(First Aid) Pharmacology – Flashcards

Unlock all answers in this set

Unlock answers
question
Measures the affinity of an enzyme for its substrate ( dec Km = inc affinity)
answer
Km
question
Maximal velocity of an enzymatic reaction (proportional to enzyme concentration)
answer
Vmax
question
Does not change Vmax (Lineweaver-Burke lines cross each other "competitively")
answer
Competitive inhibition
question
Decreases Vmax (Lineweaver-Burke lines do not cross each other)
answer
Noncompetitive inhibition
question
Drug in body / plasma drug concentration (low Vd (4-8L: in blood), medium Vd (in extracellular space), High Vd (> body weight: in tissues))
answer
Volume of Distribution (Vd)
question
Rate of elimination of drug / plasma drug concentration (OR Vd x Kc, where Kc is the elimination constant)
answer
Clearance (CL)
question
T1/2 = (0.7 x Vd) / CL
answer
Half life (t1/2)
question
1:50%, 2:75%, 3:87.5%, 4:93.75%
answer
Concentration of a substance after X half lives (1,2,3,4)
question
= Cp x (Vd / F); (Cp: target plasma conc., F: bioavailability, 1 if by IV)
answer
Loading dose
question
= Cp x (CL / F); (Cp: target plasma conc., F: bioavailability, 1 if by IV; a renal patient would have decreased clearance, so they would need a decreased maintenance dose)
answer
Maintenance dose
question
PEA (phenytoin, ethanol, aspirin)
answer
Common drugs that follow zero-order elimination
question
Will get trapped in a basic environment, treat with bicarbonate
answer
Treating a weak acid overdose
question
Will get trapped in an acidic environment, treat with ammonium chloride
answer
Treating a weak base overdose
question
(Cytochrome P450) 1. reduction, 2. oxidation, 3. hydrolysis (drugs became slightly polarized, may still be active)
answer
Reactions involved in phase I drug metabolism
question
(Conjugation) 1. acetylation, 2. glucuronidation, 3. sulfonation (drugs become very polarized, are inactivated)
answer
Reactions involved in phase II drug metabolism
question
Competitive antagonist shifts curve right, requires bigger dose of drug for effect (inc EC50); noncompetitive antagonist shortens curve, cannot reach same level of effect (dec efficacy)
answer
Effect of competitive antagonists on efficacy curves versus noncompetitive antagonists
question
Partial agonists will have a lower maximal efficacy than full agonists (however potency is independent, they may still be more potent or less potent than a full agonist)
answer
Effect of partial agonists versus full agnoists on efficacy curves
question
TILE: TI = LD50 / ED50 (median toxic dose / median effective dose; Safer drugs have HIGHER TI values)
answer
Therapeutic index (TI)
question
Receptor location: NMJ; Function: skeletal muscle contraction; Mechanism: ion channel (Na influx)
answer
Nm receptors
question
Receptor location: Ganglia; Function: stimulates sympathetics and parasympathetics; Mechanism: ion channel (Na influx);
answer
Nn receptors
question
Receptor location: Nerve endings; Function: Gastric acid secretion; Mechanism: Gq protein;
answer
M1 receptors
question
Receptor location: Heart; Function: Inhibitory, reduces heart rate; Mechanism: Gi protein;
answer
M2 receptors
question
Receptor location: Smooth muscle, endothelium, glands; Function: bronchoconstriction, pupil constriction, accommodation, increases secretions; Mechanism: Gq proteins;
answer
M3 receptors
question
Receptor location: Arterioles, glands; Function: vasoconstriction, pupillary dilation; Mechanism: Gq protein;
answer
α1
question
Receptor location: presynaptic nerve endings; Function: inhibitory, feedback inhibition of NT release; Mechanism: Gi protein;
answer
α2
question
Receptor location: heart, kidney; Function: heart stimulation, renin release; Mechanism: Gs protein;
answer
β1
question
Receptor location: lungs, skeletal muscle; Function: Vasodilation, bronchiole dilation, ciliary process (makes aqueous humour); Mechanism: Gs protein;
answer
β2
question
Receptor location: Fat; Function: excitatory; Mechanism: Gs protein;
answer
β3
question
Function: vasodilation; Mechanism: Gs protein;
answer
D1
question
Function: Causes NT release in brain; Mechanism: Gi protein;
answer
D2
question
Function: stimulates mucuous production, bronchiole constriction, pain, itching; Mechanism: Gq protein;
answer
H1
question
Function: gastric acid secretion; Mechanism: Gs protein;
answer
H2
question
Function: vasoconstriction; Mechanism: Gq protein;
answer
V1
question
Function: inc H20 permeability, reabsorption in collecting tubules in kidney; Mechanism: Gs protein;
answer
V2
question
Sick of sex (SIQ, SQS) D1,D2, H1, H2, V1, V2
answer
Mnemonic for gprotein receptors used for D, H, and V receptors
question
Gq protein activates PLC, IP3 + DAG, inc Ca++ (IP3) and activate PKC (DAG)
answer
Function of Gq protein receptors
question
Gi protein activates K+ channels, inhibition of adenylate cyclase, reduction of cAMP
answer
Function of Gi protein receptors
question
Gs protein activates adenylate cyclase, increases cAMP
answer
Function of Gs protein receptors
question
DUMBBELSS (Diarrhea, urination, miosis, bronchospasm, bradycardia, excitation (of skeletal muscle), lacrimation, sweating, salivation); treatment: atropine (reverses symptoms) + pralidoxime (regenerates cholinesterase)
answer
Symptoms of cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning
question
Hot as a hare (inc temp), Dry as a bone (dec secretions), Red as a beet (flushed skin), Blind as a bat (cycloplegia), Mad as a hatter
answer
Symptoms of muscarinic antagonist overdose
question
Bethanechol, carbachol, pilocarpine, methacholine
answer
Direct cholinergic agonist drugs
question
Bethanechol
answer
Direct cholinergic agonist; activates bowel and bladder post operation
question
Carbachol
answer
Direct cholinergic agonist; used in glaucoma (causes pupillary contraction and reduces ICP)
question
Pilocarpine (PILE on the sweat and tears)
answer
Direct cholinergic agonist; potent stimulator of sweat and tears
question
Methacholine
answer
Direct cholinergic agonist; challenge test for asthma diagnosis
question
(-stigmine, Ed PHYSted the MAiLman and it ECHOed) Neostigmine, pyridostigmine, physostigmine, edrophonium, echothiophate, malathion
answer
Indirect cholinergic agonist drugs (anticholinesterases)
question
Neostigmine (NEO CNS)
answer
Indirect cholinergic agonist; used in post operative reversal of NMJ block; does NOT penetrate the CNS
question
Pyridostigmine
answer
Indirect cholinergic agonist; used for myasthenia gravis (due to it's long action); does NOT penetrate the CNS
question
Physostigmine (PHYS is for EYES)
answer
Indirect cholinergic agonist; Used for glaucoma and atropine overdose (does cross CNS)
question
Edrophonium
answer
Indirect cholinergic agonist; Used to diagnose myasthenia gravis (extremely short action)
question
Echothiophate
answer
Indirect cholinergic agonist; used for glaucoma
question
Atropine, homatropine, tropicamide, benztropine, scopolamine, ipratropium, methscopolamine, oxybutynin, glycopyrrolate, pirenzepine, propantheline
answer
Muscarinic antagonist drugs
question
Atropine (or homatropine, tropicamide)
answer
Muscarinic antagonist drug(s); produces mydriasis and cycloplegia (eye)
question
Benztropine (PARK my BENZ)
answer
Muscarinic antagonist drug; treatment for parkinson's (CNS)
question
Scopolamine
answer
Muscarinic antagonist drug; treatment of motion sickness (CNS)
question
Ipratropium
answer
Muscarinic antagonist drug; treats asthma and COPD (respiratory)
question
Methscopolamine (or oxybutynin, glycopyrrolate)
answer
Muscarinic antagonist drug(s); Reduces bladder urgency in cystitis and bladder spasms (GI)
question
Pirenzepine (or propantheline)
answer
Muscarinic antagonist drug(s); treatment of peptic ulcers (GI)
question
Atropine
answer
Muscarinic antagonist drug; Used to block DUMBBELSS; Toxicity: hot as a hare, dry as a bone, red as a beet, blind as a bat, mad as a hatter
question
Hexamethonium
answer
Nicotinic antagonist; ganglion blocker, used in experimental models to prevent vaga reflex responses to BP changes
question
B1
answer
Low doses of epinephrine are selective for what receptor?
question
Epinephrine
answer
Drug used for anaphylaxis, open angle glaucoma, asthma and hypotension. Binds a1, a2, B1 and B2 receptors.
question
Norepinephrine
answer
Drug used for hypotension. Binds a1, a2 > B1
question
Isoproterenol
answer
Drug that binds B1 = B2. Used rarely for AV block
question
Dopamine
answer
Drug used for shock (by increased renal perfusion), and heart failure. Binds D1 = D2 > B > a.
question
Dobutamine
answer
Drug used for shock, heart failure, and cardiac stress test. Bind B1 > B2.
question
Dopamine is inotropic and chronotropic, Dobutamine is inotropic but not chronotropic.
answer
What is the difference in inotropy and chronotropy between dopamine and dobutamine.
question
Phenylephrine.
answer
Drug used for pupillary dilation, vasoconstriction, and nasal decongestion. Binds a1 > a2.
question
Albuterol
answer
Drugs used for acute asthma. Binds B2>B1/
question
Terbutaline
answer
Drug used to reduce premature uterine contractions. Binds B2 > B1.
question
Ritodrine
answer
Drug used to reduce premature uterine contractions. Binds B2 only.
question
Amphetamine
answer
Drug used to treat narcolepsy, obesity, ADD. Releases stored catecholamines.
question
Ephedrine
answer
Drug used for nasal decongestion, urinary incontinence, and hypotension. Releases stored catecholamines.
question
Cocaine
answer
Drug that causes vasoconstriction and local anesthesia. Inhibits reuptake of NE.
question
Clonidine, a-methyldopa
answer
Drug used to treat hypertension (esp in renal disease because it prevents decrease in blood flow to kidney. Centrally acting a2 agonist.
question
Increased systolic and diastolic pressure, reflex bradycardia (all because a>B)
answer
Effect of NE on systolic and diastolic BP, and heart rate.
question
Increased systolic (B1), decreased diastolic (B2) (wide PP, no change in mean BP), increased heart rate (B1)
answer
Effect of epinephrineon systolic, diastolic BP and heart rate
question
Decrease BP (sys and diastolic, B2), BIG increase in HR (B1) (isoproterenol = B > a)
answer
Effect of isoproterenol on BP and heart rate
question
MAST (metaproterenol, albuterol, salmeterol, terbutaline)
answer
Mnemonic for selective B2 agonists
question
Phenoxybenzamine (irreversible), Phentolamine (reversible, both nonselective alpha blockers)
answer
Drugs (2) used in pheochromocytoma before tumor is removed. SE: orthostatic hypotension, reflex tachycardia
question
(a1 antagonists) Prazosin, Terazosin, doxazosin
answer
Alpha antagonist used for hypertension and urinary retention in BPH. SE: first dose orthostatic hypotension
question
(a2 selective) Mirtazapine
answer
Alpha antagonist used for depression. SE: sedation, inc serum cholesterol, inc appetite.
question
Dec CO, dec renin secretion (B1)
answer
How do beta blockers effect hypertension
question
Dec mortality after MI
answer
How are B blockers used in MI
question
Propanolol, esmolol
answer
What B blockers are used in supraventricular tachycardia
question
Dec. AV conduction velocity (SVT)
answer
What type of arrhythmia are B blockers used for
question
Dec secretion of aqueous humor (timolol)
answer
How are B blockers used in glaucoma.
question
Impotence, exacerbates asthma, don't use with diabetics
answer
What are the sideeffects of B blockers
question
Propanolol, timolol, nadolol, pindolol, labetalol
answer
What are the nonselective B blockers
question
A BEAM of B1 blockers (acebutolol, betaxolol, esmolol, atenolol, metoprolol)
answer
What are the selective B1 blockers (mnemonic)
question
Carvedilol, labetalol
answer
Nonselective alpha and beta antagonists
question
N-acetylcysteine
answer
Treatment for overdose of acetominophen
question
NaHCO3 (alkalinize urine), dialysis
answer
Treatment for overdose of Salicylates
question
NH4Cl (acidify urine)
answer
Treatment for overdose of amphetamines
question
Atropine, pralidoxime
answer
Treatment for overdose of anticholinesterases, organophosphates
question
Physostigmine saligylate
answer
Treatment for overdose of antimuscainic and anticholinergic agents
question
Glucagon
answer
Treatment for overdose of B blockers
question
K+, lidocaine, digibind, Mg2+
answer
Treatment for overdose of digitalis
question
Deferoxamine
answer
Treatment for overdose of iron
question
CaEDTA, dimercaprol, succimer (kids), penicilamine
answer
Treatment for overdose of lead
question
Dimercapol, succimer
answer
Treatment for overdose of arsenic, mercury, gold
question
Penicillamine
answer
Treatment for overdose of copper, arsenic, gold
question
Nitrite, hydroxycobalamin, thiosulfate
answer
Treatment for overdose of cyanide
question
Methylene blue
answer
Treatment for overdose of methemoglobin
question
100% O2, hyperbaric O2
answer
Treatment for overdose of CO
question
Ehtanol, dialysis, fomezipol
answer
Treatment for overdose of methanol or ethylene glycol (antifreeze)
question
Naloxone, naltrexone
answer
Treatment for overdose of opiods
question
Flumazenil
answer
Treatment for overdose of benzodiazapines
question
NaHCO3 (serum alkanization)
answer
Treatment for overdose of TCAs
question
Protamine
answer
Treatment for overdose of heparin
question
Vitamin K, fresh frozen plasma
answer
Treatment for overdose of warfarin
question
Aminocaproic acid
answer
Treatment for overdose of tPA, streptokinase
question
Lead poisining
answer
Sx: lines on gingivae and long bone epiphyses, encephalopathy and erythrocyte basophilic stippling, abdominal colic, sideroblastic anemia, wrist and foot drop
question
Iron poisining
answer
Acute poisining = gastric bleeding, chronic poisining = metaboic acidosis, GI obstruction (scarring). MOA = peroxidation of lipids
question
Tricyclics
answer
What drugs give an atropine like side effect to the cardiovascular system?
question
Cocaine, sumatripan
answer
What drugs (2) cause coronary vasospasm as a side effect?
question
Niacin, Ca channel blockers, adenosine, vancomycin
answer
What drugs (4) cause cutaneous flushing as a side effect
question
Doxorubicin, daunorubicin
answer
What drugs (2) cause dilated cardiomyopathy as a side effect
question
Class III antiarrythmics (sotalol), Class IA (quinidine) antiarrhythmics, cisapride
answer
What drugs (3) cause torsades de pointes as a side effect
question
Clozapine, carbamazapine, colchicine, propylthiouracil, methimazole
answer
What drugs (5) can cause agranulocytosis as a side effect
question
Chloramphenicol, benzene, NSAIDs, propylthiouracil, methimazole
answer
What drugs (5) can cause Aplastic anemia as a side effect
question
Methyldopa
answer
What drug can give a direct positive coomb's hemolytic anemia?
question
Chloramphenicol
answer
What drug can cause grey baby syndrome as a side effect
question
INH, sulfonamides, primaquin, aspirin, ibuprofen, nitrofurantoin (hemolysis IS PAIN)
answer
What drugs (6 - mnemonic) can cause hemolysis in G6PD patients.
question
OCPs (estrogen and progestins)
answer
What drug class can cause thrombotic compications as a side effect?
question
ACE inhibitors (NOT ARBs)
answer
What drug causes a dry cough as a side effect?
question
Bleomycin, busulfan, amiodarone
answer
What drugs (3) can cause pulmonary fibrosis as a side effect?
question
Macrolides
answer
What drug can cause acute cholestatic hepatitis as a side effect?
question
Halothane, valproic acid, acetominophen, Amanita phalloides
answer
What drus (4) can cause focal to massive hepatic necrosis as a side effect?
question
INH
answer
What drug can cause hepatitis as a side effect?
question
Clindamycin, ampicillin
answer
What drugs (2) can cause psuedomembranous colitis as a side effect?
question
Glucocorticoid withdrawal
answer
What drug can cause adrenocortical insufficiency as a side effect
question
Spironolactone, digitalis, cimetidine, chronic alcohol use, estrogens, ketoconazole (Some Drugs Create Awesome Knockers)
answer
What drugs (6) can cause gynecomastia as a side effect? (mnemonic)
question
Tamoxifen, clomiphene
answer
What drugs (2) can cause hot flashes as a side effect?
question
Phenytoin
answer
What drug causes gingival hyperplasia as a side effect?
question
Furosemide, thiazides
answer
What drugs (2) can cause gout as a side effect
question
Corticosteroids, heparin
answer
What drugs (2) can cause osteoporosis as a side effect?
question
Sulfonamides, Amiodarone, Tetracycline (SAT for a PHOTO)
answer
What drugs (3) can cause photosensitivity as a side effect (mnemonic)?
question
Hydralazine, INH, procainamide, phenytoin (it's not HIPP to have lupus)
answer
What drugs (4) can cause an SLE-like syndrome as a side effect?
question
Fluoroquinalones
answer
What drug causes tendonitis, tendon rupture and cartilage damage as a side effect in kids?
question
Expired tetracycline
answer
What drug causes Fanconi's syndrome as a side effect
question
Methicillin, NSAIDs
answer
What drugs (2) cause interstitial nephritis as a side effect?
question
Cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide
answer
What drugs (2) cause hemorrhagic cystitis as a side effect?
question
Quinidine, quinine
answer
What drugs (2) cause cinchonism as a side effect?
question
Lithium, demeclocycline
answer
What drugs (2) cause diabetes insipidus as a side effect
question
Bupropion, imipenem/cilastin
answer
What drugs (2) cause seizures as a side effect?
question
Antipsychotics (typical)
answer
What drugs cause tardive dyskinesia?
question
Metronidazole, cephalosporins (some), procarbazine, 1st generation sulfonylureas
answer
What drugs (4) cause a disulfiram-like reaction as a side effect
question
Polymixins
answer
What drug causes nephrotoxicity and neurotoxicity as side effects?
question
Aminoglycosides, loop diuretics, cisplatin
answer
What drugs (3) cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity as a side effect?
question
Queen barb takes Phen-phen and Refuses Greasy Card Shakes (quinidine, barbiturates, phenytoin, rifampin, griseofulvin, carbamazapine, st. john's wart)
answer
Mnemonic for p450 inducers
question
Inhibitors Stop Cyber-Kids from Eating Grapefruit (INH, sulfonamides, cimetidine, ketoconazole, erythromycin, grapefruit juice)
answer
Mnemonic for p450 inhibitors
question
Coadminister with mesna
answer
Method to prevent hymorrhagic cystitis caused by cyclophosphamide or ifosfamide
question
Oxalic acid
answer
What is ethylene glycol converted to in the body
question
Acidosis, nephrotoxicity
answer
What does oxalic acid (metabolic product of ethylene glycol) cause?
question
Formaldehyde and formic acid
answer
What metabolic products (2) is methanol converted to in the body
question
Severe acidosis, and retinal damage
answer
What are the effects of formaldehyde and formic acid (metabolic products of methanol) in the body?
question
Acetaldehyde
answer
What is ethanol broken down by in the body?
question
Alcohol dehydrogenase
answer
What enzyme breaks down ethylene glycol, methanol, and ethanol?
question
Fomepizole
answer
Inhibitor of alcohol DH
question
Sulfa drugs (celcoxib, furosemide, thiazides, TMP-SMX, sulfonyureas, sulfasalazine
answer
What drugs do you not give people with sulfa allergies
question
Ephedra
answer
Herbal agent that can cause arrythmias, stroke, and seizures at high doses
question
Feverfew (migraines) and ginko (claudication)
answer
Herbal agents that have antiplatelet actions
question
Kava (chronic anxiety)
answer
Herbal agent that can cause phototoxicity and dermatotoxicity
question
Saw palmetto (benign prostatic hyperplasia)
answer
Herbal agent that can cause hypertension
question
St. John's wort (depression)
answer
Herbal agent that can cause serotonin syndrome w/ ssris, and induces p-450
question
Dehydroepiandosterone (SLE or AIDs)
answer
Herbal agent that causes androgenization in premenopausal women, and estrogen effects in postmenopausal women and feminization in young men
Get an explanation on any task
Get unstuck with the help of our AI assistant in seconds
New