Trimester 3 Exam Review (Ch 8-10,15-16 only) MULTIPLE CHOICE – Flashcards

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In order for a solution to form,
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one substance must dissolve in another.
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Study Figure 8-1. When the ionic compound KI is dissolved in water, the I− ions are pulled into solution by the attraction between
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the I− ion and the positive end of a water molecule.
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A salt is dissolved in water, which has a boiling point of 100°C. The boiling point of the solution will be
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greater than 100°C.
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The more particles a solute forms in solution, the greater is its effect on the freezing point of the solution. Which of the following will lower the freezing point the most if 1 mol of it is added to 1 L of water?
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the ionic compound AlCl3
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During the formation of a solution, energy is
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either released or absorbed.
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In an exothermic reaction, the amount of energy required to break the attractions among the solute particles and among the solvent particles is
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less than the energy released as attractions form between solute and solvent particles.
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All materials that are considered to be insoluble will dissolve in a solvent to a very small extent. The rate of dissolving of a rock in a streambed would not be increased by which of the following?
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reducing the exposure of the rock to the water
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A student dissolved equal amounts of salt in equal amounts of warm water, room-temperature water, and ice water. Which of the following is true?
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The salt dissolved most quickly in the warm water.
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The maximum amount of a solute that will dissolve in a certain amount of solvent at a given temperature is that solute's
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solubility.
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The solubility of carbon dioxide gas in water can be increased by
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increasing the pressure
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One way to determine the degree of saturation of a solid-liquid solution is to drop a crystal of the solute into the solution. If the crystal sits at the bottom of the container, the solution is
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saturated.
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A solution that contains more solute than it would normally hold at that temperature is said to be
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supersaturated.
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To calculate the molarity of a solution, you need to know the moles of solute and the
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volume of the solution.
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A 20-g sample of sugar is dissolved in 59 g of water. The concentration of the solution is
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25 percent by mass.
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Which of the following is NOT a property of an acid?
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feels slippery
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A girl tasted each of the following foods. Which of the following would NOT taste acidic to her?
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celery
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A base is defined as a compound that produces
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hydroxide ions in solution.
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Which of the following is NOT a common property of bases?
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reacts with metals
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The products of the neutralization reaction between hydrochloric acid and magnesium hydroxide are
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MgCl2 and H2O.
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The salt that is formed during the reaction between potassium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid is
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KCl.
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An acid can be defined as
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a proton donor.
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Ammonia, NH3, can be classified as a base because in a chemical reaction with an acid, ammonia will
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accept a proton and become NH4+.
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Distilled water has a hydronium ion concentration of 1 × 10−7 M. What is the pH of a distilled water?
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7
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The hydroxide ion concentration in pure water at 25ºC is NOT equal to
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1 × 107 M.
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A compound has a pH of 6 in solution, where very little of it has ionized. The compound is a
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weak acid
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Calcium hydroxide forms very few hydroxide ions in solution, but it is still considered a strong base because
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all the calcium hydroxide in solution dissociates.
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Which of the following would NOT form a buffer solution?
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HCl + NaCl
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A small amount of acid is added to a buffer solution. The pH of the solution will
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stay about the same.
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A substance that ionizes or dissociates into ions when placed in water is always a(an)
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electrolyte.
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Which of the following are examples of strong electrolytes?
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strong acids and strong bases
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Figure 9-1 contains a model of graphite. Which of the following statements is true about graphite?
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The bonds between graphite layers are weaker than the bonds within graphite layers.
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In buckminsterfullerene, carbon atoms are
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bonded in alternating hexagons and pentagons on the surface of a hollow sphere.
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Which of the following statements helps explain why there are millions of carbon compounds?
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Carbon has four valence electrons. Carbon atoms form bonds with other carbon atoms. Carbon atoms can form single, double, and triple bonds.
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Which of the following statements is true?
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Organic compounds always contain carbon and hydrogen.
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The carbon atoms in a hydrocarbon CANNOT be arranged in
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a network solid.
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Butane has the formula C4H10. Which of the following is the formula of cyclobutane?
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C4H8
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Which of the following is another name for a saturated hydrocarbon?
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alkane
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Which of the following is a saturated hydrocarbon?
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isopropane
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The prefix dec- means "ten." Which of the following best describes the structure of decene?
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It contains ten carbon atoms and at least one double bond.
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Which of the following compounds is most reactive?
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ethyne
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Which of the following is NOT an example of a fossil fuel?
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methanol
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Burning coal usually produces more soot than burning natural gas or petroleum products because coal
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contains aromatic hydrocarbons with high molar masses.
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What are the main products of the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels?
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water and carbon monoxide
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The combustion of fossil fuels causes the acidity of rain to increase because
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sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides dissolve in water forming sulfuric and nitric acids.
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Which of the following is NOT a result of the complete combustion of fossil fuels?
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The amount of carbon monoxide in the atmosphere increases.
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Which of the following statements explains why inhaling carbon monoxide is dangerous?
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Carbon monoxide keeps hemoglobin in the blood from carrying oxygen to cells.
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In the compound CH3F, the fluorine atom is a(an)
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functional group.
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The functional group in ethanol, which is an alcohol, is the
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hydroxyl group.
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Propanoic acid and ethyl alcohol can react. The products of this reaction are water and an
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ester
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The smell of rotten fish is caused by the presence of an
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amine.
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When monomers link together, they usually form
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a polymer
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In a polymer, monomers are linked by
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covalent bonds.
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Which of the following exists as both a natural and a synthetic polymer?
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rubber
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Which of the following statements about natural rubber and synthetic rubber is true?
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Natural and synthetic rubber contain different monomers.
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Natural polymers are produced
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in both plant and animal cells.
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The monomers from which proteins are made are
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amino acids.
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Plants convert energy from sunlight into chemical energy during
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photosynthesis.
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Which of the following statements is true about photosynthesis and cellular respiration?
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Both photosynthesis and cellular respiration occur in plants.
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Proteins that act as catalysts for chemical reactions that occur in cells are
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enzymes.
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Which of the following statements is true about enzymes?
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Enzymes allow reactions to proceed at temperatures near 37ºC.
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What is the process in which an unstable atomic nucleus emits charged particles or energy or both?
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radioactivity
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Uranium-238 undergoes alpha decay. Therefore, uranium-238 will
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radioactivity
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What type of nuclear decay releases energy but not a particle?
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gamma decay
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When radium-226 decays to form radon-222, the radium nucleus emits a(an)
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alpha particle.
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What type of radiation is emitted when polonium-212 forms lead-208?
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an alpha particle
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Carbon-14 forms nitrogen-14 by
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beta decay.
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Which of the following statements is NOT true about radiation?
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All natural radiation is at a level low enough to be safe.
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Alpha-emitting substances, such as radon gas, can be a serious health hazard only if
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they are inhaled or eaten.
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Which of the following is NOT a step in the operation of a Geiger counter?
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Magnets cause the ions to conduct electricity.
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Many people work near a source of nuclear radiation. To detect the amount of exposure they have to radiation, they most likely will use a
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film badge.
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The half-life of tritium, or hydrogen-3, is 12.32 years. After about 24.6 years, how much of a sample of tritium will remain unchanged?
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1/4
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The half-life of a radioisotope is the amount of time it takes for
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half the sample to decay.
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Which of the following statements about chemical reaction rates and nuclear decay is true?
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Chemical reaction rates vary with the conditions of the reaction, but nuclear decay rates do not.
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In a water solution, HCl and NaOH react to form H2O and NaCl. Radium-226 undergoes alpha decay to form radon-222. The temperature of both of these reactions is increased. Which of the following statements is true?
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The rate of the chemical reaction increases, but the rate of the nuclear reaction remains the same.
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Which of the following is a radioisotope used to date rock formations?
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uranium-235
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Carbon-14 has a half-life of 5730 years. If the age of an object older than 50,000 years cannot be determined by radiocarbon dating, then
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carbon-14 levels in a sample are undetectable after approximately nine half-lives.
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Transmutation involves
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nuclear change.
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Which of the following is NOT an example of a transmutation?
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Uranium-238 is bombarded with a neutron to produce uranium-239.
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Which of the following is an example of a transuranium element?
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curium, Cm
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When curium-242 is bombarded with an alpha particle, two products are formed, one of which is a neutron. What is the other product?
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californium-245
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Which of the following particles is smaller than the rest?
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electron
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The main purpose of a particle accelerator is to
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speed up small particles.
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In general, the nucleus of a small atom is stable. Therefore, over very short distances, such as those in a small nucleus,
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the strong nuclear force is much greater than the electric force.
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Study Figure 10-1. The strong nuclear force felt by a single proton in a large nucleus
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is about the same as that felt by a single proton in a small nucleus.
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During nuclear fission, great amounts of energy are produced from
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very small amounts of mass.
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Suppose 3 neutrons are released by an atom in the first stage of a fission chain reaction. Each of these neutrons has enough energy to cause another fission reaction in another nucleus of the material. If all the neutrons cause other nuclei to fission, how many atoms will have undergone fission after 2 more stages of the chain reaction?
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9
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Which of the following is an advantage of using nuclear power plants to produce electricity?
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Nuclear power plants do not pollute the air.
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Which of the following is NOT a way that water is used in a nuclear power station?
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Running water cools the rotating turbines.
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In what state must matter exist for fusion reactions to take place?
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plasma
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Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using a fusion reaction instead of a fission reaction to produce energy?
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Fusion reactors require less energy than fission reactors do.
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Work is a transfer of
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energy
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What is transferred by a force moving an object through a distance?
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energy
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The energy of motion is called
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kinetic energy.
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A small 20-kilogram canoe is floating downriver at a speed of 2 m/s. What is the canoe's kinetic energy?
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40 J
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A 13-kg sled is moving at a speed of 3.0 m/s. At which of the following speeds will the sled have twice as much kinetic energy?
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4.2 m/s
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An object's gravitational potential energy is NOT directly related to which of the following?
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its speed
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Which of the following is an example of an object with elastic potential energy?
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a wind-up toy that has been wound up a compressed basketball a stretched rubber band
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Why is the gravitational potential energy of an object 1 meter above the moon's surface less than its potential energy 1 meter above Earth's surface?
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The object's acceleration due to gravity is less on the moon.
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A 4-kilogram cat is resting on top of a bookshelf that is 3 meters high. What is the cat's gravitational potential energy relative to the floor if the acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s2?
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118 J
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The gravitational potential energy of an object is always measured relative to the
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reference level from which the height is measured.
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Which of the following increases when an object becomes warmer?
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thermal energy
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The energy stored in gasoline is
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chemical energy.
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The total potential and kinetic energy of all the microscopic particles in an object make up its
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thermal energy.
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Walking converts what type of energy into mechanical energy?
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chemical
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Nuclear power plants are designed to convert nuclear energy into what type of energy?
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electrical
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Solar cells convert what type of energy into electrical energy?
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electromagnetic
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Which of the following statements is true according to the law of conservation of energy?
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Energy cannot be created. Energy cannot be destroyed. Energy can be converted from one form to another.
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If no friction acts on a diver during a dive, then which of the following statements is true?
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(KE+ PE)beginning = (KE + PE)end
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The mechanical energy of an object equals its
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kinetic energy plus its potential energy.
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The kinetic energy of the pendulum bob in Figure 15-1 increases the most between locations
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A and C.
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The equation E = mc2 relates energy and
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mass.
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In which of the following does Einstein's famous equation apply?
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nuclear fission and fusion reactions
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Which of the following statements is a consequence of the equation E = mc2?
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Energy is released when matter is destroyed. Mass and energy are equivalent. The law of conservation of energy must be modified to state that mass and energy are conserved in any process.
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What is biomass energy?
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the chemical energy stored in living things
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Nonrenewable energy resources do not include which of the following?
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hydrogen fuel cells
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Fossil fuels currently account for the majority of the world's energy use because they are
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relatively inexpensive and readily available.
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A drawback of solar energy is that it
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depends on the climate.
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A benefit of a hydrogen fuel cell is that its byproduct is
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water.
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Which of the following types of transportation is NOT mass transportation?
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car
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Based on your knowledge of energy conservation, which of the following statements is true?
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Manufacturers can increase a light bulb's energy efficiency by using technology that increases the amount of electromagnetic energy the bulb converts from a given amount of electrical energy. Energy can be conserved by turning off lights when they are not in use.
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Which of the following is a unit of temperature?
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Celsius degree
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From his observations of cannon drilling, Count Rumford concluded that heat could NOT be a form of
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matter.
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Heat is the transfer of thermal energy from one object to another because of a difference in
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temperature.
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What property of an object is related to the average kinetic energy of the particles in that object?
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temperature
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As the temperature of an object rises, so does the
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thermal energy of the object.
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Which of the following devices is based on the property of thermal expansion?
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thermometer
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Thermal energy depends on an object's
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mass. temperature. phase (sold, liquid, or gas).
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In the formula Q= m x c x ΔT, which quantity represents the specific heat?
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c
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The specific heat of copper is 0.385 J/g·°C. Which equation would you use to calculate the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 0.75 g of copper from 7°C to 29°C?
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Q = 0.75 g × 0.385 J/g·°C × 22°C
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In the formula Q= m x c x ΔT, which quantity is measured in units of J/g·°C?
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c
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What does a calorimeter directly measure?
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change in temperature
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How do you know that a sealed calorimeter is a closed system?
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because thermal energy is not transferred to the environment
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Energy from the sun reaches Earth mostly by
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radiation.
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Matter is needed to transfer thermal energy by
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conduction. convection.
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The vacuum inside the thermos bottle shown in Figure 16-1 stops which type of thermal energy transfer to keep the liquid hot?
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convection conduction
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Which of the following materials conducts heat well?
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metal
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To which of the following does the first law of thermodynamics apply?
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heating objects doing work on a system transferring thermal energy
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According to the first law of thermodynamics, the amount of work done by a heat engine equals the amount of
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thermal energy added to the engine minus the waste heat.
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The second law of thermodynamics states that thermal energy can flow from colder objects to hotter objects
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only if work is done on the system.
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Disorder in the universe increases because
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work produces waste heat, which leaves a system.
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Which of the following states that absolute zero cannot be reached?
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the third law of thermodynamics
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One consequence of the third law of thermodynamics is that
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heat engines have efficiencies less than 100 percent.
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Which of the following happens in a steam engine?
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Fuel is burned outside the engine. Hot steam pushes a piston. Heat is converted into work.
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In most four-stroke internal combustion engines, when does the piston move downward?
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during the power and intake strokes
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Which central heating system involves a furnace and a blower?
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forced-air
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In forced-air heating systems, where are warm-air vents usually located?
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near the floor
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A fluid that vaporizes and condenses inside the tubing of a heat pump is called the
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refrigerant.
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Which of the following happens in a heat pump?
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The compressor increases the pressure and temperature of the refrigerant.
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Which type of central heating system is often used when heating many buildings from a central location?
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steam
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Which of the following describes an advantage of radiant heaters?
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They are portable. They can easily be turned on or off. They direct warm air to where it is needed.
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