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All of the following statements about septicemia are true except A) Symptoms include fever and decreased blood pressure. B) Lymphangitis may occur. C) Symptoms are due to bacterial endotoxin. D) It usually is caused by gram-positive bacteria. E) It may be aggravated by antibiotics.
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D) It usually is caused by gram-positive bacteria.
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Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Subacute bacterial endocarditis alpha-hemolytic streptococci B) Acute bacterial endocarditis Staphylococcus aureus C) Pericarditis Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Puerperal sepsis Staphylococcus aureus E) None of the above
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D) Puerperal sepsis Staphylococcus aureus
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All of the following grow inside host cells except A) Babesia. B) Brucella. C) Dengue fever virus. D) Leishmania. E) None of the above.
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E) None of the above.
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Which of the following is not treated with penicillin? A) Pericarditis B) Tularemia C) Anthrax D) Listeriosis E) None of the above
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B) Tularemia
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All of the following statements about tularemia are true except A) It is caused by Francisella tularensis. B) The reservoir is rabbits. C) It may be transmitted by arthropods. D) It may be transmitted by direct contact. E) It occurs only in California.
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E) It occurs only in California.
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Which of the following is a symptom of brucellosis? A) A local infection B) Relapsing fever C) Undulant fever D) Pneumonia E) Jaundice
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C) Undulant fever
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Which of the following is not transmitted in raw milk? A) Toxoplasmosis B) Anthrax C) Brucellosis D) Listeriosis E) None of the above
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A) Toxoplasmosis
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of Bacillus anthracis? A) Aerobic B) Gram-positive C) Forms endospores D) Found in soil E) All of the above are characteristics of B. anthracis
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E) All of the above are characteristics of B. anthracis
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The symptoms of gas gangrene are due to all of the following except A) Microbial fermentation. B) Necrotizing exotoxins. C) Proteolytic enzymes. D) Hyaluronidase. E) Anaerobic environment.
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E) Anaerobic environment.
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Infections by all of the following bacteria may be transmitted by dog or cat bites except A) Pasteurella multocida. B) Streptobacillus. C) Bacteroides. D) Fusobacterium. E) None of the above.
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B) Streptobacillus.
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Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Malaria Anopheles (mosquito) B) Dengue Aedes (mosquito) C) Epidemic typhus Pediculus (louse) D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever Dermacentor (tick) E) Encephalitis Ixodes (tick)
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E) Encephalitis Ixodes (tick)
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The incidence of all of the following diseases is increased by unsanitary and crowded conditions except A) Plague. B) Epidemic typhus. C) Endemic murine typhus. D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever. E) Relapsing fever.
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D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
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Which of the following is not true about toxoplasmosis? A) It is caused by a protozoan. B) The reservoir is cats. C) It is transmitted by the gastrointestinal route. D) It is a severe illness in adults. E) It can be congenital.
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D) It is a severe illness in adults.
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All of the following facts about Chagasʹ disease are true except A) Causative agent T. cruzi. B) Vector kissing bug. C) Reservoir rodents. D) Diagnosis serological tests for antibodies. E) Treatment Nifurtimox.
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D) Diagnosis serological tests for antibodies.
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Which of the following is not caused by a bacterium? A) Epidemic typhus B) Tickborne typhus C) Malaria D) Plague E) Relapsing fever
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C) Malaria
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Septicemia may result from all of the following except A) A focal infection. B) Pneumonia. C) A nosocomial infection. D) Contamination through the parenteral route. E) None of the above.
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E) None of the above.
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All of the following statements about puerperal sepsis are true except A) It is transmitted from mother to fetus. B) It is caused by health-care personnel. C) It begins as a focal infection. D) It is a complication of abortion or childbirth. E) It doesnʹt occur anymore because of antibiotics and aseptic techniques.
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A) It is transmitted from mother to fetus.
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All of the following statements about schistosomiasis are true except A) The cercariae penetrate human skin. B) A parasite of birds causes swimmerʹs itch in humans. C) The intermediate host is an aquatic snail. D) It is caused by a flatworm. E) None of the above.
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E) None of the above.
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All of the following statements about rheumatic fever are true except A) It is a complication of a Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection. B) It is an inflammation of the heart. C) It is an inflammation of the joints. D) It is cured with penicillin. E) The incidence has declined in the last 10 years.
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D) It is cured with penicillin.
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Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Rickettsia intracellular parasite B) Brucella gram-negative aerobic rods C) Francisella gram-positive facultatively anaerobic pleomorphic rods D) Bacillus gram-positive endospore-forming rods E) None of the above
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C) Francisella gram-positive facultatively anaerobic pleomorphic rods
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Which of the following can be transmitted from an infected mother to her fetus across the placenta? A) Borrelia B) Cytomegalovirus C) Spirillum D) Toxoplasma E) Yersinia
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B) Cytomegalovirus
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Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Borrelia relapsing fever B) Yersinia plague C) Streptobacillus rat-bite fever D) Pasteurella cat-scratch disease E) Spirillum rat-bite fever
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D) Pasteurella cat-scratch disease
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A patient has the following symptoms: a papule, enlarged lymph nodes. Microscopic examination of the papule reveals nucleated cells in white blood cells. The patient most likely has: A) Anthrax. B) Brucellosis. C) Leishmaniasis. D) Malaria. E) Schistosomiasis.
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C) Leishmaniasis.
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Human-to-human transmission of plague is usually by A) Rat flea. B) Dog flea. C) The respiratory route. D) Wounds. E) None of the above.
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C) The respiratory route.
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A characteristic symptom of plague is A) Small red spots on the skin. B) Bruises on the skin. C) Rose-colored spots. D) Recurrent fever. E) None of the above.
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B) Bruises on the skin.
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Which of the following pairs regarding the epidemiology of malaria is mismatched? A) Vector Anopheles B) Etiology Plasmodium C) Found in liver sporozoites D) Diagnosis presence of merozoites E) Treatment antibiotics
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E) Treatment antibiotics
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A predisposing factor for infection by Clostridium perfringens is A) Gangrene. B) Burns. C) Debridement. D) Hyperbaric treatment. E) An infected finger.
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A) Gangrene.
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Which of the following is not a zoonosis? A) Puerperal sepsis B) Hantavirus infection C) Anthrax D) Brucellosis E) Tularemia
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A) Puerperal sepsis
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Arthropods can serve as a reservoir for which of the following diseases? A) Plague B) Brucellosis C) Epidemic typhus D) Yellow fever E) Malaria
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B) Brucellosis
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Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Cat-scratch disease malignant pustule developing into septicemia B) Brucellosis a temperature of 40°C each evening C) Tularemia a localized infection appearing as a small ulcer D) Borrelia rash and flulike E) Toxoplasmosis congenital brain damage
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A) Cat-scratch disease malignant pustule developing into septicemia
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All of the following can be transmitted to humans from domestic cats except A) Toxoplasmosis. B) Plague. C) Chagasʹ disease D) Bartonella. E) None of these diseases is transmitted by cats.
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C) Chagasʹ disease
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Relapsing fever and undulant fever differ in all of the following ways except A) Mode of transmission. B) Presence of rash. C) Reservoir. D) Etiology. E) None of the above.
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E) None of the above.
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All of the following are treated with antibiotics except A) Plague. B) Tularemia. C) Lyme disease. D) Yellow fever. E) None of the above.
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D) Yellow fever.
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Which of the following produces a permanent carrier state following infection? A) Borrelia B) Cytomegalovirus C) Spirillum D) Toxoplasma E) Yersinia
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B) Cytomegalovirus
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EB virus causes all of the following except A) Endocarditis. B) Infectious mononucleosis. C) Burkittʹs lymphoma. D) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma. E) None of the above.
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A) Endocarditis.
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Which of the following leads to all the others? A) Subcutaneous hemorrhaging B) Presence of antirickettsial antibodies C) Blockage of capillaries D) Bacterial growth in endothelial cells E) Breakage of capillaries
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D) Bacterial growth in endothelial cells
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A patient complains of fever, severe muscle and joint pain, and a rash. The patient reports returning from a Caribbean vacation one week ago. Which one of the following do you suspect? A) Bolivian hemorrhagic fever B) Dengue C) Hantavirus hemorrhagic fever D) Typhus E) Yellow fever
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B) Dengue
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Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched for Gram reaction? A) Lyme disease gram-negative B) Tularemia gram-negative C) Anthrax gram-positive D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever gram-negative E) All of the above are correctly matched
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E) All of the above are correctly matched
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Scrapings from a patientʹs rash reveal cercariae. The disease is most likely A) Lyme disease. B) Rocky Mountain spotted fever. C) Relapsing fever. D) Swimmerʹs itch. E) Chagasʹ disease.
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D) Swimmerʹs itch.
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You advise your pregnant friend to give her cat away because A) She could contract plague. B) She could give the cat tularemia. C) She could get toxoplasmosis. D) She could get listeriosis. E) You donʹt like cats and want to see your friend without one.
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C) She could get toxoplasmosis.
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Which of the following is evidence that the arthritis afflicting children in Lyme, Connecticut, was due to bacterial infection? A) Treatable with penicillin B) Not contagious C) Accompanied by a rash D) Affected mostly children E) All of the above
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A) Treatable with penicillin
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Which of the following is the usual cause of septic shock? A) Endotoxin B) Exotoxin C) Lymphangitis D) Septicemia E) None of the above
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A) Endotoxin
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A 62-year-old man was hospitalized with an 8-day history of fever, chills, sweats, and vomiting. His temperature on admission was 40°C. A routine peripheral blood smear revealed ring-shaped bodies in the RBCs. What treatment would you prescribe? A) Hyperbaric oxygen B) Mefloquine C) No treatment D) Penicillin E) Streptomycin
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B) Mefloquine
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All of the following are true about Group B streptococci except that they A) Are present in healthy carriers. B) Cause gram-positive sepsis. C) Cause strep throat. D) Cause neonatal sepsis. E) None of the above
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C) Cause strep throat.
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A patient presents with inflammation of the heart valves, fever, malaise, and subcutaneous nodules at joints; the recommended treatment is A) Anti-inflammatory drugs. B) Streptomycin. C) Chloroquine. D) Hyperbaric chamber. E) Praziquantel.
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A) Anti-inflammatory drugs.
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A) Lactobacillus.
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1) Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consist primarily of A) Lactobacillus. B) Streptococcus. C) Mycobacterium. D) Neisseria. E) Candida.
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A) Escherichia coli.
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2) Cystitis is most often caused by A) Escherichia coli. B) Leptospira interrogans. C) Candida albicans. D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
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E) All of the above.
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3) Pyelonephritis may result from A) Urethritis. B) Cystitis. C) Ureteritis. D) Systemic infections. E) All of the above.
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D) Opa attaches to CD4+ T lymphocytes
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4) All of the following result from N. gonorrhoeae infection. Which one leads to the others? A) Antibody production is stopped B) CD4+ T lymphocytes don't reproduce C) Increased risk of other STIs D) Opa attaches to CD4+ T lymphocytes E) Reinfection by N. gonorrhoeae
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C) Escherichia coli.
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5) Pyelonephritis usually is caused by A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa. B) Proteus spp. C) Escherichia coli. D) Enterobacter aerogenes. E) Streptococcus pyogenes.
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C) Domestic dogs.
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6) The reservoir for leptospirosis is A) Humans. B) Water. C) Domestic dogs. D) Domestic cats. E) Hospitals.
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E) Trichomoniasis
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7) Which of the following is NOT primarily a sexually transmitted infection (STI)? A) Lymphogranuloma venereum B) Genital herpes C) Gonorrhea D) Chancroid E) Trichomoniasis
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D) Syphilis
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8) Which of the following is treated with penicillin? A) Lymphogranuloma venereum B) Genital warts C) Candidiasis D) Syphilis E) Trichomoniasis
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A) Trichomoniasis - fungus
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9) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Trichomoniasis - fungus B) Gonorrhea - gram-negative cocci C) Chancroid - gram-negative rod D) Gardnerella - clue cells E) Syphilis - gram
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B) Chlamydia trachomatis.
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10) One form of NGU is lymphogranuloma venereum caused by A) Leptospira interrogans. B) Chlamydia trachomatis. C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. D) Treponema pallidum. E) Candida albicans.
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E) Lymphogranuloma venereum.
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11) All of the following can cause congenital infections or infections of the newborn EXCEPT A) Syphilis. B) Gonorrhea. C) Nongonococcal urethritis. D) Genital herpes. E) Lymphogranuloma venereum.
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C) Genital herpes
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12) Which of the following recurs at the initial site of infection? A) Gonorrhea B) Syphilis C) Genital herpes D) Chancroid E) LGV
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C) Syphilis
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13) Which of the following is diagnosed by detection of antibodies against the causative agent? A) Nongonococcal urethritis B) Gonorrhea C) Syphilis D) Lymphogranuloma venereum E) Candidiasis
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E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
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14) Nongonococcal urethritis can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT A) Mycoplasma homini. B) Candida albicans. C) Trichomonas vaginalis. D) Streptococci. E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
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C) Candidiasis
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15) Which of the following is caused by an opportunistic pathogen? A) Trichomoniasis B) Genital herpes C) Candidiasis D) Gonorrhea E) Chancroid
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C) Glycogen; lactic acid
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16) The pH of the adult vagina is acidic due to the conversion of ________ to ________ by bacteria. A) Glucose; ethanol B) Protein; acetic acid C) Glycogen; lactic acid D) Mucosal cells; lactic acid E) Urine; lactic acid
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C) Contains fewer than 10,000 pathogens/ml.
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17) A normal urine sample collected by urinating into a sterile collection cup A) Is sterile. B) Contains fewer than 100 pathogens/ml. C) Contains fewer than 10,000 pathogens/ml. D) Contains more than 100,000 pathogens/ml. E) Has leukocyte esterase.
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A) E. coli.
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18) Most nosocomial infections of the urinary tract are caused by A) E. coli. B) Enterococcus. C) Proteus. D) Klebsiella. E) Pseudomonas.
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Answer: B
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19) Glomerulonephritis is A) Caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. B) An immune complex disease. C) Treated with penicillin. D) Transmitted by contaminated water. E) A and C
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E) All of the above are predisposing factors.
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20) Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factors to cystitis in females? A) The proximity of the anus to the urethra B) The length of the urethra C) Sexual intercourse D) Poor personal hygiene E) All of the above are predisposing factors.
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C) Gonorrhea.
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21) The most common reportable disease in the United States is A) Cystitis. B) Lymphogranuloma venereum. C) Gonorrhea. D) Syphilis. E) Candidiasis.
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E) All of the above are potential complications of gonorrhea.
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22) Which of the following is NOT a complication of gonorrhea? A) Arthritis B) Pelvic inflammatory disease C) Endocarditis D) Meningitis E) All of the above are potential complications of gonorrhea.
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A) Genital herpes
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23) Which of the following is the most difficult to treat with chemotherapeutic agents? A) Genital herpes B) Gonorrhea C) Syphilis D) Trichomoniasis E) Leptospirosis
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C) Candidiasis.
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24) Itching and cheesy discharge are symptoms of A) Gardnerella vaginosis. B) Genital herpes. C) Candidiasis. D) Trichomoniasis. E) Lymphogranuloma venereum.
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B) Genital herpes.
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25) Recurring vesicles are symptoms of A) Gardnerella vaginosis. B) Genital herpes. C) Candidiasis. D) Trichomoniasis. E) Lymphogranuloma venereum.
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D) Trichomoniasis.
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26) Leukocytes at the infected site is a symptom of A) Gardnerella vaginosis. B) Genital herpes. C) Candidiasis. D) Trichomoniasis. E) Lymphogranuloma venereum.
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E) Lymphogranuloma venereum
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27) Which of the following is caused by Chlamydia? A) Gardnerella vaginosis B) Genital herpes C) Candidiasis D) Trichomoniasis E) Lymphogranuloma venereum
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D) Pyelonephritis.
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28) A positive LE text and 10,000 CFU/ml in urine indicates A) Cystitis. B) Gonorrhea. C) Urethritis. D) Pyelonephritis. E) Genital herpes.
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B) Syphilis
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29) Which of the following diseases causes a skin rash, hair loss, malaise, and fever? A) Gonorrhea B) Syphilis C) NGU D) Trichomoniasis E) Genital herpes
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A) Cystitis.
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30) Staphylococcus saprophyticus causes A) Cystitis. B) Pyelonephritis. C) Vaginitis. D) Gonorrhea. E) Syphilis.
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C) It is always precancerous.
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31) Which one of the following statements about genital warts is false? A) It is transmitted by direct contact. B) It is caused by papillomaviruses. C) It is always precancerous. D) It is treated by removing them. E) All of the above.
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B) Cephalosporins.
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32) The most common NGU in the United States is treated with A) Penicillin. B) Cephalosporins. C) Acyclovir. D) AZT. E) Doxycycline.
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E) It affects men and women equally.
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33) Which of the following statements about pelvic inflammatory disease is false? A) It can cause sterility and chronic pain. B) It can be caused by N. gonorrhoeae. C) It can be transmitted sexually. D) It can be caused by C. trachomatis. E) It affects men and women equally.
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C) Neisseria.
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34) Which one of the following does NOT cause nongonococcal urethritis? A) Chlamydia. B) Mycoplasma. C) Neisseria. D) Ureaplasma. E) All of the above cause NGU.
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A) Maternal antibodies offer protection.
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35) Infants born to asymptomatic mothers with recurrent genital herpes are less likely to acquire herpesvirus at birth than infants born to newly infected mothers because A) Maternal antibodies offer protection. B) The disease cannot be transmitted to newborns. C) The disease is not communicable. D) Prophylactic antibiotics are administered to the newborn. E) The virus isn't growing.
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A) The number of reported cases of gonorrhea last year
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36) Which of the following is greater? A) The number of reported cases of gonorrhea last year B) The number of reported cases of AIDS last year C) They are equal.
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C) Acyclovir
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37) A patient presents with fever and extensive lesions of the labia minora. Her VDRL test was negative. What is the most likely treatment? A) Metronidazole B) Cephalosporins C) Acyclovir D) Miconazole E) No treatment is available.
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A) Metronidazole
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38) A patient is experiencing profuse greenish yellow, foul-smelling discharge from her vagina. She is complaining of itching and irritation. What is the most likely treatment? A) Metronidazole B) Cephalosporins C) Acyclovir D) Miconazole E) No treatment is available.
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B) Mumps virus.
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39) A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. The etiology could be any of the following EXCEPT A) Borrelia. B) Mumps virus. C) Rickettsia. D) Streptococcus. E) Treponema.
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C) Serological test for antibodies
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40) A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Which of the following will be most useful for a rapid diagnosis? A) Bacterial culture B) Microscopic examination of blood C) Serological test for antibodies D) Serological test for antigen E) Viral culture
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C) Secondary
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41) A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Diagnosis was based on serological testing. The patient then reported that he had an ulcer on his penis 2 months earlier. What stage of disease is the patient in? A) NGU B) Primary C) Secondary D) Tertiary
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D) Penicillin.
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42) A 25-year-old male presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Diagnosis was based on serological testing. The patient then reported that he had an ulcer on his penis 2 months earlier. This disease can be treated with A) Acyclovir. B) Metronidazole. C) Miconazole. D) Penicillin. E) Surgery.
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A) Acyclovir
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43) A pelvic examination of a 23-year-old woman showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative. Which treatment is appropriate? A) Acyclovir B) Metronidazole C) Miconazole D) Penicillin E) Surgery
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B) Genital herpes
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44) A pelvic examination of a 23-year-old woman showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative. Which of the following is probable? A) Candidiasis B) Genital herpes C) Gonorrhea D) NGU E) Syphilis
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C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
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45) Which of the following is treated with cephalosporins because the organism is resistant to penicillin and fluoroquinolones? A) Mycoplasma hominis B) Haemophilus ducreyi C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae D) Treponema pallidum E) Gardnerella vaginalis
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All of the following are required for tooth decay except A) Sucrose. B) Glucose. C) Capsule-forming bacteria. D) Acid-producing bacteria. E) None of the above.
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B) Glucose.
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Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea is usually preceded by A) Eating contaminated food. B) A blood transfusion. C) Use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. D) Improper food storage. E) Travel to an underdeveloped country.
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C) Use of broad-spectrum antibiotics.
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All of the following statements about salmonellosis are true except A) It is a bacterial infection. B) It requires a large infective dose. C) A healthy carrier state exists. D) The mortality rate is high. E) It is often associated with poultry products.
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D) The mortality rate is high.
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Which of the following does not produce a gastrointestinal disease due to an exotoxin? A) Clostridium perfringens B) Vibrio cholerae C) Shigella dysenteriae D) Staphylococcus aureus E) Clostridium botulinum
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C) Shigella dysenteriae
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Which of the following diseases of the gastrointestinal system is transmitted by the respiratory route? A) Staphylococcal enterotoxicosis B) Mumps C) Vibrio gastroenteritis D) Bacillary dysentery E) Travelerʹs diarrhea
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B) Mumps
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Amoebic dysentery and bacillary dysentery differ in the A) Mode of transmission. B) Appearance of the patientʹs stools. C) Etiologic agent. D) All of the above. E) None of the above.
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C) Etiologic agent.
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The symptoms of trichinellosis are due to the A) Growth of larval Trichinella in the large intestine. B) Growth of adult Trichinella in the large intestine. C) Formation of cysticerci. D) Encystment of adult Trichinella in muscles. E) Encystment of larval Trichinella in muscles.
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E) Encystment of larval Trichinella in muscles.
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Poultry products are a likely source of infection by A) Staphylococcus aureus. B) Salmonella enterica. C) Vibrio cholera. D) Shigella spp. E) Clostridium perfringens.
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B) Salmonella enterica.
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Which of the following is diagnosed by the presence of flagellates in the patientʹs feces? A) Cyclospora infection B) Giardiasis C) Trichinellosis D) Cholera E) Cryptosporidiosis
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B) Giardiasis
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Which of the following feeds on red blood cells? A) Giardia lamblia B) Escherichia coli C) Taenia spp. D) Vibrio parahaemolyticus E) Entamoeba histolytica
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E) Entamoeba histolytica
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In humans, beef tapeworm infestations are acquired by A) Ingesting the eggs of Taenia saginata. B) Ingesting segments of adult tapeworms. C) Ingesting contaminated water. D) Ingesting cysticerci in the intermediate host. E) Ingesting contaminated definitive hosts.
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D) Ingesting cysticerci in the intermediate host.
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All of the following statements about staphylococcal food poisoning are true except A) Suspect foods are those not cooked before eating. B) It can be prevented by refrigeration. C) It can be prevented by boiling foods for 5 minutes before eating. D) It is treated by replacing water and electrolytes. E) It is characterized by rapid onset and short duration of symptoms.
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C) It can be prevented by boiling foods for 5 minutes before eating.
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The most common cause of travelerʹs diarrhea is probably A) Shigella spp. B) Salmonella enterica. C) Giardia lamblia. D) Escherichia coli. E) Campylobacter jejuni
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D) Escherichia coli.
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Acute gastroenteritis that occurs after an incubation period of 2 to 3 days is probably caused by A) Giardia B) Rotavirus C) Salmonella D) Staphylococcus aureus E) Trichinella
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B) Rotavirus
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Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? A) Hydatid disease humans are the definitive host B) Taenia infestation humans are the definitive host C) Trichinellosis humans eat larva of parasite D) Pinworm infestation humans ingest parasiteʹs eggs E) Hookworm infestation parasite bores through skin
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A) Hydatid disease humans are the definitive host
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Thorough cooking of food will prevent all of the following except A) Trichinellosis. B) Beef tapeworm. C) Staphylococcal food poisoning. D) Salmonellosis. E) All of the above.
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C) Staphylococcal food poisoning.
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Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are found in the A) Mouth. B) Stomach. C) Small intestine. D) Large intestine. E) C and D.
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D) Large intestine.
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Which of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible for periodontal disease? A) Gram-positive cocci B) Gram-positive rods C) Gram-negative cocci D) Gram-negative rods E) Gingivirus
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B) Gram-positive rods
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Typhoid fever differs from salmonellosis in that in typhoid fever A) The microorganisms become invasive. B) The symptoms are due to an exotoxin. C) The symptoms are due to infection of the gallbladder. D) The classic symptom is diarrhea. E) Chemotherapy is highly effective.
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A) The microorganisms become invasive.
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Which of the following organisms is likely to be transmitted via contaminated shrimp? A) Trichinella B) Vibrio C) Giardia D) Clostridium perfringens E) Staphylococcus aureus
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B) Vibrio
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Which of the following organisms is likely to be transmitted via contaminated pork? A) Salmonella B) Staphylococcus C) Trichinella D) Entamoeba E) Shigella
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C) Trichinella
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A vaccine to provide active immunity to serum hepatitis is being prepared from A) Viruses grown in tissue culture. B) Genetically-modified yeast. C) Pooled gamma globulin. D) Viruses grown in embryonated eggs. E) None of the above.
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B) Genetically-modified yeast.
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Which one of the following is not transmitted by water? A) Salmonella B) Cyclospora C) Trichinella D) Cryptosporidium E) Hepatitis A virus
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C) Trichinella
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Which of the following causes an infection of the liver? A) Salmonella B) Shigella C) Hepatitis A virus D) Vibrio E) Escherichia
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C) Hepatitis A virus
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ʺRice water stoolsʺ are characteristic of A) Salmonellosis. B) Cholera. C) Bacillary dysentery. D) Amebic dysentery. E) Tapeworm infestation.
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B) Cholera.
question
Epidemics of bacterial infections of the digestive system are transmitted by A) Food. B) Water. C) Milk. D) The respiratory route. E) All of the above.
answer
B) Water.
question
Most gastrointestinal infections are treated with A) Antitoxin. B) Penicillin. C) Water and electrolytes. D) Quinacrine. E) None of the above.
answer
C) Water and electrolytes.
question
Which of the following is treated with tetracycline? A) Staphylococcal food poisoning B) Vibrio parahaemolyticus gastroenteritis C) Infectious hepatitis D) Escherichia coli gastroenteritis E) Trichinellosis
answer
B) Vibrio parahaemolyticus gastroenteritis
question
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? A) Ergot gangrene B) Salmonella endotoxin coagulates blood C) Vibrio enterotoxin secretion of Cl- , CO32-, and H2O D) Aflatoxin liver cancer E) All of the above
answer
B) Salmonella endotoxin coagulates blood
question
Bacterial intoxications differ from bacterial infections of the digestive system in that intoxications A) Are transmitted via water. B) Are more severe. C) Have shorter incubation times. D) Are treated with antibiotics. E) Are accompanied by fever.
answer
C) Have shorter incubation times.
question
The most common mode of HAV transmission is A) Contamination of food during preparation. B) Contamination of food before it reaches a food service establishment. C) Blood transfusion. D) Contaminated hypodermic needles. E) Airborne.
answer
A) Contamination of food during preparation.
question
With which of the following substrates can Streptococcus mutans make a capsule? A) Fructose B) Glucose C) Mannitol D) Sucrose E) All of the above
answer
D) Sucrose
question
Most bacteria associated with the teeth and gums are A) Aerobes. B) Anaerobes. C) Facultative anaerobes. D) None of the above.
answer
B) Anaerobes.
question
A 38-year-old man had onset of fever, chills, nausea, and myalgia. On April 29, he had eaten raw oysters. On May 2, he was admitted to a hospital because of a fever of 39 °C and two circular necrotic lesions on the left leg. He had alcoholic liver disease. He was transferred to the ICU; therapy with ciprofloxacin was initiated. On May 4, he died. Which of the following is the most likely etiology? A) Bacillus cereus B) Cyclospora C) Salmonella D) Vibrio vulnificus E) Yersinia enterocolitica
answer
D) Vibrio vulnificus
question
The easiest way to prevent outbreaks of gram-negative gastroenteritis is to A) Cook foods thoroughly. B) Salt foods. C) Add vinegar and spices to foods. D) Refrigerate foods. E) All of the above.
answer
A) Cook foods thoroughly.
question
Microscopic examination of a patientʹs fecal culture shows spiral bacteria. The bacteria probably belong to the genus A) Campylobacter. B) Escherichia. C) Salmonella. D) Shigella. E) Vibrio.
answer
A) Campylobacter.
question
Feces from a patient with diarrhea lasting for weeks with frequent, watery stools should be examined for A) Bacillus cereus. B) Cyclospora. C) Salmonella. D) Vibrio vulnificus. E) Yersinia enterocolitica.
answer
B) Cyclospora.
question
All of the following are gram-negative rods that cause gastroenteritis except A) Clostridium. B) Escherichia. C) Salmonella. D) Shigella. E) Yersinia.
answer
A) Clostridium.
question
Helicobacter can grow in the stomach because it A) Hides in macrophages. B) Makes a capsule. C) Makes NH3. D) Makes HCl. E) None of the above.
answer
C) Makes NH3.
question
All of the following are eukaryotes that cause gastroenteritis except A) Cryptosporidium. B) Cyclospora. C) Entamoeba. D) Giardia. E) Pneumocystis.
answer
E) Pneumocystis.
question
Acute gastroenteritis that occurs after an incubation period of 4 to 24 hours is probably caused by A) Giardia B) Rotavirus C) Salmonella D) Staphylococcus aureus E) Trichinella
answer
D) Staphylococcus aureus
question
Which of the viruses listed meets these criteria? Diagnosed by PCR, incubation of 4-22 weeks, transmitted by the parenteral route, it is a flavivirus. A) Hepatitis A virus. B) Hepatitis B virus. C) Hepatitis C virus. D) Hepatitis D virus. E) Hepatitis E virus.
answer
C) Hepatitis C virus.
question
Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched? A) Beef E. coli O157:H7 B) Delicatessen meats Listeria C) Eggs Trichinella D) Milk Campylobacter E) Oysters Vibrio
answer
C) Eggs Trichinella
question
In Situation 25.1, fecal samples should be cultured for all of the following except A) Salmonella. B) Shigella. C) Campylobacter. D) Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli. E) Giardia.
answer
E) Giardia.
question
In Situation 25.1, assume the samples were culture-negative. The next step is A) Begin antibiotic therapy. B) Blood cultures. C) Microscopic examination for oocysts. D) Microscopic examination for viruses. E) Muscle biopsy.
answer
C) Microscopic examination for oocysts.
question
All of the following statements about otitis media are true except A) It is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. B) It is a complication of tonsillitis. C) It is transmitted by swimming pool water. D) It is caused by rhinovirus. E) It is caused by Staphylococcus aureus
answer
D) It is caused by rhinovirus.
question
A diagnosis of strep throat is confirmed by all of the following except A) Hemolytic reaction. B) Bacitracin inhibition. C) Symptoms. D) Serological tests. E) Gram stain.
answer
C) Symptoms.
question
Penicillin is used to treat all of the following except A) Streptococcal sore throat. B) Diphtheria. C) Pneumococcal pneumonia. D) Mycoplasmal pneumonia. E) Scarlet fever.
answer
D) Mycoplasmal pneumonia.
question
Mycoplasmal pneumonia differs from viral pneumonia in that A) It doesnʹt have any known etiologic agent. B) It is treated with tetracyclines. C) Viral pneumonia is treated with tetracyclines. D) The symptoms are distinctly different. E) None of the above.
answer
B) It is treated with tetracyclines.
question
Which of the following diseases is not correctly matched to a virulence factor? A) Diphtheria exotoxin B) Scarlet fever exotoxin C) Pneumococcal pneumonia exotoxin D) Haemophilus pneumonia endotoxin E) Whooping cough endotoxin
answer
C) Pneumococcal pneumonia exotoxin
question
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Corynebacterium gram-positive rod B) Mycobacterium acid-fast rod C) Mycoplasma gram-positive pleomorphic rod D) Bordetella gram-negative pleomorphic rod E) Haemophilus gram-negative rod
answer
C) Mycoplasma gram-positive pleomorphic rod
question
Which of the following microorganisms causes symptoms most like tuberculosis? A) Histoplasma B) Coccidioides C) Legionella D) Mycoplasma E) Influenzavirus
answer
A) Histoplasma
question
A person can have a positive tuberculin skin test because A) She has been vaccinated. B) She has tuberculosis. C) She had tuberculosis. D) She is immune to tuberculosis. E) All of the above.
answer
E) All of the above.
question
Which of the following diseases is not correctly matched to its vaccine? A) Tuberculosis toxoid B) Whooping cough heat-killed bacteria C) Diphtheria toxoid D) Influenza viruses grown in embryonated eggs E) None of the above
answer
A) Tuberculosis toxoid
question
Which of the following diseases has a cutaneous form, especially in individuals over 30 years of age? A) Coccidioidomycosis B) Diphtheria C) Legionellosis D) Scarlet fever E) None of the above
answer
B) Diphtheria
question
Which of the following causes an infection of the respiratory system that is transmitted by the gastrointestinal route? A) Streptococcus pyogenes B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis C) Mycoplasma pneumoniae D) Haemophilus influenzae E) Streptococcus pneumoniae
answer
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
question
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Epiglottitis Haemophilus B) Q fever Rickettsia C) Psittacosis Chlamydia D) Whooping cough Bordetella E) None of the above
answer
B) Q fever Rickettsia
question
Pneumonia can be caused by all of the following except A) Legionella. B) Haemophilus. C) Mycoplasma. D) Streptococcus. E) None of the above.
answer
E) None of the above.
question
Which of the following causes opportunistic infections in AIDS patients? A) Pneumocystis B) Aspergillus C) Rhizopus D) Mucor E) All of the above
answer
E) All of the above
question
Which of the following diseases is not correctly matched to its reservoir? A) Tuberculosis cattle B) Histoplasmosis soil C) Psittacosis parakeets D) Coccidioidomycosis air E) Pneumocystis humans
answer
D) Coccidioidomycosis air
question
Which of the following does not produce an exotoxin? A) Bordetella pertussis B) Corynebacterium diptheriae C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis D) Streptococcus pygones E) None of the above
answer
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
question
Which one of the following causes a disease characterized by the catarrhal, paroxysmal, and convalescent stages? A) Bordetella pertussis B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis D) Streptococcus pyogenes E) None of the above
answer
A) Bordetella pertussis
question
Which one of the following is an irregular, gram-positive rod? A) Bordetella pertussis B) Corynebacterium diptheriae C) Myobacterium tuberculosis D) Streptococcus pyogenes E) None of the above
answer
B) Corynebacterium diptheriae
question
Infection by which of the following results in the formation of Ghon complexes? A) Bordetella pertussis B) Corynebacterium diptheriae C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis D) Streptococcus pyogenes E) None of the above
answer
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
question
Which one of the following produces the most potent exotoxin? A) Bordetella pertussis B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis D) Streptococcus pyogenes E) None of the above
answer
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
question
The recurrence of influenza epidemics is due to A) Lack of antiviral drugs. B) The Guillain-Barré syndrome. C) Antigenic shift. D) Lack of naturally acquired active immunity. E) All of the above.
answer
C) Antigenic shift.
question
Which of the following is an opportunistic pathogen? A) Pneumocystis B) Legionella C) Histoplasma D) Mycoplasma E) Rhinovirus
answer
A) Pneumocystis
question
Which of the following etiologic agents results in the formation of abscesses? A) Staphylococcus B) Mycoplasma C) Streptococcus D) Blastomyces E) None of the above
answer
D) Blastomyces
question
Which of the following is most susceptible to destruction by phagocytes? A) Chlamydophila psittaci B) Streptococcus pneumoniae C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Influenzavirus E) All of the above
answer
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
question
A healthy carrier state exists for A) Corynebacterium diphtheriae. B) Streptococcus pneumoniae. C) Beta-hemolytic streptococci. D) Haemophilus influenzae. E) All of the above.
answer
E) All of the above.
question
Infection by which of the following is often confused with viral pneumonia? A) Blastomyces B) Coccidioides C) Mycoplasma D) Streptococcus E) None of the above
answer
C) Mycoplasma
question
Which one of the following causes a disease characterized by a red rash? A) Blastomyces B) Coccidioides C) Mycoplasma D) Streptococcus E) None of the above
answer
D) Streptococcus
question
Inhalation of arthroconidia is responsible for infection by which of the following organisms? A) Blastomyces B) Coccidioides C) Mycoplasma D) Streptococcus E) None of the above
answer
B) Coccidioides
question
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Q fever ticks B) Psittacosis parrots C) Pneumocystis pneumonia nosocomial D) Coccidioides soil E) None of the above
answer
E) None of the above
question
Legionella is transmitted by A) Airborne transmission. B) Foodborne transmission. C) Person-to-person contact. D) Fomites. E) Vectors.
answer
A) Airborne transmission.
question
The patient is suffocating due to an inflamed epiglottis. What is the etiology? A) Corynebacterium B) Haemophilus C) Bordetella D) Mycobacterium E) Canʹt tell
answer
B) Haemophilus
question
The patient has a sore throat. What is the etiology? A) Corynebacterium B) Haemophilus C) Bordetella D) Mycobacterium E) Canʹt tell
answer
E) Canʹt tell
question
The patient is suffocating due to the accumulation of dead tissue and fibrin in her throat. What is the etiology? A) Corynebacterium B) Haemophilus C) Bordetella D) Mycobacterium E) Canʹt tell
answer
A) Corynebacterium
question
Infection by which of the following begins in lungs and spreads to skin? A) Blastomyces B) Coccidioides C) Histoplasma D) Mycobacterium E) Pneumocystis
answer
A) Blastomyces
question
Which one of the following organisms does not belong with the others? A) Blastomyces B) Coccidioides C) Histoplasma D) Mycobacterium E) Pneumocystis
answer
D) Mycobacterium
question
Microscopic examination of a lung biopsy shows thick-walled cysts. What is the etiology? A) Blastomyces B) Coccidioides C) Histoplasma D) Mycobacterium E) Pneumocystis
answer
E) Pneumocystis
question
Microscopic examination of a lung biopsy shows spherules. What is the etiology? A) Blastomyces B) Coccidioides C) Histoplasma D) Mycobacterium E) Pneumocystis
answer
B) Coccidioides
question
You are trying to identify the cause of a patientʹs middle ear infection. After 24 hours, there is no growth on blood agar incubated aerobically at 37°C. Your next step is to try again A) Using nutrient agar. B) Incubating at 25°C. C) Incubating anaerobically. D) Incubating at 45°C. E) Then give up.
answer
C) Incubating anaerobically.
question
A patient has a paroxysmal cough and mucus accumulation. What is the etiology of the symptoms? A) Bordetella B) Corynebacterium C) Klebsiella D) Mycobacterium E) Mycoplasma
answer
A) Bordetella
question
A patient who presents with red throat and tonsils can be diagnosed as having A) Streptococcal pharyngitis. B) Scarlet fever. C) Diphtheria. D) Common cold. E) There is insufficient information.
answer
E) There is insufficient information.
question
A patient has fever, difficulty breathing, chest pains, fluid in the alveoli, and a positive tuberculin skin test. Gram-positive cocci are isolated from the sputum. The patient most likely has A) Tuberculosis. B) Influenza. C) Pneumococcal pneumonia. D) Mycoplasmal pneumonia. E) Common cold.
answer
C) Pneumococcal pneumonia.
question
Which of the following respiratory infections can be contracted by ingestion? A) Streptococcal pharyngitis B) Diphtheria C) Tuberculosis D) Mycoplasmal pneumonia E) Haemophilus pneumonia
answer
C) Tuberculosis
question
Which of the following is not an intracellular parasite? A) Chlamydophila B) Coccidioides C) Coxiella D) Influenzavirus E) RSV
answer
B) Coccidioides
question
Which one of the following produces small ʺfried-eggʺ colonies on medium containing horse serum-yeast extract? A) Chlamydophila B) Legionella C) Mycobacterium D) Mycoplasma E) Streptococcus
answer
D) Mycoplasma
question
A patient has pneumonia. Gram-negative rods are cultured on nutrient agar from a sputum sample. The etiology is A) Burkholderia pseudomallei B) Chlamydophila psittaci C) Haemophilus influenzae D) Legionella pneumophila E) Streptococcus pneumonia
answer
A) Burkholderia pseudomallei
question
The movement of mucus from lungs to pharynx is due to? a. epiglottal flow b. a ciliary escalator c. sneezing d. pharyngeal reflux
answer
B. a ciliary escalator
question
Compared to the upper respiratory system, the lower respiratory system? a. provides an environment conducive to the growth of microorganisms b. is normally devoid of microorganisms c. provides an ideal environment for diptheroids d. is several degrees cooler
answer
B. is normally devoid of microorganisms
question
The major cause of bacterial pharyngytis is? a. group A streptococcus b. group B steptococcus c. mycobacterium d. bordetella
answer
A. group A streptococcus
question
The glycoprotein spikes on orthomyxoviruses are composed by? a. cord factor b. hemagglutinin or neuraminidase c. streptokinase and hyalauronic acid d. M proteins
answer
B. hemagglutinin or neuraminidase
question
Group A Streptococcus is camoflouged from phagocytes by? a. M protein b. a lyalauronic acid capsul c. pus resulting from the action of streptokinase d. streptolysin
answer
B. a lyalauronic acid capsule
question
The action of streptolysin results in? a. breaking the hyalauronic acid capsule around the cells b. the inhibition of complement protein and decrease in the number of leukocytes at the site of infection c. breaks in the membranes of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platlets d. the destruction of streptococcal bacteria
answer
C. breaks in the membranes of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platlets
question
What pathogenic fungus is found in the droppings of bats, chickens and blackbirds? a. Histoplasma capsulatum b. Blastomyces dermatitidis c. coccidioides immitis d. Parainfluenzavirus
answer
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
question
Whic term is associated with tuberculosis referes to calcified nodules in the lungs? a. tubercles b. caseous necrosis c. tubercolous cavities d. Ghon complexes
answer
D Ghon complexes
question
The phase of whooping cough in which the characteristic "whoop" is obvious is the? a. paroxysmal phase b. catarrhal phase c. convalescent phase d. incubation phase
answer
A paroxysmal phase
question
Which of the following is associated with the fusion of neighboring cells? a. neuraminidase b. respiratory syncytial virus c. tuberculin d. agglutin
answer
B. respiratory syncytial virus
question
The medical name for the inflammation of the throat known as strep throat is__________
answer
streptococcal pharyngitis
question
A thick leathery membrane of the throat is a sign of__________
answer
diptheria
question
RSV is characterized by the formation of giant multinucleated cells in the lungs called__________
answer
syncytia
question
A drug commonly used to treat systemic fungal diseases is________
answer
amphotericin B
question
A condition in adolescents associated with taking apsirin to treat viral infections is __________ syndrome
answer
Reye's
question
T/F: A normal cold "produces" fever in most cases.
answer
False: does NOT produce
question
T/F: The number of fungal infections has increased over the last 20 years because of "damp climate conditions"
answer
False: the suseptibility of AIDS patients
question
T/F: Antigenic "shift" accounts for an increase in flu infections at a locality every two years
answer
False: drift
question
T/F: The formation of a hard, red lesion at the site of a tuberculosis skin test is a conclusive indication of "the presence of" the tuberculosis bacterium
answer
False: exposure to
question
T/F: Death by pneumonia would be similar to drowning
answer
TRUE
