IS 301 Final – Flashcards
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1) The first step in planning a presentation is what? A) Analyzing the situation B) Gathering information C) Selecting the channel D) Selecting the media E) Organizing the information Answer
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A
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2) When planning a presentation, which step of the process involves defining the purpose and developing an audience profile? A) Selecting the channel B) Analyzing the situation C) Organizing the information D) Gathering information E) Selecting the media Answer
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B
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3) When conducting an audience analysis for a presentation, which of the following will allow you to gauge the audience's level of experience? A) Whether the audience has any biases that might work against you B) Why audience members are attending the presentation C) What the audience already knows about the subject D) What supporting information will help the audience accept and respond to the message E) The audience's general attitude toward the topic Answer
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C
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4) When conducting an audience analysis for a presentation, which of the following will allow you to gauge the audience's probable reaction? A) Each audience member's background and level of understanding B) What the audience already knows about the subject C) Whether the audience is familiar with the vocabulary you intend to you D) Possible objections or questions E) The mix of general concepts and specific details you need to present Answer
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D
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5) Which of the following is an online presentation that people can view live, or download to view later? A) Twebinar B) Screencast C) Video conference D) Prezi E) Webcast Answer
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E
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6) Which of the following best describes a linear presentation? A) Linear presentations build the message point by point and end with a conclusion following logical steps. B) Linear presentations are given before a live audience with a question and answer opportunity. C) Linear presentations use a backchannel such as Twitter. D) Linear presentations show complicated relationships between multiple ideas. E) Linear presentations are best developed with interactive slide software such as Prezi. Answer
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A
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7) Which of the following presentation structures allow the presenter the option to move between topics and level of detail in no particular order? A) Webcasts B) Nonlinear presentations C) Podcast D) Back channeling E) Linear presentations Answer
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B
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8) Which of the following will help develop a clear idea of the main idea you want to share with the audience? A) Lists with bullet points B) Surveying the audience C) Writing a one sentence summary that links the purpose to the audience frame of reference D) Determine time limits E) Prepare the slide deck with one idea on each slide Answer
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C
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9) To keep the audience's attention and convince them your message is relevant, what should be incorporated through the planning process? A) Interactive slides B) Engaging video C) An opportunity for questions and answers D) A consistent use of the "you" attitude E) Limiting the scope to 3 main ideas Answer
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D
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10) To ensure your presentation will hold the audience's attention and fit within the time frame allotted, which of the following should be considered? A) Time of day the presentation will be given B) Purpose of the presentation C) Anticipated questions D) Key points E) Scope Answer
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E
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11) Which of the following is not a factor when determining how much information is given the scope of the presentation? A) Number of members in the audience B) Time needed for the introduction C) Demonstrations D) Questions E) Videos Answer
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A
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12) When planning a presentation on routine information that is 10 minutes or less, which approach should be used? A) Nonlinear B) Direct C) Storytelling D) Persuasive E) Indirect Answer
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B
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13) When planning a presentation to seek collaboration, how should information be organized? A) By comparison B) By importance C) Based on conclusions and recommendations D) Using broad categories E) Based on the sequence of events Answer
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C
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14) When developing a speaking outline, which of the following should be left out? A) Numbered cards or pages B) Delivery cues C) Condensed points D) Bibliography and source notes E) Highlighted key words and phrases Answer
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C
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15) Which of the following is not a step in the planning of a presentation? A) Inviting audience members B) Choosing your approach C) Limiting the scope D) Defining the main idea E) Analyzing the situation Answer
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A
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16) Presentations require the speaker to think on their feet, grasp complex business issues and handle challenging situations—all attributes needed for promotions. Answer
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TRUE
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17) A Prezi is a dynamic, nonlinear presentation tool suitable for technical discussions and speeches. Answer
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FALSE
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18) Working within time constraints can help you focus on the most essential points of your message that are important to the audience. Answer
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TRUE
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19) The scope of the presentation will be defined by the key points you want to make. Answer
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FALSE
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20) A great way to capture and keep the audience's attention is to integrate storytelling wherever possible. Answer
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TRUE
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23) When preparing your message for your audience, which of the following will have the least effect on the adaptation process? A) The size of the audience B) The scope of the presentation C) The subject of the presentation D) The purpose of the presentation E) The venue for the presentation Answer
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B
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24) The section of the presentation that established your credibility and prepares listeners for insights you have to share is called what? A) The purpose B) The scope C) The introduction D) The attention-getting device E) The preview of the message Answer
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C
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25) Which of the following will help build your credibility with the audience? A) Ask a question that will get the audience thinking B) Unite the audience around a common goal C) Share an intriguing or unexpected detail D) Tell them how they will benefit from listening to you E) Tell a compelling story Answer
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D
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26) Summarizing the main idea of the presentation during the introduction is a way to do what? A) Arouse interest B) Validate your qualifications C) Connect ideas that will be presented later in the presentation D) Remind the audience what is going to be most important E) Preview the message Answer
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E
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27) The majority of the presentation time should be devoted to what? A) The introduction B) Arousing interest C) Discussing the main points in your outline D) The question and answer section E) Establishing credentials and qualification Answer
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C
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28) When developing the presentation, which of the following allows you to show how ideas are related? A) Transitional words B) Lists C) Headings D) Design clues E) Visual aids Answer
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A
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29) To link major sections of a presentation, what should be used? A) One or two transitional words B) Complete sentences or paragraphs C) A summary of what has been said and what is to come D) A questions and answer session E) A new handout or other visual aid Answer
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B
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30) During the body of the presentation, which of the following would best help keep your audience's attention? A) Show the audience how their needs support the thesis of the presentation. B) Introduce new, difficult to understand subjects so the audience feels they are learning something new. C) Anticipate and answer questions before they are asked. D) Use visual aids sparingly to as not to create a distraction. E) Provide a handout with detailed information before the beginning of the presentation so the audience can take notes and highlight areas of concern. Answer
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C
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31) Which part of the presentation reminds the audience what you want listeners to do or think? A) Introduction B) Final remarks C) When you end with clarity and confidence D) When you restate your main points E) During the presentation close Answer
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E
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32) Which of the following will help hold the audience's attention during the presentation? A) Putting your audience in the appropriate emotional state B) Restating your main points C) Assigning tasks to audience members with due dates D) Bolstering the audiences confidence in you and your message E) Illustrating the main ideas with visuals Answer
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E
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33) Which of the following is an advantage of illustrating your ideas with visual aids? A) The message is easier to remember. B) You add a level of credibility to the presentation. C) You allow audience members to connect with each other. D) Visuals allow the audience members to stay on track with the main idea of the presentation. E) Visual aids promote the speaker as an authority figure. Answer
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A
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34) In the presentation close, how do you confirm expectations about actions or decisions that will follow the presentation? A) With a final introduction B) Using strong final remarks C) Ending with clarity and confidence D) Restating your main points E) By announcing the presentation close Answer
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C
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35) During the close, how do you bolster the audience's confidence in you and your message one last time? A) With a final introduction B) Using strong final remarks C) Ending with clarity and confidence D) Restating your main points E) By announcing the presentation close Answer
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C
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36) The smaller the group you are presenting to, the more causal the presentation style. Answer
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TRUE
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37) If you expect any action to occur as a result of your speech, be sure to identify who is responsible for doing what, and when. Answer
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TRUE
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38) If you've been successful with the introduction and body of your presentation, your listeners now have the information they need, and the close can become casual and minimal. Answer
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FALSE
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39) By repeating key ideas often, you improve the chance that the audience will hear your message the way you intended it to be heard. Answer
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TRUE
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42) Which of the following is a disadvantage when using visual aids in a presentation? A) Visual aids can detract from the audience's interest in your presentation. B) Visual aids can replace the spoken word. C) Visual aids can add to much variety to the presentation, making the presentation look disjointed and choppy. D) Visual aids can contain too much information, causing the audience to read the visual instead of listening to the speaker. E) Visual aids make it hard for the audience to remember information. Answer
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D
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43) Which of the following work best when developing nonlinear presentations? A) Microsoft PowerPoint B) Apple Keynote C) Whiteboards D) Google Documents E) Prezi Answer
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E
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44) One way to improve the power of your visual aids and your presentation in general is to do what? A) Keep things simple. B) Alternate between tradition media and new media such as Prezi's. C) Develop a presentation that works both in person, and on webinars. D) Work on performance skills. E) Be passionate about your topic, and convince your audience to be passionate about it as well. Answer
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A
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45) When creating free-form slides, which of the following will help add uniformity and cohesion? A) Bullet points B) Color and font selection C) Titles D) Using the same template E) Authenticity Answer
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B
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46) When developing a slide presentation for a multi lingual audience, what type of slide presentation might work best? A) Linear B) Prezi C) Free form D) Nonlinear E) PowerPoint Answer
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C
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47) Which of the following is an advantage to using structured slides? A) Structured slides are quick and easy to prepare. B) Structured slides limit the amount of complex data that can be conveyed on one slide. C) Structured slides can be supported by detailed handouts. D) Structured slides have a uniform appearance from slide to slide. E) Structured slides can hold a lot of text in each slide. Answer
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A
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48) Which of the following is a disadvantage of free form slides? A) Free form slides must have complementary information in the text and the visual. B) Free form slides limit the amount of information delivered at any one time. C) Free form slides do not identify priorities or connections in data. D) Free form slides tend to be dynamic. E) Free form slides require the presenter to convey more of the presentation content and rely on the slide less. Answer
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E
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49) When designing effective slides, which of the following should be avoided? A) Using the slide to replace your words B) Using the slides to highlight only key points C) Using the slides to summarize a message D) Using the slides to signal major shifts in thought E) Using the slides to illustrate concepts Answer
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A
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50) When wanting to improve the retention of information on the slide, or stimulate a variety of emotions, what design element should be incorporated? A) Background designs B) Color C) Artwork D) Typeface variety E) Animation Answer
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B
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51) What size font is appropriate for most on-screen presentation slides? A) 10 to 12 point B) 16 to 18 point C) 20 to 24 point D) 28 to 36 point E) 36 to 48 point Answer
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D
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52) Which of the following refers to motion directly related to your message? A) Slide transitions B) Decorative animation C) Functional animation D) Hyperlinks E) Slide builds Answer
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C
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53) To demonstrate sequences and procedures, which of the following should be used? A) Slide transitions B) Decorative animation C) Functional animation D) Hyperlinks E) Slide builds Answer
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C
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54) Which of the following should be used to make key presentation points appear on the same slide, but only one at a time? A) Slide transitions B) Decorative animation C) Functional animation D) Hyperlinks E) Slide builds Answer
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E
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55) Which of the following should be used to complement, but not replace, your textual presentation? A) Hyperlinks B) Audio and visual clips C) Mobile devices D) Slide transitions E) Slide builds Answer
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B
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56) Which of the following is a safe and conservative color often used for the background of electronic presentations? A) Green B) White C) Blue D) Yellow E) Red Answer
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C
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57) Which of the following is often used to represent profit in the United States, but not in other countries? A) Green B) White C) Blue D) Yellow E) Red Answer
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A
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58) Which of the following allows you to instantly change the flow of your presentation in response to audience feedback? A) Slide builds B) Hyperlinks C) Prezi's D) Audio clips E) Video clips Answer
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B
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59) Slides improve the quality of a presentation by increasing the audience's ability to absorb and remember information. Answer
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TRUE
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60) Structured slides convey visual and textual message. Answer
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FALSE
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61) Slide after slide of dense, highly structured bullet points with no visual relief can put an audience to sleep. Answer
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TRUE
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62) Effective slides should be standalone documents that can be read on their own, without a presenter. Answer
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FALSE
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38) What percent of Internet users access the web at least some of the time with a mobile device? A) 50 percent B) 60 percent C) 70 percent D) 80 percent E) 90 percent Answer
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D
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39) Which of the following task is the most common non-voice use of smartphones? A) Reading B) Writing C) Email D) Web browsing E) Blogging Answer
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C
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40) Which of the following is a primary result of the change in the nature of communication as a result of mobile technology? A) Spelling and grammar skills have improved. B) The relationship between senders and receivers has been altered. C) There are fewer opportunities to create new business. D) There are fewer communication challenges between the sender and receiver. E) Businesses place less emphasis on writing skills. Answer
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B
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41) Which of the following best explains the concept of the "mobile first" approach? A) Using mobile devices as a primary means of communication B) Using mobile devices to replace face-to-face meetings C) Requiring employees to be accessible outside of work using mobile technology D) Designing websites specifically for optimum viewing on smartphones and tablets E) Eliminating tradition phone systems in favor of mobile systems Answer
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D
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42) The ability to send vast amounts of data instantly, constantly, and globally, and the expanding role of social media is referred to as what? A) Radical connectivity B) Mobile first C) Publishing D) Wearable technologies E) Location aware content Answer
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A
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43) Which of the following is a disadvantage of mobile connectivity? A) Mobile connectivity can blur the boundaries of personal and professional time and space. B) Mobile connectivity gives employees less flexibility in meeting personal obligations. C) Mobile connectivity increases operating costs. D) Mobile connectivity does not support nontraditional work models. E) Mobile connectivity limits multitasking efforts. Answer
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A
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44) Which of the following is true when formatting messages for mobile devices? A) Messages should contain more graphics to aid in readability. B) Messages should be short with several web links embedded in them. C) Messages should be written in a traditional format to aid in understanding. D) Messages should be based on location-aware technology. E) Messages should be formatted differently to make reading easier on mobile devices. Answer
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E
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45) Why would an organization develop a policy prohibiting the use of personal devices at the worksite? A) To limit the employee's ability to spend time on personal business B) To encourage employees to use corporate owned equipment C) To encourage the use of equipment that has met corporate security standards D) To limit access to corporate networks and data E) To encourage accessibility for customers and clients Answer
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C
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46) Which of the following is true regarding about mobile connectivity in the workplace? A) Mobile connectivity increases decision making time as more research becomes available. B) Mobile connectivity allows for additional research to be conducted during meetings. C) Mobile communication limits quality customer service. D) Mobile communication decreases accuracy of crisis communication efforts. E) Mobile communication requires more engaging experiences for users. Answer
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B
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47) Companies who take a mobile first approach to communication often develop websites that are designed for optimum viewing on smartphones and tablets. Answer
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TRUE
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48) Globally, roughly 65 percent of Internet users access the web at least some of the time with a mobile device. Answer
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FALSE
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49) Today, more email messages are opened on a mobile device than on PCs. Answer
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TRUE
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50) Because of the ability to multitask, mobile users become more productive and focused on their work. Answer
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FALSE
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51) Companies who limit the use of mobile technology, both internally and externally, stand the best chance of capitalizing on the way people communicate. Answer
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FALSE
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52) Which of the following should be included in a well-developed, ethical communication? A) Copyrighted material B) Someone else's creative product, but only in your own words C) All relevant information, even if it may be negative D) Visual aids that emphasize some information while minimizing other information E) Statistics and other relevant data that support the reason for the communication Answer
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C
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53) Which of the following best describe transparency in a communication? A) Providing all relevant data B) Not plagiarizing information C) Stealth marketing D) Providing only information that supports the decision you want made E) Choosing the best alternative when issues are not clear cut Answer
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A
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54) Which of the following takes place when choosing among alternatives that are not clear cut, but that are ethical and valid? A) Ethical lapse B) Stealth marketing C) Transparency D) Distortion E) Ethical dilemma Answer
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E
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55) Which of the following best describes an ethical lapse? A) Choosing among alternatives that are not clear cut B) Making an unethical choice C) Recruiting people to promote a product without disclosing the true nature of the communication D) Not giving all participants in a conversation access to the information needed to process information E) Promoting transparency in a conversation Answer
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B
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56) Which of the following is not needed to ensure ethical business communications? A) Ethical individuals B) Ethical company leadership C) Appropriate policies D) A code of ethics E) Structures that support ethical decision making Answer
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D
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57) When writing a report that includes all relevant information about a topic, even if it is negative, ensures what type of communication? A) Lengthy B) Professional C) Ethical D) Plagiarized E) Meaningful Answer
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C
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58) Which of the following best describes the concept of ethics? A) Protecting information entrusted to your care B) Security measures in software and hardware C) Undistorted data D) Accepted principles of conduct that govern behavior E) A code of conduct Answer
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D
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59) When numeric data is exaggerating to promote one idea, or omitted to minimize the consequence of the data, what type of unethical activity is taking place? A) Distorting visuals B) Misrepresenting numbers C) Selective misquoting D) Plagiarism E) Omitting essential information Answer
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B
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60) Social media has increased the sense of openness in conversation and access to information, often referred to as what? A) Transparency B) Stealth marketing C) Plagiarism D) Ethical lapse E) Diversity Answer
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A
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61) Ethics are the accepted principles of conduct that govern behavior within a society. Answer
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TRUE
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62) Stealth marketing is illegal. Answer
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FALSE
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63) A corporate code of ethics provides employees with explicit ethics policies and procedures for all potential workplace issues. Answer
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FALSE
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66) What is the competitive advantage of a diverse workforce? A) A shared systems of beliefs B) Increased communication opportunities C) Increased cultural competency D) A broader understanding of diverse markets E) Better utilization of skill sets Answer
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D
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67) Which of the following best describes the characteristics and experiences that define each of us as individuals? A) Diversity B) Culture C) Cultural context D) Social behavior E) Practical intelligence Answer
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A
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68) When developing communication that ensures the message can be sent and understood across a variety of cultures, the sender is practicing what? A) Stereotyping B) Cultural competency skills C) Exemplary social custom skills D) Practical intelligence E) Ethnocentrism Answer
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B
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69) The pattern of physical cues, environmental stimuli and implicit understanding that affect a communication is known as what? A) Social customs B) Ethnocentrism C) Practical intelligence D) Cultural context E) Diversity Answer
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D
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70) The goal of communication in a high context culture is what? A) To use visual cues to convey meaning B) To exchange information C) To focus on results D) To build relationships E) To ensure a legal decision making process Answer
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D
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71) Which of the following would be least helpful when developing ethical messages in an international work environment? A) Seek mutual ground B) Send and receive messages without judgment C) Have the legal department ensure the validity of a contract D) Send messages that are honest E) Show respect for cultural differences Answer
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C
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72) The tendency to judge all other groups according to the standards of one's own group is called what? A) Stereotyping B) Discrimination C) Bias D) Culture E) Ethnocentrism Answer
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E
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73) Which of the following would be most helpful when working with people from other cultures? A) Communicating based on your own cultural norms so as not to confuse others B) Recognizing your own cultural biases C) Assuming others are as culturally aware as you D) Stereotyping to increase basic understanding of the culture E) Explaining the advantages of your way of thought Answer
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B
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74) When developing a communication for those who may not be comfortable with your language, what could make the communication easier to understand for the receiver? A) Industry jargon B) Words with several meanings C) Long paragraphs D) Limited transitions E) Short, plain words Answer
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E
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75) When speaking with someone whose native language is not your own, what could make the communication process easier for the receiver? A) A written text of your main ideas B) Speaking louder C) Watch for a smile or nod of the head to signal understanding D) Detailed information about issues that may be difficult for the receiver to understand E) Short, plain words Answer
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E
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76) At the end of a meeting with those of other cultures, what habit can help ensure understanding? A) Clarifying what will happen next B) Being straightforward and direct C) Assuming the listener is less knowledgeable than you D) Using industry specific slang and jargon E) Avoiding lengthy transitions Answer
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A
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77) Which of the following will aid in the effective communication process across cultures? A) Learn how to communicate respect in various cultures B) Understand that all members of each culture have certain practices that are true across all cultural members C) Control the communication to ensure the message is shaped to your needs D) Teach others how to communicate well in your cultural context E) Identify differences in others and aid in their need to minimize those differences Answer
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A
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78) When developing a mentor relationship with senior executives to improve communication and equity in the workplace, which of the following could likely improve the process? A) Understanding that men find it easier to bond with other men B) Understanding that women find it easier to bond with other women C) Understanding that male executives are concerned about developing relationships that may appear inappropriate D) Understanding the perception of assertiveness is a negative quality in men E) Understanding the perception of assertiveness is a negative quality in women Answer
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E
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79) When increasing the diversity of a workforce, which of the following can increase the talent base of those with disabilities? A) Assistive technologies B) Mentoring C) Stereotyping D) Repetitive tasks E) A code of conduct Answer
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A
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80) For entry level professional positions, what is the ratio of men to women? A) 20 percent B) 30 percent C) 40 percent D) 50 percent E) 60 percent Answer
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D
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81) Which cultural group within the workplace prefers communicating with short digital messages? A) Millennials B) Generation X C) Generation Y D) Baby boomers E) Senior level executives Answer
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C
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82) Which of the following would not be an example of nonverbal communication? A) Space B) Dress C) Facial expression D) Jargon E) Vocal inflection Answer
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D
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83) Diversity can be defined as all the characteristics and experiences that define each of us as individuals. Answer
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TRUE
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84) Cultural competency is a shared system of symbols, beliefs, attitudes, values, expectations and norms for behavior. Answer
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FALSE
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85) In high context cultures, the primary role of communication is to build relationships, not exchange information. Answer
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TRUE
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86) When speaking, women emphasize content and outcomes and place higher premium on relationship maintenance. Answer
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FALSE
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87) Stereotyping is the tendency to judge all other groups according to the standards, behaviors and customs of one's own group. Answer
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FALSE
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1) Which of the following is not an aspect of interpersonal communication? A) Productive meetings B) Active listening C) Clearly identifiable agendas D) Nonverbal communication E) Business etiquette Answer
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C
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2) Collaboration is best described as what? A) Active listening B) Groupthink C) Clearly agreed upon agendas D) Working together on complex challenges E) Dependent on strong nonverbal communication skills Answer
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D
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3) Approximately what percentage of the U.S. workforce has positions that require collaboration as a core job responsibility? A) 20 percent B) 30 percent C) 40 percent D) 50 percent E) 60 percent Answer
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D
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4) Participative management allows employees at any level of the organization to do what? A) Solve long-term problems B) Allow long-term problem solving teams to flourish C) Allow effective virtual teams D) Increase effectiveness of new member orientation E) Create job security Answer
answer
E 5) Which of the following is a benefit of a successful team? A) Diversity of views B) Groupthink C) Multiple agendas D) Low cost E) Limited peer pressure Answer: A
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6) Which of the following is a disadvantage of working in a team? A) Limited knowledge B) Diversity of views C) Limited acceptance of a solution D) Lower performance levels E) Cost Answer
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E
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7) To maintain harmony in a group, some team members may withhold unpopular opinions. This is known as what? A) Collaboration B) Non performance C) Groupthink D) Hidden agendas E) Participative management Answer
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C
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8) When faced with potentially unpopular choices, having a team develop potential solutions and implementation methods can result in what? A) Increased information B) Increased acceptance C) Higher performance levels D) Lower costs E) Hidden agendas Answer
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B
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9) Activities that support incompatible goals to those of the group are referred to as what? A) Groupthink B) Participative management C) Multitasking D) Hidden agendas E) Increased diversity of views Answer
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D
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10) Which of the following is generally true when referring to groups? A) Group meetings are costly in terms of time and coordination B) Team members will work harder to support the goals of a group than individual projects C) Group members are more accepting of contrary opinions D) Groups are often ineffective E) Groups have limited access to research data and other essential information Answer
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A
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11) Which of the following is considered the most important factor in determining how well a team will perform? A) A shared sense of purpose B) The right mix of creative talent C) Full engagement of team members D) Strong communication skills E) Clear objectives Answer
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D
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12) The two most common reasons cited for unsuccessful teamwork are a lack of trust and what? A) Groupthink B) Hidden agendas C) Incompatible technology D) Poor communication E) Time Answer
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D
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13) Interpersonal communication skills will impact all areas except which? A) Productive meetings B) Active listening C) Writing skills D) Nonverbal communication E) Business etiquette Answer
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C
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14) Whether the interaction takes place online or in person, creating and fostering positive relationships with colleagues, customers, and others can make or break your career. Answer
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TRUE
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15) A team is a group of two or more people with a shared mission and responsibility for a goal. Answer
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TRUE
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16) When a collaborator is located off site, the most productive way of working with that person would be to require attendance at regularly scheduled meetings with the rest of the team. Answer
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FALSE
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19) Which of the following is an advantage of collaborative writing? A) Each member has to accomplish fewer tasks. B) Each member has different expertise to contribute. C) Each member can focus on accuracy and detail so no errors are missed. D) Each member can rely on another member if their schedule gets busy. E) Each member can change another members work to ensure unified ideas. Answer
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B
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20) When writing collaboratively, what should each team member focus on supporting? A) Individual areas of expertise B) Individual priorities C) Team objectives D) Organization and coherence E) Writing styles and work habits Answer
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C
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21) In order to save time and frustration, what should be agreed upon before beginning a collaborative process? A) Skill sets B) Project goals C) Leadership roles D) Writing style E) Due dates Answer
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B
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22) When one or more writer can change the document text of a group member, what type of software tool is more likely being used? A) Adobe Acrobat B) PDF file C) Spell check D) Change tracking E) Commenting Answer
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D
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23) Which of the following is the generic name for software that helps organize and control website content for groups? A) Enterprise systems B) Workflow systems C) Cloud management systems D) Content management systems E) Intranet systems Answer
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D
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24) Which of the following is least helpful to effective collaborative writing? A) Selecting collaborators carefully B) Establishing clear processes C) Agreeing on project goals before you start D) Taking time to bond before starting the collaboration E) Writing as a group Answer
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D
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25) Technologies that allow people to share files, review message threads, and work on documents simultaneously are known as what? A) Virtual offices B) Shared workspace C) Cloud computing D) Social intranets E) Collaboration platforms Answer
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E
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26) Websites that are accessible only to employees are what type of systems? A) Clouds B) Extranets C) Intranets D) Wikis E) On demand Answer
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C
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27) Websites that are accessible only to employees and select parties external to the organization are known as what? A) Clouds B) Extranets C) Intranets D) Wikis E) On demand Answer
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B
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28) Which of the following improve response times and collaboration efforts when using mobile collaboration? A) Clouds B) Intranets C) Fixed-web collaboration systems D) Social intranets E) Unified communication Answer
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E
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29) When providing feedback, focusing comments on the message, not the person who created it, is an example of what? A) Verifying understanding B) Keeping feedback impersonal C) Being specific D) Focusing on controllable behavior E) Discussing improvements rather than flaws Answer
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B
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30) The goal when giving feedback should focus on the outcomes of the communication. This type of feedback is often called what? A) Constructive feedback B) Destructive feedback C) Criticism D) Collaboration E) Unified communication Answer
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A
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31) Groupware allows users to work on documents simultaneously and connect using social networking tools. Answer
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TRUE
question
32) When writing collaboratively, it is often more effective to writing as a group, ensuring all collaborators are following the same format. Answer
answer
FALSE
question
33) Today's mobile systems can do virtually everything fixed-web collaboration systems can do. Answer
answer
TRUE
question
36) Which of the following is the least beneficial aspect of holding meetings? A) Social interaction B) Team building C) Low cost D) Problem solving E) Idea development Answer
answer
C
question
37) When planning a meeting, the leader should do which of the following? A) Set and share the agenda B) Keep the meeting on track C) Follow agreed upon rules D) Encourage participation E) Close effectively Answer
answer
A
question
38) To ensure all members actively participate in a meeting, what should a leader do? A) Tweet questions about the topic B) Ask for opinions from nonparticipants C) Follow Robert's Rules of Order D) Explain areas of knowledge to the group E) Distribute an agenda ahead of time Answer
answer
B
question
39) When recording meeting minutes, which of the following would be most helpful for attendees? A) A list of those who were invited but didn't attend B) A list of comments from each participant C) All major decisions reached D) Discussion points E) A list of those who attended Answer
answer
C
question
40) One advantage of virtual meetings is what? A) Less time spent in actual meetings B) Opportunity for hardware and software upgrades C) The ability to multitask during the meeting D) Increased access to a wider pool of expertise E) Ability to limit those who are in attendance Answer
answer
D
question
41) Realistic conferences in which participants thousands of miles apart almost seem to be in the same room is an example of what? A) Instant messaging B) Webinars C) Virtual whiteboards D) Idea campaigns E) Telepresence Answer
answer
E
question
42) If a firm wanted to conduct a training session for employees at multiple facilities simultaneously, what type of meeting tool should be used? A) Conference calls B) Virtual whiteboards C) Webinars D) Idea campaigns E) Telepresence Answer
answer
E
question
43) Which of the following is an advantage of virtual meetings? A) There is more opportunity for visual data. B) Nonverbal communication skills are easier to read. C) Participants are more engaged in the topic. D) Participants can collaborate in real time. E) Less planning is needed. Answer
answer
D
question
44) When setting up a meeting, anyone who might have insight on the issue should be invited to the meeting. Answer
answer
FALSE
question
45) Formal meetings often use parliamentary procedures to maintain order in the decision making process. Answer
answer
TRUE
question
46) At the end of a meeting, decisions and actions to be taken should be summarized and participants should understand and agree on the outcomes. Answer
answer
TRUE
question
47) Telepresence is one of the simplest forms of virtual meeting. Answer
answer
FALSE
question
49) What percentage of top executives say that listening is the most important skill in getting things done in the workplace? A) 40 percent B) 50 percent C) 60 percent D) 70 percent E) 80 percent Answer
answer
E
question
50) The primary goal of content listening is to what? A) To understand and retain information B) To understand the logic of the argument C) To determine the speakers intentions and motives D) To understand the speakers feeling E) To verify key points and look for a summary of a message Answer
answer
E
question
51) When listening for the strength of the evidence, what type of listening is being engaged in? A) Content B) Critical C) Active D) Empathic E) Effective Answer
answer
B
question
52) When allowing a speaker to release emotions that result in a calm and clear approach to the subject, what type of listening is being engaged in? A) Content B) Critical C) Empathic D) Active E) Effective Answer
answer
C
question
53) When eliminating filters and biases to understand what a speaker is saying requires what type of listening skill? A) Content B) Critical C) Empathic D) Active E) Effective Answer
answer
D
question
54) People typically listen at no better than what efficiency rate? A) 10 percent B) 25 percent C) 48 percent D) 50 percent E) 68 percent Answer
answer
B
question
55) During which stage of the listening process does the listener analyze the quality of the information? A) Receiving B) Decoding C) Remembering D) Evaluating E) Responding Answer
answer
D
question
56) During which phase of the listening process will the listener's culture pose the biggest challenge? A) Receiving B) Decoding C) Remembering D) Evaluating E) Responding Answer
answer
B
question
57) When minimizing potential barriers to successful listening, which of the following factors is least often in the control of the listener? A) Interruptions B) Multitasking C) Phone reception D) Distractions E) Checking mobile devices Answer
answer
C
question
58) When a listener molds a message to their own ideas, they are using what type of skill? A) Selective listening B) Defensive listening C) Selective perception D) Passive listening E) Multitasking Answer
answer
C
question
59) Tuning out information that does not support one's core belief system is an example of what? A) Misinterpretation B) Passive listening C) Selective perception D) Defensive listening E) Selective listening Answer
answer
D
question
60) Which of the following is considered one of the most common barriers to effective listening? A) Misinterpretation B) Passive listening C) Selective perception D) Defensive listening E) Selective listening Answer
answer
E
question
61) To improve listening skills, one should ________. A) Limit nonverbal feedback to the speaker B) Listen with the same style regardless of the situation C) Listen passively D) Limit note taking so as not to be distracted E) Mentally paraphrase key points Answer
answer
E
question
62) Effective listening increases the level of trust between organizations and between individuals. Answer
answer
TRUE
question
63) When focusing on information and not speaking style, the listener is engaging in critical listening. Answer
answer
FALSE
question
64) The act of assigning a meaning to sounds based on your own values and beliefs is called decoding. Answer
answer
TRUE
question
67) The process of sending and receiving information without the use of written or spoken language is called what? A) Listening B) Selective perception C) Nonverbal communication D) Selective participation E) Process communication Answer
answer
C
question
68) When nonverbal signals do not match the spoken word, what happens to the validity of the communication? A) The communication is weakened. B) The communication becomes irrelevant. C) The communication becomes strengthened. D) The communication takes on a whole new meaning. E) The communication fails. Answer
answer
A
question
69) When a coworker from Japan makes little to no eye contact with you during a conversation, what can you infer? A) The Japanese coworker is untrustworthy. B) The Japanese coworker is being polite. C) The Japanese coworker does not like you. D) The Japanese coworker is rude. E) The Japanese coworker is bored or disinterested. Answer
answer
B
question
70) During a small group meeting, where will coworkers find most of the meaning of the message? A) Most of the meaning will come from the words spoken. B) Most of the meaning will come from the accuracy of the handouts. C) Most of the meaning will come from nonverbal cues. D) Most of the meaning will come from the list of those invited to the meeting. E) Most of the meaning will come from the visual aids such as PowerPoints. Answer
answer
C
question
71) Placing a hand on a coworkers shoulder while discussing a project could be understood as a nonverbal signal for what? A) Confusion B) Empathy C) Teamwork D) Control E) Friendliness Answer
answer
D
question
72) When conducting a presentation, it is important to control the pace and pitch of your speaking voice to prevent what type of appearance? A) The appearance of being unprepared B) The appearance of being unconcerned C) The appearance of being unfamiliar with materials D) The appearance of being superior E) The appearance of being nervous or fearful Answer
answer
E
question
73) Touch is a nonverbal communication method that varies from culture to culture. When working in the U.S., what might the best practice be regarding touching others in the workplace? A) Only use touch to convey warmth. B) Only use touch to offer congratulatory wishes. C) Only use touch with same-sex coworkers. D) Only use touch with those of the same cultural background. E) When in doubt, don't touch. Answer
answer
E
question
74) Being late for a meeting sends what type of nonverbal message to the group? A) The message will vary based on the beliefs of the group. B) The message will be that your time is more important than theirs. C) The message will be that you are overworked and have too much to do. D) There will not be any nonverbal message attached to being late for a meeting. E) The message will be that the subject matter of the meeting is not important. Answer
answer
A
question
75) All nonverbal signals mean the same thing, regardless of cultural background. Answer
answer
FALSE
question
76) Listening is a type of nonverbal communication. Answer
answer
FALSE
question
77) Physical appearance is a nonverbal signal that can be controlled by the communicator. Answer
answer
TRUE
question
80) When leaving a voice mail, what information is least important for the recipient of the voice mail? A) Reason for calling B) Your name C) Your phone number D) Your email address E) Best time to reach you Answer
answer
D
question
81) When conducting a business meeting over a meal, when is the best time to begin the meeting? A) When waiting for drinks B) Before ordering food C) When waiting for food D) During the course of the meal E) After the entrée plates have been removed Answer
answer
E
question
82) When conducting a meeting over a meal, which of the following would be the most appropriate topics of conversation? A) Politics B) Wine knowledge C) Family D) Religion E) Use of technology Answer
answer
E
question
83) When upset with someone or something at the workplace, the best place to vent your frustrations is where? A) In an anonymous email B) On your Twitter feed C) On the corporate blog D) At home E) At after work social setting Answer
answer
D
question
84) When communicating with someone using electronic media, and you wish to ask a nonrelated question or introduce a nonrelated issue, what is the best way to introduce the topic? A) Through a new message B) In a new paragraph in the original message C) By highlighting the new topic in color D) By changing the subject line of the email E) By using a clear opening line to indicate change Answer
answer
A
question
85) Because of the prevalence of instant messaging and emails, which of the following should be considered when writing a text or email for work? A) Coworkers will understand jargon and acronyms. B) Emoticons will enhance the meaning of your message. C) Messages must be answered immediately. D) Spelling, punctuation and capitalization are important for professionalism. E) Spelling, punctuation and capitalization rules have changed and do not affect how others view your level of professionalism. Answer
answer
D
question
86) Which of the following indicates poor etiquette on the part of the sender? A) Multitasking while using IM or other tools B) Clearly indicating opinion so it doesn't appear as fact C) Asking if this is a good time for an IM chat D) Starting a new message for a new topic E) Not using "reply all" when responding to communications Answer
answer
A
question
87) Which of the following is the most respectful use of mobile technology while at work? A) Making personal calls during work hours on your personal cell phone B) Remembering that your phone habits may not be acceptable to others in the workplace C) Texting a response to a phone message during a meeting D) Leaving a meeting to take a call E) When with others, texting a caller to indicate you are not available to talk Answer
answer
B
question
88) Which of the following is true about mobile devices in the workplace? A) If using a personally owned device, the employer cannot dictate use. B) If an employer provides a mobile device to an employee, the employee can use it for personal use as well as business use. C) Employers have the right to dictate mobile device usage policies. D) Most employers understand that employees can multitask and simultaneously take care of personal as well as professional issues with a mobile device. E) Most employees understand that taking care of personal issues on a mobile device can be disruptive to the work area, and should practice proper etiquette by stepping into a hallway or other non-work area to conduct personal business. Answer
answer
C
question
89) Voice recognition systems have created new issues for the workplace, including what? A) The expectation that employees will not be late as they have access to directions B) The creation of distraction and annoyance for others C) The expectation that dictated information will be accurate when transferred to text D) The expectation that receivers will be able to respond immediately to any inquiry E) The assumption that everyone else has access to the same technology Answer
answer
B
question
90) In which of the following areas is proper etiquette is less essential? A) Online B) With mobile devices C) In social settings D) In the workplace E) In after work activities not related to the job Answer
answer
E
question
91) When using the phone, what should be relied on to convey confidence and professionalism? A) The ability to multitask while on the phone B) The ability to send links to the audience to support information conveyed while conversing C) The ability to use tone of voice to convey meaning D) The ability to block out distractions E) The ability to keep calls short and to the point Answer
answer
C
question
92) When determining appropriate dress for the workplace, what should the underlying goal of the style of dress be? A) Earning a reputation for your skills, not for what you wear B) Appearing casual and approachable C) Conforming to others D) Changing the attitude of those who are not as stylish E) Impressing customers and managers with your awareness of trends in the industry Answer
answer
A
question
93) Which of the following is not an aspect of workplace etiquette? A) Behaviors B) Position C) Habits D) Nonverbal communication E) Technology Answer
answer
B
question
94) Which of the following is least dependent of mutual respect and consideration among participants? A) Teamwork B) Meetings C) Listening D) Productivity E) Technology Answer
answer
E
question
95) From a customer's standpoint, product and client knowledge is more important than etiquette. Answer
answer
FALSE
question
96) Personal appearance is considered to be an element of professional business etiquette. Answer
answer
TRUE
question
97) To convey a sense of etiquette during a meeting, it is more polite to text and email than it is to answer a mobile phone. Answer
answer
FALSE
question
98) Because business meetings that are conducted over meals are less formal, and often after regular work hours, it is appropriate to offer personal information over drinks. Answer
answer
FALSE
question
1) Which of the following is an essential element of persuasive messages? A) Trust B) Marketing C) Sales D) Value E) Action Answer
answer
A
question
2) Which of the following best describes the goals of persuasion? A) Attempting to get the audience to purchase your product B) Attempting to change an audience's attitudes, beliefs or actions C) Presenting the audience with a choice D) Using a neutral buffer to attract the people to the product E) Using the indirect format to have people change their minds now, or at some point in the future Answer
answer
B
question
3) Which of the following is true for persuasive messages? A) The messages must be competitive. B) The message must be based on positive social outcomes. C) The message must be compelling. D) The message must use lively words and phrases. E) The message must be highly visual. Answer
answer
C
question
4) Steps in planning successful persuasive messages include what? A) Planning, writing, completing B) Neutral buffer, reasons, decision, courteous close C) Reasons for the message, supporting data, courteous close D) Analysis, gathering information, selecting channel and medium, organizing E) Analysis, audience, selecting channel and medium, writing Answer
answer
D
question
5) Messages that try to convince the audience to consider then purchase products and services are called what? A) Direct messages B) Indirect messages C) Business messages D) Persuasive business messages E) Marketing and sales messages Answer
answer
E
question
6) When planning a persuasive message, which of the following is the least important consideration when considering the audience? A) Who is my audience? B) Where is my audience located? C) How will the culture of the audience influence the message? D) How might the audience resist? E) What does the decision maker consider most important? Answer
answer
B
question
7) The age, gender, income, education and other quantifiable characteristic of people are called what? A) Demographics B) Target market C) Culture D) Psychographics E) Attributes Answer
answer
A
question
8) Personality, attitudes, lifestyle and other psychological characteristics of an audience are known as what? A) Demographics B) Target market C) Culture D) Psychographics E) Attributes Answer
answer
D
question
9) Before attempting to change someone's attitudes, beliefs or actions, what must be understood? A) Demographics B) Psychographics C) Motivation D) Desires E) Culture Answer
answer
C
question
10) To encourage a positive response to your persuasive message, which of the following would be most effective? A) Use industry specific words and phrases. B) Send the message as high up the organizational chain of command as possible. C) Send the message in a variety of ways including email, blogs and print. D) Use positive and polite language regardless of audience. E) Establish credibility by using technical jargon and buzzwords. Answer
answer
D
question
11) Which of the following would not encourage a positive response to your message? A) Using positive and polite language B) Understanding cultural differences C) Being sensitive to organizational cultures D) Establishing your credibility E) Explaining why previous choices were poor choices Answer
answer
E
question
12) Explaining your reasons and building interest before asking for a decision or action is an example of what? A) An indirect approach to persuasive messages B) An attempt to understand the psychographics of the audience C) An attempt to understand what motivates the audience D) A direct approach to persuasive messages E) An attempt at audience analysis Answer
answer
C
question
13) Which of the following has the greatest impact on the effectiveness of persuasive messages in the workplace? A) Social culture B) Organizational culture C) Social media D) Customer and client relationships E) Emotional culture Answer
answer
B
question
14) Which of the following is least likely to encourage a positive response to a persuasive message? A) Positive and polite language B) Respecting cultural differences C) Using industry specific terminology D) Being sensitive to organizational cultures E) Establishing your credibility Answer
answer
C
question
15) To convince a skeptical audience, which of the following should be done? A) Use emotional manipulation. B) Display expertise in the subject matter. C) Provide objective evidence. D) Allow time for research. E) Include a benefit for quick decision making. Answer
answer
C
question
16) Emphasizing beliefs, attitudes and background experiences is one way to establish what? A) Credibility B) Objectiveness C) Subject matter expertise D) Common ground E) Fairness Answer
answer
D
question
17) When completing a persuasive message, which of the following helps determine the distribution process? A) Design elements B) Social media C) Location of audience D) Distribution method of competitors E) Audience expectation and your purpose Answer
answer
E
question
18) During the completion process for the persuasive message, which of the following matches the purpose and organization to the needs of the audience? A) Revising for clarity and conciseness B) Having an experienced colleague who knows the audience review the draft C) Using design elements that compliment your argument D) Meticulous proofreading E) Matching the distribution method to fit the audience's expectation Answer
answer
E
question
19) Persuasive messages are often unexpected and unwelcome. Answer
answer
TRUE
question
20) Most persuasive messages use an indirect approach. Answer
answer
TRUE
question
21) The direct approach can effectively be used for persuasive messages. Answer
answer
TRUE
question
22) A persuasive message that seems appropriate in the culture of the organization is likely to be appropriate in other organizations. Answer
answer
FALSE
question
23) If you are not well known to your audience, the message should rely more on the strength of your reputation, allowing the audience to learn more about you as an expert. Answer
answer
FALSE
question
27) Which of the following are designed to elicit a preferred response in a nonsales situation? A) Persuasive business messages B) Persuasive marketing messages C) Sales and marketing messages D) Direct messages E) Indirect messages Answer
answer
A
question
28) Within the three-step writing process, which of the following is not part of the four essential strategies for persuasive messages? A) Framing your arguments B) Analyzing the audience C) Balancing emotional and logical appeals D) Reinforcing your position E) Anticipating objections Answer
answer
B
question
29) Using the AIDA model will help in which essential strategy for persuasive messages? A) Framing your arguments B) Analyzing the audience C) Balancing emotional and logical appeals D) Reinforcing your position E) Anticipating objections Answer
answer
A
question
30) What does AIDA stand for, when referring to persuasive messages? A) Action, interest, demand, attention B) Attention, interest, desire, action C) Attention, interpersonal, demand, action D) Action, interest, desire, attention E) Action, interpersonal, demand, attention Answer
answer
B
question
31) Which step of the AIDA plan encourages the audience to hear about your main idea? A) Action B) Interest C) Interpersonal D) Desire E) Attention Answer
answer
E
question
32) Which step of the AIDA plan includes detail that prompts the audience to imagine how the solution might benefit them? A) Action B) Interest C) Demand D) Desire E) Attention Answer
answer
B
question
33) Which step in the AIDA allows the writer to explain how the change will benefit the audience and answers potential objections? A) Interpersonal B) Interest C) Demand D) Desire E) Attention Answer
answer
D
question
34) Which section of the AIDA plan would include any deadlines that might be applicable? A) Action B) Interest C) Demand D) Desire E) Attention Answer
answer
A
question
35) Which of the following best describes a limitation of the AIDA plan? A) AIDA is built on long-term relationships. B) AIDA is built around a single event. C) AIDA demands a decision from the audience. D) AIDA is a multidirectional method. E) AIDA is a conversational approach. Answer
answer
B
question
36) Which of the following are based on the feelings or sympathies of the audience? A) Persuasive messages B) AIDA formatted messages C) Emotional appeals D) Direct appeals E) Logical appeals Answer
answer
C
question
37) Most persuasive business messages rely on what? A) Analogy B) Emotion C) Induction D) Deduction E) Logic Answer
answer
E
question
38) Which of the following allows the writer to borrow from something familiar to explain something unfamiliar? A) Attention getting devices B) Analogy C) Circular reasoning D) Cause and effect E) Reinforcement Answer
answer
B
question
39) Working from specific evidence to a general conclusion is an example of what? A) Analogy B) Induction C) Circular reasoning D) Deduction E) Cause and effect Answer
answer
B
question
40) Working from a generalization to a specific conclusion is an example of what type of reasoning? A) Analogy B) Induction C) Circular reasoning D) Deduction E) Cause and effect Answer
answer
D
question
41) Being sure there is plenty of evidence before drawing conclusions will prevent what? A) Inductions B) Hasty generalizations C) Circular reasoning D) Mistaken assumptions E) Faulty analogies Answer
answer
B
question
42) Trying to support a claim by restating the claim in different words is called what? A) Cause and effect B) Generalization C) Circular reasoning D) Mistaken assumptions E) Faulty analogies Answer
answer
C
question
43) When reinforcing your position, you should pay special attention to what? A) The logic of the arguments B) Emotional appeal C) Potential objections D) Word choices E) Message format Answer
answer
D
question
44) When developing a persuasive message, when should audience objections be addressed? A) As soon as the objection is mentioned B) When all objections have been voiced C) Before they become objections D) After the product or service has been delivered E) As the audience absorbs the message Answer
answer
C
question
45) Which of the following is a common mistake in persuasive communication? A) Failing to anticipate objections B) Using emotional appeals C) Presenting all sides of the issue before explaining the advantages of your position D) Involving the audience in the design of the solution E) Failing to look at the message from the audience's perspective Answer
answer
E
question
46) Which of the following is a common mistake in persuasive communication? A) Pressuring someone to make a decision B) Using the process of give and take C) Connecting with the audience at an emotional level D) Using vivid language E) Thinking that persuasion is a one-time opportunity Answer
answer
A
question
47) Building a relationship with your audience at the right emotional level will help the writer avoid which common mistake in persuasive communication? A) Using a hard sell B) Resisting compromise C) Relying solely on great arguments D) Assuming persuasion is a one-shot effort E) Convincing the audience to say "yes" in one step Answer
answer
C
question
48) Employees who are forced into accepting a decision or plan are generally more likely to react positively to the motivation. Answer
answer
FALSE
question
49) The AIDA plan will work for direct as well as indirect message formats. Answer
answer
TRUE
question
50) During the attention phase of the persuasive message, the writer should find some common ground on which to build their case. Answer
answer
TRUE
question
51) AIDA is a unidirectional method that essentially talks at audiences, not with them. Answer
answer
TRUE
question
52) Deductive reasoning works from specific evidence to a general conclusion. Answer
answer
FALSE
question
56) What is the goal of opening with an attention getting device? A) You attract the reader's attention. B) You generate interest on the part of the audience. C) You gain credibility. D) You show readers that you understand their concerns. E) You start to change attitudes and beliefs. Answer
answer
D
question
57) Which of the following is a common use of a persuasive message? A) To increase supplier obligations B) To discourage non-routine results C) To enforce more efficient operating procedures D) When requiring cooperation from other departments E) When requesting action Answer
answer
E
question
58) Which section of the persuasive request for action indicates what you know about the situation being written about? A) Your goal statement B) The interest and desire sections C) The attention getting device D) The logical appeal E) The demand for action Answer
answer
B
question
59) In addition to gaining credibility, what should be your goals when writing the interest and desire sections of the persuasive request for action? A) Make the readers believe that helping you will solve a significant problem. B) Show the readers you understand their concerns. C) Demonstrate that you have good reason for making the request. D) Show how much you know about the situation by using facts and figures to support the argument. E) Develop an easy to follow course of action. Answer
answer
A
question
60) How can you maximize the changes of a positive response in the close of a persuasive request for action? A) Use the AIDA plan B) Identify a specific and easy to follow course of action for the audience to take C) Use the direct format D) Include several attention getting devices E) Gain credibility Answer
answer
B
question
61) Asking the audience to reexamine long-held opinions is one of the goals of what? A) Persuasive claims B) Persuasive adjustments C) Persuasive presentation of ideas D) Persuasive requests for action E) Sales and marketing Answer
answer
C
question
62) Which of the following is not necessary when writing a persuasive message for a claim or request for adjustment? A) Complete review of the facts B) A positive tone C) Specific facts and data D) A direct format E) A confident tone Answer
answer
D
question
63) Which of the following would least likely encourage the reader of a message for a claim to grant the claim? A) Showing the reader how the organization is responsible for the problem B) Appealing to the reader's sense of fair play C) Appeal to the reader's sense of moral responsibility D) Being calm and reasonable E) Allowing the reader to choose the most appropriate resolution Answer
answer
E
question
64) When closing a persuasive message for a claim or adjustment, what should be included in the message? A) How a successful resolution will repair or maintain a mutually beneficial working relationship B) Contact information, including time when to best reach you C) An idea of the potential consequences of not coming to a mutually beneficial solution D) A specific statement of how you would like to see the issue resolved E) A complete and specific review of the facts Answer
answer
A
question
65) Most persuasive messages are requests for action. Answer
answer
TRUE
question
66) The indirect approach is the most appropriate method to use when developing any request for action. Answer
answer
FALSE
question
67) When considering persuasive claims and requests for adjustments, most claims are routine and use the direct approach. Answer
answer
TRUE
question
68) When writing about a claim or adjustment, it is often most effective to show the reader how the company is responsible for the issue and clearly identify steps that will be taken if they don't honor the claim or adjustment. Answer
answer
FALSE
question
69) A persuasive message for a claim or adjustment should appeal to the reader's sense of fair play, goodwill or moral responsibility. Answer
answer
TRUE
question
15) What is the first step in effective research? A) Conduct a Google search to see what information is available. B) Plan the research. C) Manage information efficiently. D) Locate the data and information needed. E) Apply each finding to the report or proposal. Answer
answer
B
question
16) Summarizing information, drawing conclusions and developing recommendations are steps in which aspect of supporting your message with reliable research? A) Locating the data needed B) Processing the data C) Applying the findings D) Managing the information E) Planning the research Answer
answer
C
question
17) The first step in planning research is what? A) Accessing a knowledge information system B) Generating questions that will constitute research areas C) Conducting primary research D) Developing a problem statement E) Identifying information needed Answer
answer
D
question
18) Which of the following will most likely prevent an ethical lapse while researching? A) Using only data that supports your purpose B) Being vague about what you want to do with the end results C) Only using data that can be found online D) Quoting all sources E) Respecting the intellectual property rights of the data Answer
answer
E
question
19) Which of the following is a source of primary research? A) Interviews B) Reports C) Websites D) Newspapers E) Books Answer
answer
A
question
20) When beginning the process of locating data, which of the following is frequently the best place to start? A) Corporate websites B) Secondary research C) Knowledge management systems D) Executive dashboards E) Primary research Answer
answer
B
question
21) Which of the following is an example of secondary research? A) Surveys B) Interviews C) Reports D) Studies E) Executive dashboards Answer
answer
C
question
22) Which of the following is least important when evaluating potential sources? A) Is the information accurate? B) Is the information objective? C) Is the information unique? D) Is the information current? E) Is the information verifiable? Answer
answer
C
question
23) Finding out how sources conduct fact checking will help ensure what? A) The information is independently verified. B) The material was designed to support the outcome. C) The source used proper methods to collect its data. D) The source has a reputation for honesty and reliability. E) The author is credible. Answer
answer
D
question
24) To accurately interpret a source's point, what information do you need to know? A) The source's reputation for reliability B) What the purpose of the material is C) Whether or not the material can be independently verified D) If the author is credible E) If the source is potentially biased Answer
answer
E
question
25) Which of the following is completed before using research results? A) Identifying direct quotes B) Verifying critical facts and figures C) Paraphrasing research D) Summarizing textual information E) Drawing conclusions Answer
answer
B
question
26) Reproducing material exactly as you found it is called what? A) Summarizing B) Paraphrasing C) Quoting D) Secondary reporting E) Primary reporting Answer
answer
C
question
27) Which of the following is the best way to maximize the impact of secondary material in your writing? A) Summarizing B) Paraphrasing C) Quoting D) Secondary reporting E) Primary reporting Answer
answer
B
question
28) How can a writer apply research to a document while maintaining a consistent tone and making the data meaningful to the audience? A) Use an executive dashboard B) Use quotes C) Paraphrase D) Use a knowledge management system E) Summarize the data Answer
answer
C
question
29) What can be done when the writer wants to include the ideas of the research but leave out specific details and less important concepts of the research? A) Use an executive dashboard B) Use quotes C) Paraphrase D) Use a knowledge management system E) Summarize the data Answer
answer
E
question
30) When research is presented as your own, what ethical issue is taking place? A) Selective misquoting B) Plagiarism C) Data manipulation D) Incomplete information E) Inclusion of biased material Answer
answer
B
question
31) A logical interpretation of facts and other information is called what? A) Summary B) Data manipulation C) Conclusion D) Paraphrasing E) Recommendation Answer
answer
C
question
32) Suggesting what to do about the information gathered is done through which of the following? A) Summary B) Data manipulation C) Conclusion D) Paraphrasing E) Recommendation Answer
answer
E
question
33) Research should begin by developing a problem statement that defines why you are conducting the research. Answer
answer
TRUE
question
34) Primary research includes sources such as magazine, public websites, books and other reports. Answer
answer
FALSE
question
35) Using too many quotes creates choppy writing that gives the impression that all you did was piece together the work of others. Answer
answer
TRUE
question
38) To research facts and statistical information regarding countries, politics or the labor force, what type of resource should be used? A) Almanacs and other statistical resources B) Business books C) Government publications D) Newspapers and periodicals E) Online databases Answer
answer
A
question
39) When seeking information in specific areas such as business, technology or law, which of the following would be the best resource? A) The business librarian B) Databases C) Government publications D) Almanacs and statistical resources E) Directories Answer
answer
B
question
40) Websites such as Google and Bing use what technique to help boost rankings in results? A) Human editors B) Monitoring algorithms C) Search engine optimization techniques D) Hidden Internet E) Metasearch engines Answer
answer
C
question
41) Which of the following is an advantage of using a conventional search engine for research? A) No human editors rank search results. B) Each search engine uses a different search technique. C) Users can access a web directory to evaluate websites. D) Search engines are easy and powerful. E) Search engines can identify all relevant data quickly. Answer
answer
D
question
42) Which of the following use human editors to categorize and evaluate websites, blogs and podcasts? A) Metasearch engines B) Deep Internet C) Online databases D) Web directories E) Research librarians Answer
answer
D
question
43) Which of the following formats search terms for use on a broad range of search engines? A) Monitoring algorithms B) Online databases C) Boolean searches D) Enterprise search engines E) Metasearch engines Answer
answer
E
question
44) Which of the following offer access to newspapers, journals, digital copies of books and other sources often not available with standard search engines? A) Online databases B) Metasearch engines C) Monitoring algorithms D) Boolean searches E) Enterprise search engines Answer
answer
A
question
45) The ability to subscribe to newsfeeds from blogs, follow people on Twitter and set up alerts on search engines is accomplished using what? A) Metasearch engines B) Online monitoring tools C) Hashtags D) Keyword searches E) Boolean searches Answer
answer
B Explanation:
question
46) Which of the following allows the user to define a query with greater precision by using operators such as AND, OR or NOT? A) Forms-based searches B) Hashtags C) Natural language searches D) Boolean searches E) Keyword searches Answer
answer
D
question
47) Which of the following search tools allow the user to search based on all key words entered? A) Forms-based searches B) Hashtags C) Natural language searches D) Boolean searches E) Keyword searches Answer
answer
E
question
48) Which of the following search tools allows the user to ask questions in everyday English? A) Forms-based searches B) Hashtags C) Natural language searches D) Boolean searches E) Keyword searches Answer
answer
C
question
49) Which of the following will create the least effective search results? A) Try variations of your terms. B) Only consider the first page of results. C) Think about the best way to search before you begin. D) Use fewer search terms for more results, use more search terms for fewer results. E) Review search and display options. Answer
answer
C
question
50) Search engines that will search all computers on a company's network are called what? A) Social tagging search engines B) Bookmarking search engines C) Research and content manager search engines D) Enterprise search engines E) Desktop search engines Answer
answer
D
question
51) Search engines that will search all the files on your personal computer are called what? A) Social tagging search engines B) Bookmarking search engines C) Research and content manager search engines D) Enterprise search engines E) Desktop search engines Answer
answer
E
question
52) Which of the following is not a reason sources have to be documented? A) Documenting sources adds interest for the reader. B) Documenting sources is ethical. C) Documenting sources gives credit to the person who created the original material. D) Documenting sources shows the audience you have sufficient support for the message. E) Documenting sources allows the reader to explore the topic in more detail, if they desire to do so. Answer
answer
A
question
53) Which of the following does NOT need to be documented? A) Ideas you have paraphrased B) Common knowledge information C) Information you have summarized D) Material you have directly quoted E) Song lyrics Answer
answer
B
question
54) Publications that provide information on specific professions and industries are called trade journals. Answer
answer
TRUE
question
55) Metasearch engine directories use human editors to categorize and evaluate websites. Answer
answer
FALSE
question
56) Anything you take from someone else, including ideas and information you've re-expressed through paraphrasing or summarizing, must include a documented source. Answer
answer
TRUE
question
57) There are two types of search tools available on the Internet, one that lets you actively search for existing information and one that lets you monitor selected sources of new information. Answer
answer
TRUE
question
60) Which of the following primary research tracks the behavior of website visitors? A) Surveys B) Observations C) Research and content managers D) Interviews E) Experiments Answer
answer
B
question
61) To ensure a survey is reliable and valid, which of the following should be avoided? A) Clear instructions B) Short answers C) Leading questions D) Numbers and facts E) Short surveys Answer
answer
C
question
62) Which of the following is needed to ensure accurate responses that reflect the feelings of the entire population? A) Sampling bias B) Leading questions C) Validity D) Representative samples E) Online surveys Answer
answer
D
question
63) Capturing the opinions of only those who visit specific websites is an example of what? A) Sampling bias B) Leading questions C) Validity D) Representative samples E) In-depth interviews Answer
answer
A
question
64) What is the most effective way to get a yes or no response in an interview? A) Leading questions B) Closed questions C) Sampling D) Surveys E) Open-ended questions Answer
answer
B
question
65) When trying to understand why a person feels the way they do about a particular subject, what type of primary research technique should be used? A) Leading questions B) Closed questions C) Sampling D) Surveys E) Open-ended questions Answer
answer
E
question
66) Getting in-depth information straight from an expert, customer, or other interested party can be a great method for collecting primary information. Answer
answer
TRUE
question
67) Open-ended questions are used to elicit a specific answer, such as yes or no. Answer
answer
FALSE
question
68) A survey is reliable when it measures what it was designed to measure. Answer
answer
FALSE
question
43) When communicating with multilingual audiences, what effect do visual aids create in a document? A) Visual aids can replace text and aid in communication. B) Visual aids can add color and lighten the look of the communication. C) Visual aids can be a distraction when the audience is focused on translation of text. D) Visual aids can lead to misunderstanding in the interpretation of the content. E) Visual aids can distract from the formatting of the document. Answer
answer
A
question
44) The ability to create an effective visual aid, or effectively interpret the meaning of a visual aid is called what? A) Visual competency B) Visual literacy C) Axis awareness D) Design awareness E) Data visualization Answer
answer
B
question
45) Using visual parallelism through the use of color, shape, size, position or typeface is an example of what? A) Balance B) Simplicity C) Consistency D) Emphasis E) Convention Answer
answer
C
question
46) When seeking to emphasize similarities, using colors that have subtle differences are an example of what? A) Emphasis B) Balance C) Simplicity D) Contrast E) Consistency Answer
answer
D
question
47) When incorporating balance in a report or website, which of the following is achieved? A) An emphasis on similarities and differences B) Generally accepted rules and conventions C) A dominant element of design being identified as most important D) Elements that are arranged symmetrically around a central point or axis E) Visual parallelism Answer
answer
D
question
48) Which of the following is represented by the most visually dominant design element? A) The most controversial information B) The most complex information C) The most positive information D) The most colorful information E) The most important information Answer
answer
E
question
49) Identifying which colors have appropriate meaning based on culture is a matter of what? A) Convention B) Emphasis C) Simplicity D) Consistency E) Balance Answer
answer
A
question
50) When incorporating simplicity into graphics, which of the following is important to remember? A) Generally accepted rules or conventions should dictate every aspect of design. B) Decorative elements can clutter documents without adding any relevant information. C) Formal balance is needed to create a calm and serious feel. D) Contrasting colors should be used. E) Parallelism should be used for color, texture and scale. Answer
answer
B
question
51) Which of the following would best present detailed textual information? A) Charts B) Graphs C) Tables D) Pictures E) Flowcharts Answer
answer
C
question
52) Which of the following best represents information found in a table? A) Movement of data over a period of time B) The cumulative effect of data C) The systematic arrangement of data in columns and rows D) Showing parts of the whole E) Extracting broad meaning from giant masses of data Answer
answer
C
question
53) When wanting to show trends over time, what type of visual aid would be most effective? A) Pie chart B) Table C) Bar chart D) Line chart E) Surface chart Answer
answer
D
question
54) A bar chart is best used to show what? A) How the parts of a whole are distributed B) A sequence of events from start to finish C) The change in the composition of something over time D) Trends E) How quantities compare over time Answer
answer
E
question
55) Which of the following is an advantage of data visualization techniques? A) Data visualization allows the reader to extract broad meaning from giant masses of data. B) Data visualization allows the reader to clarify individual data points. C) Data visualization can limit the number of data points being used. D) Data visualization represents only numeric data. E) Data visualization limits complex relationships among data points. Answer
answer
A
question
56) When wanting to use a visual representation of sequential relationships, what visual aid might be most effective? A) Maps B) Flowcharts C) Infographics D) Organization charts E) Data visualization Answer
answer
B
question
57) Which of the following is best accomplished by using an organizational chart? A) Showing geographic distribution of data B) Structured narrative C) Showing how functions interrelate D) Identifying tag cloud groupings E) Organizing "big data" Answer
answer
C
question
58) Which of the following is a type of visual aid that conveys both data and concepts? A) Maps B) Geographic information systems C) Photographs D) Infographics E) Diagrams Answer
answer
D
question
59) Which of the following is an advantage of using infographics to convey information? A) Infographics can convey technical topics such as how to repair a machine. B) Infographics can be combined with databases to become extremely powerful visual reporting tools. C) Infographics can be paired with geographic distribution data to replace traditional mapping technology. D) Infographics can portray any hierarchy needed to organize a report. E) Infographics can show interconnected processes and can replace conventional reports. Answer
answer
E
question
60) When wanting to incorporate a visual that offers function and decorative value, what can be most effective? A) Photographs B) Animation C) Video D) Infographics E) Drawings Answer
answer
A
question
61) When developing a visual aid for a promotional presentation, which of the following might be most effective at reaching the widest audience? A) Photographs B) Animation C) Video D) Infographics E) Drawings Answer
answer
C
question
62) Which of the following allows companies to present videos as an integrated collection in a customized user interface? A) Infographics B) Geographic information systems C) "Big Data" systems D) Branded channels E) Tag cloud systems Answer
answer
D
question
63) Which of the following is not true when using a design template for designing visuals? A) Design templates promote consistency across the organization. B) Design templates save time by eliminating repetitive decision making. C) Design templates ensure better designs. D) Design templates ensure consistency in color palettes, typeface and layouts. E) Design templates are appropriate for all types of messages, from informal internal messages to those written to influential outsiders. Answer
answer
E
question
64) Which of the following provides a short description that identifies the content and the purpose of a visual aid? A) Title B) Caption C) Summary paragraph D) Legend E) Tag Answer
answer
A
question
65) What is accomplished by adding a caption to a visual aid? A) A short description is provided that identifies the content of the visual. B) An additional discussion of the visuals content is included. C) A short description of the purpose of the visual is included. D) An explanation of various colors and symbols is provided. E) An explanation of the significance of the visual is provided. Answer
answer
B
question
66) What is the purpose of providing a legend with a visual aid? A) A short description is provided that identifies the content of the visual. B) An additional discussion of the visuals content is included. C) A short description of the purpose of the visual is included. D) An explanation of various colors and symbols is provided. E) An explanation of the significance of the visual is provided. Answer
answer
D
question
67) When considering the ethics of a visual aid, which of the following will help ensure there is no ethical lapse? A) Provide only relevant background information on the visual aid. B) Minimize irrelevant data. C) Include enough information to allow readers to understand your point. D) Design visuals in such a way that they can be reshaped and manipulated to support a logical argument. E) Include visuals aids that are not open to individual interpretation. Answer
answer
E
question
68) When placing a visual aid in a text, where should the visual be placed? A) Before the text that describes the visual aid B) At the end of the document C) In the List of Illustrations D) After the text that describes the visual aid E) As close to the text that describes the visual aid as possible Answer
answer
E
question
69) Which of the following would be the least effective way to integrate a visual aid in the text? A) Use elaborate, full color visuals that are easy to find and identify. B) Position the visual so the audience won't have to flip back and forth in the printed document. C) Use word pointers to help the reader locate the image quickly. D) Refer to the visual by number in the text of the report. E) Use titles, captions and legends. Answer
answer
A
question
70) Visual elements are an effective way to replace text. Answer
answer
TRUE
question
71) Formal balance in visual elements tends to feel dynamic and engaging. Answer
answer
FALSE
question
72) The most dominant visual element should include the most important information. Answer
answer
TRUE
question
73) Visual aids do not generally need to be supported by documentation. Answer
answer
FALSE
