Experience Psychology – Flashcards

1. A single cubic centimeter of the human brain consists of well over _____ nerve cells. A. 10 million B. 50 million C. 1 billion D. 100 billion

2. The brain's ability to coordinate information from all five senses best reflects which of the following characteristics of the nervous system? A. Complexity B. Integration C. Adaptability D. Electrochemical transmission

3. The term plasticity refers to the ____. A. flexibility of the endocrine system B. brain's special capacity for modification and change C. natural tendency to engage in a fight or flight response D. ability of people to change habits over time

4. Plasticity best reflects which of the following characteristics of the nervous system? A. Complexity B. Integration C. Adaptability D. Electrochemical transmission

5. You are listening to a lecture. Then the bell rings in the hallway. In order to hear this stimulus, ______ neurons must carry electrochemical messages from your ears to your brain. A. indigent B. afferent C. efferent D. indifferent

6. The lecture you were listening to is over. The bell that rang in the hall signaled the end of class. You get up out of your seat, pick up your things, and walk out the classroom door. Which kind of nerves sent the signals from your brain to your muscles to initiate your physical movements? A. Afferent B. Efferent C. Hormones D. Indifferent

7. Information from the brain and spinal cord to the muscles is sent through __________, thus enabling the body to move. A. afferent nerves B. efferent nerves C. hormones D. interpathway nerves

8. Your brain has instructed your body muscles to move so that you avoid burning your hand on a hot stove. Which type of nerves carried the information from your brain to your muscles so that you could avoid getting burned? A. Afferent nerves B. Efferent nerves C. Glial nerves D. Parasympathetic nerves

9. The brain and spinal cord make up the _____. A. peripheral nervous system B. central nervous system C. autonomic nervous system D. somatic nervous system

10. _____ nerves carry information to the brain and spinal cord. ______ nerves carry information from the brain and spinal cord to the rest of the body. A. Afferent / Efferent B. Efferent / Afferent C. Glial cells / Afferent D. Efferent / Glial cells

11. The ______ nervous system connects the brain and spinal cord to the rest of the body. A. central B. peripheral C. somatic D. autonomic

12. The somatic nervous system and autonomic nervous system are components of the ____. A. somatosensory area B. central nervous system C. limbic system D. peripheral nervous system

13. The sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system are components of the _____. A. central nervous system B. autonomic nervous system C. somatic nervous system D. endocrine system

14. The ______ nervous system mobilizes the body's resources and prepares it for action (i.e., the fight or flight response). A. central B. somatic C. sympathetic D. parasympathetic

15. The parasympathetic nervous system is part of the _____ nervous system. A. central B. somatic C. autonomic D. sympathetic

16. You are walking to school when you encounter a strange barking dog. You tense up and contemplate whether you should run away. Which nervous system is responsible for this "fight or flight" reaction? A. Somatic B. Sympathetic C. Parasympathetic D. Efferent

17. Which division of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for producing physiological symptoms (such as increased heart rate and butterflies in the stomach) under conditions of stress? A. Somatic B. Parasympathetic C. Sympathetic D. Efferent

18. After finishing a psychology test, you try to relax by engaging in some meditation techniques. Doing these exercises should increase the response of the ________ nervous system, which results in a slower heart and respiration rate and less muscular tension. A. somatic B. central C. parasympathetic D. sympathetic

19. Essential body functions such as heart rate, breathing, and digestion are under the control of the _____. A. somatic nervous system B. cerebral cortex C. interneuron system D. autonomic nervous system

20. Just before you went on a job interview your heart was pounding like crazy. You experienced a shortness of breath and felt sick to your stomach. These symptoms were most likely produced by your ________ nervous system. A. central B. somatic C. parasympathetic D. sympathetic

21. Corticosteroids are _____. A. stress hormones B. sex hormones C. neurotransmitters that regulate mood D. neurotransmitters that regulate memory

22. Dendrites are ____. A. the part of the neuron that is responsible for sending information away from the cell body toward other cells B. the branch-like part of the neuron that is responsible for receiving information from other neurons C. located inside the cell body D. the layer of fat cells that encase and insulate the neuron

23. Axons are ____. A. the part of the neuron that is responsible for sending or carrying information away from the cell body toward other cells B. the branch-like part of the neuron that is responsible for receiving information from other neurons C. located inside the cell body D. the layer of fat cells that encase and insulate the neuron

24. The nucleus of a neuron is located in the ____. A. axon hillock B. terminal stub C. cell body D. synapse

25. The cell body contains the ______, which directs the manufacture of substances that a neuron needs for growth and maintenance. A. glial cells B. nucleus C. axon D. dendrite

26. ____ is a layer of fat cells that insulates most axons and speeds up the transmission of nerve impulses. A. A dendrite B. The myelin sheath C. Plasticity D. Acetylcholine

27. _____ allows neurons to speed up the transmission of nerve impulses. A. Resting potential B. Having more than one cell body C. The myelin sheath D. Acetylcholine

28. When a neuron is at its resting state, what is the status of the charges on each side of the cell membrane? A. There is a negative charge on the outside of the cell membrane, and a positive charge on the inside. B. There is a negative charge on the inside of the cell membrane and a positive charge on the outside. C. There is a negative charge on both the outside and the inside of the cell membrane. D. There is a positive charge on both the outside and the inside of the cell membrane.

29. Resting potential is the ______. A. amount of time a signal travels through the central nervous system B. amount of time a neuron must "rest" in between firing episodes C. stable, positive charge of an inactive neuron D. stable, negative charge of an inactive neuron

30. According to the all-or-nothing principle, _____. A. if all the neurons in a network are not integrated, the "message" carried by the neurons will be lost B. the amount of time a neuron must "rest" in between firing episodes is stable C. once the electrical impulse reaches a certain level of intensity (its threshold), it fires and moves all the way down the axon without losing any intensity D. as a person ages, his or her neurological system slows down and the intensity of neural impulses decreases significantly

31. Another term that describes the "firing" of neurons is _____. A. resting potential B. action potential C. graded potential D. polarized potential

32. ____ are chemical substances that carry information across the synaptic gap to the next neuron. A. Neurotransmitters B. Axons C. Synapses D. Dendrites

33. A _____ is a tiny space between the axon of one neuron and the dendrites or cell body of another neuron. A. glial cell B. reticular formation C. synapse D. basal ganglia

34. Your relative is experiencing memory loss related to Alzheimer disease. Research suggests that there may be insufficient production of the neurotransmitter _______ in this individual's brain. A. serotonin B. gamma-amino butyric acid (GABA) C. acetylcholine D. dopamine

35. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that plays an important role in ______. A. motor function, learning, and memory B. sexual function C. mood regulation D. All of these

36. _____ inhibits the firing of neurons in the central nervous system, but it excites the heart muscle, intestines, and urogenital tract. A. Serotonin B. Dopamine C. Norepinephrine D. GABA

37. Depression is associated with low levels of what neurotransmitter? A. Acetylcholine B. Serotonin C. Dopamine D. Oxytocin

38. _____ are natural opiates that shield the body from pain and elevate feelings of pleasure. A. Horomones B. Endorphins C. Acetylcholine D. Chromosomes

39. Which of the following neurotransmitters plays an important role in the experience of love and social bonding? A. Oxytocin B. Acetycholine C. GABA D. Norepinephrine

40. Which of the following neurotransmitters play in important role in the regulation of sleep, mood, attention, and learning? A. GABA and oxytocin B. Dopamine and serotonin C. Acetycholine and GABA D. Acetycholine and oxytocin

41. An ____ is a drug that mimics or increases a neurotransmitter's effects. An ____ is a drug that blocks a neurotransmitter's effect. A. agonist / antagonist B. antagonist / agonist C. axon / endorphin D. endorphin / axon

42. The antidepressant drug Prozac works by increasing brain levels of serotonin. This means that Prozac is considered _____. A. an agonist B. an antagonist C. a hormone stimulant D. All of these

43. Michael has schizophrenia. His psychiatrist prescribed a new drug that blocks or interferes with the activity of dopamine. Michael's doctor is using ______ to treat his disorder. A. an agonist B. an antagonist C. brain lesioning D. a lobotomy

44. Neuroscientists who surgically remove, destroy, or eliminate the brain tissue of laboratory animals are using which of the following techniques for studying the brain? A. Electroencephalogram (EEG) B. Positron emission tomography (PET) C. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) D. Brain lesioning

45. Dr. Becker is interested in identifying the pathways of connectivity in the brain and nervous system. Which of the following techniques will Dr. Becker most likely use in his research? A. Brain lesioning B. Staining C. Positron emission tomography (PET) D. Electroencephalogram (EEG)

46. Electrical activity in the brain can be captured by placing multiple electrodes on the scalp and then measuring the underlying electrical activity. This method of studying the brain's activity is called a(n)_____. A. electroencephalogram (EEG) B. positron emission tomography (PET) C. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) D. functional MRI (fMRI)

47. Dr. Stern is a neuroscientist who is collecting data for a new research study. He uses techniques for monitoring the amount of glucose in various areas of the brain. Which of the following methods is Dr. Stern using in this study? A. Brain lesioning B. Staining C. Positron emission tomography (PET) D. Electroencephalogram (EEG)

48. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a technique that _____. A. measures the rate at which brain cells use glucose B. constructs a three-dimensional image from X rays C. examines the effects of lesions in brain tissue D. involves creating a magnetic field around a person's body and using radio waves to construct images of a person's tissues and biochemical activities

49. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) is a technique that _____. A. allows scientists to see what is happening in the brain while it is working B. relies on monitoring changes in blood oxygen that occur in association with brain activity C. generates very clear pictures of the brain's interior D. All of these

50. If a person's cerebellum were damaged in an accident, you would expect the person to have a problem with _____. A. breathing and heart rate B. seeing and hearing C. talking and understanding D. balance and muscle coordination

51. Which part of the nervous system regulates breathing? A. The hypothalamus B. Wernicke's area C. The medulla D. The forebrain

52. The medulla, cerebellum, and pons are parts of the _____. A. hindbrain B. midbrain C. forebrain D. corpus callosum

53. The reticular formation is primarily responsible for _____. A. controlling breathing and regulating reflexes to maintain an upright posture B. stereotyped patterns such as walking, sleeping, or turning to attend to a sudden noise C. control and coordination of balance, hearing, and parasympathetic function D. motor coordination and the integration of complex muscle movements

54. Discrimination of objects that are necessary for survival (such as appropriate food) as well as emotional awareness and expression involves the _____. A. hippocampus B. occipital lobe C. medulla D. amygdala

55. Steven was in a serious automobile accident that caused a severe injury to his hippocampus. What type of deficiency will Steven likely experience as a result of this brain damage? A. He will probably be unable to speak. B. He will probably be unable to comprehend language. C. He will probably have difficulties with memory formation. D. He will probably be paralyzed.

56. The _____ is a small forebrain structure that monitors pleasurable activities (e.g. eating, drinking, and sex), emotion, stress, and reward. A. hypothalamus B. neocortex C. corpus callosum D. medulla

57. One of the pleasure centers of the brain is found in the _____. A. hypothalamus B. corpus callosum C. hippocampus D. thalamus

58. Body temperature, emotional states, and coping with stress are functions controlled by the _____. A. corpus callosum B. hippocampus C. hypothalamus D. amygdala

59. The most complex mental functions, such as thinking and planning, take place in the _____. A. corpus callosum B. cerebral cortex C. cerebellum D. amygdala

60. Sonal had a stroke. Doctors told her she sustained substantial damage to the occipital lobes. What type of deficiencies will Sonal likely experience as a result of this brain damage? A. She may be blind or unable to see clearly. B. She will probably be unable to comprehend language. C. She will probably have difficulties with memory function. D. She will probably suffer from impaired cognitive functioning (planning, reasoning, and self-control will be negatively impacted).

61. The ____ are involved in personality, intelligence, and the control of voluntary muscles. A. temporal lobes B. frontal lobes C. occipital lobes D. parietal lobes

62. The three-foot-spike that damaged Phineas Gage's frontal lobe resulted in _____. A. hearing loss B. reduced ability to interpret visual information C. reduction in immunity to common diseases D. changes in personality

63. The _____ is the part of the cerebral cortex that controls voluntary muscle movement. A. motor cortex B. sensory cortex C. limbic system D. temporal lobe

64. The somatosensory cortex processes information about _____. A. planning and decision making B. bodily sensations C. facial expressions D. voluntary body movement

65. Which of the following regions of the brain is involved in spatial skills, attention, and motor control? A. The hypothalamus B. The hippocampus C. The parietal lobes D. The amygdala

66. The association cortex _____. A. integrates sensory input and motor output B. makes up 75 percent of the cerebral cortex C. is the region of the brain where the highest intellectual functions such as thinking and problem solving occur D. All of these

67. The corpus callosum _____. A. is the large bundle of axons that connects the brain's two hemispheres and relays information between the two sides B. is the region of the brain that is primarily responsible for managing our emotions C. is the region of the brain that is primarily responsible for managing our thinking, reasoning, and logic skills D. plays an important role in the production of speech

68. _____ plays an important role in the production of speech, whereas _____ plays an important role in the comprehension of language. A. Wernicke's area / Broca's area B. Broca's area / Wernicke's area C. The occipital lobe / the hippocampus D. The hippocampus / the occipital lobe

69. Katy was in a car accident and sustained serious brain damage. Since the accident Katy can speak only one word. This is an example of _____. A. amnesia B. aphasia C. multiple sclerosis D. epilepsy

70. Roberto has a sever case of epilepsy. His doctor surgically severed his corpus callosum. Roberto's condition is referred to as _____. A. Alzheimer disease B. aphasia C. a split brain D. multiple sclerosis

71. Neurosurgeons can reduce the unbearable seizures some epileptics experience by severing the _____. A. hypothalamus B. cerebellum C. amygdala D. corpus callosum

72. The left hemisphere of the brain plays an important role in managing or regulating _____. A. speech and grammar B. spatial perception C. visual recognition D. movement in the left side of the body

73. The process of facial recognition is governed primarily by ______. A. the left hemisphere of the brain B. the right hemisphere of the brain C. the peripheral nervous system D. the endocrine system

74. The endocrine system _____. A. consists of the brain and the spinal cord B. connects the brain and the spinal cord to the rest of the body C. consists of glands that regulate the activities of certain organs by releasing hormones into the bloodstream D. communicates through the release of neurotransmitters

75. The chemical messengers produced by the endocrine glands are known as _____. A. neurotransmitters B. hormones C. myelin sheath D. stem cells

76. The _____ is sometimes referred to as the "master gland" because it controls growth and it releases the hormones that regulate other glands in the endocrine system. A. pineal gland B. adrenal gland C. pituitary gland D. thymus gland

77. Ellie has recently experienced irregular mood swings. Her energy level has decreased and she seems to have greater difficulty coping with stress. Based on her symptoms, it seems as though Ellie may have problems with her ______ glands. A. pituitary B. pineal C. adrenal D. thymus

78. _____ glands help regulate mood, energy, and the ability to cope with stress. A. Pituitary B. Adrenal C. Pancreas D. Gonad

79. ______ are secreted by the adrenal glands. A. Epinephrine and norepinephrine B. Estrogen and testosterone C. Estrogen and epinephrine D. Acetylcholine and testosterone

80. Which of the following glands plays an important role in insulin production, metabolism, and body weight? A. The testes and ovaries B. The adrenal glands C. The pituitary gland D. The pancreas

81. When the axons of healthy neurons adjacent to damaged cells grow new branches, _____ has occurred. A. collateral sprouting B. substitution of function C. neurogenesis D. synaptic pruning

82. When Charlie was three years old, he fell off the slide at the playground and damaged the left hemisphere of his brain. Despite this injury, as Charlie grew older he still retained some of his language abilities because the right hemisphere of his brain took control over the language function. Which of the following mechanisms of brain damage repair is apparent in this example? A. Collateral sprouting B. Substitution of function C. Neurogenesis D. Lobotomy

83. The term ______ refers to a process by which new neurons are generated. A. collateral sprouting B. substitution of function C. neurogenesis D. lobotomy

84. The human brain shows the most plasticity during which developmental lifespan period? A. Early childhood B. Early adulthood C. Middle adulthood D. Late adulthood

85. _____ is a term used to describe the influences of multiple genes on behavior. A. The all or none principle B. Polygenic inheritance C. Phenotype D. Genotype

86. Which of the following methods do researchers use to study genetics? A. Molecular genetics B. Selective breeding C. Behavior genetics D. All of these

87. The Human Genome Project studies genetics and behavior through the use of _____. A. molecular genetics B. selective breeding C. behavior genetics D. twin studies

88. Dr. Cardinale is interested in the effects of heredity and environment on intelligence. She compares the similarity of IQ scores of identical twins to the similarity of IQ scores of fraternal twins. Dr. Cardinale is conducting a ______ study. A. human genome B. molecular genetics C. behavior genetics D. selective breeding

89. Phenotypes are _____. A. reflected in a person's observable characteristics (e.g., hair color or eye color) B. influenced by genotypes C. influenced by environmental factors D. All of these

90. Molly's natural hair color is brown but she has had it dyed blonde. Molly changed her _________. A. phenotype B. genotype C. chromosomes D. genetic heritage

1. The process through which the senses detect environmental stimuli and transmit them to the brain is called ____. A. consciousness B. perception C. sensation D. reception

2. _____ is the process by which the brain actively organizes and interprets sensory information. A. Consciousness B. Perception C. Sensation D. Reception

3. As you walk barefoot in the park, your nose conveys to your brain the smell of the freshly cut grass, your skin sends information about the feel of the gentle breeze, and your ears transmit the sound of children laughing on the playground to your auditory cortex. This process of acquiring "raw data" about the stimuli in the environment is called _____. A. sensation B. selective attention C. sensory adaptation D. cognition

4. The process of ______ involves organizing and interpreting incoming sensory information. A. perception B. sensation C. transduction D. inhibition

5. Melanie is learning how to read Spanish by sounding out each word one letter at a time. Melanie is engaging in _____. A. top-down processing B. bottom-up processing C. sensory adaptation D. subliminal perception

6. ______ are specialized cells that detect stimulus information and transmit it to afferent nerves and the brain. A. Perceptual sets B. Sensory receptors C. Binocular cues D. Monocular cues

7. Which of the following classes of sensory receptors play an important role in detecting pressure, vibration, movement, touch, and hearing? A. Chemoreception B. Photoreception C. Mechanoreception D. Endorphins

8. Which of the following classes of sensory receptors provide information about sight and the detection of light? A. Chemoreception B. Photoreception C. Mechanoreception D. Synaesthesia

9. You are studying in your dorm room, but your neighbor is blasting the television in the adjacent room. When you gently request that your neighbor turn the volume down until you cannot hear it, you are asking your neighbor to make the volume less than your _____. A. absolute threshold B. difference threshold C. minimum transduction level D. basilar level

10. Michael, a famous musician, is designing a new apartment that will serve as both his residence and his recording studio. Since the music studio shares a wall with his bedroom, Michael wants to be sure that the recording studio is soundproof. This means that Michael wants to be sure that sound from the studio is well under his _____ while he is in his bedroom. A. absolute threshold B. difference threshold C. papillae D. minimum threshold

11. The _____ marks the point where we can just barely perceive a stimulus. A. just noticeable difference B. difference threshold C. absolute threshold D. just noticeable threshold

12. ______ refers to the detection of sensory information that occurs below the level of conscious awareness. A. Subliminal perception B. Perceptual set C. Top-down processing D. Bottom-up processing

13. Subliminally presented stimuli _____. A. can sometimes be consciously perceived B. have no significant effects on our preferences or behaviors C. increase our absolute thresholds for visual images D. can influence our thoughts, feelings, and behaviors

14. The smallest intensity of a stimulus that you can detect 50 percent of the time is _____. A. Weber's law B. the sensory threshold C. the difference threshold D. the absolute threshold

15. The minimal change in stimulation that is required to detect whether one stimulus differs from another is the _______. A. difference threshold B. absolute threshold C. perceptual constant D. vestibular sense

16. Linda is studying while listening to her iPod. She notices that when she raises the volume 5 decibels when the volume is initially low, the change is very noticeable. However, when the volume is initially high, increasing the volume by 5 decibels doesn't result in as noticeable of a change in sound. This phenomenon is best explained by ______. A. the volley principle B. Weber's law C. perceptual constancy D. selective attention

17. Emily is selecting a new paint color for her bedroom. She detects a difference between sky blue and midnight blue. Emily's ability to distinguish these two colors from one another can best be explained by the concept of _____. A. sensory adaptation B. a difference threshold C. selective attention D. top-down processing

18. What theory of perception proposes that detection of stimuli depends on a variety of factors including, but not limited to, physical intensity of the stimulus, fatigue of the observer, and expectancy? A. Opponent-process theory B. Multiple perceptual context theory C. Signal detection theory D. Weber's theory

19. You are playing a new X-Box game in which you are pretending to train as a police officer. Your task is to correctly identify and shoot the criminals you encounter and to protect the lives of innocent civilians. You begin walking down the street when various individuals come out from behind buildings and around corners. In your first encounter you erroneously shoot an innocent civilian. According to signal detection theory, your response to the stimulus would be classified as a _____. A. hit B. miss C. false alarm D. correct rejection

20. You are playing a new X-Box game in which you are pretending to train as a police officer. Your task is to correctly identify and shoot the criminals you encounter and to protect the lives of innocent civilians. You begin walking down the street when various individuals come out from behind buildings and around corners. In your first encounter you fail to shoot and the person turns out to be a civilian. According to signal detection theory, your response to the stimuli would be classified as a _____. A. hit B. miss C. false alarm D. correct rejection

21. You arrive at your friend's apartment for a big party at the end of the semester. When you first arrive, the music is so loud that it almost hurts your ears. After a couple of hours, even though the music is still at the same volume, it no longer bothers you or seems that loud. This change in your sensations describes the process of _____. A. auditory adjustment B. transduction C. sensory adaptation D. sensory deprivation

22. Jennifer is a chain smoker. When her friend Irene, a non-smoker, gets in the car with Jennifer she is overwhelmed by the smell of smoke. One day she mentioned this fact to Jennifer who was surprised by the comment. Jennifer claims that when she sniffs her hair and clothing she can't sense the smoky scent. Jennifer's inability to detect the smoky scent is an example of _____. A. perceptual redundancy B. sensory adaptation C. the cocktail party phenomenon D. closure

23. When Carlos first jumped into the pool, he thought the water was very cold. Although the actual temperature of the pool remained constant, after a few minutes Carlos no longer complained about feeling cold. This change is his reaction to the temperature of the water is an example of _______. A. sensory deprivation B. a perceptual set C. sensory adaptation D. top-down processing

24. The existence of extrasensory perception (ESP) _____. A. is strongly supported by the results of scientific research B. is not supported by the results of scientific research C. has never been studied in scientific research D. is supported by the results of experimental MRI studies but not by other experimental studies.

25. Regarding light, wavelength corresponds with the ______ and amplitude corresponds with the ______. A. hue; brightness B. brightness; hue C. hue; saturation D. brightness; saturation

26. The _____ is the colored part of the eye. A. lens B. pupil C. cornea D. iris

27. Rods and cones are located in the _____. A. retina B. lens C. cornea D. occipital lobe

28. The crossover point where the right visual field information goes to the left hemisphere is called the ______. A. fovea B. optic nerve C. retina D. optic chiasm

29. Cones ______. A. are receptors in the retina that are sensitive to light B. are specialized receptor cells that enable us to see color C. function best at night or under low illumination conditions D. are concentrated in the blind spot

30. The major purpose of the sclera is to _____. A. help maintain the shape of the eye and protect it from injury B. control the size of the pupil C. focus light on the retina D. record what we see and convert it to neural impulses for processing in the brain

31. The iris is the _____. A. clear membrane just in front of the cornea through which light first passes B. colored part of the eye that contains muscles that control the size of the pupil C. white outer part of the eye that helps to maintain the shape of the eye and to protect it from injury D. light-sensitive surface at the back of the eye that records what we see and converts it to neural impulses for processing in the brain

32. When you can tell the difference between candy apple red and fire engine red, it is partly because the light stimuli differ in their _____. A. visual acuity B. cone density C. X rays D. wavelengths

33. The _____ is filled with a gelatinous material that helps focus light. A. retina B. lens C. optic nerve D. fovea

34. Jane is having trouble sleeping. As she sits in bed looking around the darkened room, she notices that her peripheral vision seems to be better than her central vision. This is because vision in low light conditions _____. A. depends on the rods B. depends on the cones C. doesn't require the use of the pupil D. doesn't require the retina

35. You try to note the incredibly fine details of a computer microchip through a magnifying glass. On which area of the retina should you be focusing this image? A. Optic chiasm B. Rods C. Periphery D. Fovea

36. As light enters the eye, eventually it reaches the light-sensitive ____ at the back of the eye. A. blind spot B. lens C. retina D. cornea

37. The _____, which consists of the axons of the ganglion cells, carries visual information to the brain for further processing. A. fovea B. optic nerve C. retina D. iris

38. Toward the center of the retina, there is an area that contains only cones. This area is called the _____. A. cornea B. fovea C. chiasm D. optic nerve

39. The _____ is the area near the center of the retina where there are no rods and no cones. A. cornea B. blind spot C. fovea D. lens

40. Visual information is processed primarily in the visual cortex, which is located in the _____. A. parietal lobes B. temporal lobes C. occipital lobes D. hippocampus

41. __________ is a process that involves coupling of the activity of various cells and pathways and helps integrate information about an object. A. Parallel processing B. Binding C. Depth perception D. Perceptual integration

42. The simultaneous distribution of sensory information across different neural pathways is called _____. A. binding B. bottom-up processing C. top-down processing D. parallel processing

43. The purpose of parallel processing is to _____. A. allow sensory information to travel rapidly through the brain B. allow rods and cones to function simultaneously C. prevent the misinterpretation of colors D. use binocular cues to perceive depth

44. If a child asks you why we can see colors, and you want to answer according to the trichromatic theory of color vision, you might tell him it is because there are ______ different types of cones in the retina. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

45. Which of the following theories of vision can best explain the occurrence of afterimages (i.e., sensations that remain after a stimulus is removed)? A. Trichromatic theory B. Opponent-process theory C. Frequency theory D. Place theory

46. Which of the following statements about research on color blindness is true? A. Most individuals who are color-blind literally see the world in black and white. They are unable to perceive any colors other than black or white. B. Color blindness is more common among women than among men. C. The nature of color blindness depends on which of the three kinds of cones (green, red, and blue) is inoperative. D. Research on color blindness does not support the trichromatic theory of vision.

47. Gestalt psychologists emphasize that _____. A. perception is the same as sensation B. we learn to perceive the world through experience C. the whole is more than the sum of its parts D. perception is a neurological process

48. In order to get a good idea of an object's depth, we rely on a number of binocular and monocular cues. Which of the following would be an example of a binocular cue? A. Texture gradient B. Convergence C. Height in field of view D. Shading

49. Depth perception involves ______. A. perceiving three dimensions B. seeing in three colors C. the pinna D. the papillae

50. _____ depth vision cues depend on the combination of the images in the left and right eyes. A. Monocular B. Binocular C. Gradient D. Parallel

51. In depth perception, familiar size, height in field of view, and shading are examples of _____. A. binocular cues B. monocular cues C. stereograms D. feature detectors

52. Perceptual constancy refers to our ability to _____. A. switch back and forth between the figure and the ground in a figure-ground problem. B. have all of our sensory systems working on overload in a highly stressful situation. C. adjust to the amount of light in the room even if that requires light or dark adaptation. D. see an object as the same size even though we move closer to it or farther from it.

53. Which depth cue accounts for why parallel lines appear to grow closer together the farther away they are? A. Texture gradient B. Superposition C. Vertical position D. Linear perspective

54. Looking at a quarter in your hand casts a different image on your retina compared to looking at a quarter across the room, yet we know that the quarter is the same and retains the same dimensions. This phenomenon is known as ______. A. constancy B. figure-ground C. the Ponzo illusion D. Gestalt closure

55. The tendency for perceptions of objects to remain relatively unchanged in spite of changes in size, shape, and/or color is called _____. A. monocular constancy B. perceptual constancy C. linear perspective D. the figure-ground principle

56. If we see a German shepherd standing thirty feet from us, we perceive that it is just as big as it was when it was much closer to us. This is primarily due to _____. A. size constancy B. shape constancy C. proximity D. figure-ground

57. A door is still perceived as a rectangle even after we view it from different angles. This is due to _____. A. depth cues B. retinal disparity C. shape constancy D. linear constancy

58. _____ is the perceptual interpretation of the frequency of a sound. A. Amplitude B. Loudness C. Pitch D. Sound wave

59. The pitch of a sound is a function of the sound wave's _____, whereas the loudness of a sound is a function of the sound wave's _____. A. frequency / amplitude B. amplitude /frequency C. decibel level / melodic waveform D. melodic waveform / decibel level

60. Which of the following is the unit of measurement for assessing loudness? A. Pitch B. Saturation C. Hue D. Decibel

61. The primary function of the _____ is to collect sounds and channel them into the inner ear. A. cochlea B. pinnae C. cilia D. basilar membrane

62. Your ability to distinguish a trumpet and a trombone or your mother's voice from your sister's voice is due to the _____ of these stimuli. A. saturation B. amplitude C. decibels D. timbre

63. When sound waves enter the ear canal, they first cause _____. A. the eardrum to vibrate B. the oval window to move C. the cochlea to vibrate D. the hammer to vibrate

64. When you hear any sound, your eardrum vibrates. These vibrations are then transferred to the inner ear by the hammer, anvil, and stirrup. These three bones are all located in the _____. A. outer ear B. middle ear C. inner ear D. marginal ear

65. The cochlea is part of the ______. A. pinnae B. inner ear C. middle ear D. outer ear

66. The eardrum is located in the ______. A. auditory cortex B. inner ear C. middle ear D. outer ear

67. The major function of the _____ is to amplify vibrations and pass them on to the inner ear. A. pinnae B. hammer, anvil, and stirrup C. papillae D. olfactory epithelium

68. Tina loves listening to her favorite music on her iPod. Most of the time she plays her iPod at 90 percent volume. According to research on "safe sound," what should Tina do to increase the odds that her love of loud music does not cause hearing damage? A. She should limit her exposure to loud music. In fact, she shouldn't listen to music that loud for more than 90 minutes. B. She should stop listening to heavy metal music and switch to classical music instead. Loud Mozart songs are not as damaging as loud Metallica songs. C. She should use headphones instead of earbuds, because earbuds are more dangerous to hearing. D. She should always keep the volume low on her iPod and instead pump up the volume of her music when she's listening to her home stereo.

69. Place theory states that _____. A. in vision, depth perception occurs because of a combination of binocular and monocular cues B. in vision, color perception occurs because of different types of cones C. in hearing, a cluster of neurons "volley" neural impulses in rapid succession. D. in hearing, each frequency produces vibrations at a particular spot on the basilar membrane.

70. One criticism of place theory is that it _____. A. adequately explains low-frequency sounds but not high-frequency sounds. B. adequately explains high-frequency sounds but not low-frequency sounds. C. doesn't explain findings from split-brain research. D. can't explain the different functions of rods and cones.

71. ______ best explains the perception of low-frequency sounds (below 1,000 times per second), whereas _____ best explains those high-frequency sounds (above 1,000 times per second). A. Frequency theory / a combination of frequency and place theory B. Place theory / a combination of frequency and place theory C. Frequency theory / decibel theory D. Place theory / decibel theory

72. You and a group of friends are hiking in the woods when you suddenly become separated from the rest of the group. You know you aren't far from one another so you call out your friends' names and they call out back to you. According to research on hearing, what kind of information will you and your friends need to localize sound and find one another? A. The timing of the sound B. The intensity of the sound C. The intensity of the sound in the right ear compared to that in the left ear D. All of these

73. Which of the following statements about cochlear implants is FALSE? A. A cochlear implant is a small electronic device that is surgically implanted in the ear and head. B. Cochlear implants, like hearing aids, work by amplifying sound. C. Cochlear implants stimulate whatever working auditory nerves the recipient has in his or her cochlea with electronic impulses. D. Cochlear implants work best if they are inserted shortly after hearing loss.

74. The cutaneous senses consist of sensory receptors that provide information about _____. A. touch B. temperature C. pain D. All of these

75. Newborns can ______ better than they can ______. A. see / feel touch, hear, or taste B. hear / feel touch, see, or taste C. feel touch / see, hear, or taste D. taste / see, hear, or feel touch

76. You touch your baby's forehead and realize that he feels warm and must have a fever. What type of sensory receptors relayed information about your baby's temperature to your brain? A. Thermoreceptors B. Endorphins C. Rods D. Cones

77. When something warm touches your skin, you feel warmth. When something cold touches your skin, you feel coldness. If things both warm and cold touch your skin, stimulating adjacent thermoreceptors for warmth and cold, you will feel _____. A. hotness B. coldness C. both hotness and coldness D. neither hotness nor coldness

78. Pain receptors ______. A. are dispersed widely throughout the body B. have a much higher threshold for firing than receptors for temperature and touch C. are all anatomically similar, although they differ in the type of physical stimuli to which they most readily respond D. All of these

79. The perception of pain is influenced by _____. A. the presence of endorphins B. cultural context C. motivation and expectation D. All of these

80. Different neural pathways transmit pain messages to the brain. In the _____ neurons connect directly to the thalamus and then to the motor and sensory areas. This pathway transmits information about sharp, localized pain. A. slow pathway B. fast pathway C. kinesthetic sense D. vestibular sense

81. Endorphins are _____. A. neurotransmitters that function as natural opiates in producing pleasure and pain B. believed to be released mainly in the synapses of the fast pathway C. hormones that are involved the kinesthetic sense D. hormones that are involved in the vestibular sense

82. Your sister and brother-in-law are expecting their first child. They have chosen to attend Lamaze classes to prepare for the labor and birth. The Lamaze method of childbirth is based on which of the following approaches to pain management? A. Acupuncture B. Counterstimulation C. Distraction D. Focused breathing

83. George is very afraid of needles but needs to have blood drawn for a medical procedure. When he is about to get the shot he tries to not watch or think about the needle but instead tries to focus and read the poster on the wall. Which of the following pain management techniques did George use? A. Counterstimulation B. Focused breathing C. Distraction D. Electrical stimulation

84. Taste buds, the sensory receptors for taste, are located in the _____. A. papillae B. pinna C. salivary glands D. olfactory epithelium

85. The lining of the nasal cavity that contains a sheet of receptor cells for smell is known as the _____. A. semicircular canal B. papillae C. olfactory epithelium D. cochlea

86. Smell can elicit more vivid memories than the other senses. What is the reason for this? A. Because smells are often stronger than sights, sounds, and other stimuli. B. Because the sense of smell takes a more direct neural pathway to emotion, and memory centers in the brain than do other senses. C. Because smells are more often associated with stronger emotions, particularly those associated with threat or harm. D. Because the sense of smell is closely related to finding food to eat for survival, it is directly connected to the areas in the brain responsible for primary survival behaviors.

87. Why does olfactory information, unlike other sensory information, have a direct route to emotion and memory? A. Smell plays an important evolutionary role in human mating. B. A keen sense of smell is important for distinguishing rotten or unsafe food from fresh food. C. Olfactory information can allow an organism to track threat and danger. D. All of these

88. The _____ senses provide information about movement, posture, and orientation, whereas the _____ senses provide information about balance and movement. A. kinesthetic; vestibular B. vestibular; kinesthetic C. limbic; thalamic D. thalamic; limbic

89. Sensory receptors for the kinesthetic sense are located in what part of the body? A. Spinal cord B. Thalamus C. Muscle fibers and joints D. Small bones in the inner ear

90. The purpose of semicircular canals in the inner ear is to _____. A. protect the ear from damage B. detect high-frequency sounds C. detect low-frequency sounds D. detect the motion of your head