Project+ MIS EXAM REVIEW – Flashcards
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. Which of the following is a difference between projects and operations? a. Projects are undertaken to sustain an organization's business whereas operations are not. b. Operations are undertaken to create unique products, services, or results whereas projects are not. c. Projects are temporary endeavors whereas an organization's operations are ongoing in nature. d. Operations have well-defined objectives whereas projects do not need to have a unique purpose.
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ANS: C A project is "a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result." Operations, on the other hand, is work done in organizations to sustain the business.
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2. Which of the following is true of projects? a. They have an indefinite beginning and end. b. They have a unique purpose. c. They are developed using regressive elaboration. d. They are permanent in nature.
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ANS: B One of the attributes of projects is that they has have a unique purpose. Every project should have a well-defined objective.
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3. The role of a _____ is to provide direction and funding for a project. a. project sponsor b. project manager c. support staff member d. project team
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ANS: A Most projects have many interested parties or stakeholders, but someone must take the primary role of sponsorship. The project sponsor usually provides the direction and funding for the project.
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4. Galaxy, a construction company, buys a particular brand of tiles manufactured by Tiles and Floors, an eco-friendly tile manufacturing company. However, Tiles and Floors has declared bankruptcy and closed down. At present, Galaxy is facing a crisis because there are no other manufacturers in the market that supplies eco-friendly tiles. Which of the following constraints is Galaxy currently facing? a. Resources b. Time c. Scope d. Cost
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ANS: A Every project is constrained in different ways. For some projects, resources are the main concern.
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5. Steve, an engineer in a construction company, is at present working on a home construction project. The home is being built for the Robinson family, the owners of the home. Steve is working with his project team and support staff to ensure the project is completed on time. In such a scenario, the project sponsor is _____. a. Steve b. the support staff c. the project team d. the Robinson family
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ANS: D Stakeholders are the people involved in or affected by project activities, and include the project sponsor, project team, support staff, customers, among others. In a home construction project, the project sponsors would be the potential new homeowners.
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6. Project _____ management involves defining and managing all the work required to complete the project successfully. a. human resource b. scope c. time d. cost
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ANS: B Project management knowledge areas describe the key competencies that project managers must develop. Project scope management involves defining and managing all the work required to complete the project successfully.
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7. Project _____ management ensures that the project will satisfy the stated or implied needs for which it was undertaken. a. cost b. time c. risk d. quality
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ANS: D Project management knowledge areas describe the key competencies that project managers must develop. Project quality management ensures that the project will satisfy the stated or implied needs for which it was undertaken.
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8. Which of the following project management knowledge areas primarily involve generating, collecting, disseminating, and storing project information? a. Project cost management b. Project procurement management c. Project time management d. Project communications management
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ANS: D Project management knowledge areas describe the key competencies that project managers must develop. Project communications management involves generating, collecting, disseminating, and storing project information.
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9. Project procurement management mainly involves: a. making effective use of the people involved with the project. b. buying goods and services for a project from outside the performing organization. c. generating, collecting, disseminating, and storing project information. d. identifying and analyzing stakeholder needs while managing and controlling their engagement.
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ANS: B Project management knowledge areas describe the key competencies that project managers must develop. Project procurement management involves acquiring or procuring goods and services for a project from outside the performing organization.
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10. Which of the following project management knowledge areas is an overarching function that affects and is affected by the different knowledge areas? a. Project cost management b. Project stakeholder management c. Project integration management d. Project communications management
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ANS: C Project management knowledge areas describe the key competencies that project managers must develop. Project integration management is an overarching function that affects and is affected by all of the other knowledge areas.
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11. An important tool for project scope management is _____. a. fast tracking b. crashing c. a Gantt chart d. a work breakdown structure
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ANS: D Scope management uses scope statements, work breakdown structures, statements of work, requirements analyses, scope management plans, scope verification techniques, and scope change controls.
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12. Which of the following tools are most likely to be used in project time management? a. Payback analysis b. Impact matrices c. Gantt charts d. Fishbone diagrams
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ANS: C Time management uses Gantt charts, project network diagrams, critical path analysis, crashing, fast tracking, and schedule performance measurements.
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13. Fast tracking is an example of a tool used in _____ management. a. time b. quality c. communication d. risk
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ANS: A Time management tools include Gantt charts, project network diagrams, critical path analysis, crashing, fast tracking, and schedule performance measurements.
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14. In which of the following areas of management is payback analysis most likely to be used? a. Human resource b. Communication c. Cost d. Quality
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ANS: C Tools used in cost management include payback analysis, earned value management, project portfolio management, and cost estimates among others.
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15. A _____ is a tool used in quality management. a. probability matrice proposal b. checklist c. request for d. critical path analysis
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ANS: B Quality management uses include quality metrics, checklists, quality control charts, Pareto diagrams, and fishbone diagrams among others.
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16. Team building exercises and motivation techniques are tools used in _____ management. a. procurement b. scope c. human resource d. cost
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ANS: C Motivation techniques, empathic listening, resource histograms, and team building exercises are tools used in human resource management.
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17. Which of the following tools can best help in efficient communication management? a. Kick-off meetings b. Impact matrices c. Requests for quotes d. Fast tracking
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ANS: A Kick-off meetings are an important tool in project communication management. Other tools in project communication management are communications management plans, conflict management, communications media selection, and progress reports.
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18. A _____ is a tool used in risk management. a. work breakdown structure analysis b. project organizational chart c. critical path d. probability matrice
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ANS: D Risk management plans, risk registers, probability/impact matrices, and risk rankings are different tools used in risk management.
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19. Which of the following statements is true of project management? a. It is a simple discipline with a limited scope. b. It has specific tools which work universally across all kinds of projects. c. It does not guarantee successes for all projects. d. Its framework consists solely of project management knowledge areas.
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ANS: C Despite its advantages, project management is a very broad, often complex discipline. What works for one project may not work for another. Thus it is essential for project managers to continue to develop their knowledge and skills in managing projects.
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20. Which of the following is true of program managers? a. They report to project managers who represent the next level in the hierarchy. b. They recognize that managing a program is simpler than managing a project. c. They provide leadership and direction for project managers heading the projects within a program. d. They are responsible solely for the delivery of project results.
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ANS: C A program manager provides leadership and direction for the project managers heading the projects within a program. Program managers also coordinate the efforts of project teams, functional groups, suppliers, and operations staff supporting the projects to ensure that products and processes are implemented to maximize benefits.
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21. Which of the following is a difference between project management and portfolio management? a. Project management involves making wise investment decisions whereas portfolio management does not. b. Portfolio management is an easy task whereas project management is a more difficult task. c. Portfolio management asks questions like, "Are we carrying out projects efficiently?" whereas project management asks questions such as "Are we investing in the right areas?" d. Project management addresses specific, short-term goals whereas portfolio management focuses on long-term goals.
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ANS: D Individual projects often address tactical goals, whereas portfolio management addresses strategic goals. Tactical goals are generally more specific and short-term than strategic goals.
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22. A difference between strategic and tactical goals is that: a. strategic goals are more specific than tactical goals. b. tactical goals encompass broader dimensions than strategic goals. c. tactical goals are more important for a project than strategic goals. d. strategic goals are long-term in nature whereas tactical goals are short-term.
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ANS: D Tactical goals are generally more specific and short-term than strategic goals, which emphasize long-term goals for an organization.
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23. Which of the following questions reflect the strategic goals of project portfolio management? a. Are we carrying out projects well? b. Are projects on time and on budget? c. Are we investing in the right areas? d. Do stakeholders know what they should be doing?
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ANS: C The strategic goals of project portfolio management raise questions such as "Are we working on the right projects?", "Are we investing in the right areas?", and "Do we have the right resources to be competitive?"
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24. Martha works as a project manager at a bank. Due to certain changes in external factors, Martha needs to make a few alterations in the tactical goals of her project. In such a scenario, which of the following will best help Martha cope with the change? a. Negotiation b. Project environment knowledge c. Motivation d. Soft skills
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ANS: B The project environment differs from organization to organization and project to project, but some skills will help in almost all project environments. These skills include understanding change and understanding how organizations work within their social, political, and physical environments. Project managers must be comfortable leading and handling change, because most projects introduce changes in organizations and involve changes within the projects themselves.
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25. Joe is a project manager in an IT company and has over the years, gained substantial knowledge in his area of work. However, while managing his team, he often loses his temper. In addition, he fails to be an active listener when his team members approach him with work related challenges. In which of the following areas does Joe need to develop his skills in? a. Application area knowledge b. Project environment knowledge c. Standards and regulations d. Human relations skills
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ANS: D Achieving high performance on projects requires soft skills, otherwise called human relations skills. Project managers need good soft skills to understand, navigate, and meet stakeholders' needs and expectations. They need to be able to listen actively to what others are saying, help develop new approaches for solving problems, and then persuade others to work toward achieving project goals.
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26. Which of the following best defines the role of leaders? a. They focus on short-term objectives. b. They work on achieving primarily tactical goals. c. They work solely toward day-to-day details of meeting specific tasks. d. They inspire people to reach goals.
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ANS: D Generally, a leader focuses on long-term goals and big-picture objectives while inspiring people to reach those goals.
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27. A Gantt chart is a standard format for displaying project schedule information by listing project activities and their corresponding start and finish dates in a ____ format. a. calendar b. line graph c. bar graph d. pie chart
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ANS: A A Gantt chart was developed by Henry Gantt for scheduling work in factories. A Gantt chart is a standard format for displaying project schedule information by listing project activities and their corresponding start and finish dates in calendar form.
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28. A critical path: a. is the shortest path through a network diagram. b. represents schedule information in calendar form. c. determines the earliest completion date of a project. d. is a quality management tool to ensure a project meets the minimum quality standards.
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ANS: C The critical path is the longest path through a network diagram that determines the earliest completion of a project. It shows which tasks affect the target completion date of a project, and it can change as work proceeds and more information becomes available.
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29. A _____ is an organizational group responsible for coordinating the project management function throughout an organization. a. Project Management Office b. Project Management Professional c. Project Management Center d. Portfolio Group
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ANS: A In the 1990s, many companies began creating Project Management Offices to help them handle the increasing number and complexity of projects. A Project Management Office (PMO) is an organizational group responsible for coordinating the project management function throughout an organization.
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30. Which of the following provides certification as a Project Management Professional? a. PMS b. PMC c. PMI d. PMP
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ANS: C PMI or the Project Management Institute provides certification as a Project Management Professional (PMP). A Project Management Professional (PMP) is someone who has documented sufficient project experience and education, agreed to follow the PMI code of professional conduct, and demonstrated knowledge of project management by passing a comprehensive examination.
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31. Which of the following refers to a set of principles that guides decision making based on personal values of what is considered right and wrong? a. Ethics b. Civics c. Laws d. Politics
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ANS: A Ethics is a set of principles that guides decision making based on personal values of what is considered right and wrong. Making ethical decisions is an important part of project managers' personal and professional lives because it generates trust and respect with other people.
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32. Which of the following is true of low-end tools of the project management software? a. They are designed for especially large projects with multiple users. b. Their main advantage is that they have unlimited functionality. c. They provide basic project management features. d. They are referred to as an enterprise project management software.
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ANS: C In a project management software, low-end tools provide basic project management features and are often recommended for small projects and single users.
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33. Which of the following types of tools is usually recommended for small projects and single users? a. Low-end b. Midrange c. High-end d. Upper range
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ANS: A Low-end tools provide basic project management features and generally cost less than $200 per user They are often recommended for small projects and single users.
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34. Enterprise project management softwares are also known as _____ tools of project management software. a. baseline b. midrange c. low-end d. high-end
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ANS: D Project management software tools can be divided into three general categories based on functionality and price. One of these tools are high-end tools which are sometimes referred to as enterprise project management software.
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35. Which of the following is a difference between low-end and midrange tools of the project management software? a. Low-end tools are designed to handle primarily multiple users whereas midrange tools are created to handle single users. b. Low-end tools provide robust capabilities to handle dispersed workgroups whereas midrange tools do not. c. Midrange tools provide basic project management features whereas low-end tools offer enterprise and portfolio management functions. d. Midrange tools are designed to handle larger projects than low-end tools.
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ANS: D In a project management software, midrange tools is a step up from low-end tools. They are designed to handle larger projects, multiple users, and multiple projects.
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Chapter 2:
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The Project Management and Information Technology Context
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1. Projects must operate in a broad organizational environment, and project managers need to consider projects within the greater organizational context. _____ describes this holistic view of carrying out projects within the context of the organization. a. Linear analysis b. Systems thinking c. Reductionism d. The silo approach
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ANS: B To handle complex situations effectively, project managers need to take a holistic view of a project and understand how it relates to the larger organization. Systems thinking describes this holistic view of carrying out projects within the context of the organization
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2. _____ refers to a problem-solving approach that requires defining the scope of a system, dividing it into its components, and then identifying and evaluating its problems, opportunities, constraints, and needs. a. Linear programming b. Independent component analysis c. Principal component analysis d. Systems analysis
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ANS: D Systems analysis is a problem-solving approach that requires defining the scope of the system, dividing it into components, and then identifying and evaluating its problems, opportunities, constraints, and needs.
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3. The symbolic perspective of an organization: a. focuses on different groups' roles and responsibilities to meet the goals and policies set by top management. b. views the organization as coalitions composed of varied individuals and interest groups. c. focuses on providing harmony between the needs of the organization and the needs of people. d. focuses on the meanings of the culture, language, traditions, and image of the organization.
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ANS: D The symbolic frame focuses on symbols and meanings. In this frame, the most important aspect of any event in an organization is not what actually happened, but what it means.
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4. The _____ perspective of an organization focuses on different groups' roles and responsibilities in order to meet the goals and policies set by top management. a. structural frame b. human resources frame c. political frame d. symbolic frame
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ANS: A The structural frame deals with how the organization is structured (usually depicted in an organizational chart) and focuses on different groups' roles and responsibilities to meet the goals and policies set by top management. This frame is very rational and focuses on coordination and control.
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5. The _____ frame of an organization focuses on providing harmony between the needs of the organization and the needs of people. a. structural b. human resources c. political d. symbolic
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ANS: B The human resources (HR) frame focuses on producing harmony between the needs of the organization and the needs of people. It recognizes that mismatches can occur between the needs of the organization and those of individuals and groups, and works to resolve any potential problems.
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6. The _____ perspective on organizations assumes that organizations are coalitions composed of varied individuals and interest groups. a. political frame b. symbolic frame c. structural frame d. human resources frame
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ANS: A The political frame addresses organizational and personal politics. Politics in organizations take the form of competition among groups or individuals for power and leadership. The political frame assumes that organizations are coalitions composed of varied individuals and interest groups.
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7. Grey's Infotech sells customized hardware and software solutions for businesses. The salespeople for Grey's have a strict dress code when meeting clients. They are required to wear dark business suits, in order to convey the company's dedication to quality. The meaning conveyed to the clients' through the salespeople's clothing is part of the _____ frame of the organization. a. political b. symbolic c. structural d. human resources
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ANS: B The symbolic frame focuses on symbols and meanings. In this frame, the most important aspect of any event in an organization is not what actually happened, but what it means. The symbolic frame also relates to the company's culture. How do people dress? How many hours do they work?How do they run meetings?
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8. In Rizzati Corp, vice presidents in departments such as engineering, manufacturing, IT, and human resources report directly to the chief executive officer and undertake their tasks independently of each other. The staffs of these departments have specialized skills in their respective disciplines.Rizatti Corp can be said to have a _____ organizational structure. a. project b. symbolic c. matrix d. functional
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ANS: D A functional organizational structure is the hierarchy most people think of when picturing an organizational chart. Functional managers or vice presidents in specialties such as engineering, manufacturing, IT, and human resources report to the chief executive officer (CEO).
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9. In a _____organizational structure, program managers, rather than functional managers or vice presidents, report to the CEO. Their staffs have a variety of skills needed to complete all required tasks within their programs. a. project b. symbolic c. matrix d. functional
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ANS: A A project organizational structure also is hierarchical, but instead of functional managers or vice presidents reporting to the CEO, program managers report to the CEO.
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10. In a _____ organizational structure, personnel often report to both a functional manager and one or more project managers. a. project b. symbolic c. matrix d. functional
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ANS: C A matrix organizational structure represents the middle ground between functional and project structures. Personnel often report both to a functional manager and one or more project managers.
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11. Project managers have the most authority in a pure _____ organizational structure. a. functional b. project c. matrix d. circular
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ANS: B Project managers have the most authority in a pure project organizational structure and the least amount of authority in a pure functional organizational structure.
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12. Project managers have the least amount of authority in a pure _____ organizational structure. a. functional b. project c. matrix d. circular
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ANS: A Project managers have the most authority in a pure project organizational structure and the least amount of authority in a pure functional organizational structure.
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13. Which of the following is true of a matrix organizational structure? a. In a matrix organizational structure, employees are organized into departments according to their skills, and there is little interaction between employees from different departments. b. Project managers in matrix organizations have staff from only a single functional area working on their projects. c. In a strong matrix organizational structure, the project manager controls the project budget and has moderate to high authority. d. A matrix organizational structure is hierarchical, but instead of functional managers reporting to the CEO, program managers report to the CEO.
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ANS: C In a strong matrix organizational structure, the project manager controls the project budget and has moderate to high authority.
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14. _____ refers to a set of shared assumptions, values, and behaviors that characterize the functioning of an organization. a. Chain of command b. Line of control c. Organizational culture d. Organizational structure
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ANS: C Organizational culture is a set of shared assumptions, values, and behaviors that characterize the functioning of an organization. It often includes elements of the four frames.
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15. The _____ characteristic of organizational culture describes the degree to which management's decisions take into account the effect of outcomes on people within the organization. a. member identity b. group emphasis c. people focus d. unit integration
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ANS: C The people focus characteristic of organizational culture describes the degree to which management's decisions take into account the effect of outcomes on people within the organization.Good project managers often balance the needs of individuals and the organization.
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16. _____ refers to the degree to employees identify with the organization as a whole, rather than with their types of job or profession. a. Member identity b. People focus c. Group emphasis d. Unit integration
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ANS: A Member identity refers to the degree to employees identify with the organization as a whole, rather than with their types of job or profession.
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17. _____refers to the degree to which departments within an organization are encouraged to coordinate with each other. a. Member identity b. People focus c. Group emphasis d. Unit integration
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ANS: D Unit integration refers to the degree to which units or departments within an organization are encouraged to coordinate with each other.
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18. In organizational culture, people focus refers to _____. a. the degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment b. the degree to which rules, policies, and direct supervision are used to oversee and control employee behavior c. the degree to which management 's decisions take into account the effect of outcomes on employees within the organization d. the degree to which employees are encouraged to be aggressive, innovative, and risk seeking
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ANS: C People focus refers to the degree to which management's decisions take into account the effect of outcomes on people within the organization
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19. In organizational culture, means-end orientation refers to _____. a. the degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment b. the degree to which rules, policies, and direct supervision are used to oversee and control employee behavior c. the degree to which management focuses on outcomes rather than on techniques and processes used to achieve results d. the degree to which employees are encouraged to be aggressive, innovative, and risk seeking
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ANS: C Means-ends orientation refers to the degree to which management focuses on outcomes rather than on techniques and processes used to achieve results.
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20. _____ refers to the degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment. a. Means-ends orientation b. Open-systems focus c. Conflict tolerance d. Risk tolerance
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ANS: B Open-systems focus refers to the degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment
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21. In organizational culture, control refers to _____. a. the degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment b. the degree to which rules, policies, and direct supervision are used to oversee employee behavior c. the degree to which management focuses on outcomes rather than on techniques and processes used to achieve results d. the degree to which employees are encouraged to be aggressive, innovative, and risk seeking
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ANS: B Control refers to the degree to which rules, policies, and direct supervision are used to oversee and control employee behavior.
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22. _____ are an example of external stakeholders for an organization. a. Top managers b. Functional managers c. Employees d. Competitors
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ANS: D External project stakeholders include the project 's customers (if they are external to the organization), competitors, suppliers, and other external groups potentially involved in the project or affected by it, such as government officials or concerned citizens.
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23. A(n) _____ refers to a product or service, such as a technical report, a training session, a piece of hardware, or a segment of software code, produced or provided as part of a project. a. deliverable b. input c. system d. resource
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ANS: A A deliverable is a product or service, such as a technical report, a training session, a piece of hardware, or a segment of software code, produced or provided as part of a project.
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24. Which of the following is true of the project life cycle? a. In the early phases of a project life cycle, resource needs are usually lowest. b. In the later phases of the project life cycle, the level of uncertainty is usually the highest. c. It is much more expensive to make major changes to a project during the earlier phases than the latter phases. d. More resources are usually needed during the initial phases of a project than during the middle or final phases.
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ANS: A In the early phases of a project life cycle, resource needs are usually lowest and the level of uncertainty is highest.
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25. The first two traditional project phases (concept and development) focus on planning, and are often referred to as _____. a. project feasibility b. project acquisition c. project implementation d. project close-out
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ANS: A The first two traditional project phases (concept and development) focus on planning, and are often referred to as project feasibility.
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26. A preliminary or rough cost estimate is developed in the _____ phase of the project life cycle, and an overview of the work involved is created. a. implementation b. acquisition c. concept d. close-out
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ANS: C In the concept phase of a project, managers usually develop some type of business case, which describes the need for the project and basic underlying concepts. A preliminary or rough cost estimate is developed in this first phase, and an overview of the required work is created.
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27. In the development phase of the project life cycle: a. the project team creates more detailed project plans, a more accurate cost estimate, and a more thorough WBS. b. the project team delivers the required work, and provides performance reports to stakeholders. c. managers develop a business case, which describes the need for the project and basic underlying concepts. d. managers prepare a preliminary or rough cost estimate for the required work.
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ANS: A In the development phase, the project team creates more detailed project management plans, a more accurate cost estimate, and a more thorough WBS
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28. In the _____ phase, the project team creates a definitive or very accurate cost estimate, delivers the required work, and provides performance reports to stakeholders. a. development b. implementation c. concept d. close-out
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ANS: B The third phase of the traditional project life cycle is implementation. In this phase, the project team creates a definitive or very accurate cost estimate, delivers the required work, and provides performance reports to stakeholders.
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29. The _____ model of a systems development life cycle assumes that requirements will remain stable after they are defined. a. spiral life cycle b. waterfall life cycle c. incremental build life cycle d. RAD life cycle
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ANS: B The waterfall life cycle model has well-defined, linear stages of systems analysis, design, construction, testing, and support. This life cycle model assumes that requirements will remain stable after they are defined.
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30. The _____ model of a systems development life cycle provides for progressive development of operational software, with each release providing added capabilities. a. spiral life cycle b. RAD life cycle c. waterfall life cycle d. incremental build life cycle
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ANS: D The incremental build life cycle model provides for progressive development of operational software, with each release providing added capabilities.
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31. In the _____ model, developers use a model to generate functional requirements and physical design specifications simultaneously. a. RAD life cycle b. prototyping life cycle c. spiral life cycle d. incremental build life cycle
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ANS: B The prototyping life cycle model is used for developing software prototypes to clarify user requirements for operational software. It requires heavy user involvement, and developers use a model to generate functional requirements and physical design specifications simultaneously. This approach is often used in systems that involve a great deal of user interface design, such as website projects
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32. The _____ model uses an approach in which developers work with an evolving prototype, using tools such as computer-aided software engineering, joint requirements planning, and joint application design to facilitate rapid prototyping and code generation. a. incremental build life cycle b. waterfall life cycle c. RAD life cycle d. spiral life cycle
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ANS: C The RAD life cycle model uses an approach in which developers work with an evolving prototype. This life cycle model also requires heavy user involvement and helps produce systems quickly without sacrificing quality
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33. Which of the following best describes a kill point in the project life cycle? a. The period of time given to managers during the feasibility phases to decide on the cost, quality, and time constraints for the project b. A review of the status of a project at each phase of development to determine if it should be continued, redirected, or terminated c. The point of time in the project lifecycle after which it is impossible to terminate a running project d. The final submission of the project deliverables after which the project is terminated
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ANS: B A management review should occur after each phase to evaluate progress, potential success, and continued compatibility with organizational goals.These management reviews, called phase exits or kill points, are very important for keeping projects on track and determining if they should be continued, redirected, or terminated
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34. Which of the following is a disadvantage of virtual teams as compared to traditional teams? a. Increased costs for office space and support b. Reduced opportunities for informal transfer of information c. Limited flexibility in team working hours d. Reduced dependence on technology and processes for accomplishing work
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ANS: B Virtual teams reduce the ability of team members to network and transfer information informally
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35. Which of the following best describes outsourcing? a. An organization selling its products in a market outside its domestic market b. An organization's acquisition of goods and services from an outside source c. An organization setting up manufacturing and retailing facilities in a new country d. An organization's use of virtual teams with employees located in different countries
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ANS: B Outsourcing is an organization's acquisition of goods and services from an outside source. The term offshoring is sometimes used to describe outsourcing from another country.
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36. Which of the following is true of virtual teams? a. It is easier for a virtual team to build relationships and trust. b. Negative incentives do not impact virtual team members. c. It is important to select team members carefully. d. As they never meet, virtual teams do not have conflicts.
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ANS: C It is important to select team members carefully and to form a team in which all roles are covered. All virtual team members must also understand their roles on the team.
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37. Which of the following is true of the agile approach to software development? a. In the agile method, requirements and solutions evolve through collaboration. b. An agile approach sets scope goals, but leaves time and cost goals flexible. c. Agile is a predictive model of software development. d. In the agile approach, requirements must be clearly expressed early in the life cycle.
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ANS: A Agile means using a method based on iterative and incremental development, in which requirements and solutions evolve through collaboration.
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Chapter 3:
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The Project Management Process Groups: A Case Study
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1. _____ processes include defining and authorizing a project or project phase. a. Initiating c. Executing b. Planning d. Monitoring and controlling
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ANS: A Initiating processes include defining and authorizing a project or project phase. Initiating processes take place during each phase of a project
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2. _____ processes include devising and maintaining a workable scheme to ensure that the project addresses the organization's needs. a. Initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Monitoring and controlling
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ANS: B Planning processes include devising and maintaining a workable scheme to ensure that the project addresses the organization's needs. Projects include several plans, such as the scope management plan, schedule management plan, cost management plan, and procurement management plan.
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3. Examples of _____ processes include acquiring and developing the project team, performing quality assurance, distributing information, managing stakeholder expectations, and conducting procurements. a. monitoring and controlling b. executing c. planning d. initiating
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ANS: B Executing processes include coordinating people and other resources to carry out the various plans and create the products, services, or results of the project or phase. Examples of executing processes include acquiring and developing the project team, performing quality assurance, distributing information, managing stakeholder expectations, and conducting procurements.
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4. A common _____ process is reporting performance, where project stakeholders can identify any necessary changes that may be required to keep the project on track. a. executing b. closing c. monitoring and controlling d. planning
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ANS: C Monitoring and controlling processes include regularly measuring and monitoring progress to ensure that the project team meets the project objectives.A common monitoring and controlling process is reporting performance, where project stakeholders can identify any necessary changes that may be required to keep the project on track.
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5. Administrative activities, such as archiving project files, closing out contracts, documenting lessons learned, and receiving formal acceptance of the delivered work as part of the phase or project, are often involved in _____ processes. a. monitoring and controlling b. executing c. initiating d. closing
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ANS: D Closing processes include formalizing acceptance of the project or project phase and ending it efficiently. Administrative activities are often involved in this process group, such as archiving project files, closing out contracts, documenting lessons learned, and receiving formal acceptance of the delivered work as part of the phase or project.
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6. During _____ processes for a new project, the organization recognizes that a new project exists, and completes a project charter as part of this recognition. a. initiating b. planning c. opening d. controlling
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ANS: A While initiating processes for a new project, the organization recognizes that a new project exists, and completes a project charter as part of this recognition.
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7. The project integration management knowledge area maps to the _____ process group through the activities of developing project charters. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling
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ANS: A The project integration management knowledge area maps to the initiating process group through the activities of developing project charters.
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8. The project scope management knowledge area maps to the _____ process group through the activities of scope validation and scope control. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling
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ANS: D The project scope management knowledge area maps to the monitoring and controlling process group through the activities of scope validation and scope control.
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9. The project time management knowledge area maps to the _____ process group through the activity of schedule control. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling
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ANS: D The project time management knowledge area maps to the monitoring and controlling process group through the activity of schedule control.
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10. Developing a _____ is a planning process that occurs in the Project Integration Management knowledge area. a. schedule management plan b. project management plan c. WBS d. quality management
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ANS: B Developing a project management plan is a planning process falling under the Project Integration Management knowledge area
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11. _____ is a planning process that is within the Project Scope Management knowledge area. a. Schedule development b. Developing a project c. Creation of a WBS management plan d. Quality planning
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ANS: C Creation of a WBS is a planning process falling under the Project Scope Management knowledge area.
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12. The project cost management knowledge area maps to the _____ process group through the activities of estimating costs and budget determination. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling
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ANS: B The project cost management knowledge area maps to the planning process group through the activities of estimating costs and budget determination.
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13. The project stakeholder management knowledge area maps to the _____ process group by identifying stakeholders. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling
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ANS: A The project stakeholder management knowledge area maps to the initiating process group by identifying stakeholders.
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14. _____ is an iterative software development process that focuses on team productivity and delivers software best practices to all team members. a. Agile Unified Process b. Dynamic Systems c. Rational Unified Process Development Method d. Six Sigma
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ANS: C
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15. Which of the following is a pre-initiation task? a. Drawing up a work breakdown structure b. Developing a business case for a project c. Drafting the project charter d. Identifying stakeholders
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ANS: B It is good practice to lay the groundwork for a project before it officially starts. Senior managers often perform several tasks, sometimes called pre-initiation tasks which include the development of a business case for a project.
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16. One of the main outputs of the initiation process is _____. a. creating the work breakdown structure b. selecting the project manager c. developing the project charter d. identifying the project sponsor
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ANS: C The main outputs of the initiation process are a project charter and a stakeholder register.
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17. The project management plan is the output of the planning process of project _____. a. integration management b. quality management c. scope management d. procurement management
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ANS: A The project management plan ,which is part of the planning process, is the output of project integration management.
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18. Which of the following is a planning process associated with project scope management? a. Collecting requirements b. Performing qualitative risk analysis c. Planning schedule management d. Estimating costs
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ANS: A Process improvement plans are an output of project quality management
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19. The _____ provides a basis for creating the project schedule and performing earned value management for measuring and forecasting project performance. a. scope statement b. cost management plan c. work breakdown structure d. project charter
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ANS: C The WBS is a very important tool in project management because it provides the basis for deciding how to do the work. The WBS also provides a basis for creating the project schedule and performing earned value management for measuring and forecasting project performance.
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20. _____ are an output of the executing process of project integration management. a. Deliverables b. Issue logs c. Resource calendars d. Enterprise environmental factor updates
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ANS: A Deliverables are an output of the executing process of project integration management.
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21. Enterprise environmental factors are an output of the executing process of _____. a. project integration management b. project quality management c. project human resource management d. project procurement management
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ANS: C Enterprise environmental factors are an output of the executing process of project human resource management.
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22. The _____ process involves gaining stakeholder and customer acceptance of the final products and services and bringing the project, or project phase, to an orderly end. a. executing b. closing c. planning d. monitoring
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ANS: B The closing process involves gaining stakeholder and customer acceptance of the final products and services and then bringing the project or project phase to an orderly end. It includes verifying that all of the deliverables are complete, and it often includes a final project report and presentation.
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23. Organizational process assets update is the output of the closing process of _____. a. project integration management b. project quality management c. project procurement management d. project time management
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ANS: A The closing process involves gaining stakeholder and customer acceptance of the final products and services and then bringing the project or project phase to an orderly end. It includes verifying that all of the deliverables are complete, and it often includes a final project report and presentation.
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24. Which of the following is true about the agile method? a. It is often used when a project team can express the scope early in the product life cycle. b. It is used when a project team wants to provide a potentially shippable product earlier rather than later. c. It uses several iterations or deliveries of software instead of waiting until the end of the project to provide a product. d. It is used when project teams want to use the predicative approach to a project.
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ANS: C An agile approach is often used for projects in which the business team cannot clearly express the scope early in the product life cycle, but the team does want to provide a potentially shippable product earlier rather than later. An agile project team typically uses several iterations or deliveries of software instead of waiting until the end of the project to provide one product.
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25. Which of the following project parameters would be compatible with the use of the agile approach? a. Projects with inexperienced and dispersed teams b. Projects that have a fairly rigid completion date c. Projects with clear-up front requirements d. Projects that have more flexible scheduling
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ANS: D Projects with heavy constraints, inexperienced and dispersed teams, large risks, generally clear up-front requirements, and a fairly rigid completion date are best done using a predictive approach. In contrast, projects with less rigid constraints, experienced and preferably co-located teams, smaller risks, unclear requirements, and more flexible scheduling would be more compatible with an agile approach.
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26. Which of the following activities is a part of the planning process of the Scrum? a. Determining how many sprints will compose each release b. Demonstrating the product during a sprint review meeting c. Completing tasks each day during sprints d. Creating sprint backlog
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ANS: D Creating product backlogs, sprint backlogs and release backlogs are all part of the planning process of the scrum.
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27. The improvement of the product and process in the Scrum method is discussed at the _____. a. sprint reflection meeting b. sprint review meeting c. kick-off meeting d. daily Scrum meeting
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ANS: A The improvement of the product and process in the Scrum method is discussed at the sprint reflection meeting.
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28. A _____ is usually not necessary to the Scrum method. a. team contract b. velocity estimate c. Gantt chart d. product backlog
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ANS: A Because Scrum implies that team members work as a self-directed group, coached by the ScrumMaster, a team contract should not be necessary.
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29. A _____ is an important Scrum artifact used to graphically display progress on each sprint during the monitoring and controlling process. a. WBS b. sprint backlog c. burndown chart d. product backlog
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ANS: C A burndown chart is an important artifact used to graphically display progress on each sprint.
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Chapter 4:
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Project Integration Management
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1. _____ involves working with stakeholders to create the document that formally authorizes a project. a. Developing the project charter b. Developing the preliminary project scope statement c. Developing the project management plan d. Performing integrated change control
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ANS: A Developing the project charter involves working with stakeholders to create the document that formally authorizes a project —the charter.
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2. _____ involves coordinating all planning efforts to create a consistent, coherent document. a. Developing the project charter b. Developing the preliminary project scope statement c. Developing the project management plan d. Developing the organizational process assets updates
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ANS: C Developing the project management plan involves coordinating all planning efforts to create a consistent, coherent document—the project management plan.
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3. The outputs of the _____ process include change request status updates, project management plan updates, and project document updates. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling
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ANS: D The outputs of the monitoring and controlling process include change request status updates, project management plan updates, and project document updates.
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4. The first step in the planning process is _____. a. to tie the information technology strategic plan to the organization's overall strategic plan b. to perform a business area analysis c. to start defining potential IT projects in terms of their scope, benefits, and constraints d. to choose which projects to do and assigning resources to work on them
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ANS: A The first step in the planning process, starting at the top of the hierarchy, is to tie the IT strategic plan to the organization's overall strategic plan.
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5. The _____ stage of information technology planning outlines business processes that are central to achieving strategic goals and helps determine which ones could most benefit from information technology. a. project planning b. business area analysis c. resource allocation d. information technology strategy planning
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ANS: B The business area analysis outlines business processes that are central to achieving strategic goals and helps determine which processes could most benefit from IT.
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6. In the _____ stage of selecting information technology projects, organizations define project scope, benefits, and constraints. a. project planning b. business area analysis c. resource allocation d. information technology strategy planning
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ANS: A In the project planning stage of selecting information technology projects, organizations define project scope, benefits, and constraints.
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7. In the _____ stage of selecting information technology projects, organizations select information technology projects. a. project planning b. business area analysis c. resource allocation d. information technology strategy planning
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ANS: C In the resource allocation stage of selecting information technology projects, organizations select information technology projects
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8. _____ are new requirements imposed by management, government, or some external influence. a. Opportunities b. Charters c. Problems d. Directives
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ANS: D Directives are new requirements imposed by management, government, or some external influence.
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9. _____ analysis is a method of calculating the expected net monetary gain or loss from a project by discounting all expected future cash inflows and outflows to the present point in time. a. Cost of capital b. Net present value c. Cash flow d. Payback
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ANS: B Net present value (NPV) analysis is a method of calculating the expected net monetary gain or loss from a project by discounting all expected future cash inflows and outflows to the present point in time.
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10. Benefits minus costs is known as the _____. a. cost of capital b. cash flow c. discount factor d. opportunity cost of capital
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ANS: B Cash flow is the benefits minus costs or income minus expenses.
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11. The first step in determining the NPV is to _____. a. determine the estimated costs and benefits for the life of the project and the products it produces b. determine the discount rate c. calculate the net present value d. determine the cash flow
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ANS: A The first step in determining the NPV is to calculate the estimated costs and benefits for the life of the project and the products it creates.
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12. Which of the following is true of return on investment or ROI? a. It is always a percentage. b. It is always a positive number. c. It is the result of adding the project costs to the profits. d. The lower it is, the better.
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ANS: A The ROI is always a percentage. It can be positive or negative.
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13. The _____ is the minimum acceptable rate of return on an investment. a. capitalization rate b. internal rate of return c. discount rate d. required rate of return
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ANS: D The required rate of return is the minimum acceptable rate of return on an investment
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14. Payback occurs when: a. the net cumulative benefits minus costs equal one. b. the net cumulative benefits equal the net cumulative costs. c. the net costs are lower than the cumulative benefits. d. the cumulative benefits are double the cumulative costs.
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ANS: B Payback occurs when the net cumulative benefits equal the net cumulative costs, or when the net cumulative benefits minus costs equal zero.
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15. A project's internal rate of return can be determined by finding what discount rate results in an NPV of _____ for the project. a. zero b. one c. a hundred percent d. fifty percent
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ANS: A You can determine a project's internal rate of return (IRR) by finding what discount rate results in an NPV of zero for the project
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16. In a weighted scoring model, the sum of the weights of all the criteria must total _____ percent. a. 10 b. 50 c. 100 d. 150
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ANS: C In a weighted scoring model, a weight is assigned to each criterion based on its importance to the project. Determining weights requires consultation and final agreement. You can assign weights based on percentages; the weights of the criteria must total 100 percent.
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17. A _____ is a document that recognizes the existence of a project and provides direction on the project's objectives and management. a. stakeholder register b. risk register c. directive d. project charter
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ANS: D A project charter is a document that formally recognizes the existence of a project and provides direction on the project's objectives and management.
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18. The business case includes information on _____. a. the business need for the project b. relevant government or industry standards c. the project objective, high-level requirements, and time and cost goals d. policies, procedures, guidelines, and systems that influence a project's success
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ANS: C Many projects require a business case to justify their investment. Information in the business case, such as the project objective, high-level requirements, and time and cost goals, is included in the project charter.
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19. Which of the following are organizational process assets? a. Management systems b. The organization's infrastructure c. Government standards d. Marketplace conditions
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ANS: A Organizational process assets include formal and informal plans, policies, procedures, guidelines, information systems, financial systems, management systems, lessons learned, and historical information that can influence a project's success.
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20. A _____ is a document used to coordinate all project planning documents and help guide a project's execution and control. a. project management plan b. statement of work c. scope statement d. business case
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ANS: A A project management plan is a document used to coordinate all project planning documents and help guide a project's execution and control.
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21. The _____ section of the project plan should describe the major project functions and activities and identify those individuals who are in charge of them. a. organizational charts b. other organizational or process-related information c. project responsibilities d. management objectives
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ANS: C This section of the project plan should describe the major project functions and activities and identify the people responsible for them. A responsibility assignment matrix is often used to display this information.
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22. The _____ section of the project management plan describes how to monitor project progress and handle changes. a. management objectives b. project controls c. risk management d. technical processes
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ANS: B The project controls section describes how to monitor project progress and handle changes. Will there be monthly status reviews and quarterly progress reviews? Will there be specific forms or charts to monitor progress?
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23. The project schedule information section of the project management plan includes ____. a. a detailed budget b. a list of key deliverables c. an elaborate timetable d. a directory of staff involved in the project
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ANS: C The project schedule information section should include a detailed schedule that provides more detailed information about the project schedule. It should reference the schedule management plan and discuss dependencies among project activities that could affect the project schedule.
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24. The _____ section of the project management plan describes specific methodologies a project might use and explains how to document information. a. management objectives b. project controls c. risk management d. technical processes
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ANS: D The technical processes section describes specific methodologies a project might use and explains how to document information.
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25. The majority of time on a project is usually spent on _____, as is most of the project's budget. a. execution b. planning c. closing d. monitoring and controlling
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ANS: A The majority of time on a project is usually spent on execution, as is most of the project's budget.
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26. _____ should result in improvements in project performance. a. Corrective actions b. Defect repairs c. Preventive actions d. Product acceptance plans
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ANS: A Corrective actions should result in improvements in project performance.
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27. Which of the following is a proactive process undertaken to reduce the probability of negative consequences associated with project risks? a. Performance reports b. Preventive actions c. Defect repairs d. Corrective actions
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ANS: B Preventive actions reduce the probability of negative consequences associated with project risks. The problem has not yet occurred. Measures are taken so that problems do not occur.
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28. An IT company revises its process parameters in response to complaints from vendors that products were not ready on time. This would be an example of _____. a. cost forecasting b. a preventive action c. defect repairs d. a corrective action
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ANS: D Corrective actions should result in improvements in project performance.
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29. A(n) _____ is a formal, documented process that describes when and how official project documents may be modified, the people authorized to make modifications, and the paperwork required for these changes. a. WBS b. project charter c. performance report d. change control system
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ANS: D A change control system is a formal, documented process that describes when and how official project documents may be changed. It also describes the people authorized to make changes, the paperwork required for these changes, and any automated or manual tracking systems the project will use.
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30. _____ involves identifying and controlling the functional and physical design characteristics of products and their support documentation, and ensures that the descriptions of the project's products are correct and complete. a. NPV analysis b. Project management information systems c. Configuration management d. Project time management
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ANS: C Configuration management ensures that the descriptions of the project's products are correct and complete. It involves identifying and controlling the functional and physical design characteristics of products and their support documentation.
