CPR/ First Aid Final Exam – Flashcards

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The greatest threat from an avulsion wound is:
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lack of circulation to the flap.
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If the barb on a fishhook has penetrated the skin, the best remedy is to:
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have a physician remove it.
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Open wounds characterized by sharp, even cuts with smooth edges are:
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incisions.
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Most clamping injuries involve:
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hands.
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An impaled object should be secured manually to prevent:
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movement.
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For which injury should you activate the EMS system?
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a wound that is spurting blood
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Because of the high infection rate, the most difficult bite to manage is:
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a human bite.
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While peeling an onion, you receive a small cut to your finger. You should:
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irrigate the wound with tap water.
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The internal bleeding that results from a ________ can be severe enough to cause deep shock and/or death.
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crush injury
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An open wound caused by rubbing and scraping off layers of skin is:
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an abrasion.
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The most serious threat from abrasions is:
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contamination or infection.
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When dressing a wound from a penetrating chest injury:
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use an occlusive dressing.
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Stellate lacerations differ from linear lacerations in that they:
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produce a ragged incision.
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Which of the following statements about first aid care of amputations is not true?
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Place the wrapped and bagged part on dry ice to freeze it.
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For victims of crush injuries, you should always suspect:
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internal damage.
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An impaled object should be removed in the field if:
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it interferes with CPR chest compressions.
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When a gunshot wound causes both entrance and exit wounds, the entrance wound is generally ________ the exit wound.
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smaller than
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If organs are protruding through an open abdominal wound, what should you do?
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moisten a sterile dressing and cover the wounds
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Which of the following would come first in the sequence of first aid care for an impaled object injury?
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expose the wound
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What medication can be applied to a shallow wound?
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antibiotic ointment
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An occlusive dressing would be one that is:
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airtight
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Open injuries include all but:
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contusions
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To remove an impaled object in the cheek, first you should:
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feel inside the victim's mouth to determine penetration.
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For a minor shallow wound, it is OK to:
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apply an antibiotic ointment.
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Complications such as cellulitis, infection, and tetanus would most likely result from:
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a dog bite
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Contusions, hematoma, and crush injuries are all types of:
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closed injuries
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To help reduce the swelling and relieve the pain from a bruise, you should use:
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ice
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The tearing loose of a flap of skin is:
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an avulsion
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The only time you should try to remove an impaled object from the cheek is:
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when penetration is all the way through.
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Impaled or embedded objects in the eye should be removed:
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only by a physician.
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A loss of sensation over the eyebrow, profuse nasal discharge, and a paralysis of upward gaze are all signs and symptoms of:
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eye socket fracture.
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Which of the following best describes first aid care procedures for eye injuries from an impaled object?
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secure a protective cone over the object with a thick dressing and bandage both eyes
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If a front tooth has been knocked out you should:
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place the tooth in cold milk.
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To remove a soft contact lens you should:
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gently pinch the lens between your thumb and finger.
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Generally speaking, when should you remove a contact lens from an injured eye?
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when there is a chemical burn
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A 16-year-old boy with a nose ring is involved in a fight where the nose ring is partially pulled from the nose avulsing some nasal tissue. You should:
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cover with a dressing and have the boy put direct pressure on the nose.
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In which eye-emergency situation should you activate the EMS system?
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injury to the eyeball
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Which one of the following would be the correct procedure for general first aid care of eye injuries?
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limiting the use of the uninjured eye
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If an object becomes lodged in the eyeball you should:
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put a bandage compress over both eyes and activate the EMS system.
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With throat injuries it is extremely important to:
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maintain an airway.
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A sign and symptom of facial fracture would be:
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distortion of facial features.
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The only time you should irrigate an injured eye is in the case of:
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a chemical burn.
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What is the first thing you should do in treating injures to the face?
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establish an airway
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In most eye injury cases, you should patch:
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both eyes.
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A victim of a throat injury should be placed in what position?
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on his or her left side
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A young child has had a pea stuck in his ear for a week before he told his parents that it was there. The parent should:
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leave it alone and have a physician remove it.
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If you see a pear-shaped eyeball or blood in the front chamber of the eye, you would suspect injury to the:
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eyeball
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When treating a throat injury, you should keep the victim lying down to:
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lessen the chance of air entering the blood vessels.
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If you suspect injury to the eyeball from an eye socket fracture you should:
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keep the victim in supine position.
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An open neck injury will require:
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an occlusive dressing
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With a chemical burn to the eye, you should continuously irrigate the eye with running water for at least:
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30-60 minutes
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Abdominal contents protruding through an open wound is called a/an:
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evisceration.
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While watching some youth play hockey at the park, you see one of the players get hit in the abdomen with a hockey puck. The player is doubled up in severe pain. You should:
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first check the player's ABCs, then the abdomen.
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Two of the most important signs of chest injury are:
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increase in respiratory rate and shortness of breath.
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Which one of the following statements about chest injuries is not true?
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Chest injury is the number-one leading cause of death from trauma.
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If a victim has suffered an abdominal evisceration, you should:
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not touch the protruding organs.
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To check for a flail chest, watch for:
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paradoxical movement.
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Most abdominal injury victims will want their legs ________ to help relieve the pain.
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drawn up
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Closed abdominal wounds may be extremely dangerous because of:
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internal bleeding.
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Your first priority in caring for a victim with a chest injury is to:
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open the airway if needed, ensuring adequate ventilation.
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A pneumothorax is caused by air entering the pleural space through an open wound in the chest wall, is called:
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open pneumothorax.
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If a victim breathes more than ________ times a minute and experiences pain, there is probably a chest injury.
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20
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You should stabilize flail chest by applying:
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a pillow or bulky dressing to the flail section.
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Which of the following should you avoid doing when caring for a victim with broken ribs?
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taping the ribs
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A condition in which the sides of the chest move opposite each other during breathing is called:
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paradoxical movement.
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One of the few emergencies in which seconds count is:
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tension pneumothorax.
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The most common symptom of rib fracture is:
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severe pain
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In caring for a victim with tension pneumothorax, it is important to remember to:
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leave one corner of an occlusive dressing untaped.
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A young child has accidentally caught a large section of his scrotum skin in his pant zipper. You should:
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carefully cut the zipper from the pants.
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When assessing a victim for abdominal injury, gently palpate all:
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quadrants
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Which one of the following signs and symptoms would a victim of hemothorax most likely display?
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bulging of neck veins
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If an object is impaled in the chest, you should:
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stabilize the object and leave it.
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A condition in which air enters the pleural space, allowing the lung to collapse, is called:
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pneumothorax.
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In treating injuries to the genitalia, it is important to:
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protect the victim's privacy.
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Shortness of breath or difficulty in breathing is termed:
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dyspnea.
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A sling may be used to:
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support an arm injury.
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A pressure dressing is used to:
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control profuse bleeding.
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Which one of the following dressings is referred to as a multitrauma dressing, trauma pack, general-purpose dressing, burn pad, or ABD dressing?
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special pads
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A bent knee injury can be bandaged by:
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using a roller bandage, wrapping in a figure-8 pattern.
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An occlusive dressing is best described by which one of the following?
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an airtight dressing
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Material used for improvised dressings should be as ________ as possible.
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clean
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A bandage will:
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hold the dressing in place.
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Which one of the following is not a sign that a bandage is too tight?
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The skin beyond the bandage is warm to the touch.
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Which one of the following is not included in the four basic purposes for dressings and bandages?
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control pain
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Burn dressings are made from material that will:
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not stick to the skin.
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A trauma dressing is:
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made from a 10-by-30-inch piece of thick, absorbent material.
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Generally, elastic roller bandages are not encouraged for use to:
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cover a dressing.
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Which of the following is not an improvised dressing?
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4 × 4 sterile gauze pad
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The definition of aseptic is:
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free of bacteria.
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A co-worker goes to the supply room to get more paper. As she reaches for the paper, she cuts her hand on the metal shelf. You control the bleeding with direct pressure. How would you dress and bandage the wound?
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place a sterile 4 × 4 dressing on the wound, then wrap with a roller bandage
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Which one of the following is not a true principle of dressing and bandaging?
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The original dressing should be removed and replaced if blood soaks through.
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When bandaging over a joint, the joint should be bandaged in:
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the position in which the joint is to remain.
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In an emergency, you can use any of the following as dressings except for:
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toilet tissue.
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Which one of the following is considered the most popular and easy to use roller bandage?
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nonelastic, self-adhering
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When applying a bandage, it should cover which one of the following?
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the entire dressing
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A cravat bandage is made by:
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folding a triangular bandage.
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The use of two gauze rolls, wrapped alternately around and across the wound until it is wrapped completely is an example of:
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roller bandages.
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When treating a sprain, the "I" in the acronym RICE stands for:
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ice
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A special type of tissue that contracts when stimulated is:
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muscle
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Before and after splinting, it is important to assess:
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pulse and sensation.
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You should immobilize the joint ________ the fracture.
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above and below
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In which of the following situations would you not splint a fracture?
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if it causes more pain for the victim
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What is the most important first aid care for a suspected fracture?
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immobilization
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Which of the following is a function of a traction splint?
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to splint a thigh
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An improvised splint should not be:
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shorter than the bone.
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Always check the distal pulse of a suspected fracture site. Lack of a pulse indicates:
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decreased blood flow.
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When assessing bone injuries, you can get a good idea of how much additional damage may have occurred by determining:
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the mechanism of injury.
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Which of the following is not one of the four major functions of the skeletal system?
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protect against infection
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Highly specialized connective tissue that attaches muscle to bone is:
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tendons.
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If a victim has all of the fractures listed below, which would you splint first?
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spinal fracture
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A splint that provides a counter-pull, alleviates pain, and reduces blood loss is a:
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traction splint.
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A ________ is a stretching and tearing of muscle fibers.
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strain
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The victim has a severely angulated lower leg fracture. You should:
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splint leg in the position found.
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The victim has a severe muscle cramp to the calf muscle. You should:
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apply ice to the muscle.
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An upper arm fracture, once splinted, should be placed in a:
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sling and swath.
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A woman riding a horse is thrown and lands on two outstretched hands. One arm sustains a fractured elbow and the collarbone at the end of the other arm is fractured. This is an example of what kind of force?
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indirect
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To immobilize an elbow joint injury you should immobilize the:
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bones above and below the elbow.
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In what position should you splint a dislocated elbow?
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in the position found
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Unlike the ischial tuberosity fracture, hamstring strain occurs:
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among people of all ages.
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Tennis elbow is very similar to:
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golfer's elbow.
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The fracture that occurs from a victim falling on the palm of the hand with the wrist extended is a:
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Colles's fracture.
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Generally, injuries that produce an audible "pop" are associated with the:
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knee
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Golfer's elbow involves inflammation to the:
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tendon
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Signs and symptoms including limping, tenderness to the touch, and red discoloration, later turning purple are indicative of:
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a hip injury
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A classic sign of a Smith's or Colles's fracture is:
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"silver fork deformity."
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Most frequently, achilles tendon rupture results from:
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jumping and cutting maneuvers.
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A fractured hip involves the top end of the:
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femur.
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What type of splint should you avoid using on a dislocated elbow?
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air
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If the victim is suffering from an ischial tuberosity fracture, he/she will feel pain in the:
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buttocks
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In caring for metacarpal (finger) fractures, assess for circulation every few minutes by checking:
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capillary refill.
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In caring for a fractured clavicle, which of the following methods of splinting should you use?
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figure-eight bandage
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If the foot turns or rolls inward, the ankle will be:
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sprained
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Colles's fractures are most common in:
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children
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A boxer's fracture is a fracture of the:
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hand
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With nondisplaced fractures of the fingers, there is usually a great deal of:
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pain
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When giving first aid for a carpal (wrist) fracture with no deformity, use ________ splint if you are adequately trained and properly prepared.
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an air
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When splinting a sprained knee, you should wrap the knee in a pillow splint
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in the most comfortable position.
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The most common symptom of radial head fracture is:
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pain while rotating the forearm.
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Before beginning any first aid care for head injury, first:
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assess the victim's mental status.
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When the spinal cord is injured, the victim may show signs of:
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paralysis.
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A helmeted child falls from a bicycle and is lying unresponsive on the sidewalk, on her side. She is breathing. As a First Aider who witnesses this accident, you should:
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call 911, then stabilize the child's helmeted head.
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A toddler is running in the living room and falls, striking the side of his head on the end of a coffee table. The toddler is lying very still, with a blank stare on his face. What should you do?
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Assess the toddler's ABCDs and call 911.
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At a local ski hill, a snowboarder wipes out while doing a flip. He is responsive and says he cannot move or feel his legs and feet. He has most likely suffered a:
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lower spine injury.
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After activating the EMS system, the top priority of first aid care for a head injury is to:
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establish an open airway.
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What technique should you use to open the airway of an unresponsive victim with spinal injury?
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modified jaw-thrust
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Whenever you care for a victim of head injury, always assume:
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spinal injury.
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A high number of spinal injuries occur in the ________ spinal region
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cervical
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Under which of the following circumstances should you not remove the helmet of a spinal-injured victim?
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removal of the helmet would cause further injury
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When the brain is injured, blood vessels in the brain dilate allowing more blood into the injured area; swelling and an increase in pressure result. This can affect all but:
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body temperature.
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If the victim sustained a medical or nontraumatic brain injury, place the victim on his or her:
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left side and elevate the head slightly.
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Pain associated with movement is a sign of spinal injury. Assess the victim's pain by:
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asking the victim where it hurts.
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Most brain injuries are caused by:
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trauma
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In which of the following situations should you always suspect spinal injury?
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motorcycle accidents
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One of the late signs of skull fracture is Battle's sign, which is:
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bruising behind the ears
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When assessing a victim of head injury, it is important to obtain a history that includes:
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whether the victim's mental status has changed.
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Activated charcoal should be used for victims who have ________ a poison.
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ingested
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Which of the following questions should you ask the victim or bystanders when taking a history from a poisoning victim?
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When was it swallowed?
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Which of the following is not true concerning carbon monoxide poisoning?
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Carbon monoxide poisoning causes 25 percent of all poisoning deaths in the U.S. each year.
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What is the number-one cause of accidental death among children?
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poisoning
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The greatest danger from injected poison is:
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anaphylactic shock.
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The poisonous element of poison ivy is:
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urushiol.
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Stinging nettles cause intense burning or stinging pain. After washing with soap and water, you are advised to apply:
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calamine lotion to the skin.
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Injected poisons usually cause ________ reaction at the injection site:
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an immediate
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Poisoning is the ________ cause of accidental death in the United States.
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third leading
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In some cases, poison control professionals will instruct you to:
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administer activated charcoal to absorb the poison.
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Which of the following might suggest poisoning by ingestion?
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acute abdominal pain
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Most common injected poisons come from:
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insect stings.
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Which of the following is a sign or symptom of high-level exposure to carbon monoxide?
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chest pain
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Which of the following is a sign or symptom of absorbed poisons?
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itching or irritation
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After activating the EMS system, the next step in providing first aid care to a poisoned victim is to:
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maintain the airway.
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Toxic dusts, gases, and fumes are poisons that enter the body through:
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inhalation
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The adult dose for activated charcoal is:
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1 gram/kilogram of body weight.
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Activated charcoal works by ________ contaminants.
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absorbing
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What position is best for a victim of inhaled poison if there are no contraindicating injuries?
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lateral recumbent
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After activating the EMS system, the next priority when caring for a victim of inhaled poisons is to:
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get the victim into fresh air.
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