BIS Final Exam – Flashcards
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the potential profitability of an industry
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Porter originally developed the five forces model to determine ________. A) the potential profitability of an industry B) the nature of competitive industrial environments C) the reason why certain industries collapse D) the means by which to improve industrial viability
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structure
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The competitive strategy followed by an organization is derived from its ________. A) function B) structure C) profits D) goals
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value chains
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The competitive strategy of an organization determines its ________. A) industry rivals B) short-term goals C) value chains D) structure
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coffee planters during a season of frost that decreases production
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In which of the following situations would the suppliers have the strongest bargaining power? A) coffee planters during a season of frost that decreases production B) companies negotiating compensation during a booming economy C) providers of logistic support during an economic slowdown D) a wholesaler declaring a stock-clearance sale
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the threat posed by Roger's Landscapes, a new competitor
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Simpson's Lawn Services decides to offer two free mowing services for all customers who booked garden landscaping in the fall. By doing this, which of the following forces is Simpson's addressing? A) the control exercised by Acme Corp. who supplies Simpson with lawn mowers B) the power held by the landlord of the Simpson's office space C) the threat posed by Roger's Landscapes, a new competitor D) the bargaining power of the City Football Club who are Simpson's customers
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competition
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Porter's five competitive forces can be grouped into two types: forces related to ________ and forces related to supply chain bargaining power. A) pricing B) labor C) competition D) consumers
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customers
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Porter's model includes the bargaining power of which of the following groups as one of the five factors? A) investors B) competitors C) employees D) customers
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customers taking their business elsewhere
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In Porter's five factor model, each of the three competitive forces concerns the danger of ________. A) suppliers favoring rival companies B) customers taking their business elsewhere C) investors refusing to back up new projects D) employees not working toward organizational goals
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switching costs
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Two strength factors that relate to all three competitive forces are ________ and customer loyalty. A) market forces B) nature of products C) customer satisfaction D) switching costs
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when switching costs are high
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In which of the following cases is the strength of competitive forces low? A) when switching costs are high B) when rival products are priced high C) when customer loyalty to the brand or company is low D) when finding rival products is easy
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the threat from the substitute is strong
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If customers perceive the benefits of a substitute to be similar to that of a product, then ________. A) the threat from the substitute is weak B) the price of the product should be increased to retain market share C) the threat from the substitute is strong D) there is no threat from the substitute
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the relative size of the firm
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The strength of bargaining power forces depends on the availability of substitutes and ________ compared to the size of suppliers or customers. A) the amount of profit made annually B) the relative size of the firm C) the presence of competitors in the market D) the threat of new competitors
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competitive
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An organization responds to the structure of its industry by choosing a(n) ________ strategy. A) competitive B) growth C) leadership D) operational
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focused differentiation
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If a company produces a uniquely formulated anti-ageing face cream targeted at women above the age of forty, which of the following competitive strategies is it following? A) industry-wide low cost B) industry-wide differentiation C) focused low cost D) focused differentiation
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launching a unique product targeted at a section of consumers
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Which of the following is an example of a competitive strategy employed by a firm? A) increasing the price of its product when raw material prices increase B) laying off staff in order to cut down costs during a recession period C) advertising its products nationwide like its competitor organizations D) launching a unique product targeted at a section of consumers
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organization's strategy
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According to Porter, to be effective, the organization's goals, objectives, culture, and activities must be consistent with the ________. A) organization's structure B) organization's competitors C) organization's strategy D) organization's workforce
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value
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Porter defined ________ as the amount of money that a customer is willing to pay for a resource, product, or service. A) margin B) profit C) price D) value
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It is a network of value-creating activities.
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Which of the following is true of a value-chain? A) It is a network of value-creating activities. B) It consists of only primary activities. C) It is specific to manufacturing industries. D) It nullifies the importance of support activities.
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add cost to an activity provided it has a positive margin
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A business that selects a differentiation strategy would ________. A) add cost to an activity provided it has a positive margin B) provide essential functions at lowest costs C) imitate rival companies' strategy and products D) aim to please stockholders with highest dividends
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margin
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The difference between the value that an activity generates and the cost of the activity is called the ________. A) equity B) liability C) overhead D) margin
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outbound logistics
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Collecting, storing, and physically distributing the product to buyers describes which of the following primary activities? A) inbound logistics B) sales and marketing C) outbound logistics D) operations/management
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sales and marketing
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Inducing buyers to purchase the product and providing a means for them to do so describes which of the following primary activities? A) inbound logistics B) sales and marketing C) outbound logistics D) operations/management
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accumulates costs
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Each stage of the value chain not only adds value to the product but also ________. A) attracts buyers B) accumulates costs C) devalues the final product D) attracts competitors
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delivering products to consumers
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Which of the following is a primary activity in the value chain? A) processes of finding vendors B) setting up contractual arrangements C) negotiating prices D) delivering products to consumers
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Firm infrastructure
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________ includes general management, finance, accounting, legal, and government affairs. A) Human resources B) Research and development C) Firm infrastructure D) Operations management
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linkages
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Porter's model of business activities includes ________, which are interactions across value activities. A) linkages B) evaluations C) iterations D) operations
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sales forecasts
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Manufacturing systems that use linkages also use ________ to plan production. A) past reports B) sales forecasts C) competitors' information D) software packages
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linkages
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Manufacturing systems use ________ to reduce inventory costs. A) linkages B) margins C) value chains D) support activities
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create sufficient value to cover their costs
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As Porter says, the processes and systems in an organization pursuing differentiation strategy must ________ to avoid negative margins. A) create sufficient value to cover their costs B) provide products at lowest costs to customers C) make it easy for products to be duplicated D) give stiff competition to other similar products
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enhance products or services
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Which of the following is a product implementation principle of competitive advantage? A) raise barriers to market entry B) enhance products or services C) establish alliances D) lock in customers and buyers
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locking in customers
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Which of the following strategies is also called establishing high switching costs? A) establishing alliances B) locking in suppliers C) reducing costs D) locking in customers
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establishing alliances
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Which of the following is a process implementation principle of competitive advantage? A) creating a new product B) enhancing a product C) establishing alliances D) differentiating a product
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increase in purchasing costs
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Which of the following is least likely to be an outcome of organizations forming alliances with each other? A) promotion of product awareness B) development of market size C) establishment of standards D) increase in purchasing costs
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help people keep track of things
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The purpose of a database is to ________. A) use special technology to monitor a single theme B) design, write, test, troubleshoot, and maintain the source code of computer programs C) use a logical data model of information to describe and build architectures D) help people keep track of things
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database
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A ________ is a self-describing collection of integrated records. A) datasheet B) datachart C) database D) data record
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a character of data
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Which of the following describes a byte? A) a character of data B) a group of rows C) a collection of data D) a group of columns
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columns
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Characters of data are grouped into ________. A) bytes B) columns C) rows D) records
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fields
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Bytes are grouped into columns, which are also called ________. A) records B) tables C) files D) fields
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records
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Columns are grouped into rows, which are also called ________. A) records B) fields C) tables D) files
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record
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The collection of data for all columns is called a ________. A) record B) field C) file D) table
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table
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A group of similar rows is called a ________. A) table B) record C) field D) matrix
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file
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A table is also called a ________. A) record B) matrix C) file D) field
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special data that describes the structure of a database
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What is metadata? A) data that cannot be used as an information resource B) special data that describes the structure of a database C) data that describes a Web page D) special data that is unique to a specific user
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key
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A ________ is a column or group of columns that identifies a unique row in a table. A) field B) record C) file D) key
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foreign
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Columns that are keys of a different table than the one in which they reside are known as ________ keys. A) foreign B) discrete C) relational D) variable
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relational
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Databases that carry their data in the form of tables are called ________ databases. A) foreign B) variable C) relational D) discrete
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relation
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A more formal name for a table is ________. A) matrix B) field C) record D) relation
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metadata
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The name of the field and the data type would be an example of ________. A) an open matrix B) datamining factors C) metadata D) a closed matrix
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database management system
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A ________ is a program used to create, process, and administer a database. A) metadata system B) knowledge management system C) database management system D) database application system
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SQL Server
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Which of the following is a DBMS product from Microsoft? A) MySQL B) SQL Server C) DB2 D) Sybase ASE
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DB2
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________ is a popular enterprise DBMS product from IBM. A) DB2 B) Access C) SQL Server D) MySQL
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D
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Which of the following is a function of the DBMS? A) enabling multiuser processing B) tracking sample data C) preparing reports D) processing the database
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modify data
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For which of the following operations do applications use DBMS? A) send emails B) write a software program C) modify data D) track sample data
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Structured Query Language
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SQL stands for ________. A) Standard Query Language B) Secondary Query Language C) Structured Query Language D) Simplified Query Language
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Structured Query Language
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________ is an international standard language for processing a database. A) Hypertext Markup Language B) Dynamic HTML C) Structured Query Language D) Sybase Language
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administering the database
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During which of the following functions of a database are tools provided for assistance? A) creating the database B) modifying the database C) administering the database D) processing the database
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administering the database
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Which of the following functions of a database involves setting up user accounts, passwords, permissions, and limits for processing the database? A) administering the database B) creating the database C) modifying the database D) processing the database
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database application
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A ________ is a collection of reports, forms, and queries that process a database. A) database application B) database function C) database management system D) database structure
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Data entry forms
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________ are used to read, insert, modify, and delete data. A) Markup language codes B) Query forms C) Data entry forms D) Data access programs
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report
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In a typical database application, a(n) ________ shows data in a structured context. A) application B) entry form C) query form D) report
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query form
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To locate something in the database, one must type the keyword into the ________ of the application. A) report B) query form C) data entry form D) data access column
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Application programs process logic that is specific to a given business need
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Which of the following is true of a database application? A) A database can have only one application, and each application has one user. B) It provides tools to assist in the administration of the database. C) Application programs process logic that is specific to a given business need. D) It uses hypertext markup language to process information in a database
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lost-update
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To prevent the ________ problem, locking must be used to coordinate the activities of users who know nothing about one another. A) data integrity B) redundancy C) lost-update D) data access
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Enterprise DBMS
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________ products process large organizational and workgroup databases. A) Relational DBMS B) Personal DBMS C) Enterprise DBMS D) Structured DBMS
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DB2
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Which of the following is an example of an enterprise DBMS product? A) Paradox B) dBase C) FoxPro D) DB2
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Enterprise DBMS products manage databases that span dozens of different magnetic disks.
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Which of the following is true of enterprise DBMS products? A) Enterprise DBMS products are designed for small and simple database applications. B) Enterprise DBMS products manage databases that span dozens of different magnetic disks. C) Paradox is an example of an enterprise DBMS product. D) The great bulk of databases in enterprise DBMS products have only a single user.
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Personal DBMS
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________ products are designed for smaller, simpler database applications. A) Relational DBMS B) Personal DBMS C) Enterprise DBMS D) Structured DBMS
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FoxPro
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________ is an example of a personal DBMS product. A) DB2 B) FoxPro C) Oracle Database D) SQL Server
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Personal DBMS products are designed for simple database applications.
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Which of the following is true of personal DBMS products? A) Personal DBMS products are designed for simple database applications. B) Personal DBMS products support many users. C) Personal DBMS products can manage databases that span dozens of different magnetic disks. D) IBM's DB2 is an example of a personal DBMS product.
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NoSQL DBMS
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_______ refers to software systems that support very high transaction rates processing relatively simple data structures, replicated on many servers in the cloud. A) NoSQL DBMS B) MySQL DBMS C) Enterprise DBMS D) Personal DBMS
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Such systems have only one user and hence procedures need not be documented or formalized in any way.
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Which of the following is true of personal information systems? A) Personal information systems that support a particular department are sometimes called departmental information systems. B) Adapting to changes in personal information systems is difficult. C) Such systems have only one user and hence procedures need not be documented or formalized in any way. D) The solutions to problems in a personal information system usually involve more than one department.
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contact manager
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Which of the following is an example of a personal information system? A) scheduling of groundskeeping B) contact manager C) charging of membership fees D) ordering of restaurant supplies from suppliers
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accounts payable system
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Which of the following is an example of a workgroup information system? A) charging of membership fees B) contact manager C) accounts payable system D) ordering of restaurant supplies from suppliers
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functional information system
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A Web store front is an example of a(n) ________. A) interenterprise information system B) collaborative information system C) functional information system D) departmental information system
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Typically workgroup systems support 10 to 100 users.
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Which of the following is true for workgroup information systems? A) Workgroup information systems that support a particular department are sometimes called functional information systems. B) Workgroup information systems that support a particular business function are called departmental information systems. C) Workgroup information systems include categories of procedures, and users are defined according to levels of expertise with the system as well as by levels of security authorization. D) Typically workgroup systems support 10 to 100 users.
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Users of such systems undergo formal procedure training.
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Which of the following statements about enterprise information systems is true? A) Its users do not require any formal training. B) It leads to data duplication among employees. C) Users of such systems undergo formal procedure training. D) It is easy to manage change to enterprise information systems.
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The solutions to problems in an enterprise system usually involve more than one department.
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Which of the following stands true for enterprise information systems? A) Enterprise information systems are information systems that are shared by two or more independent organizations. B) The solutions to problems in an enterprise system usually involve more than one department. C) Typically enterprise information systems support 10 to 100 users. D) Enterprise information systems that support a particular business function are called functional information systems.
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Inter-enterprise information systems
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________ are information systems that are shared by two or more independent organizations. A) Inter-enterprise information systems B) Workgroup information systems C) Enterprise information systems D) Personal information systems
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Ordering of restaurant supplies from suppliers
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________ is an example of an inter-enterprise information system. A) Scheduling of groundskeeping B) Contact manager C) Ordering of restaurant supplies from suppliers D) Charging of membership fees
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Information silo
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_______ occurs when data are isolated in separated information systems. A) Walled garden B) Information silo C) Scheduling D) System integration
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data being isolated in separated systems
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Information silos arise as a result of ________. A) the individual users of personal information systems B) an inter-enterprise information system's involvement to find solutions to problems arising within two or more enterprises C) an organization's plan to create them D) data being isolated in separated systems
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lead generation
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Which of the following applications falls under the common departmental information system of sales and marketing? A) order tracking B) general ledger C) lead generation D) assessment
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operations
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As a common departmental information system, ________ includes order management. A) accounting B) operations C) human resources D) manufacturing
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manufacturing
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Planning and scheduling are applications that fall under ________. A) manufacturing B) sales and management C) accounting D) customer service
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customer service
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Order tracking and account tracking are applications of ________. A) operations B) manufacturing C) sales and marketing D) customer service
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Compensation
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________ is an application of the human resources department. A) Compensation B) Planning C) Financial reporting D) Lead tracking
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There is a lack of integrated enterprise information.
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Which of the following is a consequence of isolated information systems? A) Data cannot get duplicated. B) Business processes are coherent and efficient. C) Decisions are made in unison with other systems. D) There is a lack of integrated enterprise information.
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increased costs for the organization
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The summation of all the problems of information silos leads to ________. A) diseconomies of scope B) increased costs for the organization C) diminishing marginal returns D) reduced organizational innovation
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Business process reengineering
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________ is the activity of altering and designing business processes to take advantage of new information systems. A) Business process management B) Business process reengineering C) Business process improvement D) Business process interoperability
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Systems analysts need to interview key personnel throughout the organization to determine how best to use the new technology
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Which of the following is true for business process reengineering? A) Business process reengineering is efficient, fast, and economical. B) Business process reengineering, when combined with ERP, has a 100 percent success rate. C) Systems analysts need to interview key personnel throughout the organization to determine how best to use the new technology. D) Due to its streamlined process, business process reengineering requires very little time and expertise.
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predesigned procedures for using the software products
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Inherent processes are ________. A) time-consuming business processes and involve substantial investment B) predesigned procedures for using the software products C) the activities which alter and design business processes to take advantage of new information systems D) always accompanied by business process reengineering
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Inherent processes help avoid business process reengineering.
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Which of the following is true for inherent processes? A) Inherent processes are almost always a perfect fit. B) Organizations cannot license the software that is used in various inherent processes. C) Inherent processes are an expensive and time-consuming practise. D) Inherent processes help avoid business process reengineering.
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a suite of applications, a database, and a set of inherent processes for managing all the interactions with the customer, from lead generation to customer service
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A customer relationship management system is ________. A) a suite of applications, a database, and a set of inherent processes for managing all the interactions with the customer, from lead generation to customer service B) a Web application that allows businesses to manage customer suggestions and complaints in a structured fashion C) a suite of applications, a database, and a set of inherent processes for consolidating business operations into a single, consistent, computing platform D) a suite of software applications that integrates existing systems by providing layers of software that connect applications together
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sending messages to the target audience to attract customer prospects
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The first step of the customer life cycle is marketing which involves ________. A) sending messages to the target audience to attract customer prospects B) attempting to win back high value customers C) converting prospects into customers who need to be supported D) increasing the value of existing customers
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customer acquisition
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When prospects become customers who need to be supported, the organization is in the ________ stage of the customer life cycle. A) loss B) marketing C) customer acquisition D) relationship management
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increasing the value of existing customers by selling them more product
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Which of the following is a component of relationship management? A) converting prospects into customers who need to be supported B) increasing the value of existing customers by selling them more product C) losing customers D) sending messages to the target audience to attract customer prospects
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loss
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During which stage of the customer life cycle do win-back processes categorize customers according to value? A) customer acquisition B) marketing C) relationship management D) loss
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Loss
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________ is the last stage of the customer life cycle. A) Marketing B) Customer acquisition C) Loss D) Relationship management
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CRM systems vary in the degree of functionality they provide.
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Which of the following sentences is true about customer relationship management system (CRM)? A) CRM is a suite of applications, a database, and a set of inherent processes for consolidating business operations into a single, consistent, computing platform. B) CRM systems vary in the degree of functionality they provide. C) CRM incorporates accounting, manufacturing, inventory, and human resources applications. D) CRM systems are designed to avoid being customer-centric.
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a suite of applications, a database, and a set of inherent processes for consolidating business operations into a single, consistent, computing platform
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Enterprise resource planning is ________. A) a suite of applications, a database, and a set of inherent processes for consolidating business operations into a single, consistent, computing platform B) a suite of applications, a database, and a set of inherent processes for managing all the interactions with the customer, from lead generation to customer service C) a suite of software applications that integrates existing systems by providing layers of software that connect applications together D) a Web application that allows businesses to manage customer suggestions and complaints in a structured fashion
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ERP systems are used to forecast sales and to create manufacturing plans and schedules to meet those forecasts.
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Which of the following is true about enterprise resource planning (ERP)? A) ERP is a suite of software applications that integrates existing systems by providing layers of software that connect applications together. B) ERP, though unable to incorporate functions of CRM, includes accounting, manufacturing, inventory, and human resources applications. C) The layers of ERP software enable existing applications to communicate with each other and to share data. D) ERP systems are used to forecast sales and to create manufacturing plans and schedules to meet those forecasts.
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EAI
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________ is a suite of software applications that integrates existing systems by providing layers of software that connect applications together. A) ERP B) EAI C) CRM D) SAP
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It enables a gradual move to ERP.
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Which of the following is a function of EAI? A) It is used to forecast sales and to create manufacturing plans and schedules to meet those forecasts. B) It posts activities in the general ledger and other accounting applications. C) It consolidates business operations into a single, consistent, computing platform. D) It enables a gradual move to ERP.
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EAI leverages existing systems—leaving functional applications as is, but providing an integration layer over the top.
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Which of the following statements is true of EAI? A) The process of converting from a current system to an EAI system is a daunting task. B) The layers of EAI software prevent existing applications from communicating with each other. C) EAI makes use of a centralized database. D) EAI leverages existing systems—leaving functional applications as is, but providing an integration layer over the top.
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developing committees and steering groups
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When implementing new enterprise systems, the only solution for resolving process issues and providing enterprise process management is ________. A) communicating the need for the change to the employees B) developing committees and steering groups C) establishing clear and absolute contractual guidelines D) reinforcing employees' sense of self-efficacy
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Gap identification
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________ is a major task when implementing enterprise systems. A) Process blueprinting B) Encapsulation C) Module development D) Gap identification
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To specify a gap, an organization must know both what it needs and what the new product does.
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Which of the following is true about the challenges of requirements gaps? A) To specify a gap, an organization must know both what it needs and what the new product does. B) The first challenge is to find a licensed enterprise product that is a perfect fit for the organization. C) While identifying the gaps is easy, deciding what to do with them is a major challenge. D) While resolving gaps, changing the way an organization adapts to a new application is easier than altering an application to match what the organization does.
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Self-efficacy
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________ is a person's belief that he or she can be successful at his or her job. A) Hope B) Arrogance C) Faith D) Self-efficacy
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Social media
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________ is the use of information technology to support the sharing of content among networks of users. A) Electronic data interchange B) Data warehousing C) Cloud computing D) Social media
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sponsors
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Social media ________ are companies and other organizations that choose to support a presence on one or more SM sites. A) outlets B) sponsors C) application providers D) sectors
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application providers
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Social media ________ are the companies that operate the SM sites. A) outlets B) sponsors C) application providers D) sectors
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application providers
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Social media ________ create the features and functions of the site, and they compete with one another for the attention of user communities and SM sponsors. A) application providers B) collaborators C) sectors D) outlets
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Content
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________ data is data and responses to data that are contributed by users and SM sponsors. A) Connection B) Capital C) Content D) Custom
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Connection
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________ data is data about relationships. A) Connection B) Capital C) Content D) Custom
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Their procedures are informal, evolving, and socially oriented.
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With respect to the five components of SMIS, which of the following is true of community users? A) They process SM sites using elastic, cloud-based servers. B) They develop and operate their own custom social networking application software to read and submit data. C) They need to be trained on both SMIS user procedures as well as on the organization's social networking policy. D) Their procedures are informal, evolving, and socially oriented.
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They store and retrieve SM data on behalf of sponsors and user communities.
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With respect to the five components of SMIS, which of the following is true of application providers? A) They process SM sites using desktops, laptops, and smartphones. B) They store and retrieve SM data on behalf of sponsors and user communities. C) They employ browsers and native mobile applications to read and submit data. D) Their procedures are informal, evolving, and socially oriented.
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They need to be trained on both SMIS user procedures as well as on the organization's social networking policy.
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With respect to the five components of SMIS, which of the following is true of SM sponsors? A) They process SM sites using elastic, cloud-based servers. B) They employ browsers and native mobile applications to read and submit data. C) They need to be trained on both SMIS user procedures as well as on the organization's social networking policy. D) Their procedures are informal, evolving, and socially oriented.
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They seek conformity and want to convince others of the wisdom of their belief.
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Which of the following is true of defenders of belief? A) They seek conformity and want to convince others of the wisdom of their belief. B) Their communities do not facilitate activities like sales and marketing. C) They are effective for activities that involve innovation and problem solving. D) When confronted with contrary evidence, they change their opinion.
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Crowdsourcing
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________ is the dynamic social media process of employing users to participate in product design or product redesign. A) Social capitalization B) User interface designing C) Crowdsourcing D) Process reengineering
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Enterprise 2.0
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________ is the application of social media to facilitate the cooperative work of people inside organizations. A) Enterprise architecture B) Enterprise resource planning C) Enterprise 2.0 D) Enterprise application integration
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folksonomy
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A ________ is a content structure that has emerged from the processing of many user tags. A) metalanguage B) chrome C) folksonomy D) bookmark
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authoring
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According to McAfee's Enterprise 2.0 model, creating enterprise content via blogs, wikis, discussion groups, and presentations is part of ________. A) signaling B) authoring C) tagging D) searching
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extensions
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According to McAfee, Enterprise 2.0 workers want applications that enable them to rate tagged content and to use the tags to predict content that will be of interest to them. Which of the following characteristics of Enterprise 2.0 does this refer to? A) search B) authoring C) signals D) extensions
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signaling
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According to McAfee's Enterprise 2.0 model, pushing enterprise content to users based on subscriptions and alerts is part of ________. A) signaling B) authoring C) tagging D) searching
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social credential
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Being linked to a network of highly regarded contacts is a form of ________. A) social credential B) personal reinforcement C) mobility D) influence
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The value of social capital is determined by the number of the relationships in a social network
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Which of the following is true of social capital? A) Social capital is the investment in human knowledge and skills for future profit. B) The value of social capital is determined by the number of the relationships in a social network. C) Social capital can be gained by limiting the number of friends. D) Being linked into social networks undermines a professional's image and position in an organization.
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social media policy
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A(n) ________ is a statement that delineates employees' rights and responsibilities. A) statement of purpose B) employee relations policy C) social media policy D) corporate datasheet
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Responses are best reserved for when the problematic content has caused the organization to do something positive as a result.
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Which of the following is true of social networking problems? A) Responses are best reserved for when the problematic content has caused the organization to do something positive as a result. B) Inappropriate contributions that contain obscene or otherwise inappropriate content should be ignored indefinitely. C) It is unnecessary to communicate the criticism to the product development team. D) If the problematic content represents reasonable criticism of the organization's products, the best response is to delete it.
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emergence
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In the context of management, ________ means loss of control of employees. A) transcendence B) divergence C) emergence D) dependence
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Business intelligence
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________ systems are information systems that process operational and other data to analyze past performance, and to make predictions. A) Enterprise planning B) Data mining C) Business intelligence D) Internal communication
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The business intelligence application processes the data to produce business intelligence for use by knowledge workers.
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Which of the following is true of business intelligence systems? A) The business intelligence application processes the data to produce business intelligence for use by knowledge workers. B) Business intelligence is not applicable during project management. C) The software component of a business intelligence system is called a business intelligence database. D) The organization's own operational databases cannot be the source data for a business intelligence system.
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acquisition
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Data ________ is the process of obtaining, cleaning, organizing, relating, and cataloging source data. A) interpretation B) application C) retention D) acquisition
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business intelligence analysis
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Which of the following activities in the business intelligence process involves creating business intelligence? A) data acquisition B) business intelligence analysis C) results publishing D) problem solving
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results publishing
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Which of the following activities in the business intelligence process involves delivering business intelligence to the knowledge workers who need it? A) data acquisition B) business intelligence analysis C) results publishing D) problem solving
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Push
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________ publishing delivers business intelligence to users without any request from the users. A) Push B) Pull C) Direct D) Indirect
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Pull
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________ publishing requires the user to request business intelligence results. A) Push B) Pull C) Direct D) Indirect
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data warehouse
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A ________ is a facility for managing an organization's business intelligence data. A) database B) data system C) data warehouse D) data structure
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metadata
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The facts about data, such as its source, format, assumptions, constraints, and the like are called ________. A) metadata B) data structures C) microdata D) data packets
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dirty data
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Problematic data are termed ________. A) rough data B) clickstream data C) granular data D) dirty data
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inconsistency
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Which of the following problems is particularly common for data that have been gathered over time? A) wrong granularity B) nonintegration C) inconsistency D) missing values
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Granularity
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________ refers to the level of detail represented by the data. A) Abstraction B) Granularity C) Dimensionality D) Aggregation
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Granularity refers to the level of detail represented by the data.
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Which of the following is true of data with granularity? A) Granularity refers to the level of detail represented by the data. B) If the granularity is too coarse, the data can be made finer by summing and combining. C) The granularity in clickstream data is too coarse. D) If the granularity is too coarse, the data can be separated into constituent parts.
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the curse of dimensionality
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The more attributes there are, the easier it is to build a model that fits the sample data, but that is worthless as a predictor. Which of the following best explains this phenomenon? A) the free rider problem B) the curse of dimensionality C) the tragedy of the commons D) the zero-sum game
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data mart
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A ________ is a data collection that addresses the needs of a particular department or functional area of the business. A) data mart B) data center C) data mine D) data warehouse
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data warehouse
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The purpose of a ________ is to extract and clean data from operational systems and other sources, and to store and catalog that data for processing by business intelligence tools. A) data harvester B) data center C) data aggregator D) data warehouse
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data warehouse
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The users in the data mart obtain data that pertain to a particular business function from the ________. A) data harvester B) data center C) data aggregator D) data warehouse
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The data warehouse takes data from the data producers for distribution.
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Which of the following is true of data warehouses? A) The data warehouse takes data from the data producers for distribution. B) It is economical to create, staff, and operate data warehouses. C) Users in the data warehouse obtain data that pertain to a particular business function from the data mart. D) People working with a data warehouse are experts in a given business function.
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Reporting analysis
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________ is the process of sorting, grouping, summing, filtering, and formatting structured data. A) Knowledge management B) Data mining analysis C) Cloud computing D) Reporting analysis
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Structured
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________ data is data in the form of rows and columns. A) Granulated B) Structured C) Integrated D) Problematic
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reporting
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The goal of ________ is to create information about past performance. A) data integration B) data mining analysis C) reporting D) BigData
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Exception
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________ reports are reports produced when something out of predefined bounds occurs. A) Exception B) Static C) Dynamic D) Informal
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Data mining
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________ is the application of statistical techniques to find patterns and relationships among data for classification and prediction. A) Data encryption B) Data warehousing C) Data mining D) Data integration
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Data mining
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________ techniques emerged from the combined discipline of statistics, mathematics, artificial intelligence and machine-learning. A) Data encryption B) Data warehousing C) Data mining D) Data integration
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Analysts apply data mining techniques to the data and observe the results.
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Which of the following is true of unsupervised data mining? A) Analysts apply data mining techniques to the data and observe the results. B) Analysts apply statistical techniques to data to estimate parameters of a model. C) Analysts use tools such as regression analysis. D) Data miners develop a model prior to the analysis.
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cluster analysis
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In ________, statistical techniques identify groups of entities that have similar characteristics. A) cluster analysis B) content indexing C) regression analysis D) cloud computing
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supervised
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With ________ data mining, data miners develop a model prior to the analysis and apply statistical techniques to data to estimate parameters of the model. A) sequential B) supervised C) nonsequential D) unsupervised
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data-mining systems
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Regression analysis is used in ________. A) expert systems B) knowledge management systems C) data-mining systems D) reporting systems
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regression analysis
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In ________, the impact of a set of variables on another variable is measured. A) cluster analysis B) context indexing C) cloud computing D) regression analysis
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BigData refers to data sets that are at least a petabyte in size.
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Which of the following is true of BigData? A) BigData refers to data sets that are at least a petabyte in size. B) BigData has low velocity, meaning that it is generated slowly. C) BigData can be processed using traditional techniques. D) BigData analysis does not involve reporting and data mining techniques.
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Map
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When the BigData collection is broken into pieces, and hundreds or thousands of independent processors search these pieces for something of interest, the process is referred to as the ________ phase. A) Crash B) Control C) Reduce D) Map
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Reduce
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The results generated by BigData processors are combined in what is referred to as the ________ phase. A) Process B) Control C) Reduce D) Construct
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publish the information to the right user at the right time
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For business intelligence results to have value, they must ________. A) publish the information to the right user at the right time B) discover patterns and relationships in data to predict future outcomes C) foster innovation and improve customer service D) encode, save, and process expert knowledge
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Static
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________ reports are business intelligence documents that are fixed at the time of creation and do not change. A) Informal B) Extension C) Static D) Stable
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Dynamic
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_____ reports are business intelligence documents that are updated at the time they are requested. A) Informal B) Extension C) Static D) Dynamic
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Publishing dynamic business intelligence requires the publisher to set up database access when documents are consumed.
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Which of the following is true of business intelligence publishing alternatives? A) Pull options vary between different server types, such as Web servers and business intelligence servers. B) Publishing dynamic business intelligence requires the publisher to set up database access when documents are consumed. C) For static content, the skill required to create a publishing application is high. D) For Web servers, the push options are manual.
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management
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The ________ function of business intelligence servers maintains metadata about the authorized allocation of business intelligence results to users. A) controlling B) processing C) delivery D) management
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It is a logical representation of the structure of the data.
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Which of the following is true of a data model? A) It is created after the database is designed. B) It is an attribute whose value is associated with only one entity instance. C) It is a logical representation of the structure of the data. D) It does not describe the relationships among data.
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database design
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Once the users have validated and approved the data model, it is transformed into a ________. A) database design B) requirement report C) knowledge management system D) data repository
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E-R data model
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Which of the following is a highly popular technique for creating a data model where the developers describe the content of a database by defining the things that will be stored in the database and the relationships among those entities? A) E-R data model B) UML model C) object-role model D) data integrity model
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unified modeling language
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The acronym UML refers to ________. A) unified markup language B) unified modeling language C) uniform markup language D) uniform modeling language
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Entities have attributes that describe characteristics of the entity.
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Which of the following is true of entities? A) An identifier's value is associated with every entity in the data model. B) Entities can only represent a logical construct or transaction, not a physical object. C) Entities have attributes that describe characteristics of the entity. D) The relationships between entities are known as attributes.
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attributes
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Entities have ________ that describe the characteristics of the entities. A) attributes B) dependencies C) cardinalities D) alternatives
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Identifiers
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________ are attributes whose values are associated with one and only one entity instance. A) Cardinalities B) Descriptors C) Dependencies D) Identifiers
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1:N relationship
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In a classroom, each student can have multiple advisers. In a data model, this can be best represented by the ________. A) N:M relationship B) N:N relationship C) 1:N relationship D) 1:1 relationship
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N:M
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The ________ notation signifies that an adviser can be related to many students and that a student can be related to many advisers. A) 1:N B) N:M C) N:1 D) N:N
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crow's foot
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The little lines in an E-R diagram used as shorthand for the multiple lines between two entities are referred to as a(n) ________. A) crow's foot B) identifier C) attribute D) tracker
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the maximum number of entities that can be involved in a relationship
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Maximum cardinality in an E-R diagram refers to ________. A) the maximum number of relationships possible in a diagram B) the maximum number of entities that can be involved in a relationship C) the maximum number of constraints possible for a particular relationship D) the maximum number of attributes an entity can have
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normalization
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The process of converting poorly structured tables into two or more well-structured tables is referred to as ________. A) replication B) integration C) actualization D) normalization
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data are duplicated
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The data integrity problem can occur only if ________. A) data are duplicated B) data are missing C) data are replaced D) data are redundant
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data duplication
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Normalized tables eliminate ________. A) data redundancy B) data duplication C) data entry D) data conversion
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construct tables such that every table has a single topic
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The general goal of normalization is to ________. A) create a copy of an existing table B) construct tables such that every table has a similar topic C) convert two or more tables into a single table D) construct tables such that every table has a single topic
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normal forms
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Database practitioners classify tables into various ________ according to the kinds of problems they have. A) entities B) cardinalities C) normal forms D) attributes
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during the data modeling stage
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The easiest time to change the database structure is ________. A) during the data modeling stage B) after constructing the database C) during the data designing stage D) after creating the application programs
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Mobile
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________ systems are information systems that support users in motion. A) Data B) Mobile C) Remote D) Web-based
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The usage of mobile systems results in the organizations being effective with part-time employees and independent contractors.
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Which of the following is true of mobile systems? A) Just-in-time data creates a premium on the ability to memorize vast quantities of product data. B) Mobile systems decrease the speed of business. C) The usage of mobile systems results in the organizations being effective with part-time employees and independent contractors. D) Just-in-time data removes the premium for the ability to access, query, and present the data.
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Just-in-time
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________ data is data delivered to the user at the precise time it is needed. A) Time-oriented B) Just-in-time C) Context-sensitive D) Object-oriented
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native
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A ________ application is a thick-client application that is designed to work with a particular operating system, and sometimes even designed to work only with a particular mobile device that runs that operating system. A) native B) virtual C) remote D) lean
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thin-client
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In a ________ application, the browser provides a more-or-less consistent environment for the application. A) virtual B) native C) thick-client D) thin-client
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Object-oriented
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________ languages can be used to create difficult, complex applications, and, if used properly, will result in high-performance code that is easy to alter when requirements change. A) Data-sensitive B) Time-oriented C) Object-oriented D) Context-sensitive
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only run on the operating system for which they are programmed
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Native mobile applications can be differentiated from thin-client mobile applications in that native mobile applications ________. A) are developed by professional programmers and technically oriented Web developers and business professionals B) use HTML5, CSS3, and JavaScript as development languages C) only run on the operating system for which they are programmed D) are dependent on browser differences only
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Objective-C
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Which of the following development languages is used in native mobile applications? A) CSS3 B) HTML5 C) JavaScript D) Objective-C
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are limited by the capabilities of the browser
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Thin-client mobile applications can be differentiated from native mobile applications in that thin-client mobile applications ________. A) are limited by the capabilities of the browser B) are developed by professional programmers only C) only run on the operating system for which they are programmed D) use Objective-C, Java, and VB.Net as their development languages
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HTML5
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Which of the following development languages is used in thin-client mobile applications? A) VB.Net B) HTML5 C) Java D) Objective-C
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visual overhead
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Chrome is a term that refers to the ________ in a computer display. A) Web applications B) browsers C) visual overhead D) taskbar
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context-sensitive
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Some mobile applications provide ________ chrome, meaning it pops up in the display when appropriate. A) context-sensitive B) time-oriented C) data-sensitive D) object-oriented
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Roaming
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________ occurs when users move their activities, especially long-running transactions, across devices. A) Cloud computing B) Roaming C) Direct interaction D) Interfacing
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Push
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________ data is data that the server sends to the device. A) Nonlinear B) Linear C) Pull D) Push
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Pull
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________ data is data that the device requests from the server. A) Nonlinear B) Linear C) Pull D) Push
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cost savings
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Which of the following is an advantage of employee use of mobile systems at work? A) cost savings B) less risk of infection C) lower compatibility problems D) no real danger of lost or damaged data
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real danger of lost or damaged data
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Which of the following is a disadvantage of employee use of mobile systems at work? A) lower productivity B) lower employee satisfaction C) greater need for training D) real danger of lost or damaged data
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If the organization wants to own any mobile device that employees connect to its network, the policy must be part of the employee's contract.
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Which of the following is true of the "bring your own device" (BYOD) policy? A) The organization creates secure application services using https that require employee sign-on, but they can be accessed only from a mobile device that is connected to the network. B) If the organization wants to own any mobile device that employees connect to its network, the policy must be part of the employee's contract. C) If the employees sign on to the organization's network with their mobile devices, the organization is financially responsible for any damage they do. D) This policy does not allow the organization to sniff employees' mobile traffic.
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Enterprise resource planning
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________ is a suite of applications, called modules, a database, and a set of inherent processes for consolidating business operations into a single, consistent, computing platform. A) Enterprise resource planning B) Customer relationship management C) Warehouse management system D) Supply chain management
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procurement
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Which of the following is an example of a supply chain activity? A) scheduling B) sales prospecting C) procurement D) cash management
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quality control
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For a product to be considered a true ERP product, it must include applications that integrate manufacturing activities such as ________. A) inventory management B) quality control C) customer support D) benefits administration
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sales prospecting
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CRM, as an application that must be included in a true ERP product, includes ________. A) quality control B) commission calculations C) sales prospecting D) supplier management
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human resources
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Payroll, time and attendance, and benefits administration are examples of ________ activities. A) manufacturing B) CRM C) human resources D) accounting
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accounting
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Maintaining a general ledger is an example of a(n) ________ activity. A) supply chain B) accounting C) human resources D) manufacturing
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During the ERP development process, the development team sets configuration parameters that specify how ERP application programs will operate.
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Which of the following is true of ERP application programs? A) During the ERP development process, the development team sets configuration parameters that specify how ERP application programs will operate. B) There are virtually no limits to how much configuration can be done in an ERP application program. C) Custom programming of ERP application programs is economical both initially and in long-term maintenance costs. D) In order to meet varying customer requirements, development teams have to change the program code of ERP application programs.
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An ERP solution includes initial configuration data.
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Which of the following is true of ERP databases? A) An ERP database contains the company's operational data. B) A stored procedure is a computer program code stored within the database that runs to keep the database consistent when certain conditions arise. C) An ERP solution includes initial configuration data. D) A trigger is a computer program code stored in the database that is used to enforce business rules.
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computer program stored within the database that runs to keep the database consistent when certain conditions arise
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A trigger is a ________. A) computer program stored within the database that runs to keep the database consistent when certain conditions arise B) computer program stored in the database that is used to enforce business rules C) set of inherent procedures in an ERP solution that implement standard business processes D) programming paradigm that describes computation in terms of statements that change a program state
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It is a computer program stored in the database that is used to enforce business rules.
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What is a stored procedure? A) It is a computer program stored within the database that runs to keep the database consistent when certain conditions arise. B) It is a programming paradigm that describes computation in terms of statements that change a program state. C) It is a computer program stored in the database that is used to enforce business rules. D) It is a software program that houses and serves business logic for use by multiple applications.
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convert to new procedures
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Which of the following should be considered while implementing the ERP application? A) compare as-is model to blueprint processes B) convert to new procedures C) model current processes "as-is" D) identify relevant ERP blueprint processes
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availability of skilled IT staff
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Which of the following factors forms a major point of difference between companies of different sizes, in terms of ERP? A) relevance of ERP systems B) value chains C) availability of skilled IT staff D) basic business processes
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IT specialists in small organizations are spread very thin and often are in over their heads during an ERP implementation.
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Which of the following is true of the impact of ERP on small organizations? A) IT specialists in small organizations are dedicated to managing only the ERP system. B) The IT staff in small organizations is isolated from senior management. C) In small organizations, ERP implementation will be part of a strategic process and, once begun, will have the full backing of the entire executive group. D) IT specialists in small organizations are spread very thin and often are in over their heads during an ERP implementation.
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In midsized organizations, the IT staff is isolated from senior management.
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Which of the following sentences about the effect of ERP on midsized organizations is true? A) In midsized organizations, the IT staff is isolated from senior management. B) ERP implementation in midsized companies will be part of a strategic process and, once begun, will have the full backing of the entire executive group. C) IT specialists in midsized organizations are spread very thin and often are in over their heads during an ERP implementation. D) Midsized organizations employ only one or two IT specialists.
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Epicor
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________ is known primarily for its retail-oriented ERP software. A) Epicor B) SAP C) Infor D) Oracle
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Epicor
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Which of the following ERP vendors' products have the lowest cost? A) Oracle B) Microsoft Dynamics C) Epicor D) SAP
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Oracle has never been known to create easy-to-use ERP products.
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Which of the following statements is true of Oracle's ERP products? A) Oracle has never been known to create easy-to-use ERP products. B) Oracle traditionally does not develop its ERP products in-house, but favors acquisition of products such as PeopleSoft and Siebel. C) Oracle's ERP products are relatively inexpensive and serve higher-end small companies and lower-end large companies. D) Oracle's ERP products are not designed according to SOA principles, and hence are non-customizable.
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SAP uses classic, thick-client, client-server architecture.
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Which of the following is true of SAP's ERP products? A) SAP is known primarily for its retail-oriented ERP software. B) SAP's ERP products are lower in cost than those from other companies. C) SAP uses classic, thick-client, client-server architecture. D) Because of its installed base, SAP can make a rapid move to cloud-based solutions.
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They are organizations that have made the four transitions, called pillars.
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Which of the following is true of hyper-social organizations? A) Using social media in an old-style, organization-centric manner is highly effective. B) Rather than creating relationships in which customers and organizations perceive and gain value, they send messages that attempt to manage, influence and control both parties. C) They are organizations that have made the four transitions, called pillars. D) Marketing is broadly conceived to pertain to employees and partners only.
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In order to obtain any of the consumers' attention today, organizations must engage with networks in their communities, based on their interests.
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Which of the following is true of the transition of channels to networks in a hyper-social organization? A) Hyper-social organizations use networks to transmit messages valued by recipients. B) Networks transmit data, whereas channels transmit knowledge. C) Social media limits the formation of communities based on common interests. D) In order to obtain any of the consumers' attention today, organizations must engage with networks in their communities, based on their interests.
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sense
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Which of the following dynamic process activities involves determining what the communities you care about are saying about you, and identifying the structure, goals, and dynamic of communities with which you want to relate? A) activate B) sense C) measure D) engage
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engage
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Which of the following dynamic process activities involves creating relationships with different communities? A) activate B) sense C) measure D) engage
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activate
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Which of the following dynamic process activities involves connecting communities to internal value chains and processes? A) activate B) sense C) measure D) engage
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measure
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Which of the following dynamic process activities involves analyzing the success of an organization in terms of social capital? A) activate B) sense C) measure D) engage
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story tell
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Which of the following dynamic process activities involves publicizing community successes? A) sense B) activate C) engage D) story tell
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knowledge management
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The process of creating value from intellectual capital and sharing that knowledge with employees, managers, suppliers, customers, and others who need that capital is referred to as ________. A) knowledge management B) value engineering C) knowledge engineering D) earned value management
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Expert systems
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_______ are rule-based systems that encode human knowledge in the form of If/Then rules. A) Management information systems B) Expert systems C) Content management systems D) Decision support systems
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expert systems shells
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The programs that process a set of rules are called ________. A) expert systems codes B) expert systems databases C) expert systems shells D) expert systems files
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To create the system of rules, the expert system development team interviews human experts in the domain of interest.
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Which of the following is true of expert systems? A) To create the system of rules, the expert system development team interviews human experts in the domain of interest. B) The programs that process a set of rules are called expert systems codes. C) Expert systems are easy to maintain. D) Expert systems require very few labor hours from both experts in the domain under study and designers of expert systems.
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Content management systems
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________ are information systems that support the management and delivery of documents and other expressions of employee knowledge. A) Management information systems B) Enterprise resource systems C) Expert systems D) Content management systems
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Content management systems must maintain linkages among documents.
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Which of the following is one of the complications of a content management function? A) Multiple documents cannot refer to the same product or procedure. B) Documents exist in isolation from each other. C) Content management systems must maintain linkages among documents. D) The document contents are nonperishable.
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Operations develop an in-house system to track machine maintenance procedures.
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Which of the following is true of the content management application alternatives? A) In-house systems are far less expensive to maintain than off-the-shelf products. B) Operations develop an in-house system to track machine maintenance procedures. C) Custom content management applications are economical to develop and maintain. D) Off-the-shelf products have considerably less functionality than most in-house systems.
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Google
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The largest collection of documents ever assembled exists on the Internet, and the world's largest and most popular document search engine is ________. A) Yahoo B) Bing C) Google D) AltaVista
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Private
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________ wikis are particularly useful for technical teams, such as engineering teams, who need to share common definitions for terms and principles. A) Nonlinear B) Linear C) Public D) Private
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rich directory
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A(n) ________ is an employee directory that includes not only the standard name, email, phone, and address, but also organizational structure and expertise. A) rich directory B) active directory C) external directory D) internal directory