MCB Exam 3 Questions – Flashcards
Unlock all answers in this set
Unlock answersquestion
| What allows deinococcus radiodurans to endure high doses of ionizing radiation? |
answer
| multiple copies of chromoseom & radiation absorbing pigments |
question
| What are the 5 types of phototrophic bacteria? |
answer
| blue-green, green sulfur, green non-sulfur, purple sulfur, purple non-sulfur |
question
| What are the 8 types of low G+C gram-pos bacteria? |
answer
| clostridium, mycoplasma, lactobacillus, enterococcus, bacillus, listeria, streptococcus, staphylococcus |
question
| What are the 3 types of high G+C gram-pos bacteria? |
answer
| corynebacterium, mycobacterium, actinomycetes |
question
| What is the most common form of food poisoning? |
answer
| Clostridium botulinum |
question
| What are symptoms of clostridium botulinum? |
answer
| headache, double vision, flaccid paralysis |
question
| __ is involved in duck die-offs. |
answer
| Botulinum |
question
| How does botulism kill babies? |
answer
| lives in intestines and starts making the neurotoxin to make dead organic matter |
question
| What does the tetanus vaccine do? |
answer
| infect with tetanus toxin that's chemically inactive, to get body used to it |
question
| What is tetanospasmin? |
answer
| tetanus excretion |
question
| How does the antitoxin for tetanus work? |
answer
| aminoglobulins bind to toxin to get them to stop suffering from tetanus |
question
| What is the untreated mortality rate of tetanus? |
answer
| 40-80% |
question
| Factors that cause wound infections include: 1. ___ of contaminating organism 2. size of contaminating ___ 3. extent of __ damage at wound 4. ____ of wounded person |
answer
| 1. virulence 2. dose 3. tissue 4. health status |
question
| What are symptoms of clostridium perfringens? |
answer
| abdominal pain, diarrhea |
question
| How does gas gangrene work? |
answer
| use fermentative pathways, making CO2 which builds in the wound |
question
| How do antibiotics help C. Diff? |
answer
| kill other intestinal organisms, leaving room for C. Diff to grow |
question
| What does C. diff's tissue destruction cause? |
answer
| formation of plaque-like pseudomembrane |
question
| What is used to treat C. diff? |
answer
| probiotics |
question
| What are the 3 virulence factors in bacillus anthracis? |
answer
| edema factor; lethal factor; protective antigen |
question
| What is the untreated mortality rate in cutaneous anthrax? |
answer
| 20% |
question
| What does edema factor cause in anthrax? |
answer
| fluids to leech into the lung |
question
| What does gastrointestinal anthrax do? |
answer
| infects gut due to eating contaminated meat |
question
| How does bacitrcin inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis? |
answer
| interferes w/ movement of precursor groups through cell membrane to cell wall |
question
| 16sRNA shows mycoplasma are most like ____, but they appear ___ in a gram-stain. |
answer
| clostridium; gram-negative |
question
| Why are mycoplasma penicilin resistent? |
answer
| don't have cell walls |
question
| What are symptoms of mycoplasma pneumoniae? |
answer
| headache, sort throat, sweating, coughing, really tired, fever |
question
| How is walking pneumonia treated? |
answer
| erthyromycin |
question
| How is walking pneumonia spread? |
answer
| nasal secretions |
question
| What is the incubation period for walking pneumonia? |
answer
| 7-14 days |
question
| How long does it take for walking pneumonia to be seen on a screen? |
answer
| 2-6 weeks |
question
| What disease is responsible for 1/2 of all infections that lead to infertility? |
answer
| ureaplasma urealyticum |
question
| What is used to treat ureaplasma urealyticum patients? |
answer
| tetracycline |
question
| What do most patients at VD clinics carry? |
answer
| ureaplasma urealytican |
question
| Listeria produces enzymes that cause polymerization of ___, which is how they move. |
answer
| actin fibers |
question
| Listeria survives phagocytosis to lives within ____ |
answer
| cytoplasm of macrophages |
question
| What does catalase negative mean? |
answer
| unable to break down H2O2 |
question
| stopped at slide 40 |
answer
question
| ____ is extensive destruction of deep subcutaneous muscle and fat. |
answer
| necrotizing fasciitis |
question
| Flesh eating bacteria is aka: |
answer
| necrotizing fasciitis |
question
| ___ is excretion of enzymes capable of breaking down redblood cells. |
answer
| hemolysis |
question
| What happens with beta hemolytic cells in agar? |
answer
| complete clearing around the colony |
question
| What is petechiae? |
answer
| red spots in the throat |
question
| What causes 35% of sore throats for kids? |
answer
| streptococcal pharyngitis |
question
| What is used to diagnose streptococcal involvement in pharyngitis? |
answer
| rapid strep screen (RSS) |
question
| What is the treatment for s. pyogenes? |
answer
| pencillins or tetracyclines |
question
| 3% of s. Pyogenes cases get sequelae, causing ___, ____, ___, or ___. |
answer
| scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis, chorea |
question
| What can cause s. pyogenes? |
answer
| direct contact or droplet infection |
question
| What is used to treat pneumonia? |
answer
| amoxicillin |
question
| Most strains of s. pneumnoia are __ hemolytic. |
answer
| alpha |
question
| Virulent s. pneumonia have a __ made of ___. |
answer
| capsule; polysaccharides |
question
| How does s. pneumoniae interfere with recognition by macrophages? |
answer
| anitphagocytic capsule |
question
| ___ is inflammation of membranes that surround brain and spinal cord. |
answer
| bacterial meningitis |
question
| Any organism that can access the CNS can cause: |
answer
| spinal meningitis |
question
| Enterococcus can cause ___, ___, ____, and ___ if it gets out of intestines. |
answer
| UTIs, bacteremia, endocarditis, meningitis |
question
| Why is vancomycin resistant enterococcus such an issue? |
answer
| vancomycin is the last resort with enterococcus |
question
| _____ can cause peritonitis if it gets into the abdominal cavity. |
answer
| enterococcus faecalis |
question
| Staphylococcus tend to grow on ___. |
answer
| skin |
question
| What does catalase negative mean? |
answer
| unable to break down hydrogen peroxide |
question
| What protects staphylococcus aureus from phagocytes? |
answer
| coagulase (enzyme that causes fibrin to clot) |
question
| How does hyaluronidase help the staphylococcus aureus bacteria? |
answer
| breaks down hylauronic acid, which helps hold cells and tissues together |
question
| How does staphylococcal food poisoning happen? |
answer
| heat stable enterotoxin |
question
| ___ dissolves blood clots to allow spread to new locations. |
answer
| staphylokinase |
question
| ___ disrupts cell membranes of most host cells. |
answer
| cytolytic toxins |
question
| ___ disrupts cytoplasmic membranes of leukoctyes. |
answer
| leukocidin |
question
| ____ triggers fever, vomiting, rash, and shock. |
answer
| toxic shock syndrome. |
question
| What is the "D" in the DPT shot? |
answer
| diphteria |
question
| What produces the palisades in C. dip? |
answer
| snapping cell division |
question
| How does the immunization for c. diptheria work? |
answer
| inject w/ just enough dip to retain structure, making an immunological response happen |
question
| If C. diptheria becomes systemic, what can happen? |
answer
| heart and kidney failure in 7-10 days. |
question
| ___ are slow growing, non-spore forming rods with waxy mycolic acids in cell walls. |
answer
| mycobacterium |
question
| How do antibiotic drugs affect leprosy? |
answer
| they can never kill it off completely |
question
| What was used to form the first aminoglycoside, used to inhibit bacterial ribosomes? |
answer
| streptomyces griseus |
question
| Gram-positive cell walls are bound together by ___ and ___. |
answer
| teichoic acids; lipoteichoic acids |
question
| Gram-negative cell wall has a thin layer of ___, with outer membrane of ___. |
answer
| peptidoglycan; lipopolysaccharide |
question
| Tuberculosis transmission is usually associated with: |
answer
| aerosol from an infected person |
question
| In latent TB, body successfully: |
answer
| inhibits spread of bacteria |
question
| In active TB, the bacteria can infect ___ tissue. |
answer
| ANY |
question
| Alpha, beta, gamma, delta, and epsilonproteobacteria are all ____ bacteria. |
answer
| gram-negative |
question
| With rhizobium, bacteria converts atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia, then provides __ to the plant, while the plant provides ___. |
answer
| organic nitrogenous compounds; organic compounds from photosynthesis |
question
| What is a crown gall? |
answer
| tumor of tissue caused by modified DNA, producing strange AA that plant can't use |
question
| slide 77 |
answer
question
| ____ is a nitrifying bacterium that helps convert ammonia to nitrate. |
answer
| nitrobacter |
question
| _____ has anoxygenic photosynthesis and can use light energy to produce PMF |
answer
| rhodospirillacea (purple non-sulfur bacteria) |
question
| Bacteria that are grown in light produce ___. |
answer
| rhodopsin |
question
| Brucella abortis does not colonize the ___. |
answer
| gut |
question
| Symptoms of Rickettsia rickettsia are: |
answer
| non-itchy spotted rash fever headache chills muscle aches nausea vomiting petechiae |
question
| What is the causative agent of typhus? |
answer
| Rickettsia rickettsia |
question
| What are gonorrhea symtpoms in men? |
answer
| burning sensation and pus discharge |
question
| What are gonorrhea symptoms in women? |
answer
| may be asymptomatic or vaginal discharge and pelvic pain |
question
| What happens if gonorrhea is left untreated? |
answer
| spreads through the body, can cause sterility |
question
| How often is gonorrhea asymptomatic in women? |
answer
| 4/5 times, can cause inflammation of cervix and uterine tubes |
question
| In ___, airways become constricted by mucus. |
answer
| b. pertussis |
question
| B. pertussis can be treated by ___, if caught early. However, most treatment is ___ b/c it's about the epithelium, not the number of bacteria. |
answer
| erthyromycin; supportive |
question
| How is salmonellosis transmitted? |
answer
| fecal-oral cycle |
question
| What is the incubation period for salmonellosis? |
answer
| 8-48 hours |
question
| ___ is infection of the blood caused by salmonellosis. |
answer
| typhoid fever |
question
| Typhoid fever's 2 worst symptoms are ___ and ___ |
answer
| kidney failure, peritonitis |
question
| ___ is an infection of animals that only infects human as second target. |
answer
| zoonosis |
question
| What are the 2 manifestations of the plague? |
answer
| bubonic (flea bite) pneumonic (aerosol from infected person |
question
| If bubonic, what is the main symptom of the plague? |
answer
| enlarged lymph nodes |
question
| What is the main symptom of the plague if pneumonic? |
answer
| bloody cough b/c of lung infecion |
question
| Which type of plague is contagious? |
answer
| pneumonic |
question
| ____ causes rapid wound infections after exposure to contaminated sea water. |
answer
| vibrio vulnificus |
question
| In cholera, ___ clears up the infection, but ___ is the cause of the disease. |
answer
| tetracycline; choleragen (toxin) |
question
| What causes pink eye? |
answer
| haemophilus aegyptius |
question
| What usually causes otitis media? |
answer
| throat organisms |
question
| What is a chancre? |
answer
| syphilitic ulcer |
question
| What does the chancre do? |
answer
| sheds bacteria (very contagious) |
question
| What is congenital syphilis? |
answer
| when mom gives syphilis to baby |
question
| What are the normal microflora of the mouth? |
answer
| gram positive streptococci alpha hemolytic |
question
| If listeriosis symptoms appear, the odds of death are ___ |
answer
| 20% |
question
| When did eukaryotic microbes first evolve? |
answer
| 2.5-3B years ago |
question
| What is an exon? |
answer
| part of DNA that encode info for protein synthesis in eukaryotes |
question
| What is an intron? |
answer
| nonsense sequences of DNA that aren't necessarily necessary |
question
| What do eukaryotic mRNAs have on the 3' end? |
answer
| poly A-tail |
question
| ___ makes most of the ATP that's used in a eukaryotic cell. |
answer
| mitochondria |
question
| ___ have their own, mini chromosome. |
answer
| mitochondria |
question
| What are made from the mitochondrial chromosome? |
answer
| a small percentage of the proteins they need |
question
| What may hydrogenosomes evolved from? |
answer
| mitochondria |
question
| ____ are associated with basal body of flagella. |
answer
| kinetoplasts |
question
| How are introns gotten rid of? |
answer
| splicing enzymes |
question
| ___ resist tension, while ___ resist compression. |
answer
| microfilaments; microtubules |
question
| ____ is extension of cytoplasm seen in protozoa and animal cells that enables the cell to move by amoeboid motion |
answer
| pseudopod |
question
| What is the order of the 4 phases of mitosis? |
answer
| prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase |
question
| ____ is cell division for reproduction. |
answer
| meiosis |
question
| In _____, a chromosome looks like a X and is composed of 2 copies of chromosome that have undergone replication. |
answer
| mitosis metaphase |
question
| What is the key difference between mitosis and meiosis? |
answer
| in meiosis, each X-shaped chromosome associates with its homologous partner to form chromosome pairs |
question
| Algae produce ___ and fix ___. |
answer
| oxygen, CO2 |
question
| What happens to energized electrons in photosynthesis? |
answer
| passed off to NADP+ to NADPH |
question
| Where is algae common? |
answer
| water and upper millimeters of damp soil or snow |
question
| Algae go through ___ photosynthesis. |
answer
| oxygenic |
question
| What is a unicellular fungi? |
answer
| yeast |
question
| What is the technical name for fungal kingdom? |
answer
| mycopheta |
question
| ___ make reproductive spores. |
answer
| Fungus |
question
| Fungal spores can be ___ or ___. |
answer
| vegetative (asexual); sexual |
question
| What is a basidiocarp? |
answer
| top part of mushroom |
question
| Sexual cycle of zymycota forms a mass of diploid cells called: |
answer
| zygosporangium |
question
| Meiosis within the zygosporangium yields a ___ and ___. |
answer
| hypha; sporangium |
question
| Basidiospores develop at end of basidia, which develops from: |
answer
| intertwined hyphae of basidiocarp |
question
| What happens in the sexual cycle of saccharoymces cervisiae? |
answer
| gives a single celled ascus that contains 2-4 ascospores |
question
| What is a yeast infection for women? |
answer
| overgrowth of vaginal candida albicans |
question
| What is a dimorphic fungus? |
answer
| something that's hyphae in soil & yeast in lungs |
question
| What does aspergillus flavus look like? |
answer
| broccoli heads |
question
| What is aflatoxin? |
answer
| liver carcinogen found in improperly stored grains and peanuts |
question
| What mutation does aflatoxin cause? |
answer
| converts guanines to thymines |
question
| What phylum is candida albicans found in? |
answer
| ascomycota |
question
| What three species can cause ringworm? |
answer
| tricophyton rubrum, microsporum gypseum, and microsporum canis |
question
| What is onychomycosis? |
answer
| fungal infection of nail |
question
| What is thrush? |
answer
| infection of oral cavity |
question
| Where is histoplasma capsulatum found? |
answer
| soils contaminated by bat or bird droppings |
question
| What are some of the symptoms of histoplasmosis? |
answer
| chronic fever, cough, chest pain, lung cavities, may cough up tissue |
question
| How does coccidiodomycosis act in lungs? |
answer
| like a yeast |
question
| Where does coccidiodomycosis live? |
answer
| hot, dry, dusty areas |
question
| How is coccidiodomycosis contracted? |
answer
| inhalation of spores |
question
| What is the size range for protozoa? |
answer
| 2-3 microns to 200-300 microns |
question
| What do protozoa use to be motile? |
answer
| pseudopods, flagella, cilia |
question
| What is encystment, and what has it? |
answer
| tough resting form of organism; protozoas |
question
| What does diplomonad mean? |
answer
| protozoa with 2 nuclei |
question
| What are the 3 stages of amoeboflagellates? |
answer
| amoeba, flagellated, cyst |
question
| When do protozoa form cysts? |
answer
| when conditions become unfavorable |
question
| What is the trophozite? |
answer
| the actively feeding and growing form of a protozoan |
question
| What form of protozoa usually causes disease? |
answer
| trophozite |
question
| ___ have hard shells made of calcium carbonate. |
answer
| foraminfera |
question
| In ciliophora, the ___ is large and has copies of the genome, while the ___ is small and involved in sexual reproduction. |
answer
| macronucleus; micronucleus |
question
| Where do the life stages of t. brucei occur? |
answer
| extracellularly |
question
| Chronic t. cruzi can affect the ___, ___, or ___. |
answer
| heart, colon, peripheral nervous system |
question
| What is the merozoite stage of plasmodium falciparum? |
answer
| microorganism grows in either red blood cells or liver cells |
question
| What happens if pregnant women inhale taxoplasma gondii? |
answer
| can transfer to the fetus and kill it |
question
| What is the vegetative stage like for penicillum chrysogenum? |
answer
| produces white or yellow |
question
| What both causes hallucinations and can be used to induce labor? |
answer
| ergot (toxin from clavices purpurea) |
question
| What is African sleeping sickness? |
answer
| fatal infection of blood that can spread to nervous system |
question
| A suitable host cell must have the ___ a virus needs to reproduce. |
answer
| enzymes |
question
| Sizes: 1. Red blood cell 2. E. Coli 3. Poliovirus 4. Small Pox Virus 5. Bacteriophage T4 6. Tobacco mosaic virus |
answer
| 1. 10,000 nm diameter 2. 1000 nm x 3000 nm 3. 30 nm 4. 200 nm x 300 nm 5. 50 nm x 225 nm 6. 15 nm x 300 nm |
question
| Viral envelope is a ___ bilayer, embedded with ___, but is not active like a cytoplasmic membrane. |
answer
| lipid; proteins |
question
| What shape is the rabies virus? |
answer
| bullet |
question
| What are the 3 pieces of the tail of a bacteriophage? |
answer
| base plate, tail fibers, tail spike |
question
| What are the 5 stages of the general virus life cycle? |
answer
| attachment, entry, synthesis, assembly, release |
question
| How does a lambda phage go through attachment? |
answer
| attaches to a pore with the base plate |
question
| How does lambda phage enter the cell? |
answer
| tail protein shifts and rearranges, acts like a syringe to inject DNA into host cell |
question
| During which bacteria phage stage is the host chromosome degraded? |
answer
| synthesis |
question
| How many lambda phages are made during assembly per cell? |
answer
| 20-50 |
question
| What is the last thing made by a lambda phage? |
answer
| lysozome--degrades peptidoglycan, causes host cell to break open |
question
| What is a lytic cycle? |
answer
| virus actively grows and kills cell when breaks out |
question
| What is a lysogenic cycle? |
answer
| virus remains dormant and host cell continues to grow & divide |
question
| As long as phage repressor protein is active, what happens to the host cell? |
answer
| survives! |
question
| What is the one benefit to the host during the lysogenic cycle of a virus? |
answer
| protects from other lambda particles |
question
| When a lambda lysogen encounters harsh conditions, what can happen to lambda repressor protein? |
answer
| can be degraded, causing production of prophage genes |
question
| When a virus buds out of a cell, what is the envelope made of? |
answer
| cytoplasmic membrane of the host cell with viral proteins on it |
question
| What are 3 examples of human viruses that are always in lytic cycle? |
answer
| rhinoviruses; enteroviruses; hep A |
question
| Viruses with ___ in their genome may be capable of being latent within human cells. |
answer
| DNA |
question
| What does entero virus mean? |
answer
| within the intestines |
question
| What is a positive strand virus? |
answer
| DNA has same sequence as RNA |
question
| Positive sense RNA can be translated by: |
answer
| host ribosomes |
question
| Why is it virtually impossible to cure AIDS? |
answer
| virus becomes latent in T-helper cells |
question
| What are the 7 types of animal viruses? |
answer
| dsDNA ssDNA dsRNA +ssRNA -ssRNA ssRNA-RT (+ sense w/ DNA intermediate) dsDNA-RT |
question
| ___ attaches influenza virus to human host cells by attaching to __ residue on the surface of the cells. |
answer
| hemagglutinin; sialic acid |
question
| ___ is enzyme that cleaves ___ off of host cells for the influenza virus to allow new virus particles to release. |
answer
| neuraminidase; sialic acid |
question
| What are flu symptoms due to? |
answer
| immune system attacking infected cells |
question
| Mortality rates for rubeola in healthy US kids is ___, __ in less developed nations, and ___ for patients with AIDS. |
answer
| .3%; 20%; 30% |
question
| What is shingles? |
answer
| reactivation of varicalla zoster (chickenpox) |
question
| What is the largest virus? |
answer
| mimivirus |
question
| What is an infection? |
answer
| when undesirable microorganism colonizes the host's body |
question
| What is a communicable disease? |
answer
| something that can pass between humans |
question
| Symptoms are: |
answer
| aspects of disease felt by patient |
question
| What are signs of disease? |
answer
| indications of disease that a physician can measure |
question
| What are the 6 stages of infectious disease? |
answer
| encounter; incubation; prodromal; acute phase; decline/resolution; convalescence |
question
| What diseases can cross the placental barrier? |
answer
| syphilis, toxoplasmosis, AIDS, rubidium, chlamydia, herpes |
question
| Give an example of commensalism. |
answer
| streptococcus salivarius lives in human mouth and doesn't cause too many problems |
question
| Define virulence. |
answer
| ability of microorganism to cause disease |
question
| ___ is study of interactions between disease causing pathogenic microorganisms and society. |
answer
| epidemiology |
question
| ___ is increase in cases of disease in a certain population. |
answer
| epidemic |
question
| ___ is health of a population in regards to a disease. |
answer
| prevalence |
question
| What is equation for prevalence? |
answer
| total# of cases/population |
question
| __ describes rate of change in number of cases of disease within a population. |
answer
| #new cases/population |
question
| What is the 1st line of defense against disease? |
answer
| skin, mucous membranes, chemicals |
question
| What is the 2nd line? |
answer
| resistance phagocytosis, complement, interferon, inflammation, fever |
question
| What is the 3rd line? |
answer
| lymphocytes antibodies |
question
| When is the 3rd line of defense activated? |
answer
| when encountered specific foreign antigen (specific defenses) |
question
| What 3 things does the skin do to inhibit microbial growth? |
answer
| 1. enzymes degrade bacterial cell walls 2. organic acids lower PH 3. high levels of salt |
question
| How does the respiratory tract defend against microbes? |
answer
| produces mucous to trap stuff and contain antibodies |
question
| A phagocyte create a ____ to engulf the food, and then does ___. |
answer
| phagolysosome; exocytosis |
question
| What does an opsonin do? |
answer
| targets antigen for immune response |
question
| When does immunity develop? |
answer
| after exposure to parasite |
question
| ___ means stimulating antibody production, while ___ means ability to bind effectively to an antibody. |
answer
| immunogenicity; reactivity |
question
| What makes antibodies different? |
answer
| the antigen binding sites |
question
| What part of the antibody interacts with phagocytic cells and complement fixation? |
answer
| constant region |
question
| Phagocytic cells have a greater affinity for bacteria that are coated with: |
answer
| antibodies! |
question
| Coating of an infectious microorganism with a substance that increases phagocytosis is called: |
answer
| opsonization |