2G071CDC – Flashcard
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What is a CCDR
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a major military leader - either of a large geographical region or of a particular military function
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how is command authority exercised
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only by commanders of unified or specific combatant commands unless otherwise directed by the President or Sec of Def
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What MAJCOM logistics plans responsibility develops a supplement to AFI 10-403, Dev Planning and Execution, to cover those command-unique areas concerning deployment management
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Deployment management
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what MAJCOM logistics plans responsibility publishes ESP guidance to subordinate units for preparation of their ESPs and develops a budget to fund for ESP site visits
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expeditionary site planning
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what do war-fighting NAFs conduct
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theatre operations with assigned and attached forces and train to perform this role as an integral C2 element
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describe an OPLAN
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Any plan, except the SIOP, for the conduct of military operations in a hostile environment prepared by the commander of a unified or specified command in a response to a requirement est. by the JCS. OPLAN is an operation plan for the conduct of joint operations that can be used as a basis for development of an OPORD.
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what is the general criterion for approving an OPLAN
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Adequacy, feasibility, acceptability, and consistency with joint doctrine
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what does the OPLAN specify
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the forces and support needed to execute the plan and the transportation schedule required to move those resources
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who prepares the OPLAN and why
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commanders; to fulfill tasks assigned in the JSCP, or otherwise directed by the CJCS
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Describe a CONPLAN
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an abbreviated format that would require considerable expansion or alteration to convert it into an OPLAN campaign plan, or OPORD
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what does the CONPLAN contain
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the COCOM's strategic concept, Annexes A through D and K, and those additional annexes and appendixes deemed necessary by the COCOM to complete planning
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when is concept planning conducted
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principally in peacetime to develop joint operation plans for contingencies identified in strategic planning documents.
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how many phases are contained in the contingency planning process
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there are 5 phases
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compared to CONPLANS, how are functional plans written
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functional plans are written using the JOPES procedures and formats specified for a CONPLAN without a TPFDD
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who develops functional plans and why
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COCOMs develop FUNCPLANS in response to CJCS requirements, JSCS requirements, JSCP tasking, and self-determined contingencies
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what are the minimum arts of a functional plan
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plan summary, basic plan, Annexes A through D, J, K, V (CJCS approved plans) and Z
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describe support planning and what it includes
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determining the materiel and personnel requirements and priority of delivery to receive and sustain forces in combat to accomplish the mission. Included are computations of support requirements based on force activity, service planning guidance, inter-service and combined support requirements, host nation and coalition/allied support resources, and the time phasing of this support in accordance with the supported cc's overall concept of operations
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what is the principal product of support planning
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development of the appropriate annexes to the plan
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Describe supporting commander
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a supporting cc provides augmentation forces or other support to a supported cc or who develops a supporting plan
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how many AF WMP volumes support the JSCP
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five
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describe the basic plan and supporting supplements
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WMP-1 provides a single source for AF planning and support of combat forces in a time of war. The basic plan addresses the general situation, mission concept of operations, and execution tasks for AF forces in regional conflicts
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how many parts do the plans listing and summary contain
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two
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describe the WMP-3, part 2
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UTC availability is the official comprehensive data source for identifying all AF UTCs. It contains all UTC postured capability in the AF listed by UTC/unit identification code/ and record number
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describe the white house National Security Council
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the principal forum used by the president for considering national security and foreign policy matters. The council also serves as the presidents principal arm for coordinating these policies among various gov't agencies.
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describe the results of the National Security Act
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the dept. of war and the dept. of the Navy into the national military est., headed by the SECDEF. It was also responsible for the creation of a dept. of the AF from the existing Army Air Forces. Initially each of the 3 services secretaries maintained quasi-cabinet status, but the act was amended on Aug 10, 1949 to assure their subordination to the SECDEF. At the same time the NME was renamed as the dept. of defense
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what provides the framework for est. national strategy and policy objectives for the President
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the National Security Council system
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describe the JSPS
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primary means by which the CJCS carries out statutory responsibilities assigned in titles 6, 10, 22 and 50 USC
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what is the primary role of the JSPS
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conducting independent assessments; provide independent advise to the President, SECDEF, NSC, and HSC; and assist the President and SECDEF in providing unified strategic direction to the armed forces.
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describe the JSCP
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provides guidance to accomplish tasks and missioned based on military capabilities to COCOMs, service chiefs, CSA directors, applicable defense agency and DOD field activities directors, and the chief, NGB.
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how does the chairman support the GFM process
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by est. the force apportionment construct in the JSCP
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where are the detailed apportionment tables maintained
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global force management implementation guidance
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describe joint strategic planning community
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refers to those participating in the overall strategic planning of the armed forces. At the national strategic level, the CJCS, in consultation with other members of the JCS, performs joint strategic planning.
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describe the planning, programming, budgeting, and execution system
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a cyclic process containing 3 distinct but interrelated phases; planning, programming, and budgeting. in addition to est. the framework and process for decision making on future programs, the process permits prior decisions to be examined and analyzed from the viewpoint of the current environment (threat, political, economic, technological, and resources) and for the time-period being addressed.
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what is the purpose of the PPBES
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to produce a plan, a program, and finally, a budget for the DOD. the budget is fwd in summary to the President for his approval. the president's budget then is submitted to the develop an acquisition strategy for all major systems.
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describe the defense systems acquisitions review and PPBES interface
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interface between the weapons and acquisition process, as defined in DOD Directive 5000.1 (ref b) and the PPBES is achieved by designated membership of the DSARC and the DRB and the requirement to develop an acquisition strategy for all major systems.
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describe the joint force process
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the process begins when a COCOM submits an RFF/C to support emerging operational requirements to the SECDEF via the CJCS. The chairman validates the request by conducting a strategic risk assessment to availability substitution guidance on alternate sourcing strategies (coalition, civilian, or contracted sources), and conduct a legal/policy review
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what does the joint staff develop and fwd to the primary JFP
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a draft deployment order
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what does USJFCOM rely on
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relies heavily on its service components with the service HQ and other combatant command service components to track capabilities and forces in order to asses the operational readiness, availability, commitment, and capability substitution options.
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once the recommendation is received, who will the JS coordinate with
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with the office of the SECDEF, agencies, services, or combatant commands to seek their input on any issues that would result in a non-concurrence of reclama.
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when is the request for forces/capability initiated
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when the COCOM determines a requirement and submits an RFF/RFC to the joint staff
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what does the JCD describe
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capability gaps that exist in joint war-fighting functions, as described in the JOpsC or CONOPs. The JCD est. the linkage between the characteristics of the future joint forces identified in the CCJO and the capabilities identified through the FAA.
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what is the JCD used for
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basis for one or more FSAs and resulting ICDs or joint DCRs
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describe the joint sourcing process
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directly tasks JFCOM, as primary JFP, or other joint force providers (i.e., TRANSCOM, SOCOM, or STRATCOM), to develop recommended global sourcing solutions. This formal process sources emerging UCC requirements
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who will develop and provide the AF position to ACC
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AF/A300, working with HAF and MAJCOM FAMs
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who assigns nearly all conventional forces based in CONUS
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USJFCOM
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what is the goal of crisis action planning
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the rapid development and execution of an OPORD that is based on a real world crisis or emergency
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how many phases are contained in CAP
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six
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describe situational development
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events that have potential national security implications are detected, reported, and assessed to determine whether a military response is required. The combatant supported commander prepares and submits an assessment of the event to the President, SECDEF, and CJCS
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describe course of action development
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the CJCS issues a planning directive, normally a WARNORD, that directs the COCOM to prepare COAs. The COA development phase of CAP implements a decision by the president, SECDEF, and CJCS to develop military options.
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describe a WARNORD
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defines the objectives, anticipated mission or tasks, pertinent constraints, command relationships, and, if applicable, tentative combat forces available to the cc for planning and strategic lift allocations. The CJCS WARNORD generally equates to planning directives in deliberate planning processes and should contain all readily available guidance pertaining to the crisis. The precise contents of the WARNORD may vary widely depending on the nature of the crisis and degree of prior planning.
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describe a planning order
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the PLANORD defines the objectives, anticipated mission or tasks, pertinent constraints, command relationships and if applicable, tentative combat forces available for the cc for planning and strategic lift allocations
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if the EXORD was preceded by a detailed ALERTORD or PLANORD, then?
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the EXORD simply direct the deployment and employment of forces
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what order is issued by the SECDEF to prepare forces to deploy without approving the execution of a plan
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PREPARE TO DEPLOY ORDER (PTDO)
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COCOMs report directly to
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SECDEF
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what functional area is responsible for setting policies, procedures, and concepts for logistics plans support of assigned and programmed forces
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MAJCOM
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what senior war-fighting echelon plays an integral role as a C2 element during contingency and wartime ops
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NAF
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what criterion is used to assess an OPLAN compliance with the CJCS guidance and joint doctrine
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Adequacy
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what OPLAN criterion is used when considering if the resources made available for planning are used effectively or are insufficient to satisfy plan requirements
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Feasibility
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when describing a concept of operations, an unnamed day on which a particular operation begins is known as
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D-day
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what contingency planning phase makes sure that a plan properly incorporates the mobilization, deployment, employment, and redeployment of forces and resources
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Supporting plan
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Joint operations planning end execution systems (JOPES) procedures that task military ops for humanitarian assistance, disaster relief, peacekeeping and or counter-drug ops are used to write
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functional plan
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why are functional plans developed by COCOM
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in response to CJCS requirements
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what is a principle product of support planning
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development of appropriate annexes
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the war mobilization plan (WMP) consists of how many volumes
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five
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what volume of the WMP contains UTC availability and contains all postured UTC capabilities
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WMP-3, combat and support forces
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what AFI governs WMP-4, wartime aircraft activity, Part I and II
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AFI 10-401, AF operations planning and execution
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what caused the merger of the dept. of war and the dept. of the Navy into the National Military Establishment (NME)
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the National Security Act of 1947
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who chairs the National Security Council (NSC)
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the president
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regarding national security strategy, how are presidential level decisions made
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through the National Security Council System (NSCS)
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what implements, and augments presidential and SECDEF guidance that's fwd in the guidance for employment of forces (GEF)
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joint strategic capabilities plan
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the PPBES has how many phases
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three
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military departments and defense agencies provide advice to the PPBES...
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so that execution and accountability may be assessed properly
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what is the end result of global force management (GFM)
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the timely allocation of those forces and capabilities necessary to execute combatant command missions
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the DOD has historically conducted strategic force management...
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through a decentralized process where the SECDEF exercises combatant command authority over forces
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the US joint force command (USJFCOM) controls what percentage of combat ready conventional forces
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80%
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what crisis action phase involves the combatant supported commander's assessment to the president, SECDEF, and CJCS
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Situation Development (Phase I)
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what order is developed during crisis action planning when the SECDEF approves and transmits the selected COA issued by the chairman and direct the supported cc to initiate phase V
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ALERTORD
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What is UTC development
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the process of adding a UTC to the Manpower and Equipment Force Packaging (MEFPAK) system, building the manpower and/or equipment detail, and getting the UTC added to the TUCHA
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what can prevent USTRANSOM from validating airlift requirements
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lack of standard planning data movement characteristics loaded in the TUCHA
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when must a UTC be developed
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when new equipment types enter the inventory, when deployable units experience a significant change in either operational concepts or mission, when significant program changes occur in manpower or equipment, when significant program operational changes occur, when AF organizations require a change in the way an existing capability functions.
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what is the last step in the UTC development process
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registration
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what activities take place for a new UTC request once the UTC is in the MEFPAK
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manpower force element (MFE) and logistics detail (LOGDET) activities
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when is a UTC considered registered in the TUCHA
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when all personnel and/or logistics data are developed
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describe the kind of assistance the CSAF provides to meet the CCDR requirements
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the principal adviser to the SECDEF in AF activities and provides assistance for organization, training, and equipping air and space forces to meet CCDR requirements
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describe the directorate of logistics readiness
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the OPR for AF deployment and redeployment ops. HQ USAF A4R serves numerous roles that are vital to logistics daily
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describe a NAJCOM
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a major subdivision of the AF, assigned a major segment of the USAF mission. They possess the full range of staff functions needed to perform required tasks. there are two types; operational and support
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describe a NAF
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an organizational unit of the AF. it is a large striking organization of one major category of air strength. The NAF has two or more wings usually grouped with auxiliary units. The NAF is the senior war-fighting echelon of the AF. The conduct ops w/ assigned and attached forces under a command element
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who is responsible for determining an installations worst case scenario
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the IDO
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what step for determining an installations worst case scenario involves reviewing an installation's OPLANs and CONPLANs
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step 1
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what step for determining an installation's worst case scenario involves reviewing the war aircraft activity report (WAAR)
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step 3
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what is updated in step 8 of determining an installation's worst case scenario
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LOGMOD
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describe the RSO&I process
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reception, staging, onward movement, and integration is the final stage of deployment. RSO&I is the essential process that transitions deploying forces, consisting of personnel, equipment, and materiel arriving in theater into forces capable of meeting the CCDR's ops requirements
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who is responsible for RSO&I
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the supported commander
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describe staging
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this process begins in marshaling areas in the vicinity of PODs when personnel link up with their equipment. Units arrive at the staging area and begin preparation for movement by assembling, processing and accounting for personnel; performing maintenance and ops checks on equipment,; and checking load plans for movement
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describe command and control (C2)
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the CCDR directs subordinate commands and forces as necessary to carry out missions assigned to the command, including authoritative direction over all aspects of military ops, joint training, and logistics within the AOR. No single C2 option works best for all RSO&I ops. Supported CCDRs and their subordinates should be more flexible in modifying command structures to meet the specific requirements of each situation with emphasis on unity of effort, whether it is small foreign humanitarian ops up to a major theater war
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describe the reception control center (RCC)
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this work center provides overall direction and coordination of reception and bed-down procedures and resolves and problems affecting reception of resources. It oversees two functions, the RPU and the CRF
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the cargo reception function (RCF) is similar to what deployment function
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cargo deployment function
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describe aggregation
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UTCs grouped together at locations in the US or overseas where airlift will arrive to p/u the personnel and equipment and transport them to the APOD
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what is used at the APOD to move personnel and equipment to final destinations
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the hub and spoke model
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what is different between redeployment and deployment
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redeployment is the transfer of a unit, an individual, or supplies deployed in one area to another area, another location within the area, or to home station. It is not the same as deployment in reverse. Redeployment may, for military, political, or diplomatic reasons, be far more rapid then the deployment phase.
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what does redeployment apply to
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onward or fwd deployment as well as return to home station which includes rotation of airmen when AEF rotations have been est. to sustain an operation
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what are the four phases of redeployment operations
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redeployment planning, pre-deployment activities, movement, and JRSOI
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who is responsible for redeployment planning
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the losing supported cc or the gaining supported cc when the redeployment is to a new operational area
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what could happen if the collection of documentation is not accomplished
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it could cause a delay in the redeployment process
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what redeployment process work center ensures that all hazardous materials being moved comply with AFMAN 24-204(I)
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cargo deployment function
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what is the last step in the UTC process
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registration
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if a UTC is not registered in the TUCHA then...
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the USTRANSCOM cannot determine or validate accurate airlift requirements
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who is the principal advisor to the SECDEF on AF activities and provides assistance for organizing air and space forces to meet CCDR requirements
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CSAF
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who manages and coordinates the AEF schedule and tracks execution
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AFPC/DPW
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what is an intermediate echelon of command, directly under the operational and support commands
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NAF
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who is responsible for determining a base's worst case scenario
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the IDO
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when does the IDO identify the total number of personnel affected during the worst case scenario
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after reviewing plans
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the reception, staging, on-ward movement, and integration functions are applicable during...
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both deployment and redeployment phases of military ops
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who directs subordinate commands and forces as necessary to carry out all aspects of military ops
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supported cc
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a location in the US or overseas that is designated to collect UTCs during a deployment is called
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aggregation points
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selected locations in the AOR where personnel and equipment are aggregated together are called
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APODs
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the transfer of a unit, an individual, or supplies deployed in one area to another area, to another location within the area, or to home station
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redeployment
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which redeployment phase responsibility is determined by the post-redeployment mission of the redeploying force
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joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI)
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it is important for the redeployment process to be flexible and able to adapt to the unique requirements of the redeployment environment because...
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the redeployment may require a far more rapid response than a deployment
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deployed log planners, or designated alternates, collect as many deployment docs as possible because the...
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the info is needed to redeploy the units
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it makes sense to have all the files and docs ready before the redeployment order is executed because...
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the process of moving personnel and equipment happens very quickly
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what is the purpose of WRM
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to meet the planned defense objectives already identified by DOD planning guidance
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how is WRM positioned
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as either starter or swing stock, or used as a combo of both
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where is WRM swing stock positioned
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afloat or on land
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what are swing stocks
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assets required at or near the point of intended use
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who must all WRM indirect mission support use be coordinated with
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WRMO/NCO
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who appoints the WRMPM for all installation and codes the positions as SECRET
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wing or installation cc
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who validates all WRM documents for accuracy and notifies the CWRMO/NCO of problems
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WRMO/NCO
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who ensures that all WRM assets are properly inspected maintained marked and stores
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unit WRM manager
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who appoints a WRMM to manage the unit
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sqdn cc
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how many types of training are est. to train members on WRM
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2
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explain WRM orientation training
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overview for newly assigned WRM program managers and WRM review board members. Usually occurs within 30 days of assignment. Formal briefing, desktop brief, or office visit
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describe WRM surveillance and its purpose
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an inspection conducted by the logistics planner assigned as the WRMNCO. its purpose is to ensure compliance w/appropriate instructions and policy
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what actions are included in WRM surveillance visits
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Reviewing appointment letters and records of initial and recurring training. • Checking security clearances of individuals receiving classified WRM source documents. • Ensuring WRM managers have access to appropriate and current WRM policies, directives, instructions, regulations, and guides. • Checking that all WRM assets are properly marked and stored, including rotation of shelf stock if necessary. • Reviewing inspection and serviceability documents for all WPARR and WCDO items. This review may include WPARR items that are marked as joint use. • Ensuring all required technical orders (TO) and TO changes, tools, and required parts are on hand or on order. • Determining that all documentation pertaining to WRM use or check out to any organization is correct and on file.
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explain the purpose of the WERM review board
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to initiate, accomplish, and direct actions necessary to ensure that WRM programs can provide the capability to perform the wartime mission
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who selects WRM review board members
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wing cc
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when will a WRM review board be conducted
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annually or within 60 days of receiving a new WCDO or WAAR
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who normally fills the WRMPM position
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mission support group cc
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who chairs the review board
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WRMPM
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how many levels of review boards are conducted under the WRM program
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3
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what does the WRMNCO compile and submit to the WRMPM for annual budget requests
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FINPLAN
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what is WRM reconstitution
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the actions taken to bring the required resources together in appropriate quantities to restore the USAF ops forces or support functions after being used
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who is responsible for managing an installation's WRM program
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WRMNCO
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how many SBSS reports are used to reconcile WRM docs
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4
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who are the WRMMs that assist the log planners in ensuring that WRM authorizations loaded correctly in SBSS and CAS
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supply and munitions WRMMs
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how many steps are used to determine out-loaded requirements
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4
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what step has the WRMO/NCO ensuring that the requirements are input in the ESP
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step 4
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when does the support agreement process start
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when the log planner assigned as SAM receives a request for support from a unit
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what is the requesting unit referred to as
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the receiver
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how does the support requests get from receiver to the FAACs
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through the SAM
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what form is used to document support requests
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dd form 1144, support agreement
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as a general rule, at what level should support agreements disputes/impasses be resolved
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at the lowest level
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what does the SAM do if an impasse concerning the overall agreement cannot be resolved between the supplier and receiver
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SAM and receiver pass the info to their MAJCOM counterparts for resolution
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who should the MAJCOM advise if any formal impasses are outstanding for more than 180 days
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HQ USAF/A4L
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when are support agreements reviewed
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when there are significant changes in the requested support and when finance conducts its annual review of the finding annexes
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who conducts the installation's annual budget review
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the FMO
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how much time must be given to the other parties in the event that the supplier or receiver needs to reduce, modify, or terminate the support agreement
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a min of 180 days notice
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what personnel should assist the supplier SAM w/ FAAC training
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manpower office and financial analysis office
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Describe what an ACSA is
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an international agreement that est. basic terms, conditions, and procedures for provision of mutual logistics support under a variety of circumstances.
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what is the purpose of an ACSA
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to simplify the interchange of log support, supplies, and services between USAF and other allied friendly forces
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describe the conditions under which ACSA use is most appropriate
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should be reserved for critical support areas involving AF where another existing program or authority does not allow for the specific log exchange, or where time constraints preclude the use of an existing authority.
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what are responsibilities of the MAJCOM ACSA manager
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est. policies and procedures for ACSA program mngt and execution and is charged with consolidating and reporting on all USAF ACSA activity at the end of each fiscal year
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describe the role of MAJCOM FM in the ACSA program
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provides valuable info when dealing with international financial issues. appoints a single POC to coordinate w/ the ACSA manager, acts as the entry point on all ACSA issues, coordinate with DFAS on all ACSA related issues, and ensures all billing and collection requirements are completed
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who does the installation ACSA manager coordinate all requirements for new IAs with
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the pertinent NAF or MAJCOM ACSA manager
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how does ACSA enhance operational readiness
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by allowing simplified procurements of resources by allowing US forces to acquire outside of commercial contracting procedures and to transfer items outside of FMS. ACSA also facilitates cost-effective mutual support due to reciprocal pricing, i.e. charging each other what we charge ourselves
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what advantages do ACSA authorities have compared to FMS
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the use of FMS case sales in an operational environment is normally the least preferable of the available legal authorities because of inflexible contract terms, higher prices, and lengthy processing times.
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describe the 2 separate legal authorities provided in ACSA legislation
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acquisition-only authority, which allows the US to acquire goods and services from designated nation, but does not allow US to transfer goods or service to another nation. Cross-servicing authority allows the US to acquire goods and services from or transfer the same to a designated nation or international organization
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how might the transfer of support, supplies, and services under ACSA authorities reduce the US "logistics tail"
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by allowing procurement of needed items from a HN rather than shipping them or deploying another military unit to provide the service.
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describe the two principal docs critical to the ACSA transaction execution process
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the ACSA agreement, which provides authority for requests for log support, but doesn't financially commit either party. Included within the ACSA agreement is an IA, which outlines billing procedures and identifies points of contact for all parties; and the Order/Receipt/Invoice form, which functions as both a request for support and an acknowledgment that support was provided, as well as the final invoice submitted to the receiving party.
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describe the purpose of implementing instructions
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Implementing instructions are written to establish USAF procedures for handling a specific situation or transaction. They establish the specific services or items to be exchanged, terms of exchange, responsibilities, and methods of payment, billing and reporting instructions.
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during wartime and contingency ops, what office is normally responsible for the admin of ACSA agreements, including conduct of transactions
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The JA's office is usually responsible for negotiating, concluding, reporting and maintaining international agreements; however, administration of ACSA agreements (including conduct of ACSA transactions during wartime or contingency operations) is the responsibility of the logistics plans office.
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list the basic steps in the transaction execution process
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Identify the logistics requirement; Ensure ACSA is the appropriate transfer mechanism; Negotiate terms and conditions of the specific order; Initiate the ACSA order; Deliver/Receive Logistics Support, Supplies, or Services; Verify delivery and receipt; Prepare and submit invoice(s); Make/collect reimbursement; Report transaction.
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what is the primary purpose od assigning unique transaction numbers
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to est. an audit trail
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describe the purpose of AGATRS
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CSA managers at all levels are required to maintain local files and original documents for all transactions executed. The AGATRS is used for this purpose. AGATRS is the DOD system of record for the Office of the SECDEF, Joint Staff, COCOMs, and Services to manage and report on ACSA transactions. AGATRS is an unclassified, web-based system that provides a worldwide cradle-to-grave automated means of building, tracking, and managing ACSA transactions; associated IAs; and subsequent orders for support throughout their life cycle. This system also serves as the worldwide library for ACSAs and their associated IAs.
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describe the capability BaS&E provides
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to collect new data while retaining the ability to centrally store existing data of "military value".
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describe the capability the tool delivers
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It performs assessments against specific site data, resulting in expedient force bed-down and base decisions
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what does BaS&E identify
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resources and combat support requirements at potential deployment locations
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describe the environment that BaS&E operates in
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classified and unclass
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describe the BaS&E user tool
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Read only access to BaS&E with capability to view his/her own personal information.
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describe the capability of the BaS&E administrator
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The capability to assign roles to additional BaS&E users and retain all privileges associated with the AOR manager, site manager, functional data manager, and BaS&E user roles
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who provides command policy and guidance for implementing BSP, and expeditionary site planning concepts to meet their specific mission
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MAJCOM log plans division
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who is the installation OPR for the BSP/ESP
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log plans function
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why does the log plans office review unit inputs to the BSP/ESP
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The review ensures that the unit has answered all applicable questions pertaining to the chapter in the BSP and the input conforms to the policy and guidance the MAJCOM BSP office provided to the installation BSP office.
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if planning docs are received when are BSP/ESP Part II complete
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NLT 90 days
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why are BSP and ESPs developed
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BSPs are primarily developed for locations with a permanent Air Force presence, and are fully developed by the planning efforts of many functional experts with a deliberate planning time line. ESPs are chiefly associated with locations without a permanent Air Force presence and may contain only the minimum data necessary to make initial bed-down decisions. ESPs may be developed in short timeframes to meet contingency needs without full staffing or coordination.
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describe the activity the log plans office performs in step 6 in determining LIMFACs
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fwd validated LIMFACs to applicable NAF log plans function
question
the MAJCOM log plans office coordinating validated LIMFACs with appropriate MAJCOM functional manager for resolution action defines which step in determining LIMFACs
answer
step 11
question
describe the purpose of the expeditionary site survey process
answer
The ESSP is a subset of the overall expeditionary site planning process. It is the foundation for Air Force expeditionary operations. The ESSP provides the focus, guidance, and integration, and prioritizes the actions for the site survey teams.
question
what does the ESSP produce
answer
a BSP and an ESP
question
describe what the ESSP process as a part of ACS and ECS defines
answer
defines capability, est. resource allocations, and determines solutions to shortages/limitations
question
describe an example when multiple MAJCOMs have operational responsibility at the same location where both may field a site survey team
answer
An example would be a place where AMC has a throughput mission and ACC has an aircraft bed-down mission.
question
who fwd indirect mission support requests to the next approval level via the war readiness materiel program manger (WRMPM)
answer
WRMO/NCO
question
how many commands are responsible for managing WRM
answer
3
question
what WRM functional area participates in WRM surveillance/staff visits as requested by the command WRMO/NCO
answer
command WRMM
question
who accompanies the WRMNCO during a WRM surveillance visit
answer
WRMM
question
who selects the members of the installation WRM review board
answer
wing cc
question
who does the WRMO/NCO submit the WRM budget to and how often
answer
base financial officer, annually
question
what system do log planners use to load validated WRM authorizations
answer
standard base supply system (SBSS)
question
the support agreement process starts when..
answer
the SAM receives a request for support
question
how often is a support agreement budget review performed and who conducts it
answer
annually by the installation FMO
question
a new SA funding annex is developed if...
answer
there is more than a 10% change to the requested support
question
when providing functional area agreement coordination (FAAC) training supplier SAMs are assisted by personnel from...
answer
manpower and financial analyses offices
question
the purpose of the ACSA is to simplify the interchange of...
answer
log support between USAF and friendly forces
question
who coordinates with DFAS on all ACSA related issues and ensures that all billing and collection requirements are completed
answer
MAJCOM FM
question
who may assign a functional data manager a user role in the BaS&E
answer
site manager
question
who coordinates with the reception base or transit location on unique support requirements, suggested changes, or other impacts on reception planning
answer
deploying unit cc
question
units are required to update/re-write a BSP/ESP when...
answer
there has been a significant change in the unit's support posture
question
part II of the BSP/ESP should be completed NLT than how many days after the release of an updated doc...
answer
90 days
question
what is the key to successful ESP and must function w/ senior leadership involvement
answer
base support planning committee (BSPC)
question
how often should the BSPC hold meetings
answer
semi-annually
question
what does the ESSP process define
answer
capability
