Try 2_Kaplan_Test 2 – Flashcards
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Which of the following statements about the CFA Institute's Professional Conduct Program (PCP) is least accurate? A) Possible sanctions include condemnation by a member's peers or suspension of a candidate's participation in the CFA Program. B) If the PCP staff determine that a sanction against a member is warranted, the member must either accept the sanction or lose the right to use the CFA designation. C) Members who cooperate with a PCP inquiry by providing confidential client information to PCP staff are not in violation of Standard III(E) Preservation of Confidentiality.
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B) If the PCP staff determine that a sanction against a member is warranted, the member must either accept the sanction or lose the right to use the CFA designation. Members can accept or reject a disciplinary sanction proposed by the Professional Conduct Program staff. If the member rejects the sanction, the matter is referred to a hearing before a disciplinary review panel of CFA Institute members. The other statements are accurate.
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Doug Watson, CFA, serves in a sales position at Sommerset Brokerage, a registered investment adviser. As part of his employment, he is expected to entertain clients. Frequently at these client outings, Watson drinks excessively. On one occasion, after dropping off a client, Watson was cited by local police for misdemeanor public intoxication. According to the Standard on knowledge of the law and the Standard on misconduct, Watson is in violation of: A) both of these Standards. B) neither of these Standards. C) only one of these Standards.
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B) neither of these Standards. Watson's excessive drinking is unfortunate but we have no evidence that it has affected his work, professional integrity, judgment, or reputation. His arrest for public intoxication occurred while he was away from work. If he commits an act involving fraud or dishonesty, he would violate the Standard on misconduct.
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Which of the following is least likely included in the CFA Code of Ethics? Members of CFA Institute must: A) place their clients' interests before their employer's interests. B) strive to maintain and improve the competence of others in the profession. C) use reasonable care and exercise independent professional judgment.
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A) place their clients' interests before their employer's interests. The requirement that members and candidates place their clients' interests before their employer's or their own is in Standard III(A) Loyalty, Prudence, and Care. The other choices are included in the CFA Institute Code of Ethics.
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Dudley Thompson is a bond salesman for a small broker/dealer in London. His firm is the lead underwriter on a new junk bond issue for Ibex Corporation, and Thompson has sent details of the offering to clients. Thompson calls only his accounts over £1,000,000 for whom he thinks the issue is suitable. Thompson also posts his firm's optimistic projections for Ibex's performance in several Internet chat rooms. According to the Standards concerning market manipulation and fair dealing, Thompson is in violation of: A) both of these Standards. B) neither of these Standards. C) only one of these Standards.
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B) neither of these Standards. Thompson has not violated Standard II(B) Market Manipulation by posting his firm's projections for Ibex. A firm's recommendation of a security may increase its price without any intent to mislead the market. The firm has disseminated the details of the offering to its clients fairly, so Thompson may call individual clients without violating the Standard III(B) Fair Dealing.
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Antonio Mendoza, CFA, an investment manager operating as AM Investments, solicits new business by making brief presentations at which he makes available a single-page information sheet that summarizes his performance history for the past 10 years. On the sheet, Mendoza has his phone number for those who would like more information along with the statement, "AM Investments has prepared and presented this report in compliance with the Global Investment Performance Standards (GIPS®)." Mendoza's brief presentation and information sheet most likely: A) violate the Standard regarding performance presentation. B) comply with both GIPS and the Standard regarding performance presentation. C) do not comply with GIPS but comply with the Standard regarding performance presentation.
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B) comply with both GIPS and the Standard regarding performance presentation. Mendoza has not violated the Standards of Practice or GIPS. Because the presentation was introductory and brief, Mendoza was not required to give any supporting documentation, but he made it available to clients and prospective clients upon request. His claim of GIPS compliance on the information sheet is appropriate.
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Anne Franklin, CFA, who covers technology stocks, joins a conference call for analysts presented by Cynthia Lucas, chief technology officer for LevelTech. Lucas tells the analysts that overseas shipments of the company's important new product are going to be delayed due to manufacturing defects, which is new information to the analysts. After the meeting Franklin changes her rating on LevelTech from "buy" to "hold" and sends a note to accounts recommending the sale of LevelTech. Franklin: A) did not violate the Standards. B) violated the Standard on nonpublic information by revising her rating on LevelTech. C) violated the Standard on fair dealing by rating the stock a "hold" but recommending sale of the shares to her accounts.
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B) violated the Standard on nonpublic information by revising her rating on LevelTech. Telling a selected group of analysts new information does not constitute public disclosure, and therefore acting or causing others to act on this information is a violation of Standard II(A) Material Nonpublic Information. Recommending the sale of a stock rated as a "hold" is not a violation of Standard III(B) Fair Dealing.
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According to the recommended procedures for complying with the Standard on suitability, which of the following statements regarding an investment policy statement (IPS) is least accurate? A) An IPS should describe the roles and responsibilities of both the adviser and the client. B) A member or candidate is not responsible for financial information withheld by the client. C) A client's IPS must be updated at least quarterly to reflect any changes in their investment profile.
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C) A client's IPS must be updated at least quarterly to reflect any changes in their investment profile. Standard III(C) Suitability requires that members and candidates update client information (the IPS) at least annually. The IPS can be updated more frequently if there are significant changes in the investment strategy or client characteristics.
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Compared to a t-distribution with 10 degrees of freedom, and compared to a normal distribution, a t-distribution with 20 degrees of freedom and the same variance has: Compared to df = 10 Compared to normal A) thinner tails fatter tails B) fatter tails thinner tails C) fatter tails fatter tails
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A) thinner tails fatter tails A t-distribution with sufficiently high degrees of freedom is approximately normal and a normal distribution has thinner tails compared to a t-distribution. The less the degrees of freedom, the fatter the tails.
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The "up-move factor" in a binomial tree is best described as: A) the probability that the variable increases in any period. B) one minus the "down-move factor" for the binomial tree. C) one plus the percentage change in the variable when it increases.
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C) one plus the percentage change in the variable when it increases. The up-move factor equals one plus the percentage increase when the variable goes up, and the down-move factor is equal to one divided by the up-move factor.
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Jane Acompora is calculating equivalent annualized yields based on the 1.3% holding period yield of a 90-day loan. The correct ordering of the annual money market yield (MMY), effective yield (EAY), and bond equivalent yield (BEY) is: A) MMY < EAY < BEY. B) MMY < BEY < EAY. C) BEY < EAY < MMY.
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B) MMY < BEY < EAY. No calculations are really necessary here since the MMY involves no compounding and a 360-day year, the BEY requires compounding the quarterly HPR to a semiannual rate and doubling that rate, and the EAY requires compounding for the entire year based on a 365-day year. A numerical example of these calculations based on a 90-day holding period yield of 1.3% is: the money market yield is 1.3% × 360 / 90 = 5.20%, the bond equivalent yield is 2 × [1.013182.5 / 90 - 1] = 0.0531 = 5.31%, which is two times the effective semiannual rate of return, and the effective annual yield is 1.013 365 / 90 - 1 = 0.0538 = 5.38%. Calculating the semiannual effective yield using 180 days instead of 182.5 does not change the order.
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Shortfall risk is best described as the probability: A) of a credit rating downgrade due to possible earnings shortfalls. B) of failing to make a contractually promised payment. C) that portfolio value will fall below some minimum level at a future date.
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C) that portfolio value will fall below some minimum level at a future date. Choice A is downgrade risk; choice B is default risk.
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If a two-tailed hypothesis test has a 5% probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when the null is true, it is most likely that the: A) power of the test is 95%. B) confidence level of the test is 95%. C) probability of a Type I error is 2.5%.
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B) confidence level of the test is 95%. Rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true is a Type I error. The probability of a Type I error is the significance level of the test and one minus the significance level is the confidence level. The power of a test is one minus the probability of a Type II error, which cannot be calculated from the information given.
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A business cycle theory developed by applying utility theory and budget constraints to macroeconomic models is most closely associated with which school of economic thought? A) Austrian. B) New Classical. C) New Keynesian.
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B) New Classical. Real business cycle theory, which derives from applying utility theory and budget constraints to macroeconomic models, is associated with the New Classical school.
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Consider the following foreign exchange and interest rate information: Spot rate: 1.3382 USD/EUR. One year riskless USD rate = 2.5%. One year riskless EUR rate = 3.5%. The one-year arbitrage-free forward exchange rate is closest to: A) 1.2391 USD/EUR. B) 1.3253 USD/EUR. C) 1.3513 USD/EUR.
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B) 1.3253 USD/EUR. Arbitrage-free forward rate = 1.3382 USD/EUR × (1.025 / 1.035) = 1.3253 USD/EUR.
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A central bank's ability to achieve its policy goals is most likely to be limited by available resources when which of the following actual rates is below its target rate? A) Interest rate. B) Inflation rate. C) Exchange rate.
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C) Exchange rate. With exchange rate targeting, a central bank's ability to increase the value of the domestic currency is limited by the amount of foreign reserves the country has available to buy its own currency in the foreign exchange market. While inflation targeting and interest rate targeting have limitations (e.g., liquidity trap conditions may exist, interest rates are bounded by zero), the central bank's resources are not typically a limitation.
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Which of the following statements regarding the money supply and determination of short-term interest rates is least accurate? A) On balance, growth in real GDP tends to increase the transactional demand for money. B) If the short-term interest rate is greater than the equilibrium rate, there will be excess supply of real money balances. C) An increase in the real money supply from an initial equilibrium situation will cause households and businesses to sell interestbearing securities.
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C) An increase in the real money supply from an initial equilibrium situation will cause households and businesses to sell interestbearing securities. From an initial equilibrium, an increase in real money balances will leave households and businesses with more money than they wish to hold, so they will purchase interest-bearing securities, driving their prices up and yields down until a new equilibrium short-term rate is established
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What are the most likely effects on aggregate demand in the current period of an increase in expected future incomes and of an increase in the money supply? A) Both increase aggregate demand. B) Both decrease aggregate demand. C) One increases aggregate demand and one decreases aggregate demand.
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A) Both increase aggregate demand. An increase in expected future incomes will cause consumers to increase current expenditures (reduce current savings) in anticipation of the higher future incomes. An increase in the money supply will tend to decrease interest rates which will lead to increased consumer spending on durable goods and increased investment by businesses. Both effects increase aggregate demand.
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The source of comparative advantage, according to the Heckscher-Ohlin model of international trade, is each country's: A) labor productivity. B) available natural resources. C) relative amounts of labor and capital.
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C) relative amounts of labor and capital. In the Heckscher-Ohlin model, the source of comparative advantage is the relative amounts of labor and capital that are available in each country. Countries with more capital available relative to labor available will have a comparative advantage in producing capital-intensive goods, while countries with more labor available relative to capital will have a comparative advantage in labor-intensive goods.
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Which of the following statements about nonrecurring items is most accurate? A) The correction of an accounting error is reported net of taxes below extraordinary items on the income statement. B) Discontinued operations are classified as unusual or infrequent and are reported as a component of net income from continuing operations. C) Uninsured losses from earthquakes and expropriations by foreign governments can be classified as extraordinary items under U.S. GAAP but not under IFRS.
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C) Uninsured losses from earthquakes and expropriations by foreign governments can be classified as extraordinary items under U.S. GAAP but not under IFRS. These are examples of items that are typically treated as extraordinary under U.S. GAAP. There is no provision for accounting for an item as extraordinary under IFRS. Accounting errors are corrected with prior-period adjustments, which are made by restating results for any prior periods that are presented in the current financial statements. Discontinued operations are not classified as unusual or infrequent items and are reported (net of taxes) after net income from continuing operations but before net income.
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A company has a cash conversion cycle of 80 days. If the company's average receivables turnover increases from 11 to 12, the company's cash conversion cycle: A) decreases by approximately 3 days. B) increases by approximately 3 days. C) decreases by approximately 1 day.
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A) decreases by approximately 3 days. Cash conversion cycle (CCC) = days of sales outstanding + days of inventory on hand - number of days of payables. Days of sales outstanding = 365 / receivables turnover = 365 / 11 = 33.18; 365 / 12 = 30.42. This means the CCC decreases by 2.76 days.
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Which of the following is most likely a motivation for a company's management to issue low-quality financial reports? A) Management has provided optimistic earnings guidance. B) Oversight provided by the board of directors is weak or inadequate. C) Accounting principles permit a wide range of acceptable treatments and estimates.
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A) Management has provided optimistic earnings guidance. Meeting or exceeding its own earnings guidance is a possible motivation for management to issue low-quality financial reports. Inadequate board oversight and wide ranges of acceptable accounting treatments are more appropriately viewed as opportunities for issuing low-quality financial reports.
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Which of the following effects is most likely to occur when using ratio screens for high dividend yield stocks and low P/E stocks, respectively? High dividend yield Low P/E ratios A) Include too many financial service firms Exclude too many growth firms B) Exclude too many financial service firms Include too many growth firms C) Include too many financial service firms Include too many growth firms
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A) Include too many financial service firms Exclude too many growth firms Screening for high dividend yield stocks will likely include a disproportionately high number of financial services firms as such firms typically have higher dividend payouts. A screen to identify firms with low P/E ratios will likely exclude growth firms from the sample as high expected earnings growth leads to high P/Es.
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The ratio of operating cash flow to net income is least likely to indicate low quality of earnings when it is: A) less than one. B) declining over time. C) highly variable.
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C) highly variable. A ratio that is highly variable, but consistently greater than one, is not necessarily indicative of low-quality earnings. Operating cash flow that is less than net income (ratio less than one) or declining over time may indicate low quality earnings from aggressive accounting or accounting irregularities.
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A firm that reports under IFRS is producing under a long-term contract for which it cannot measure the outcome reliably. In the first year of the contract, the firm has spent €300,000 and collected €200,000 in cash. What amounts related to this contract should the firm recognize on its income statement for the year? A) Revenue of €300,000, expenses of €300,000, and no profit. B) No revenue, expenses, or profit until the contract is completed. C) Revenue of €200,000, expenses of €300,000, and a loss of €100,000.
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A) Revenue of €300,000, expenses of €300,000, and no profit. Under IFRS, if the outcome of a long-term contract cannot be estimated reliably, the firm should expense costs when incurred, recognize revenue to the extent of the costs, and recognize profit only when the contract is complete. The firm does not need to recognize a loss when expenses are greater than cash collected, but would need to recognize a loss if it determined that a loss on the contract was likely.
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Which of the following statements about the role of depreciable lives and salvage values in the computation of depreciation expenses for financial reporting is most accurate? A) The estimated useful life of the same depreciable asset should be the same regardless of which company owns the asset. B) Companies are specifically required to disclose data about estimated salvage values in the footnotes to the financial statements. C) Depreciable lives and salvage values are chosen by management and allow for the possibility of income manipulation.
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C) Depreciable lives and salvage values are chosen by management and allow for the possibility of income manipulation. Useful lives and salvage values of long-lived assets are management estimates that may vary among companies. Companies typically do not disclose data about estimated salvage values, except when estimates are changed.
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A company's investments in marketable securities include a 3-year taxexempt bond classified as held-to-maturity and a 5-year Treasury note classified as available-for-sale. On its income statement, the company should report the coupon interest received from: A) both of these securities. B) neither of these securities. C) only one of these securities.
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A) both of these securities. Interest and dividends received are reported as income, regardless of the balance sheet classification of marketable securities.
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Acme Corp. purchased a new stamping machine for $100,000, paid $10,000 for shipping, and paid $5,000 to have it installed in their plant. Based on an estimated salvage value of $25,000 and an economic life of six years, the difference between straight-line depreciation and double-declining balance depreciation in the second year of the asset's life is closest to: A) $7,220. B) $10,556. C) $16,666.
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B) $10,556. Straight line depreciation is (100,000 + 10,000 + 5,000 - 25,000) / 6 = 15,000 each year. Double-declining balance depreciation in the second year is: 115,000 (2/3)(1/3) = 25,556. The difference is $10,556. Remember that salvage value is not part of the declining balance calculation.
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Longboat, Inc. sold a luxury passenger boat from its inventory on December 31 for $2,000,000. It is estimated that Longboat will incur $100,000 in warranty expenses during its 5-year warranty period. Longboat's tax rate is 30%. To account for the tax implications of the warranty obligation prior to incurring warranty expenses, Longboat should: A) record a deferred tax asset of $30,000. B) record a deferred tax liability of $30,000. C) make no entry until actual warranty expenses are incurred.
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A) record a deferred tax asset of $30,000. Warranty expense should be recorded when the inventory item covered by the warranty is sold. A deferred tax asset is created when warranty expenses are accrued on the financial statements but are not deductible on the tax returns until the warranty claims are paid. The full amount of the obligation, $100,000, is recorded as an expense, with a deferred tax asset of $30,000. Note that a deferred tax asset results when taxable income is more than pretax income and the difference is likely to reverse (warranty will be paid) in future years.
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A firm issues a 4-year semiannual-pay bond with a face value of $10 million and a coupon rate of 10%. The market interest rate is 11% when the bond is issued. The balance sheet liability at the end of the first semiannual period is closest to: A) $9,650,700. B) $9,683,250. C) $9,715,850.
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C) $9,715,850. The initial liability is the amount received from the creditor, not the par value of the bond. N = 8; I/Y = 11/2 = 5.5; PMT = 500,000; FV = 10,000,000; CPT → PV = $9,683,272. The interest expense is the effective interest rate (the market rate at the time of issue) times the balance sheet liability. $9,683,272 × 0.055 = $532,580. The value of the liability will change over time and is a function of the initial liability, the interest expense and the actual cash payments. In this case, it increases by the difference between the interest expense and the actual cash payment: $532,580 - $500,000 = $32,580 + $9,683,272 = $9,715,852. Tip: Knowing that the liability will increase is enough to select choice C without performing this last calculation. Entering N = 7 and solving for PV also produces $9,715,852.
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The presentation format of balance sheet data that standardizes the first-year values to 1.0 and presents subsequent years' amounts relative to 1.0 is a(n): A) indexed balance sheet. B) vertical common-size balance sheet. C) horizontal common-size balance sheet.
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C) horizontal common-size balance sheet. On a horizontal common-size balance sheet, the divisor is the first-year values so they are all standardized to 1.0 by construction. Trends in the values of these items as well as the relative growth in these items are readily apparent. A vertical common-size balance sheet expresses all balance sheet accounts as a percentage of total assets and does not standardize the initial year.
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At the beginning of the year, Breidel Company changes its inventory accounting method (for both financial and tax reporting) from first in first out to average cost. Assuming an environment of increasing prices, how will this accounting change affect Breidel's forecasts of its net cash position? A) No effect because this accounting change does not affect cash flows. B) Less net cash in both the short-term forecast and the long-term forecast. C) No effect on the short-term forecast but greater net cash in the long-term forecast.
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C) No effect on the short-term forecast but greater net cash in the long-term forecast. Changing the inventory accounting method has no immediate cash flow effects and therefore should not change a firm's short-term forecast (typically 4 to 6 weeks) of its net cash position. However, because the average cost inventory method will result in lower gross profit compared to FIFO, it will also result in decreased taxes. The firm's long-term forecast (typically 3 to 5 years) of its net cash position should reflect a decrease in cash outflows for taxes, and consequently greater net cash in future periods.
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The type of short-term financing for which the financing cost is most closely tied to the creditworthiness of a firm's customers is: A) factoring. B) issuing commercial paper. C) an uncommitted line of credit.
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A) factoring. Factoring refers to the sale of receivables without recourse; that is, the risk that the firm's customers will not pay, or will not pay in a timely manner, is borne by the factor, who purchases the receivables. Thus, the amount the factor will pay per dollar of receivables is lower (higher discount or interest rate) if the credit quality of the firm's credit customers is lower.
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Smith Company's earnings per share are more sensitive to changes in operating income than are those of Jones Company. This implies that Smith Company has a higher degree of: A) total leverage. B) financial leverage. C) operating leverage.
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B) financial leverage. The degree of financial leverage (DFL) is the percent change in earnings per share for a given percent change in operating income. The degree of operating leverage (DOL) is the percent change in operating income for a given percent change in sales. The degree of total leverage (DTL) is the percent change in earnings per share for a given percent change in sales, and is the product of DOL and DFL. Based on the information given, Smith has a higher DFL than Jones, but we cannot conclude that Smith has a higher DTL than Jones.
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If flotation costs are treated correctly in calculating the net present value of a project that will begin in the current period, the flotation costs are most likely: A) included in the initial outlay. B) reflected in the discount rate used for the project. C) included in the cost of the capital raised.
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A) included in the initial outlay. The correct treatment of flotation costs according to the CFA Curriculum is to include their cost in the initial cash outflow of the project. Since flotation costs are included in the initial outlay, they decrease the NPV by an amount that is unaffected by the discount rate, and the discount rate and cost of capital are not adjusted for flotation costs.
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In the market model, beta measures the sensitivity of an asset's rate of return to the market's: A) rate of return. B) excess return. C) risk-adjusted return.
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A) rate of return. The market model is expressed as: Ri = αi + βiRm + εi. In this model, beta (βi) measures the sensitivity of the rate of return on an asset (Ri) to the market rate of return (Rm)
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A portfolio is invested 30% in Asset A with the remainder invested in Asset B. Asset A has an expected return of 6% and variance of returns of 0.031, while Asset B has an expected return of 7% and variance of returns of 0.045. The covariance between the returns of the two assets is 0.03735. The standard deviation of returns for the portfolio is closest to: A) 18%. B) 20%. C) 22%.
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B) 20%. The correlation between the returns of the two assets is: Correl = covar / (SDa * SDb) Therefore, the standard deviation of the portfolio returns is a weighted average of the standard deviations of returns for the two assets: 0.3 * sqrt(0.031) + 0.7 * sqrt(0.045) = 20.13%. Since the correlation of returns is +1, there are no diversification benefits.
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Open-end mutual funds differ from closed-end funds in that: A) open-end funds stand ready to redeem their shares, while closed-end funds do not. B) closed-end funds require active management, while open-end funds do not. C) open-end funds issue shares that are then traded in secondary markets, while closed-end funds do not.
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A) open-end funds stand ready to redeem their shares, while closed-end funds do not. Open-end funds redeem existing shares or issue new shares in accordance with investor demand. Closed-end fund shares are fixed in number and trade on exchanges as though they were common stock.
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According to the CAPM, a rational investor would be least likely to choose as his optimal portfolio: A) a 100% allocation to the risk-free asset. B) the global minimum variance portfolio. C) a 130% allocation to the market portfolio.
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B) the global minimum variance portfolio. According to the CAPM, rational, risk-averse investors will optimally choose to hold a portfolio along the capital market line. This can range from a 100% allocation to the risk-free asset to a leveraged position in the market portfolio constructed by borrowing at the risk-free rate to invest more than 100% of the portfolio equity value in the market portfolio. The global minimum variance portfolio lies below the CML and is not an efficient portfolio under the assumptions of the CAPM.
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An analyst determines that a company has a return on equity of 16% and pays 40% of its earnings in dividends. If the firm recently paid a $1.50 dividend and the stock is selling for $40, what is the required rate of return on the stock if it is priced according to the dividend discount model? A) 9.6%. B) 10.2%. C) 13.7%.
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C) 13.7%. g = (1-payout ratio)*ROE = 9.6% k = $1.50*(1.096) / $40 + 9.6% = 13.7% or $1.50 * 1.096% / (x - .096%) = 40 solve for x
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A stock index consists of two stocks. As of January 1: Company A has 50 shares outstanding valued at $2 each. Company B has 10 shares outstanding valued at $10 each. The price-weighted index is 6, and the value-weighted index is 100. On June 30, the price of Company A's stock has increased to $4 per share. Effective the morning of July 1, Company B's stock splits two-for-one and is priced at $5. The opening values of the price-weighted index and the value-weighted index on July 1 are: Price-Weighted Value-weighted A) 7, 150 B) 7, 125 C) 4.5, 150
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A) 7, 150 Price-weighted index = (4+10) / 2 = 7. A price-weighted index is not affected by a split. The divisor is adjusted to account for the price change.
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Pam Robers, CFA, is performing a valuation analysis on the common stock of Allstare Inc. The stock's beta is 1.1, the risk-free rate is 5%, and the market risk premium is expected to be 8%. Allstare's ROE is expected to be constant at 18%, and its dividend payout ratio has been fairly constant over time at 40%. The forward-earnings multiplier that Robers should use to estimate the current value of the shares is closest to: A) 7. B) 13. C) 20.
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B) 13. Required return = 5% + 1.1(8%) = 13.8% Sustainable growth = 18%(1 − 0.4) = 10.8% Po / E1 = .4 / (.138 - .108) = 13.33
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Over the past few years, the companies in an industry have experienced positive but decreasing profitability and growth rates. The companies have begun to compete intensely with each other and customers switch frequently among brands. This industry's life-cycle stage is most accurately described as: A) growth. B) maturity. C) shakeout.
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C) shakeout. The shakeout industry life-cycle stage is characterized by slowing (but still positive) growth, intense competition, and declining profitability, as demand begins to approach market saturation. In contrast, the decline industry stage is characterized by negative growth. The lack of brand loyalty among customers suggests the industry has not yet reached the mature stage.
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An analyst gathered the following data about a company: The historical earnings retention rate of 40% is projected to continue into the future. The sustainable ROE is 12%. The stock's beta is 1.2. The nominal risk-free rate is 6%. The expected market return is 11%. If the analyst believes next year's earnings will be $4 per share, what value should be placed on this stock? A) $22.24. B) $33.32. C) $45.45.
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B) $33.32. Dividend payout = 1 − earnings retention rate = 1 − 0.4 = 0.6 RS = Rf + β(RM − Rf) = 0.06 + 1.2(0.11 − 0.06) = 0.12 g = (retention rate)(ROE) = 0.4(0.12) = 0.048 P/E = Div Payout Ratio / (k - g) = .6 / (.12 - .048) = 8.33 Price = E(P/E) = $4(8.33) = $33.32
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Which of the following classifications of firms is least likely to comprise cyclical firms? A) Housing. B) Technology. C) Telecommunications.
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C) Telecommunications. Both technology and housing firms tend to be quite cyclical, that is, their profits are very sensitive to changes in overall growth. The profits of telecommunications firms, on the other hand, are less economically sensitive.
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An investor purchases 1,000 shares of each of the stocks in the S&P 500 Index at their closing prices (ignore transactions costs). On a total return basis, if the index stocks remain the same, this portfolio will: A) perform exactly like the index over time. B) outperform the index over time. C) underperform the index over time.
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B) outperform the index over time. Total return includes dividend yield. Because dividends are not included in the performance of the index itself, the portfolio will outperform the index by the amount of the dividend yield.
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A 7.5% coupon, semiannual-pay, five-year bond has a yield to maturity of 6.80%. Over the next year, if the bond's yield to maturity remains unchanged, its price will: A) increase. B) decrease. C) remain unchanged.
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B) decrease. Because the coupon rate is greater than its yield to maturity, the bond price is at a premium to par value. If the yield remains unchanged, the price will decrease toward par value along its constant-yield price trajectory.
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Which of the following statements about debt securities is least accurate? A) Commercial paper is a short-term vehicle for corporate borrowing. B) A securitized bond is a security whose cash flows are linked to a pool of underlying loans or financial instruments. C) A medium-term note (MTN) is a corporate bond with an original maturity of 2 to 10 years.
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C) A medium-term note (MTN) is a corporate bond with an original maturity of 2 to 10 years. The name "medium-term note" does not imply anything about the original maturity of the security.
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A firm is said to have a top-heavy capital structure if a high percentage of its total capital is: A) debt. B) short-term debt. C) secured bank debt.
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C) secured bank debt. "Top-heavy" refers to a capital structure that includes a high percentage of secured bank debt. A firm with a top-heavy capital structure may be limited in its access to additional bank borrowing, which increases the likelihood of default if the firm encounters financial distress.
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An 8%, semiannual pay, option-free corporate bond that is selling at par has ten years to maturity. What is the approximate modified duration of the bond based on a 75 basis point change (up or down) in rates? A) 5.6. B) 6.8. C) 7.2.
answer
B) 6.8. First calculate V− and V+, the bond's value at 7.25% and 8.75% yields to maturity. The bond values are $1,052.70 and $950.69, respectively: N = 20; I/Y = 7.25 / 2 = 3.625; PMT = 40; FV = 1,000; CPT PVu = −1052.70 N = 20; I/Y = 8.75 / 2 = 4.375; PMT = 40; FV = 1,000; CPT PVd = −950.69 D = Vu - Vd / (2*Vo*(Delta V)) = 1,052.7 - 950.69 / (2*1,000*.0075) = 6.8
question
A bond with nine years to maturity is quoted at an interpolated spread of +150 basis points. The benchmark yield for this bond is a: A) swap rate. B) matrix rate. C) government bond yield.
answer
A) swap rate. Interpolated spreads (I-spreads) are spreads to swap rates.
question
The face value of a $1,000,000 T-bill with 78 days to maturity is priced at $987,845. What is the bank discount yield (annualized) quote for the T-bill? A) 5.61%. B) 5.67%. C) 5.75%.
answer
A) 5.61%. We know that: rBD = D/F * (360/t) D = $1,000,000 − $987,845 = $12,155 F = $1,000,000 t = 78 days Substituting we get: rBD = = 0.0561
question
Bonds that are issued by a corporation, but paid from a pool of the corporation's assets that is legally bankruptcy-remote, are best described as: A) covered bonds. B) securitized bonds. C) collateralized bonds.
answer
A) covered bonds. Covered bonds are an obligation of the corporation that issues them but their interest and principal payments are provided by a pool of assets that are legally recognized as bankruptcy-remote. They are different from securitized bonds, which are issued by a special purpose vehicle.
question
Which of the following statements about futures margin is least accurate? A) The initial margin is set by the clearinghouse based on the volatility of the price of the underlying asset. B) If the balance of the margin account exceeds the initial margin requirement, the trader can remove the excess funds from the account. C) If the margin account balance falls below the maintenance margin level, the account balance must be brought back up to the maintenance level.
answer
C) If the margin account balance falls below the maintenance margin level, the account balance must be brought back up to the maintenance level. If the margin account balance falls below the maintenance margin level, the account must be brought back up to the initial margin amount.
question
Which of the following statements with respect to hedge fund investing is least accurate? A) Hedge funds only publicly disclose performance information on a voluntary basis. B) Hedge funds are not typically registered with the SEC in the United States. C) Survivorship bias in hedge fund data causes risk to be overstated because funds that take on more risk tend to have higher returns.
answer
C) Survivorship bias in hedge fund data causes risk to be overstated because funds that take on more risk tend to have higher returns. Because a hedge fund database only includes the more stable funds that have survived, the risk measure of hedge funds as an asset class is biased downward.
question
An investor who wants to hedge against inflation by allocating a portion of a portfolio to alternative investments should most appropriately invest in: A) real estate and commodities. B) private equity and real estate. C) commodities and private equity.
answer
A) real estate and commodities. Real estate and commodities offer potential hedges against inflation because rents, property values, and commodity prices tend to increase with inflation in the long term.
question
A leveraged buyout firm that carries out a secondary sale has: A) offered additional shares to the public. B) exited an investment in a portfolio company. C) received new capital from its general or limited partners.
answer
B) exited an investment in a portfolio company. In a secondary sale, a private equity firm sells one of its portfolio companies to a group of investors or another private equity firm.
question
The notice period for a hedge fund is best described as the period following: A) the opening of the fund to investors, before the fund is closed to new investors. B) a request for redemption of shares, within which the fund must fulfill the request. C) an investment in the fund, during which the investor is not permitted to redeem shares.
answer
B) a request for redemption of shares, within which the fund must fulfill the request. The notice period is the time within which a hedge fund must fulfill a request for redemption of shares. The period during which investors may not redeem shares is called a lockup period.
question
To comply with the Code and Standards, analysts who send research recommendations to clients must: A) keep records of all the data and analysis that went into creating the report. B) send recommendations only to those clients for whom the investments are suitable. C) not send recommendations without including the underlying analysis and basic investment characteristics.
answer
A) keep records of all the data and analysis that went into creating the report. Standard V(C) Record Retention requires members to maintain records of the data and analysis they use to develop their research recommendations. Recommendations may be brief, in capsule form, or simply a list of buy/sell recommendations. A list of recommendations may be sent without regard to suitability, including both safe income stocks and aggressive growth stocks, for example.
question
Derek Stevens, CFA, manages the pension plan assets of Colors, Inc. When voting proxies for plan equities, Stevens owes a fiduciary duty to: A) the plan trustees who hired him. B) the plan participants and beneficiaries. C) the managers, stockholders, and bondholders of Colors, Inc. equally.
answer
B) the plan participants and beneficiaries. Under Standard III(A) Loyalty, Prudence, and Care, the fiduciary duty in this case is to plan participants and beneficiaries, not shareholders or plan trustees.
question
An analyst at Romer changes her rating on TelSky from "buy" to "hold" and sends an email explaining the change to all clients and firm brokers. Subsequently, Paul Stevens, CFA, a broker at Romer, receives a call from a client who wants to buy 15,000 shares of TelSky. Stevens must: A) advise his client of the change in recommendation before accepting the order. B) not accept the order until the customer has had time to receive and read the new report. C) accept the order without mentioning the ratings change because the order is unsolicited.
answer
A) advise his client of the change in recommendation before accepting the order. According to Standard III(B) Fair Dealing, if a client places an order that goes against the firm's recommendation for that security, members and candidates should inform the client of the discrepancy between the order and the firm's recommendation before accepting the order.
question
Which of the following is one of the nine major sections of the GIPS standards? A) Verification. B) Private equity. C) Sub-advisers.
answer
B) Private equity. Private equity is one of the nine major sections of the GIPS standards; the others are not.
question
Greg Hoffman, CFA, has been hired by Hill Manufacturing, Inc. (HMI) to write a research report on their company. Hoffman writes a report on HMI with a "buy" recommendation and posts the report for purchase on his website but does not include the information that HMI paid for the research. According to the Standards that govern independence and objectivity and disclosure of conflicts, Hoffman has violated: A) both of these Standards. B) neither of these Standards. C) only one of these Standards.
answer
A) both of these Standards. Hoffman has violated both Standard I(B) Independence and Objectivity, which specifically addresses the requirement of disclosure of the nature of any compensation from the subject company, and Standard VI(A) Disclosure of Conflicts, which, more generally, requires disclosure of any potential conflict of interest in research reports and investment recommendations.
question
Rhonda Morrow, CFA, is an analyst for Waller & Madison, a brokerage and investment banking firm. Waller & Madison is a market maker for CorpEast, and Tim Waller, a principal in Morrow's firm, sits on CorpEast's board. Morrow has been asked to write a research report on CorpEast. According to the Standard regarding disclosure of conflicts, Morrow: A) must not write the report. B) must disclose that Waller & Madison is a market maker in CorpEast shares but not that Waller is a board member. C) may write the report if she discloses both that Waller & Madison is a market maker in CorpEast shares and that Waller sits on the CorpEast board.
answer
C) may write the report if she discloses both that Waller & Madison is a market maker in CorpEast shares and that Waller sits on the CorpEast board. To comply with Standard VI(A) Disclosure of Conflicts, both the market-making activities by the firm and the directorship held by a principal in the firm must be disclosed.
question
John Farr, CFA, has accumulated several pieces of nonmaterial nonpublic information about CattleCorp from his contacts with the company. From analysis based on this information, together with public information, Farr concludes that CattleCorp will have unexpectedly low earnings this year. Farr has contacted the company, but they will not confirm his conclusion. According to CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct, Farr: A) may trade or make recommendations based on his analysis. B) may not trade or make recommendations based on his analysis. C) may trade or make recommendations based on his analysis only if his company's compliance officer determines that the nonpublic information he used was not material.
answer
A) may trade or make recommendations based on his analysis. According to Standard II(A) Material Nonpublic Information, Farr is free to act under the mosaic theory because nonmaterial nonpublic information does not fall within the prohibition on trading based on material nonpublic information. He should keep detailed documentation of his analysis to document that he did not advise or act based on material nonpublic information.
question
Shan Ang, CFA, is a portfolio manager at Huang Investments. Lian Jan, an old friend of Ang's, is an executive recruiter in the same city. Jan refers any high-level executives that she places locally to Ang. In return, Jan gives Ang one round of golf at her country club for each new client referred to her by Jan. According to the Standard concerning referral fees, Ang is required to disclose the referral arrangement: A) only to all prospective clients referred by Jan. B) to his employer and all prospective clients referred by Jan. C) to all prospective clients, current clients, and his employer.
answer
B) to his employer and all prospective clients referred by Jan. Standard VI(C) Referral Fees states that members and candidates must disclose to employers and to affected prospects and clients, before entering into any formal agreement for services, any benefits received for the recommendation of services provided by the member.
question
Yvette Michaels, CFA, an analyst for Torborg Investments, inadvertently overhears a conversation between two executives of Collective Healthcare in which they mention an upcoming tender offer for Network, a stock she covers. Michaels has followed both companies extensively and feels their consolidation would be very beneficial for both companies. She tells her supervisor, a senior analyst, about the proposed tender offer. Michaels' actions are: A) in violation of the Standards. B) not in violation of the Standards because she told only her supervisor. C) not in violation of the Standards because she has not traded shares of Network or changed her report on the company.
answer
A) in violation of the Standards. Michaels has violated Standard II(A) Material Nonpublic Information. Members who possess material nonpublic information are prohibited from acting or causing others to act on that information. She may not share the information with anyone except designated supervisory or compliance employees within her firm. Disclosing to her supervisor, who is not identified as a designated supervisor of compliance issues, is not permitted.
question
Which of the following statements about covariance and the correlation coefficient is least accurate? A) Covariance is a measure of how the returns of two assets tend to move together over time. B) The correlation coefficient is computed by dividing the covariance of returns on two assets by the individual variances of returns for the two assets. C) The covariance of returns between two assets is equal to the correlation between the returns of the two assets, multiplied by the product of their standard deviations of returns.
answer
B) The correlation coefficient is computed by dividing the covariance of returns on two assets by the individual variances of returns for the two assets. Dividing the covariance between returns of two assets by the individual standard deviations of returns of the two assets yields the correlation coefficient.
question
Greg Goldman, research analyst in the fixed-income area of an investment bank, needs to determine the average duration of a sample of twenty 15-year fixed-coupon investment grade bonds. Goldman first categorizes the bonds by risk class and then randomly selects bonds from each class. After combining the bonds selected (bond ratings and other information taken as of March 31 of the current year), he calculates a sample mean duration of 10.5 years. Assuming that the actual population mean duration is 9.7 years, which of the following statements about Goldman's sampling process and sample is least accurate? A) Goldman is using time-series data. B) The sample mean is a random variable. C) The sampling error is 0.8 years.
answer
A) Goldman is using time-series data. The data are cross-sectional, which means that it is a sample of observations taken at a single point in time. Time-series data are observations taken at specific and equally spaced points in time (for example, the monthly returns on a specific stock for the period January 1 through December 31 of a given year). The sampling error is the difference between a sample statistic (here, the mean) and the corresponding population parameter, or 10.5 - 9.7 = 0.8. The sample statistic (here, the mean) is itself a random variable and has its own probability distribution.
question
The type of technical analysis chart most likely to be useful for intermarket analysis is a: A) candlestick chart. B) point and figure chart. C) relative strength chart.
answer
C) relative strength chart. Relative strength charts display the price of an asset relative to the price of another asset or benchmark over time. This type of chart is useful for demonstrating whether one asset class or market has outperformed or underperformed another. Candlestick charts and point-and-figure charts are generally used to display price patterns for a single asset or market over time.
question
Which is the correct test statistic for a test of the null hypothesis that a population variance is equal to a chosen value? A) F-statistic. B) t-statistic. C) Chi-square statistic.
answer
C) Chi-square statistic. This is a test of the value of a single variance and is based on a test statistic with a performed via the chi-square distribution.
question
From a high of $180, a stock price decreases to a low of $100 and then begins increasing. A technical analyst states that she expects resistance levels to emerge at $140, $150, and $153.33. This analyst is most likely forecasting these resistance levels based on: A) Fibonacci numbers. B) an inverse head and shoulders pattern. C) moving average convergence/divergence lines.
answer
A) Fibonacci numbers. The forecast resistance levels are one-half, five-eighths, and two-thirds of the price decrease from $180 to $100. All of these are Fibonacci ratios. Projecting from the breakout of an inverse head and shoulders pattern would more likely suggest a single price target or range than three different specific targets. Moving average convergence/divergence lines are unlikely to be used for price targeting because they are not on the same scale as prices.
question
An economy is in full-employment equilibrium. If the government unexpectedly decreases the tax rate, in the short run the economy is most likely to experience: A) an increase in employment. B) a decrease in the price level. C) no change in employment and an increase in the price level.
answer
A) an increase in employment. Short-run equilibrium may occur above full employment, for example as a result of an increase in aggregate demand caused by a decrease in taxes. Both employment and the price level increase in the short run. Above-full employment causes upward pressure on wages that will reduce short-run aggregate supply until, in the long run, output returns to its full-employment level with a still-higher equilibrium price level.
question
Three years ago, the U.S. dollar/euro exchange rate was 1.32 USD/EUR. Over the last three years, the price level in the United States has increased by 18%, and the price level in the eurozone has increased by 12%. If the current exchange rate is 1.40 USD/EUR, the real exchange rate over the period has: A) increased, and eurozone goods are now more expensive to U.S. consumers. B) decreased, and eurozone goods are now more expensive to U.S. consumers. C) increased, and U.S. goods are now more expensive to eurozone consumers.
answer
A) increased, and eurozone goods are now more expensive to U.S. consumers. For the base period, three years ago, the real exchange rate is the same as the nominal exchange rate, 1.32 USD/EUR. The real exchange rate over the period has changed from 1.32 to 1.40 × (112 / 118) = 1.3288. This increase in the real USD/EUR exchange rate indicates that the base currency (EUR) has appreciated in real terms, so that eurozone goods are now more expensive in real terms to U.S. consumers.
question
The Fisher effect describes the relationship among: A) savings, investment, the fiscal balance, and the trade balance. B) credit expansion, investor expectations, and the business cycle. C) nominal interest rates, real interest rates, and expected inflation.
answer
C) nominal interest rates, real interest rates, and expected inflation. The Fisher effect states that a nominal interest rate is the sum of a real interest rate and the expected inflation rate.
question
Which of the following events is most likely to increase short-run aggregate supply (shift the curve to the right)? A) Inflation that results in an increase in goods prices. B) High unemployment puts downward pressure on money wages. C) An increase in government spending intended to increase real output.
answer
B) High unemployment puts downward pressure on money wages. Falling money wages would cause businesses to increase (profit-maximizing) output levels at each price level for final goods and services. Changes in the price level of goods and services are represented by a movement along a short-run aggregate supply curve, not a shift in the curve. A rise in resource prices will decrease aggregate supply. An increase in government spending will shift the aggregate demand curve but not the aggregate supply curve.
question
An unexpected increase in businesses' inventory-to-sales ratios is most likely to occur as an economy: A) reaches a trough. B) enters a contraction phase. C) approaches the peak of an expansion.
answer
C) approaches the peak of an expansion. At the end or peak of an expansion, economic activity begins to slow, sales are less than planned, and excess inventory accumulates, increasing inventory-to-sales ratios. To reduce inventory-to-sales ratios to desired levels, firms decrease production, which is one of the causes of a contraction.
question
A government is auctioning 500 newly issued bonds and receives the following bids: Bidder Yield Number of Bonds Bidder 1 5.25% 200 Bidder 2 5.30% 100 Bidder 3 5.40% 300 Bidder 4 5.45% 400 Bidder 3 receives 200 bonds at a yield of 5.40%. This auction is best described as a(n): A) second price auction. B) ascending price auction. C) descending price auction.
answer
C) descending price auction. In a descending price or Dutch auction, the government will sell bonds to the bidders who bid the lowest yields (highest prices) until all the bonds are sold. Bidder 1 receives 200 bonds at a yield of 5.25%, Bidder 2 receives 100 bonds at a yield of 5.30%, and Bidder 3 receives the remaining 200 bonds at a yield of 5.40%.
question
In the short run, the average product of labor: A) is increasing when the total product of labor is increasing. B) is at a maximum where it intersects the marginal product of labor curve. C) is upward-sloping if the firm is experiencing diminishing marginal returns to labor.
answer
B) is at a maximum where it intersects the marginal product of labor curve. In the short run, the average product of labor curve is first increasing and then decreasing as diminishing marginal returns to that factor take effect. In the short run, the marginal product of labor is first increasing and then decreasing when diminishing marginal returns take effect. The marginal product of labor curve will be above the average product of labor curve initially, and, at some point, will intersect the average product curve at its maximum. When the total product of labor begins to increase at a decreasing rate, the average product of labor will be decreasing.
question
Which of the following statements about the appropriate revenue recognition method to use under U.S. GAAP is most accurate? Use the: A) percentage-of-completion method if the firm cannot reliably estimate the outcome of the project. B) completed contract method if ultimate payment is reasonably assured and revenue and costs can be reliably estimated. C) installment method if collectability of payments for a sale cannot be reasonably estimated.
answer
C) installment method if collectability of payments for a sale cannot be reasonably estimated. The installment method should be used when future cash collection cannot be reasonably estimated. For long-term projects, a firm should use percentage of completion when payment is reasonably assured and the firm can reliably estimate the project's outcome, and completed contract when the firm cannot estimate the outcome reliably.
question
Which of the following is most likely presented on a common-size balance sheet or common-size income statement? A) Total asset turnover. B) Operating profit margin. C) Return on common equity.
answer
B) Operating profit margin. Operating profit margin can be read directly from a common-size income statement. Asset turnover and return on equity mix balance sheet and income statement items.
question
An analyst gathers the following data about a company: The company had 1 million shares of common stock outstanding for the entire year. The company's beginning stock price was $50, its ending price was $70, and its average price was $60. The company had 100,000 warrants outstanding for the entire year. Each warrant allows the holder to buy one share of common stock at $50 per share. How many shares of common stock should the company use in computing its diluted earnings per share? A) 1,100,000. B) 1,083,333. C) 1,016,667.
answer
C) 1,016,667. Use the Treasury stock method: Step 1: Determine the number of common shares created if the warrants are exercised = 100,000. Step 2: Calculate the cash inflow if the warrants are exercised: (100,000)($50 per share) = $5,000,000. Step 3: Calculate the number of shares that can be purchased with these funds using the average market price ($60 per share): 5,000,000 / 60 = 83,333 shares. Step 4: Calculate the net increase in common shares outstanding from the exercise of the warrants: 100,000 − 83,333 = 16,667. Step 5: Add the net increase in common shares from the exercise of the warrants to the number of common shares outstanding for the entire year: 1,000,000 + 16,667 = 1,016,667.
question
Under U.S. GAAP, land owned by the firm is most likely to be reported on the balance sheet at: A) historical cost. B) fair market value minus selling costs. C) historical cost less accumulated depreciation.
answer
A) historical cost. Unless impairment has been recognized, land is reported at historical cost and is not subject to depreciation. Increases in value are not reflected in balance sheet values under U.S. GAAP.
question
According to the IASB Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting, what are the two fundamental qualitative characteristics of financial statements that make them useful to their users? A) Timeliness and comparability. B) Verifiability and understandability. C) Relevance and faithful representation.
answer
C) Relevance and faithful representation. The IASB Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting describes the two fundamental qualitative characteristics of financial statements as relevance and faithful representation. The Conceptual Framework lists timeliness, comparability, verifiability, and understandability as characteristics that enhance relevance and faithful representation.
question
From the lessee's perspective, compared to an operating lease, a finance lease results in: A) higher asset turnover. B) a higher debt-to-equity ratio. C) lower operating cash flow
answer
B) a higher debt-to-equity ratio. Operating leases are not recognized as liabilities and therefore the debt-to-equity ratio will be lower than a similar finance lease. Capitalizing a lease will increase the asset base and decrease asset turnover. Lease capitalization decreases the operating cash outflow and therefore increases operating cash flows (all else equal).
question
While motivation and opportunity both can lead to low quality of financial reporting, a third important contributing factor is: A) poor financial controls. B) rationalization of the actions. C) pressure to meet earnings expectations.
answer
B) rationalization of the actions. A mindset that allows rationalization is the third important condition underlying low-quality financial reporting. Poor financial controls are an example of opportunity and pressure to meet earnings expectations is a possible motivation.
question
In a period of rising prices, management of a company that reports under IFRS is least likely to attempt to influence analysts' opinions of its financial results by: A) liquidating inventory. B) increasing the useful lives of assets. C) emphasizing earnings that exclude nonrecurring costs.
answer
A) liquidating inventory. During periods of rising prices, liquidating inventory is a potential way for companies that use the LIFO inventory cost method to report higher current-period earnings, but LIFO is not permitted under IFRS. Managers attempting to influence analysts' opinions may manipulate accounting assumptions or emphasize non-GAAP measures in their financial reports.
question
Granite, Inc. owns a machine with a carrying value of $3.0 million and a salvage value of $2.0 million. The present value of the machine's future cash flows is $1.7 million. The asset is permanently impaired. Granite should: A) immediately write down the machine to its salvage value. B) immediately write down the machine to its recoverable amount. C) write down the machine to its recoverable amount as soon as it is depreciated down to salvage value.
answer
B) immediately write down the machine to its recoverable amount. Under IFRS, when an asset is permanently impaired, it must be written down to its recoverable amount (greater of value in use or fair value less selling costs) in the period in which the impairment is recognized.
question
Clement Company has revalued an intangible asset with an indefinite life upward by €25 million. In its financial statements, Clement will most likely : A) disclose how it determined the fair value of the intangible asset. B) report lower net income in subsequent periods because of increased amortization expense on the asset. C) report higher assets, net income, and shareholders' equity in the most recent period than it would have reported under the cost model.
answer
A) disclose how it determined the fair value of the intangible asset. For firms that revalue assets upward, IFRS requires disclosure of the date the asset was revalued, how management determined its fair value, the asset's carrying value using the historical cost model, and (for intangible assets) whether the asset's useful life is finite or indefinite. Although assets and shareholders' equity will increase as a result of the revaluation, net income will not increase. The increase in the value of the asset is reported as a revaluation surplus in shareholders' equity. Amortization expense will not increase because indefinite-lived intangible assets are not amortized.
question
As a result of a recent acquisition, Lombard, Inc. has placed the following items on their balance sheet as of the beginning of their fiscal year: Goodwill $30 million Patent $10 million Expires in 10 years. Trademark $15 million Expires in 15 years, renewable at minimal cost. If Lombard amortizes intangible assets using the straight line method, the amortization expense on these assets for the fiscal year will be: A) $1 million. B) $2 million. C) $3 million.
answer
A) $1 million. Goodwill has an indefinite life and is not amortized. A trademark or other intangible asset that has an expiration date but is renewable at minimal cost is treated as having an indefinite life and is not amortized. The patent has a finite life and its cost will be amortized at the rate of $1 million each year over ten years under the straight-line method.
question
Responsibilities of a board of directors' nominations committee are least likely to include: A) recruiting qualified members to the board. B) selecting an external auditor for the company. C) preparing a succession plan for the company's executive management.
answer
B) selecting an external auditor for the company. Selecting an external auditor (subject to shareholder approval) is a responsibility of the Board's audit committee.
question
Michael Robe, CFA, is a junior analyst for a large financial institution and has been preparing an analysis of United Mines, a coal mining company located in the United States. As part of his research, he examines the company's proxy voting and rules and practices. Which of the following policies would be considered the most restrictive to shareholders? A) Shareholders of United Mines are allowed to cast confidential votes but must be present to do so. B) Corporate policy prohibits the use of share blocking prior to United Mines' annual meetings. C) United Mines requires shareowner attendance to vote but coordinates the timing of its annual meeting to be held on the same day as other companies in the region
answer
C) United Mines requires shareowner attendance to vote but coordinates the timing of its annual meeting to be held on the same day as other companies in the region When companies that require shareholder attendance to vote hold their meetings on the same day but in different locations, it prevents shareholders from attending all the meetings and therefore exercising their full voting rights.
question
If firms Acme and Butler have the same amount of sales and equal quick ratios, but Acme's receivables turnover is higher, it is most likely that: A) Butler has better liquidity than Acme. B) Butler has a lower cash ratio than Acme. C) Acme's average days of receivables is higher than Butler's.
answer
B) Butler has a lower cash ratio than Acme. Given that they have the same amount of sales and Acme's receivables turnover (sales/average accounts receivable) is higher, Acme must have lower average accounts receivable than Butler. Given that they have equal quick ratios, subtracting accounts receivable from the numerators of the quick ratios of both firms will produce a cash ratio for Butler that is lower than the cash ratio for Acme.
question
Daker Industries reports assets of £140 million and liabilities of £85 million. Daker decides to repurchase 5% of its 11 million outstanding shares through a tender offer at £5 per share when the market price is £4.75. If the tender offer is fully subscribed, the most likely effect on the book value of Daker's shares will be to: A) increase the book value of Daker shares by 5%. B) decrease the book value of Daker shares by 5%. C) have no effect on the book value of Daker shares.
answer
C) have no effect on the book value of Daker shares. The book value of Daker shares is (£140 million − £85 million) / 11 million = £5 per share. Repurchasing its shares at a price equal to book value will not change the book value of Daker shares.
question
When comparing portfolios that plot on the security market line (SML) to those that plot on the capital market line (CML), a financial analyst would most accurately state that portfolios that lie on the SML: A) have only systematic risk, while portfolios on the CML have both systematic and unsystematic risk. B) are not necessarily well diversified, while portfolios on the CML are well diversified. C) are not necessarily priced at their equilibrium values, while portfolios on the CML are priced at their equilibrium values.
answer
B) are not necessarily well diversified, while portfolios on the CML are well diversified. Although the risk measure on the capital market line diagram is total risk, all portfolios that lie on the CML are well diversified and have only systematic risk. This is because portfolios on the CML are all constructed from the risk-free asset and the (well-diversified) market portfolio. Any portfolio, including single securities, will plot along the SML in equilibrium. Their unsystematic risk can be significant, but it is not measured on the SML diagram because unsystematic risk is not related to expected return. Both the CML and the SML reflect relations that hold when prices are in equilibrium.
question
Which of the following possible portfolios is least likely to lie on the efficient frontier? Portfolio Expected Return Standard Deviation X 9% 12% Y 11% 10% Z 13% 15% A) Portfolio X. B) Portfolio Y. C) Portfolio Z.
answer
A) Portfolio X. Portfolio X has a lower expected return and a higher standard deviation than Portfolio Y. X must be inefficient.
question
In extending the 3-factor model of Fama and French, the additional factor suggested by Carhart that is often used is: A) GDP growth. B) price momentum. C) market-to-book value.
answer
B) price momentum. In addition to the three factors of the Fama and French model, market-to-book, firm size, and excess returns on the market, Carhart added a momentum factor based on prior relative price performance.
question
Evelyn Stram, CFA, places a good-till-cancelled limit buy order at 86 for a stock. Stram's order specifies: A) clearing and validity instructions. B) validity and execution instructions. C) execution and clearing instructions.
answer
B) validity and execution instructions. Good-till-cancelled is a validity instruction, which indicates when an order may be filled. Execution instructions include limit orders and market orders, as well as instructions regarding trade size and visibility. A clearing instruction indicates how to arrange final settlement of the trade.
question
The type of equity security that gives its owners the right to vote the shares of, and receive dividends from, a foreign company is best described as a: A) global depository receipt. B) sponsored depository receipt. C) fully-owned depository receipt.
answer
B) sponsored depository receipt. The owner of a sponsored DR share has the same voting rights and receives the same dividends as the owner of a common share of the firm. With an unsponsored DR, the depository bank retains the voting rights. A global depository receipt may be sponsored or unsponsored.
question
Compared to an index of 100 U.S. exchange-traded stocks, an index of 100 U.S. government and corporate bonds will most likely: A) reflect equally timely price data. B) be more difficult to build and maintain. C) have less turnover among the securities in the index.
answer
B) be more difficult to build and maintain. Bond indexes are more difficult to build and maintain than stock indexes for several reasons. Bonds in an index have to be replaced as they mature, so turnover is likely to be greater in a bond index than in a stock index. Many bonds lack the continuous trade data that exists for exchange-traded equities.
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An industry in the growth phase of the industry life cycle is most likely to experience: A) increasing prices. B) increasing profitability. C) intense competition among competitors.
answer
B) increasing profitability. An industry in the growth stage is usually characterized by increasing profitability, decreasing prices, and a low degree of competition among competitors.
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An investor is considering the purchase of Security X, which matures in ten years and has a par value of $1,000. During the first five years, X has a 6% coupon with quarterly payments. During the remaining five years, X has an 8% coupon with quarterly payments. The face value is paid at maturity. A second 10-year security, Security Z, has a 6% semiannual coupon and is selling at par. Assuming that X has the same bond equivalent yield as Z, the price of Security X is closest to: A) $943. B) $1,036. C) $1,067.
answer
C) $1,067. The bond equivalent yield rate on the par bond (Z) is 6% or a 3% semiannual rate. The equivalent quarterly rate, 1.031/2 - 1 = 0.014889. Security X makes 20 quarterly payments of $15 and 20 quarterly payments of $20. We need to use the cash flow function as follows: CF0 = 0; CF1 = 15; F1 = 20; CF2 = 20; F2 = 19; CF3 = 1,020; F3 = 1; I = 1.4889; CPT → NPV = $1,067.27. Note that CF3 contains the final quarterly payment of $20 along with the $1,000 face value payment.
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Which of the following is a disadvantage to bondholders if a bond has a sinking fund provision? A) Lower credit quality. B) Unfavorable tax status. C) Greater reinvestment risk.
answer
C) Greater reinvestment risk. Reinvestment risk is a disadvantage of a sinking fund provision. Some bondholders will be repaid the bond principal earlier than the maturity date. If interest rates have declined since they bought the bonds, these bondholders will only be able to reinvest the returned principal at a lower rate of return. A sinking fund provision increases the credit quality of an issue and typically does not affect a bond's taxable status.
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A debt covenant designates one of a holding company' s subsidiaries as restricted. Which of the following credit-related considerations does this covenant address? A) Credit migration risk. B) Structural subordination. C)Payments to equity holders.
answer
B) Structural subordination. Restricted subsidiaries are those whose cash flows and assets are designated to service the debt of their holding company. Classifying a subsidiary as restricted alleviates structural subordination by making holding company debt rank pari passu with the subsidiary's debt.
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Consider a collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO) structure with one planned amortization class (PAC) class and one support tranche outstanding. If the prepayment speed is higher than the upper collar on the PAC, the: A) life of the PAC tranche will increase. B) PAC tranche has no risk of prepayments. C) life of the support tranche will decrease.
answer
C) life of the support tranche will decrease. If the prepayment speed is higher than the PAC collar, the support tranche receives more prepayments. The life of the support tranche will shorten. The PAC tranche could receive higher prepayments if the support tranche principal is fully repaid (i.e., a broken PAC). In this case, the support tranche is still outstanding, which means that hasn't happened yet.
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For a bond currently priced at $1,018 with an effective duration of 7.48, if the market yield moved down 75 basis points, the new price would be approximately: A) $961. B) $1,075. C) $1,094.
answer
B) $1,075. %Δprice ≈ -7.48(-0.0075) = 0.0561 $1,018(1 + 0.0561) = $1,075.11
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A public offering of bonds issued over a period of time is most accurately described as a: A) serial structure. B) shelf registration. C) waterfall structure.
answer
B) shelf registration. In a shelf registration, an entire issue is registered with securities regulators but the bonds are sold to the public over a period of time as the issuer needs to raise funds. In a serial bond issue, bonds with multiple maturity dates are issued at the same time. A waterfall structure is issued in tranches with differing priority of claims.
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A 3-year, 6% coupon, semiannual-pay note has a yield to maturity of 5.5%. If an investor holds this note to maturity and earns a 4.5% return on reinvested coupon income, his realized yield on the note is closest to: A) 5.46%. B) 5.57%. C) 5.68%.
answer
A) 5.46%. This question does not require calculations. Because the return on reinvested coupon interest is less than the note's yield to maturity, the investor's realized yield on the note must be less than the YTM. Only Choice A can be correct.
question
The put-call-forward parity relationship is similar to the standard put-call parity relationship with a forward price substituted for: A) the risk-free bond. B) the underlying asset. C) either the call or put option.
answer
B) the underlying asset. The put-call-forward parity relationship is the same as the standard put-call parity relationship, with the present value of the forward price substituted for the underlying asset.
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Over-the-counter derivatives are: A) standardized and backed by a clearinghouse. B) not standardized but are backed by a clearinghouse. C) neither standardized nor backed by a clearinghouse.
answer
C) neither standardized nor backed by a clearinghouse. Over-the-counter derivatives are customized private contracts between counterparties.
question
The time value of an option is most accurately described as: A) increasing as the option approaches its expiration date. B) equal to the entire premium for an out-of-the-money option. C) the amount by which the intrinsic value exceeds the option premium.
answer
B) equal to the entire premium for an out-of-the-money option. The price (or premium) of an option is its intrinsic value plus its time value. An out-of-the-money option has an intrinsic value of zero, so its entire premium consists of time value. Time value is zero at an option's expiration date. Time value is the amount by which an option's premium exceeds its intrinsic value.
question
Over time, compared to traditional stock and bond investments, the commodities asset class has exhibited: A) lower returns and lower price volatility B) lower returns and higher price volatility. C) higher returns and lower price volatility.
answer
B) lower returns and higher price volatility. Returns on commodities over time have been lower than returns on global stocks or bonds, and price volatility has been higher.
question
Compared to its net asset value (NAV) calculated in accordance with accounting standards, a hedge fund's trading NAV: A) will be lower because of adjustments for illiquid positions. B) is likely to be higher because of upward bias in model-based security values. C) may be higher or lower, reflecting gains or losses on securities designated for short-term trading.
answer
A) will be lower because of adjustments for illiquid positions. If a fund calculates a trading NAV, it will adjust market prices downward for securities in which it holds positions that are large relative to trading volume or total value outstanding and thus are less liquid.
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The mezzanine financing portion of a leveraged buyout (LBO) is most likely to: A) represent committed capital. B) be convertible to equity or include warrants. C) have seniority over other bonds issued to finance the LBO.
answer
B) be convertible to equity or include warrants. In the context of an LBO, mezzanine financing refers to debt that carries warrants or equity conversion features. This debt is typically subordinated to other bonds that are issued to finance the LBO. Committed capital is the investment of limited partners in a private equity fund and does not include debt that the fund issues to finance a particular LBO.
