic optimization of parameters (AOP)
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monthly
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Monitor calibration and SMPTE pattern
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weekly
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viewboxes and viewing conditions
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weekly
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phantom images
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weekly
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visual checklist
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monthly
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repeat/reject analysis
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quarterly
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compression test
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semiannually
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review of medical physicist's survey report
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annually
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The ____ must perform all the manufacturer-recommended digital qc test.
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medical physicist
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Primary responsibility of interpreting radiologist
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interpreting the mammography and ensuring that they are of optimal diagnostic quality
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______ responsible for yearly review of medical audit with lead qc mammographer
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radiologist
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Minimizes artifacts on radiographs caused by bits of dirt, dust or food b/w screen and film
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darkroom cleanliness
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confirms and verifies that processor chemical system is working properly according to specifications
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processor quality control
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processor qc should be carried out _____
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daily, at beginning of day before processing any films
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instruments for processor qc
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21 step sensitometer; densitometer
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processor qc records should be saved for how long?
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1 year
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sensitometric images saved for how long?
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last full month
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ensures screens are free of dust or potential artifacts
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screen cleanliness
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screen cleanliness performed how often?
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weekly and anytime dust or artifacts noted by mammographer or radiologist
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mammography viewboxes should have luminance level of at least
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3000 cd/m2
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purpose of phantom images
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to ensure that image density, contrast, uniformity, and quality are maintained at optimum levels
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thickness of mammo phantom
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4-4.5 cm
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phantom should have a ____ mm thick acrylic disc
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4
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Mammo phantom should always be viewed by same 5 things
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person, view box, viewing conditions, type magnifying glass, time of day
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_____ ensures mechanical integrity and safety of mammo equipment and accessory devices
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visual checklist
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visual check list includes (4)
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indicator lights, displays, mechanical locks, detents
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Overall repeat rate should not exceed ____% but rate lower than ___% is acceptable once QA program is operational
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2; 5
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To be statistically meaningful, a volume of ______ patients needs to be measured.
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250
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Purpose of fixer retention in film analysis
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determine quantity of residual fixer (hypo) in processed film
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If there's an excess of hypo retained on film, what has to be done?
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processor wash tanks and water flow rates and fixer replenishment rates must be assessed
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Materials for darkroom fog test
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mammo or routine x-ray unit, densitometer, radiopaque card, watch or timer
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screen-film contact will influence image _____.
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sharpness
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which test requires use of copper wire mesh screen of at least 40 wires/in grid density?
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screen/film contact and identification
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Optical density of final image should be b/w _____ when measured near chest wall side of film.
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0.7-0.8
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Any cassette having a large area (>1cm in diameter) of poor contact that cannot be eliminated must____.
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be replaced.
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Multiple small areas of poor contact (less than 1cm) are considered ______.
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acceptable
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Adequate compression ranges from ----to---- in automatic mode
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25-45 lb (111-200 NEWTON)
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the initial automatic compression should not exceed ____
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45 lb pressure
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______ act was enacted on October 27, 1992
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MQSA
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Only organizations authorized to issue MQSA certification
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FDA; SAC (States as Certifiers)
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Mammograms and medical records of patients must be kept for a period of not less than ____ years or not less than ____ if no additional mammos of pt. performed at the facility
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5; 10
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Records (mammography report) must include (5)
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pt name additional pt. identifier date of exam name of radiologist interpreting mammo final assessment finding
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All facilitIes must send each patient a summary of mammography report written in lay terms within ____ days of the exam.
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30.
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Concerned findings must be sent within ___ to ___ days
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3; 5
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____ or ____results are acceptable
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verbal; written
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Most commonly used assessment category
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BIRAD
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HIPAA
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Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
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How does HIPPA affect medical audit and why?
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does NOT; bc MQSA documentation patient information can be released w/o pt. authorization
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Film in CR and DR has been replaced by ____
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storage phosphor screen
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other names for storage phosphor screen
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image recorder (IR), image plate (IP), photostimulable phosphor (PSP)
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Before a mammography facility can legally perform mammograms, it must ____.
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be certified
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Provisional certification (for 6 mo) is usually issued by _____as soon as the accreditation has been accepted.
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FDA
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which test checks communication bw AWS, detector, and printer
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SMPTE
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_____ checks auto-timing with auto kVp and or auto selection of target and filter
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AOP-automatic optimization of parameters
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SNR/CNR check ensures_____ and checks consistency of ____
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contrast is within acceptable range; CNR
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flat field calibration checks image quality of detector including (5)
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brightness nonuniformity; high frequency modulation HFM SNR nonuniformity bad ROI bad pixel verification
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_______ verifies consistent quality of images acquired by detector and displayed on AWS monitor/printer
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phantom test on monitor/printer
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Breasts are ____ glands of reproductive system with ____ function.
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accessory; secreting milk for newborn
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Areola contains many small protrusions on its surface called____ ______.
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Morgagni tubercles
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Nipple contains ___to____ orifices (collecting ducts) that transfer milk from _____ _____.
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15-20; lactiferous ducts
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____ _____ (layer of adipose tissue and connective fascia) separates breast from pectoral muscle
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retromammary space
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____ _____ are the supportive structures of breast
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coopers ligaments
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Breast receives its arterial supply from branches of ____ _____ & ____ ____
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internal mammary; lateral thoracic arteries
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Venous network under nipple drains into _____ and ____ mammary veins
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axillary; internal
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Primary lymphatic drainage of breast is to the ____.
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axilla
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Majority of normal axillary lymph nodes is less than _____ and has kidney shaped appearance
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2 cm
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Average female breast consists of ____ lobes containing glandular lobules.
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15-20
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Majority of breast diseases occur in ______
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TDLUs (terminal duct lobular units)
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Five categories of malignant and benign lesions
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circular/oval spiculate/stellate calcifications thickened skin syndrome como of any of these 2 or more
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____ _____ have a distinct central mass
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malignant stellate/spiculated
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3 basic forms of malignant calcifications
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casting granular powderlike
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characteristics of malignant circular/oval lesions
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high density; smooth or lobulated and randomly orientated
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_____ lesions are commonly associated with malignant type calcifications
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malignant speculated/stellate lesions
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fine linear branching Ca+ seen as linear, fragmented or occasionally branching Ca+ with irregular contours
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casting type Ca+
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Multiple clusters of powderlike Ca+
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powderlike Ca+
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Granular type Ca+ resemble _____ and are usually grouped close together in single/multiple clusters
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sugar or crushed stone
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______ _____ are irregular in form, size and density
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granular type Ca+
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If spicules reach skin or muscle, it may cause _____.
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localized skin thickening or skin dimpling (retraction)
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sharp, dense, fine lines of variable length radiating in all directions
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malignant stellate/spiculated lesions
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_______ conditions may cause skin thickening
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benign or malignant
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skin thickening syndrome will cause skin to appear obviously thickened, generally in ______ portion of breast.
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lower dependent
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example of radiolucent, benign circular/oval lesion
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oil cyst, lipoma, galactocele
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Benign circuular/oval lesion (radiolucent and radiopaque combined)
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lymph node, hematoma, fibroadenolipoma, galactocele
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capsule which is a thin curved radiopaque line surrounding (benign circular)
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fibroadenoma
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benign spherical or ovoid with smooth borders aligned in direction of nipple
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cyst
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example of circular benign lesion with low density
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fibroadenoma, cyst
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circular benign lesion with halo sign
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cyst
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other benign circular lesions
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abscess, calcified hematoma, sebaceous cyst
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characteristics of benign spiculated lesions
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NO solid, dense or distinct central mass NEVER associated with skin thickening/retraction very fine linear densities translucent oval area at center
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______ is an exception and can appear as a benign spiculated lesion presenting with skin retraction/thickening
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traumatic fat necrosis
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example of benign spiculated lesion with translucent oval center
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radial scar
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very fine linear densities or lower density spicules
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radial scars; traumatic fat necrosis
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characteristics of benign Ca+
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smooth contours high uniform density evenly scattered homogenous sharply outlined, spherical/oval pear like ringlike, hollow eggshell like large size, bizarre shape bilat and evenly scattered following course of ducts
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plasma cell mastitis
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smooth contour, high uniform density, BENIGN Ca+
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(benign) Ca+ arteries
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evenly scattered homogenous
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(benign ca+)sharply outlined, spherical or oval
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Ca+ hematoma
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(benign ca+)pear like, resemble tea cups or pearl drops on lateral projection
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milk of Ca+
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ringlike hollow (benign ca+)
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sebaceous gland
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eggshell like appearance (benign ca+)
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oil cyst/ papilloma
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large size, bizarre shape (benign Ca+)
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hemangiomas
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bilat and evenly scattered following course of ducts throughout parenchyma (benign ca+)
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plasma cell mastitis