Chapter 10 Human Resources, Job Design, and Work Measurement – Flashcards
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5) A NASCAR pit crew consists of how many members? A) 7 B) 5 C) 9 D) 10 E) 4
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A) 7
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6) Most pit crew members have background experience in what area? A) mechanical engineering B) athletics C) car mechanics D) automobile race driving E) No specific area—crew members come from all sorts of backgrounds.
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B) athletics
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7) Which of the following best describes mutual commitment in an organization? A) an instance in which management is committed to the employees and the employees are committed to management B) both management and the employees are committed to the same objective C) both management and the employees are committed, but to different objectives D) management obtains the commitment of the employees to a stated objective E) both management and the employees can rely on each other
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B) both management and the employees are committed to the same objective
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8) Mutual trust is: A) when employees have gained the trust of management. B) reflected in reasonable, documented employment policies that are honestly and equitably implemented to the satisfaction of both management and employee. C) when management has gained the trust of the employees. D) when management recognizes that the employees are competent, motivated people both able and willing to perform at the level required to produce a quality product. E) when management and the employees both agree on common objectives.
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B) reflected in reasonable, documented employment policies that are honestly and equitably implemented to the satisfaction of both management and employee.
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9) The objective of a human resource strategy is to: A) produce the demand forecast at the lowest possible labor cost. B) match employment levels with demand. C) achieve a reasonable quality of work life at low cost. D) manage labor and design jobs so people are effectively and efficiently utilized. E) hire the most diversified workforce possible.
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D) manage labor and design jobs so people are effectively and efficiently utilized.
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5) The two most basic policies associated with employment stability are: A) job enrichment and job enlargement. B) employment for life and guaranteed minimum wage. C) follow demand exactly and hold employment constant. D) incentive plans and piece-rate plans. E) full-time and part-time.
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C) follow demand exactly and hold employment constant.
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6) A manufacturing plant allows its engineers to come in at 7 A.M. plus or minus an hour but still requires them to work 8-hour days. Which of the following scheduling techniques is the firm employing? A) flextime B) constant employment C) part-time status D) flexible workweek E) compressed workweek
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A) flextime
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7) Working four shifts of ten hours each instead of five shifts of eight hours each is known as which of the following? A) flextime B) constant employment C) part-time status D) flexible workweek E) flexwork
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D) flexible workweek
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9) Four of the components of job design are: A) employment stability, work schedules, work sampling, and motivation & incentive systems. B) job specialization, job expansion, psychological components, and self-directed teams. C) labor specialization and enrichment, motivation and incentive systems, employment stability, and work sampling. D) ergonomics and work methods, method time measurement, work schedules, and incentive systems. E) labor specialization, time studies, work sampling, and pre-determined time standards.
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B) job specialization, job expansion, psychological components, and self-directed teams.
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10) What is the behavioral approach to job design that involves giving the worker more tasks requiring similar skills? A) job enlargement B) job enrichment C) job enhancement D) job rotation E) job involvement
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A) job enlargement
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11) Which of Hackman and Oldham's five job characteristics refers to providing a worker a say in the work methods that he/she wishes to utilize? A) skill variety B) job identity C) job significance D) feedback E) autonomy
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E) autonomy
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12) Which of the following terms implies an increase in responsibility and control in the vertical direction? A) job rotation B) job enrichment C) job re-design D) job enlargement E) job satisfaction
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B) job enrichment
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13) Which of the following statements describes job rotation? A) The job contains a larger number of similar tasks. B) The job includes some planning and control necessary for job accomplishment. C) The operator works on different shifts on a regular basis. D) The operator's schedule is flexible. E) The operator is allowed to move, for example, from one type of CNC machine to another.
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E) The operator is allowed to move, for example, from one type of CNC machine to another.
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14) The difference between job enrichment and job enlargement is that: A) enlarged jobs involve vertical expansion, while enriched jobs involve horizontal expansion. B) enriched jobs enable an employee to do a number of boring jobs instead of just one. C) job enlargement is more psychologically satisfying than job enrichment. D) job enrichment is suitable for all employees, whereas job enlargement is not. E) enriched jobs involve vertical expansion, while enlarged jobs involve horizontal expansion.
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E) enriched jobs involve vertical expansion, while enlarged jobs involve horizontal expansion.
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15) When a worker obtains clear and timely information about his/her performance, his/her job includes which of the following characteristics? A) feedback B) skill variety C) job identity D) job significance E) autonomy
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A) feedback
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16) Which of the following is not a limitation of job expansion? A) higher capital cost B) higher wage rates C) smaller labor pool D) higher training costs E) All of the above are limitations of job expansion.
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E) All of the above are limitations of job expansion.
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17) Management and labor share the labor cost reductions in which of these compensation schemes? A) bonus system B) quota system C) Scantron plan D) Scanlon plan E) measured day work plan
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D) Scanlon plan
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18) Which of the following statements regarding incentive systems is FALSE? A) Bonuses are often used at the executive levels. B) About half of all American manufacturing firms use productivity incentives. C) Profit-sharing systems provide some part of the profit for distribution to employees. D) The Scanlon plan is based on team productivity. E) Increasing use of cross-training has led to increasing use of knowledge-based pay systems.
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D) The Scanlon plan is based on team productivity.
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3) One of the elements of ergonomics is A) allocating work time based on economic studies. B) the cost justification of technology. C) designing tools and machines that facilitate human work. D) assembly line balancing. E) the establishment of time standards.
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C) designing tools and machines that facilitate human work.
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2) Which of the following is not analyzed using methods techniques? A) movement of capital B) body movement C) movement of individuals D) movement of material E) crew activity
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A) movement of capital
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3) Methods analysis focuses on: A) the design of the machines used to perform a task. B) establishing time standards. C) reducing the number of skills needed for the completion of a task. D) issues such as the movement of individuals or material. E) evaluating training programs to see if they are efficient.
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D) issues such as the movement of individuals or material.
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4) Which of the following is used by methods analysis in analyzing body movement at the workstation level? A) MTM chart B) flow diagram C) operations chart D) process chart E) improvement chart
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C) operations chart
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5) The phrase, "designed to show economy of motion by pointing out wasted motion and idle time (delay)," describes which of the following? A) a flow diagram B) an activity chart C) an operations chart D) a process chart E) a work sample
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C) an operations chart
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6) Methods analysis employs which of the following charts in its analysis of the movement of workers and materials? A) micro-motion chart B) flow diagram C) activity chart D) man-machine chart E) movement chart
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B) flow diagram
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7) Flow diagrams are used to analyze: A) movement of people or material. B) utilization of an operator and machine. C) body movements. D) time taken by various activities. E) unnecessary micro-motions.
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A) movement of people or material.
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8) Activity charts help analyze: A) movement of people or material. B) utilization of an operator and machine. C) body movements. D) activities that can cause injuries. E) unnecessary micro-motions.
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B) utilization of an operator and machine.
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3) The visual workplace: A) uses low-cost visual devices to share information. B) is an effective means of rapid communication in a dynamic workplace. C) replaces difficult-to-understand paperwork. D) eliminates non-value-added activities by making problems and standards visual. E) All of the above describe the visual workplace.
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E) All of the above describe the visual workplace.
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4) Which of the following is a visual signal at a machine that notifies support personnel about the machine's status? A) Andon B) Endon C) Indon D) Ondon E) Undon
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A) Andon
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22) Suppose that the allowance factor for a job is 0.10, and the normal time is 5 hours. What is the standard time? A) 5.6 hours B) 50.0 hours C) 4.9 hours D) 5.1 hours E) 4.5 hours
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A) 5.6 hours
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23) Labor standards are defined as the: A) preset activities required to perform a job. B) amount of space required by a specific crew to perform the job. C) standard set of procedures to perform the job. D) standard labor agreements. E) amount of time required to perform a job or part of a job.
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E) amount of time required to perform a job or part of a job.
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24) Labor standards can help to determine which of the following? A) labor content of a product B) staffing needs C) incentive plans D) efficiency E) all of the above
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E) all of the above
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25) Labor standards were pioneered by Frank and Lillian Gilbreth and: A) Frederick Taylor. B) Eli Whitney. C) Henry Ford. D) Alan Smith. E) GE.
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A) Frederick Taylor.
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26) Which of the following is not a method used to set labor standards? A) historical experience B) time studies C) predetermined time standards D) work sampling E) government laws and regulations
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E) government laws and regulations
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27) Normal time for a stopwatch study is equal to which of the following? A) Average observed time × Performance rating factor B) Average observed time + Performance rating factor C) Average observed time / Performance rating factor D) Average observed time - Performance rating factor E) Performance rating factor / Average observed time
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A) Average observed time × Performance rating factor
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28) Suppose that the allowance factor for a job is 0.5 and the normal time is 5 hours. What is the standard time? A) 5 hours B) 2.5 hours C) 10 hours D) 7.5 hours E) cannot determine with the given information
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C) 10 hours
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29) A worker completed a task 10 times during a period in which a typical trained employee completes the task 8 times. What is the worker's performance rating? A) 125% B) 150% C) 100% D) 112.5% E) cannot be determined with the given information
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A) 125%
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30) Which of the following is NOT a use of labor standards? A) labor content of items produced B) cost and time estimates prior to production C) crew size and work balance D) basis of wage-incentive plans E) All of the above are uses of labor standards.
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E) All of the above are uses of labor standards.
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31) Which of the following techniques may NOT provide reliable and accurate labor standards? A) historical experience B) methods time measurement (MTM) C) time studies D) work sampling E) predetermined time standards
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A) historical experience
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32) Timing a sample of a worker's performance and using it as a basis for setting a standard time describes which of the following? A) predetermined time standards B) time studies C) work sampling D) methods time measurement E) left-hand, right-hand charting
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B) time studies
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33) A manager who is conducting a time study now needs an accuracy of ±0.1 minutes, rather than ±0.2 minutes as in the past. Because of this change in accuracy, the new required sample size becomes: A) one-fourth as large. B) one-half as large. C) twice as large. D) four times as large. E) one-tenth larger.
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D) four times as large.
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34) In time studies, normal time is: A) average observed time multiplied by a performance rating factor. B) larger than standard time. C) determined by historical experience. D) converted to standard time by the performance rating factor. E) one hour later during the summer months.
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A) average observed time multiplied by a performance rating factor.
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35) The smaller the percentage established for allowances: A) the closer is normal time to standard time. B) the closer is average observed time to normal time. C) the larger is the performance rating factor. D) the larger is the required sample size. E) the larger is the number of observations in the work sampling.
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A) the closer is normal time to standard time.
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36) In time studies, personal time allowances are often established in which of the following ranges? A) 0 - 2% B) 3 - 5% C) 4 - 7% D) 6 - 10% E) 10 -15%
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C) 4 - 7%
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37) The average observed time for a given job is 10 minutes. The performance rating is 80%, and allowances are set by contract at 10%. What is the standard time? A) 8.80 minutes B) 8.88 minutes C) 10.00 minutes D) 19.00 minutes E) 19.80 minutes
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B) 8.88 minutes
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38) The data below represent time study observations for an assembly operation. Assume a 7% allowance factor. What is the normal time for element 3? Observations (times in minutes) Element Performance Rating 1 2 3 4 5 1 100% 1.5 1.6 1.4 1.5 1.5 2 90% 2.3 2.2 2.1 2.2 2.4 3 115% 1.7 1.9 1.9 1.4 1.6 4 100% 3.5 3.6 3.6 3.6 3.2 A) 1.7 min. B) 1.96 min. C) 2.11 min. D) 10.1 min. E) 11.2 min.
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B) 1.96 min.
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39) The accuracy of a labor standard is to be within ± 5%, and the confidence level is 95%. The standard deviation of the sample is 2 and the mean is 8. What sample size should be used? A) 8 B) 10 C) 96 D) 127 E) 68
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C) 96
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40) Which of these is the most common predetermined time standard? A) CSD B) TMU C) RCH D) SAE E) MTM
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E) MTM
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41) A work sampling study requires an acceptable error level of 10 percent and z = 2 for 95.45 percent confidence. The adequate sample size is ________ if the sample proportion is thought to be as large as 50 percent, but ________ if the sample proportion is thought to be about 20 percent. A) 50; 20 B) 100; 64 C) 100; 16 D) 20; 50 E) 200; 80
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B) 100; 64
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42) Sample observations of a claims processor made over a 160-hour work month reveal that the worker produced a total of 384 completed claims forms. The performance rating was 80%. The worker was idle 20% of the time (so that idle time should be subtracted from the total time when computing the average observed time). The allowance factor is 8%. What is the normal time per unit? A) 0.42 minutes B) 16.0 minutes C) 17.4 minutes D) 20.0 minutes E) 21.7 minutes
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B) 16.0 minutes
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43) Sample observations of a claims processor made over a 160-hour work month reveal that the worker produced a total of 384 completed claims forms. The performance rating was 80%. The worker was idle 20% of the time (so that idle time should be subtracted from the total time when computing the average observed time). The allowance factor is 8%. What is the standard time per unit? A) 0.42 minutes B) 16.0 minutes C) 17.4 minutes D) 20.0 minutes E) 21.7 minutes
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C) 17.4 minutes
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44) A time measurement unit, or TMU, is: A) the same as a Therblig. B) 0.00001 minute. C) 0.00001 hour. D) the duration of the easiest GET motion. E) an historical experience standard.
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C) 0.00001 hour.
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45) Therbligs: A) were invented by Frederick W. Taylor. B) were used during the scientific management era, and are no longer in use. C) are hyperactive rodent-like pets, whose name is associated with time standards. D) were named by Frank Gilbreth. E) are .0006 minutes in length.
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D) were named by Frank Gilbreth.
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46) Therbligs are: A) the smallest unit of time used in methods time measurement exercises. B) the largest unit of time used in methods time measurement exercises. C) basic physical elements of motion as used in methods time measurement exercises. D) the full range of motions required to complete a job as used in methods time measurement exercises. E) the smallest amount of time required to complete a job.
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C) basic physical elements of motion as used in methods time measurement exercises.
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47) Predetermined time standards are an outgrowth of basic motions called: A) mini-movements. B) micro-motions. C) SAE standards. D) TMUs. E) therbligs.
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E) therbligs.
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48) Among the advantages of predetermined time standards are all EXCEPT which of the following? A) Unions accept them as fair. B) They are available before a task is actually performed. C) They can only be determined after work actually takes place. D) They can be established in a laboratory setting. E) No performance ratings are necessary.
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C) They can only be determined after work actually takes place.
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49) What is a technique for estimating the percent of time a worker spends on various tasks? A) stopwatch time study B) simultaneous motion study C) work sampling D) standard elemental (historical) times E) predetermined (published) time standards
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C) work sampling
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50) A bank manager wants to determine the percent of time the bank's tellers are working and idle. He decides to use work sampling, and his initial estimate is that the tellers are idle 20% of the time. Approximately how many observations should be taken to be 95% confident that the results will not be more than 5% away from the true result? A) 6 B) 16 C) 44 D) 210 E) 246
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E) 246
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51) The tally sheet data from a work sampling study provides information regarding: A) the number of wasted motions. B) the level of difficulty in a motion. C) the percent of time spent on various tasks. D) the quality of the work environment. E) the number of micro-motions involved.
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C) the percent of time spent on various tasks.
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52) An advantage of work sampling is that: A) no observation is required. B) it involves study of the equipment only. C) a performance rating is necessary. D) the time spent observing the employee is relatively short. E) it is more effective than time studies when task times are short.
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D) the time spent observing the employee is relatively short.
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53) A disadvantage of work sampling is that: A) it tends to be less accurate, particularly when task times are short. B) it observes several workers simultaneously. C) it is more expensive than time-study methods. D) it is more intrusive than time-study methods, and therefore generates more complaints. E) All of the above are disadvantages of work sampling.
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A) it tends to be less accurate, particularly when task times are short.
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1) Ethical work environment decisions by managers may be guided by which of the following? A) state agencies B) trade associations C) insurers D) employees E) all of the above
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E) all of the above
