question

1) What term describes a harmless, noncancerous or precancerous tumor? A) benign B) carcinogenic C) malignant D) metastatic

answer

A

question

2) Which term describes a cancerous tumor? A) benign B) carcinogenic C) malignant D) oncogenic

answer

D

question

3) What is the name of the process by which cancer cells break off of tumors and spread to other parts of the body? A) angiogenesis B) carcinogenesis C) metastasis D) mutagenesis

answer

C

question

4) ________ is the cause of about one-third of all cancer deaths. A) Smoking tobacco B) Exposure to viruses C) Exposure to ultraviolet light D) Exposure to high-energy radiation

answer

A

question

7) Which of the following is not a known carcinogen? A) certain viruses B) ultraviolet light C) cigarette smoke D) pet dander

answer

D

question

8) Free radicals remove ________ from other molecules. A) protons B) neutrons C) electrons D) photons

answer

C

question

9) Which of the following can neutralize dangerous free radicals within the body? A) nucleotides from DNA B) antioxidants from dietary fruits and vegetables C) carbohydrates from dietary rice and pasta D) hormones from the ovaries and testes

answer

B

question

10) Which of the following is a risk factor for colon cancer? A) advanced age B) high-fiber diet C) asbestos inhalation D) male gender

answer

A

question

11) What are the two halves of a duplicated chromosome called? A) alleles B) centromeres C) homologous chromosomes D) sister chromatids

answer

D

question

13) What is the name for the region toward the middle of a replicated chromosome where sister chromatids are connected? A) centriole B) centromere C) karyotype D) chromatid

answer

B

question

18) In a bacterial species, 20% of the bases in its DNA are C. What percent of the bases are G? A) 80% B) 40% C) 20% D) 10%

answer

C

question

19) The term "semiconservative replication" refers to the fact that A) DNA is created from only four of nine available nucleotides. B) the DNA molecule includes a parental strand and newly created DNA strand. C) DNA is not just one strand but two complementary strands. D) the mode of DNA replication is only tentatively described.

answer

B

question

20) Nucleotides in opposing strands of DNA that bind to each other are called A) semiconservative. B) complementary. C) conjoined. D) sister chromatids.

answer

B

question

21) The scientists that first described the structure of DNA were A) Frankford and Joules. B) Culbertson and Gallo. C) Watson and Crick. D) Cook and Wiley.

answer

C

question

22) Bacteria are single cells that replicate themselves by binary fission, resulting in genetically identical daughter cells. These cells undergo A) sexual reproduction. B) asexual reproduction. C) fertilization. D) condensation.

answer

B

question

25) Which type of cell division produces daughter cells that are identical to the original cell? A) meiosis in animals B) meiosis in plants C) mitosis in animals D) meiosis in bacteria

answer

C

question

26) Which of the following is a phase that occurs during mitosis? A) first gap phase B) metaphase C) second gap phase D) S phase

answer

B

question

28) During which part of mitosis does the nuclear envelope break down? A) anaphase B) metaphase C) prophase D) telophase

answer

C

question

29) Which of the following is the correct order of events in mitosis? A) anaphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase B) anaphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase C) metaphase, prophase, telophase, anaphase D) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

answer

D

question

30) Consider a cell that underwent mitosis but not cytokinesis. The result would be A) a cell with one nucleus containing twice the normal number of chromosomes. B) a cell with two nuclei. C) daughter cells with no nucleus. D) daughter cells with too few chromosomes.

answer

B

question

31) A cell plate forms during which process? A) cytokinesis in an animal cell B) cytokinesis in a plant cell C) mitosis in an animal cell D) mitosis in a plant cell

answer

B

question

32) Which carbohydrate is used to create the cell wall during cytokinesis in plant cells? A) cellulose B) sucrose C) glucose D) lactose

answer

A

question

33) During which phase of mitosis are the replicated chromosome aligned in the middle of the cell? A) prophase B) anaphase C) metaphase D) telophase

answer

C

question

35) During which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids separate to opposite poles of the cell? A) prophase B) anaphase C) metaphase D) telophase

answer

B

question

36) Most cells spend most of their time in which phase? A) interphase B) prophase C) metaphase D) anaphase

answer

A

question

38) Why do chromosomes resemble the letter X when viewed during metaphase? A) Because they all appear and function as X chromosomes at that stage. B) Because there are two sister chromatids joined at a point in the middle (the centromere). C) Because microtubules encircle and attach pairs of chromosomes to each other at the centromere. D) Because each X-shaped structure is actually four chromosomes joined at the centromere.

answer

B

question

39) Most organelles duplicate during A) prophase of mitosis. B) telophase of mitosis. C) the S phase of interphase. D) the G1 phase of interphase.

answer

D

question

44) What is the process by which a tumor attracts and redirects blood vessels to keep it supplied with O2 and nutrients? A) angiogenesis B) carcinogenesis C) contact inhibition D) tumor suppression

answer

A

question

45) Which of the following is a common feature of cancer cells? A) anchorage dependence B) contact inhibition C) metastasis D) controlled division

answer

C

question

49) Mutations of the gene that encodes p53 result in A) damaged DNA proceeding through mitosis. B) damaged DNA being repaired. C) cells containing damaged DNA to "commit suicide." D) a receptor protein with a different shape than usual.

answer

A

question

51) The most common type of cancer that people in the United States die from is A) lung cancer. B) breast cancer. C) skin cancer. D) prostate cancer.

answer

A

question

52) Most forms of chemotherapy target which feature of cancer cells? A) anchorage independence B) cell division C) invasiveness of surrounding tissues D) metastasis

answer

B

question

56) Elevated CA125 in a patient's blood may indicate ovarian cancer. However, routine screening of CA125 levels is not practical due to which of the following reasons? A) CA125 levels vary among individuals. B) CA 125 levels cannot be detected during certain portions of the menstrual cycle. C) Only ovaries secrete CA125. D) CA125 levels are elevated only at the beginning of cancer development and then cease abruptly.

answer

A

question

57) The members of a pair of nonsex chromosomes are called A) alleles. B) diploids. C) gametes. D) homologous chromosomes.

answer

D

question

58) Different versions of the same gene are called A) alleles. B) diploids. C) homologous chromosomes. D) sister chromatids.

answer

A

question

59) Normal sperm or egg cells in a human A) are produced by mitosis. B) have one copy of each chromosome. C) have two copies of each chromosome. D) are genetically identical to every other sperm or egg cell made by that person.

answer

B

question

65) Crossing over occurs during A) anaphase I of meiosis I. B) anaphase II of meiosis II. C) prophase I of meiosis I. D) prophase II of meiosis II.

answer

C

question

66) Genes that are located on the same chromosome are called A) alleles. B) diploid genes. C) homologous genes. D) linked genes.

answer

D

question

70) Mutations are only passed from parent to child if the mutation occurs in the gonads that will be used to produce A) a gamete. B) an autosomal cell. C) a diploid cell. D) telomerase.

answer

A

question

1) Alternate forms of a gene are called A) alleles. B) chromosomes. C) gametes. D) homologues.

answer

A

question

2) A typical gene contains the instructions for making a A) chromosome. B) lipid. C) polysaccharide. D) protein.

answer

D

question

3) What causes the differences between two human cell types (for example, a skin cell and a brain cell)? A) Different cell types begin with the same genes but eliminate certain genes as they develop. B) Different cell types contain different genes. C) Different cell types contain different proteins that give each cell a different function. D) Different cell types contain the same genes but use different combinations of them.

answer

D

question

4) Half of the gametes produced by an organism with the genotype Aa will receive the A allele, while half will receive the a allele. This is a demonstration of A) independent assortment. B) mutation. C) random fertilization. D) segregation.

answer

D

question

6) Which of these produces genetic diversity in a population? A) independent assortment B) random fertilization C) segregation D) mutation

answer

D

question

7) The members of a pair of chromosomes (for example, the two copies of chromosome 1) are called A) alleles. B) gametes. C) homologous chromosomes. D) sister chromatids.

answer

C

question

8) Which of the following is a true statement about chromosomes? A) Only eukaryotic cells contain chromosomes. B) Chromosomes are made of carbohydrates. C) Genes are found on chromosomes. D) The most complex organisms have the largest number of chromosomes.

answer

C

question

10) A mistake made during copying of genetic information is called a A) genotype. B) mutation. C) variance. D) zygote.

answer

B

question

11) Gametes fuse together during A) embryonic development. B) fertilization. C) meiosis. D) mitosis.

answer

B

question

12) Monozygotic (identical) twins are the result of A) one sperm fertilizing two different eggs. B) one egg being fertilized by two different sperm. C) one embryo splitting to become two embryos. D) two different sperm fertilizing two different eggs.

answer

C

question

17) The growth and reproduction of an individual is called its A) life cycle. B) genotype. C) phenotype. D) normal distribution.

answer

A

question

18) Which if the following is the correct sequence of how an animal is "built"? A) fertilization → meiosis → zygote → embryo B) meiosis → fertilization → zygote → embryo C) fertilization → zygote → meiosis → embryo D) meiosis → fertilization → embryo → zygote

answer

B

question

22) DNA is often likened to an instruction manual. According to this analogy, the typographical errors that would inevitably result when the DNA "manual" is transcribed would be similar to A) dominant alleles. B) recessive alleles. C) mutations. D) homologous chromosomes.

answer

C

question

23) Homologous chromosomes A) almost always contain identical alleles. B) generally contain the same genes. C) are inherited together because they don't separate during meiosis. D) are fewer in body cells than in gametes.

answer

B

question

24) Combined, your parents could have produced as many as ________ different types of children, genetically speaking. A) 46 B) 285 C) 8 million D) 64 trillion

answer

D

question

25) Fraternal twins are also referred to as A) dizygotic. B) identical. C) monozygotic. D) heterozygous

answer

A

question

26) Gregor Mendel's genetic research A) was not appreciated by the scientific community until after he died. B) focused on pea plants because they have fewer than four different heritable traits. C) produced results that can be used to predict heritability in plants but not animals. D) included detailed studies on the phenomena of codominance and incomplete dominance.

answer

A

question

28) In humans, heterozygotes are referred to as ________, particularly when the recessive allele is associated with a genetic disease. A) vectors B) dizygotic C) carriers D) qualitative

answer

C

question

30) CFTR/CFTR-ΔF508 refers to the A) dominant allele that causes cystic fibrosis. B) recessive allele that causes cystic fibrosis. C) homozygous genotype of a cystic fibrosis victim. D) heterozygous genotype of a carrier of cystic fibrosis.

answer

D

question

31) How many different types of offspring (genotypes) are possible as a result of this cross, according to the Punnett square? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

answer

C

question

32) A heterozygous organism A) always shows a recessive trait. B) can't produce gametes. C) has two identical alleles of a gene. D) has two different alleles of a gene.

answer

D

question

33) Which of the following situations most likely describes a recessive genetic disorder? A) The mutant allele of the gene encodes a completely nonfunctional protein. B) The mutant allele of the gene encodes a protein that has both the normal function and a new, harmful function. C) The mutant allele of the gene encodes a protein that has a new, harmful function. D) The mutant allele of the gene encodes a protein with the normal function but twice the normal activity.

answer

A

question

34) A dominant genetic disorder occurs when A) only one allele of the gene is the mutant allele. B) both alleles of the gene are the mutant allele. C) neither allele of the gene is the mutant allele. D) either one or both alleles of the gene are mutant.

answer

D

question

36) A mutation in a gene A) might have no effect on the protein encoded by the gene. B) must result in the creation of a nonfunctional protein. C) cannot result in a protein with a new function. D) invariably results in a change in the phenotype of an organism.

answer

A

question

38) If a certain recessive allele can cause a change in cellular proteins that ultimately leads to circulatory problems and premature death, then A) any homozygous individual will always have an advantage over any heterozygous individual. B) any heterozygous individual will always have an advantage over any homozygous individual. C) any homozygous individual will always have a disadvantage compared to any heterozygous individual. D) any heterozygous individual will have an advantage over any homozygous recessive individual.

answer

D

question

44) An individual who is a carrier for a recessive genetic disorder but does not have symptoms of the disorder is A) heterozygous. B) homozygous for the recessive allele. C) homozygous for the dominant allele. D) either homozygous for the recessive allele or heterozygous.

answer

A

question

51) Which of the following is an example of a qualitative trait in humans? A) height B) skin color C) Huntington's disease D) intelligence

answer

C

question

52) Which of the following is an example of a quantitative trait in humans? A) cheek dimples B) number of toes C) musical ability D) cystic fibrosis

answer

C

question

54) What is the term used to describe a trait that is controlled by many genes? A) dihybrid B) dominant C) heritable D) polygenic

answer

D

question

55) A trait that shows continuous variation is typically influenced by A) genes only. B) environmental factors only. C) both genes and environmental factors. D) neither genes nor environmental factors.

answer

C

question

56) Which of these describes influence on a trait that is due to genes and not environment? A) Hair dye turns Angela's brown hair to red. B) Sandy's hair becomes blonder when she spends time out in the sun. C) Jen has brown hair, just like her mother and father. D) Identical twins Kiera and Tanya have different colored hair.

answer

C

question

57) A scientist studying the heritability of IQ would expect to find the highest correlation between the IQ scores of A) two unrelated children. B) a child and his mother. C) monozygotic twins. D) dizygotic twins

answer

C

question

58) The IQ test developed by Alfred Binet was designed to A) measure intelligence based on the most accepted theory of the time. B) compare the intelligence of different cultural subpopulations in the general population. C) determine the relative effects of genes and environment on intelligence. D) identify school children in need of remedial help.

answer

D

question

59) Consider a trait that shows continuous variation. If the variance is low, then A) the majority of individuals will be far above the mean. B) the majority of individuals will be very close to the mean. C) the majority of individuals will be far below the mean. D) relatively few individuals will be very close to the mean.

answer

B

question

63) The large variation in shoe size among humans is due to a trait that is A) dizygotic. B) qualitative. C) quantitative. D) polygenic.

answer

C

question

64) The difference between the lowest and highest values on the x-axis of a normal distribution curve represents the ________ for the population that is being studied. A) bell-shaped curve B) mean value C) variance D) frequency distribution

answer

C

question

66) The highest point on a bell-shaped curve represents the A) maximum amount of variation in a trait. B) heritability value of a trait. C) number of people in the population who are heterozygous. D) mean of the population.

answer

C

question

70) Which of the following was a conclusion based on experiments with "maze-bright" and "maze-dull" rats? A) An enriched environment increases maze-running ability only in dull rats. B) A poor environment adversely affects maze-running ability in both bright and dull rats. C) Maze-running ability is highly heritable and unaffected by environment. D) Maze-running ability is based entirely on environment and unaffected by genes.

answer

B

question

71) What can be concluded about the ability of doctorate-category sperm to help produce children that are smarter than average? A) Because intelligence has no genetic basis, there's no real reason to expect children produced by this type of sperm to be smarter than average. B) Children produced by this type of sperm have an approximately 72% chance of being more intelligent than average. C) Children produced by this type of sperm will be smarter than average only if the mother has a high IQ. D) There is currently no way to predict whether children produced by this type of sperm will be smarter than average.

answer

D

question

1) When the phenotype of a heterozygote is intermediate between both homozygotes, the pattern of inheritance is ________. A) incomplete dominance B) codominance C) independent assortment D) sex linkage

answer

A

question

2) When does codominance occur? A) both of the alleles in a heterozygote are expressed phenotypically in an individual B) expression of two different alleles alternates from one generation to the next C) a heterozygote expresses an intermediate phenotype D) offspring exhibit several different phenotypic expressions of a single trait

answer

A

question

3) The AB blood type, in which both A and B alleles are expressed, is an example of A) incomplete dominance. B) codominance. C) independent assortment. D) sex linkage.

answer

B

question

4) If a blue-colored flower crossed with a white-colored flower produced light blue-colored flower offspring, then it's most likely a case of A) incomplete dominance. B) codominance. C) independent assortment. D) sex linkage.

answer

A

question

5) Phenotypic features that are coded for by several genes, such as eye color in humans, are called A) linked. B) polytrophic. C) polygenic. D) codominant.

answer

C

question

7) There are NO sugars on the surface of any of the red blood cells for which blood type? A) type A B) type B C) type AB D) type O

answer

D

question

9) The pattern of inheritance for Rh factor is best described as ________. A) incomplete dominance. B) codominance. C) dominant-recessive. D) sex linkage.

answer

C

question

10) Which of the following individuals doesn't have the Rh factor on their red blood cells? A) Rh+ Rh+ B) Rh+ Rh- C) Rh- Rh+ D) Rh- Rh-

answer

D

question

11) A child with type O blood could not have a parent with type ________ blood. A) A B) B C) AB D) O

answer

C

question

12) A child with the genotype IAi has type ________ blood. A) A B) B C) AB D) O

answer

A

question

13) A person who is homozygous recessive for both blood type alleles has type ________ blood. A) A B) B C) AB D) O

answer

D

question

18) Type AB blood is a result of A) polygenic inheritance. B) simple dominance. C) codominance. D) sex-linked recessive inheritance.

answer

C

question

20) If one person in a population has two different alleles of a particular gene and it's known that other people in the population have yet another different allele of this gene, then this is an example of A) codominance. B) pleiotropy. C) incomplete dominance. D) multiple allelism.

answer

D

question

26) What is the most common blood type in the U.S. population? A) type O- B) type B+ C) type AB- D) type O+

answer

D

question

27) The ability of a gene to cause multiple effects on a phenotype is called A) pleiotropy. B) codominance. C) polygenic inheritance. D) continuous variation.

answer

A

question

28) Describing a person as having hemophilia is to indicate his or her A) genotype. B) phenotype. C) genetic code. D) number of chromosomes.

answer

B

question

31) Human bone size and structure are a result of the environment and A) polygenic inheritance. B) codominance. C) simple dominance. D) sex-linked recessive inheritance.

answer

A

question

32) Females inherit two X chromosomes and males inherit one X chromosome. However, there is not a double dose of X gene products in females because of A) nondisjunction. B) X- linkage. C) the SRY gene. D) X inactivation in females.

answer

D

question

42) A human sperm cell receives autosomes and A) an X chromosome always. B) either an X or a Y chromosome. C) a Y chromosome always. D) both an X and a Y chromosome.

answer

B

question

43) Humans possess A) 2 pairs of sex chromosomes and 46 pairs of autosomes. B) 2 pairs of sex chromosomes and 22 pairs of autosomes. C) 1 pair of sex chromosomes and 46 pairs of autosomes. D) 1 pair of sex chromosomes and 22 pairs of autosomes.

answer

D

question

44) What are the chances that a hemophiliac male and an unaffected female could have a baby that is a hemophiliac male? A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75%

answer

A

question

46) What is responsible for the tortoiseshell phenotype in some female cats? A) codominance B) X inactivation C) incomplete dominance D) pleiotropy

answer

B

question

48) A family tree that is used to follow human matings that have already occurred is a A) test cross. B) karyotype. C) sex-linked record. D) pedigree.

answer

D

question

55) Which of the following types of forensic evidence was available for scientists studying the case of the Romanovs? A) fingerprint B) toxicology C) DNA D) footprint

answer

C

question

59) VNTR stands for A) variable number tandem repeats. B) varied nucleotides to repeat. C) volumes of nucleotide tandem repeats. D) variation of nucleotide terminal repeats.

answer

A

question

64) VNTRs are A) fragments of DNA that have been denatured. B) nucleotide sequences that correspond to specific genes. C) distinct nucleotide sequences that everyone has in different numbers. D) nucleotide sequences that are different in different individuals.

answer

C

question

65) The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used to A) analyze a person's fingerprints. B) separate fragments of DNA. C) make many copies of a small amount of DNA. D) cut DNA into many small pieces.

answer

C

question

67) The enzyme used to synthesize daughter strands of DNA during PCR is called a ________. A) replicase. B) DNA polymerase. C) RNA polymerase. D) Taq polymerase.

answer

D

question

68) In DNA fingerprinting, amplified fragments of DNA are separated from one another by which process? A) filtering B) chromatography C) electrophoresis D) PCR (polymerase chain reaction)

answer

C

question

69) Gel electrophoresis separates DNA segments on the basis of their A) weight. B) length. C) types of nucleotides. D) complexity

answer

B

question

70) DNA moves in an electric field toward A) a positive charge. B) a negative charge. C) the highest concentration of gel. D) the smallest sized DNA fragments.

answer

A

question

71) What does each different band on a DNA fingerprint represent? A) gene B) VNTR site C) allele D) pleiotropy

answer

B

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