214 The Elbow

True or false: The triceps bursa is the most frequently injured bursa in the elbow because it is so superficial and at risk for direct trauma.
Most elbow dislocations result from falling on an outstretched hand and result in the ulna and radius dislocating:
true or false: Restoring normal range of motion is crucial early in elbow rehabilitation.
The motions of the elbow joint are:
flexion and extension
true or false: Pronator teres syndrome involves entrapment of the ulnar nerve.
true or false: Ten to 25 percent of young pitchers develop little league elbow as a result of the repetitive stress caused by throwing curve balls.
true or false: Visually observing an elbow at a 45-degree angle of flexion will show the olecranon process and both humeral epicondyles in a straight horizontal line.
Which of the following is NOT an elbow flexor? biceps brachii, brachialis, brachioradialis, flexor carpi ulnaris
Flexor carpi ulnaris
The adolescent athlete who complains of sudden pain and locking of the elbow joint should be suspected of having:
osteochondritis dissecans
true or false: Racquetball elbow, golfer’s elbow, and javelin throwers elbow refer to a medial epicondylitis.
What nerve innervates the main elbow extensors?
true or false: The radial collateral ligament does not attach to the radius, which is free to rotate.
Lateral epicondylitis results from:
repetitive extension of the wrist
true or false: Cubitus varus is an abnormality resulting in an increased carrying angle.
Which nerve can become irritated secondary to cubitus valgus present at the elbow?
true or false: The distal end of the humerus forms two condyles: the lateral condyle is called the capitulum, and the medial condyle is called the trochlea.
What nerve innervates the main elbow flexors?
Which of the following conditions results from an injury to the brachial artery, usually associated with a supracondylar fracture of the humerus?
Volkmann’s contracture
true or false: Complications from an elbow dislocation include injury to the median and radial nerve, as well as the brachial artery.
true or false: The spool-shaped capitulum fits into an articulating groove with the ulna.
Possible complications of a supracondylar humeral fracture are muscle spasm, swelling, or bone pressure on the brachial artery which inhibit blood circulation to the forearm, wrist, and hand. This is a:
Volkmann’s contracture
true or false: In medial epicondylitis, passive movement of the wrist seldom elicits pain, although active movement does.
true or false: An injury to the ulnar nerve usually results in parasthesia in the second and third digits.
Which of the following is not a disorder associated with little league elbow?
cubital tunnel syndrome
The motion(s) that occur at the radioulnar joint?
pronation and supination
true or false: Strains to the elbow are usually caused by hyperextension forces.
During rehabilitation of a posterior elbow dislocation which of the following phases would include the beginnings of PNF and DAPRE exercises?
repair phase
true or false: Functional leg shortening is detected by taking a measurement from the medial malleoli and the anterior superior iliac spine of each leg.
The main muscle(s) that allow(s) one to rise up from a seated position is (are) the:
gluteus maximus
The most common site for stress fractures of the pelivs is in the:
inferior pubic ramus
true or false: Avascular necrosis is a serious complication of hip dislocation in which the blood supply from the distal end of the femur is lost.
A hip sprain is best revealed through the athlete’s inability to:
circumduct the thigh
A condition found mostly in boys between the ages of 10 and 17 that produces hip and knee pain during passive and active motion is:
slipped capital femoral epiphysis
The normal angle of the femoral head is ____ degrees anterior to the long axis of the shaft of the femur and femoral condyles.
true or false: An apophysis growth site should be radiographed to rule out an avulsion fracture or stress fracture if severe pain and disability are present.
true or false: The femoral nerve divides into many branches to supply the thigh and lower leg.
An injury that results from a blow to an inadequately protected iliac crest and produces an extremely handicapping injury is the:
hip pointer
true or false: If the patient stands on one leg and the pelvis on the opposite side drops this means that there is adductor weakness.
The Patrick test detects pathological conditions of:
the hip and sacroiliac joint
true or false: Hamstring muscles function as decelerators of leg swing and commonly become injured when an athlete suddenly changes direction or starts to slow.
In managing a hamstring strain, which of the following should be avoided?
stretch by ballistic movements
true or false: Swollen lymph nodes may be an indication of an infection in the leg.
Improper care of a thigh contusion leading to incomplete absorption of the hematoma, which later produces formation similar to cartilage or bone, is called:
myositis ossificans traumatica
When an athlete walks into the athletic training room you notice that he/she is walking with the toe in. This could be a result of:
femoral anteversion
Which of the following tests does not test for iliotibial band tightness and inflammation of the bursa overlying the lateral femoral condyle?
Thompson’s test
The major artery that supplies the entire lower limb is the:
external iliac artery
true or false: The semitendinosus and semimembranosus both receive their nerve supply from the common peroneal branch of the sciatic nerve.
An avascular necrosis of the femoral head seen in children 3 to 12 years of age is called:
Legg-Perthes disease
The most common site for stress fractures of the femur is the femoral:
The Kendall and Thomas tests determine the extent of:
flexion contractures
true or false: A ganglion is a herniation of the joint capsule or of the synovial sheath of a tendon; it is often thought of as a cyst structure.
true or false: A colle’s fracture is a fracture of the proximal end of the radius.
true or false: A common nerve entrapment involves the median nerve getting compressed between the pisiform and hook of the hamate.
true or false: The volar plate of the PIP joint is most commonly injured in sports as a result of a severe hyperextension force.
Stenosing tenosynovitis of the first tunnel of the wrist through which the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus move is characteristic of:
De Quervain’s disease
true or false: Dislocations of the phalanges have a high rate of occurrence in sports and are caused mainly by a blow to the tip of the finger by a ball.
true or false: The main symptom of forearm splints is a dull ache between the extensor muscles crossing the back of the forearm.
Which of the following finger nail deformities results from thyroid problems?
true or false: Gamekeeper’s thumb involves forceful adduction of the proximal phalanx causing a sprain of the ulnar collateral ligament.
true or false: Crossing the volar aspect of the carpal bones is the transverse carpal ligament, which serves as the roof to the carpal tunnel through which the median nerve passes.
Which of the following conditions is due to a developmental abnormality of the wrist characterized by anatomic changes in the radius, ulna and carpal bones leading to palmar and ulnar wrist subluxation?
Madelung deformity
Which bone in the wrist is most commonly dislocated?
A deformity caused by a rupture of the extensor tendon over the middle phalanx is called:
Boutonniere deformity
true or false: All of the flexor muscles of the forearm are supplied by the median nerve.
true or false: The concave surface of the radius and ulna articulate with the convex surfaces of the scaphoid, lunate, triquetral, and pisiform bones.
Tapping over the transverse carpal ligament tests for:
carpal tunnel syndrome
true or false: A Bennett’s fracture occurs from forced axial loading and abduction of the thumb and treatment of choice is casting of the thumb/forearm.
true or false: A sprain is the most common wrist injury and is the most poorly managed sports injury in most cases.
true or false: Tenosynovitis most commonly affects the flexors of the forearm and wrist.
A wrist fracture resulting from the radius and ulna being forced backward and upward (hyperextension), is called a:
Colles’ fracture
true or false: A blow to the end of the finger that avulses the extensor tendon from its insertion is called a mallet finger.
Severe point tenderness in the anatomical “snuffbox” may indicate a fracture of which bone?
Extension of the thumb and fingers test damage to which nerve:
A sprain of the ulnar collateral ligament of the MCP joint of the thumb caused by forceful abduction of the proximal phalanx is called:
gamekeeper’s thumb
Which of the following is the most common cause of wrist sprains?
forced hyperextension
The postural position resulting in hip extension from an anterior shift of the pelvis is called:
Most serious cervical injuries in football result from purposeful:
axial loading as a result of spearing
If a straight leg raise causes pain between 70 and 90 degrees, which of the following problems is indicated?
sacroiliac joint involvement
75% of back flexion occurs at the joint between:
Which of the following cervical tests is positive if dizziness and nystagmus are present?
vertebral artery test
Which lumbar vertebra is most likely to slip as a result of spondylolisthesis?
A syndrome characterized by the narrowing of the spinal canal that can impinge the spinal cord resulting in burning and tingling bilaterally is known as:
spinal stenosis
When doing traction on the lumbar spine it should be done for at least _____ minutes, _____ times a week.
30, 5
The outer periphery of the intervertebral disk composed of strong fibrous tissue is called the:
annulus fibrosus
Asymmetrical hip levels are indicative of what type of injury?
sacroiliac sprain
The bowstring test is used to determine:
irritation of the sciatic nerve
Which of the following tests is NOT used to assess sacroiliac joint dysfunction?
Which of the following tests is performed supine?
Kernig’s test
Sports movements that characteristically hyperextend the lumbar spine are likely to cause:
Adolescents engaging in sports such as gymnastics and swimming are prone to accentuation of the kyphotic curve and backache common to:
Scheuermann’s disease
Axial loading combined with flexion of the cervical vertebrae from a force to the top of the head could lead to a fracture of which vertebrae?
Which of the following is (are) sign(s) of cervical neck fracture?
all of the above
Which of the following portions of the spine have a convex curve anteriorly?
cervical, lumbar
The most discernible difference between a cervical dislocation and a cervical fracture is:
position of the neck
Degeneration of vertebral epiphyseal end plates is seen in:
Scheuermann’s disease
The major muscle of back extension is the:
erector spinae
Which of the following symptoms are not indicative of a serious eye injury?
excessive watering of the eye
Which portion of the ear is formed by the temporal bone and is responsible for transportation of auditory impulses to the brain?
true or false: If a facial laceration occurs at the brow line, the eye brow should be shaved off in order to afford better closure of the wound.
true or false: The balance error scoring system (BESS) is a quantifiable clinical test which is recommended over the romberg test for assessing an athletes balance.
An athlete who starts to exhibit symptoms of giddiness, attention difficulties,
anxiety, and headaches hours or days after a collision may be considered to have:
postconcussion syndrome
true or false: most common fracture of the face is the mandibular fracture
When testing for balance, if an athlete is unable to keep eyes closed and is unable to maintain balance is considered to have a:
positive Romberg’s sign
true or false: Two commonly used cognitive tests are serial 7’s and naming the months in reverse order.
After the head is struck, the brain continues to move in the fluid and may be contused against the opposite side, causing this type of injury:
true or false: Following a cerebral injury, an athlete may be returned to competition even if he or she has a slight headache as long as other neurological and vasomotor functions are normal.
Which of the following can occur if an athlete who has sustained a previous concussion, is returned to play prior to resolution of symptoms, and receives another head injury?
second-impact syndrome
An athlete who has a bleeding fractured tooth should be managed in the following way:
continue to play and see the dentist after the competition
true or false: A cerebral contusion is a focal injury that commonly occurs as a result of the head striking the floor.
Which dental condition is characterized by loosening of the teeth, recession of the gingiva and infection?
true or false: The common mechanism of injury for mandibular luxation involves a blow to the side while the mouth is closed.
Which of the following can be prevented by using a solution of 3% boric acid and alcohol?
otitis externa
true or false: When removing something from the eye, the athlete should not rub the eye, but instead should pull the top lid over the bottom lid causing the eye to tear, which may flush out the object.
true or false: The mandating of mouth guards in football has decreased the number of dental injuries and all contact/collision athletes should wear one.
true or false: Cerebrospinal fluid is contained between the dura mater and arachnoid and acts as a cushion, helping to diminish the transmission of shocking forces.
According to Cantu, when is an individual who has suffered from his/her first Grade 2 concussion allowed to return to play?
asymptomatic for 1 week
true or false: Acute conjunctivitis is extremely contagious and results in red, itchy, and watery eyes.
When evaluating an unconscious athlete you would first:
look for the possibility of impaired breathing
true or false: In second-impact syndrome, the athlete may receive a minor blow to the head, appear stunned, and then collapse in 15 seconds.
Management of an avulsed tooth includes all the following EXCEPT:
scrub the tooth with a sterile gauze pad to get the dirt off
true or false: Raccoon eyes are a common sign for a nasal fracture.
true or false: The area of the mandible that is most frequently fractured is the area near the jaw’s frontal angle.
Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of mild head injury?
Glascow Coma score of 10
true or false: In the case of a tooth luxation, the tooth should be moved into its normal position, if it can be done easily.
true or false: A fracture of the larynx is indicated by an inability to breathe and expectoration of frothy blood.
An orbital fracture of the eye:
can result in double vision
true or false: Most common sign of a mandibular fracture is loss of normal occlusion.
true or false: An acute subdural hematoma is caused by an arterial bleed and is a common cause of death in boxers.
Which of the meninges is extremely delicate and attached to the spinal cord?
true or false: A lateral force to the nose causes greater deformity than does a “straight on” blow.
Which of the following describes the inability of an athlete to remember events after the injury has occurred?
posttraumatic amnesia
Which of the following is used to detect a corneal abrasion?
flourescien strip
true or false: A hyphema is a collection of blood within the anterior chamber of the eye.
Which of the following eye injuries is painless and results in the athlete seeing floating specks, flashes of light and having blurred vision?
detached retina
Which of the following is not descriptive of the temporomandibular joint?
saddle shaped
The condition common to children with head injuries characterized by diffuse brain swelling, resulting in hyperemia or vascular engorgement.
malignant brain edema
The thin bony substance that covers the root of the tooth is known as the:
true or false: Naming the months of the year in reverse order is a commonly used on the field cognitive test.
Which anatomical part of the eye is responsible for the production of tears?
lacrimal glands
Of the three meninges, the outermost, consisting of a dense, fibrous, inelastic sheath that encloses the brain and cord, is the:
dura mater
Which of the following conditions predisposes an athlete to injuries of the spleen?
true or false: A sign of a ruptured bladder is the athlete’s desire but inability to urinate.
A blow to the rib cage can contuse the:
intercostal muscles
Hematuria in an athlete participating in contact or collision sports is a sign or symptom of:
a kidney contusion
true or false: Hyperventilation occurs when an athlete is getting an inadequate amount of oxygen into his/her system and CO2 levels are too high.
The main function(s) of the internal oblique muscles is (are):
trunk flexion, lateral flexion, and rotation
The cephalic and caudal boundaries of the abdominal cavity are made up of the:
diaphragm and pelvis
Abdominal rigidity and pain at McBurney’s point may indicate:
true or false: Men are more susceptible to injury of their reproductive organs than females because of the lack of protection.
Which of the following results in cardiac arrest due to blunt traumatic impact to the chest?
commotio cordis
In managing a scrotal contusion, the first responsibility is to:
reduce testicular spasm
A direct blow to the anterolateral aspect of the thorax, or a sudden twist, or falling on the ball, can compress the rib cage and can result most often in a:
costochondral separation
true or false: Constant uncontrolled movement of the breast over a period of time can stretch Poupart’s ligament, which supports the breast at the chest wall.
Any athlete who receives a severe blow to the abdomen or back region should be instructed to check for:
blood in the urine
Getting the “wind knocked out” of you is characteristic of a:
blow to the solar plexus
The external oblique muscle has a line of action that runs:
forward and downward
true or false: In sports injuries of the abdomen the hollow organs are most often affected.
true or false: One way to prevent injury to hollow organs is to empty them prior to competition.
true or false: It is not possible to fracture a rib by coughing or sneezing.
A protrusion of the abdominal viscera through a portion of the abdominal wall is called a(n):
true or false: In a rib contusion, pain is felt only on inspiration.
The organ that serves as a reservoir of red blood cells and a destroyer of ineffective red cells is the:
Which of the following can be used as a treatment for a stitch in the side?
stretch arm on the affected side overhead
true or false: The peritoneum envelops the kidneys.
true or false: Traumatic asphyxia demands immediate rescue breathing.
true or false: An indirect rib fracture can cause the most serious damage, because the bone fragments often displace inwardly rather than simply compressing on each other.
Twisting of the spermatic cord may present the characteristic of:
Appearance of a cluster of swollen veins with a dragging feeling in the scrotum
true or false: Percussion over a hollow organ will produce a tympanic sound.
The solid organs, which are contained in the abdominal viscera, consist of the:
kidneys, spleen, liver, adrenal glands, and pancreas
A condition in which the pleural cavity becomes filled with air that has entered through an opening in the chest is called:
true or false: An athlete who is diagnosed with mononucleosis may engage in guarded contact if properly protected.
Which of the following is a complication of a ruptured appendix?
bacterial infection
The condition in which an athlete takes a violent blow or compression to the chest, without any accompanying rib fracture, and presents with severe pain during breathing, coughing up of blood, and shock is known as:
true or false: The appendix can be palpated in the lower left quadrant of the abdomen.
true or false: A “stitch in the side” is often caused by a blow to the sympathetic celiac plexus producing a cramplike pain over the diaphragm.
Repeated stress on the pubic symphysis and adjacent bony structures by the pull of muscles in the area causes:
osteitis pubis
results from a rupture of the flexor digitorum profundus tendon:
jersey finger
an athlete complains of burning and tingling or paresthesia to the fourth and fifth fingers, which may indicate damage to this structure:
ulnar nerve
the greatest number of upper humeral fractures occurs at:
surgical neck
the scapula fossa that articulates with the humerus is deepened by an additional structure called the:
glenoid labrum
contusions to the distal end of the clavicle are called:
shoulder pointers
trauma to the helix fossa, or concha of the ear, that results in tearing of the overlying tissue from the cartilaginous plate and results in fluid accumulation is commonly referred to as:
auricular hematoma (cauliflower ear)
bright red frothy blood being vomited may indicate injury to which structure:
winging of only one scapula indicates an injury to this nerve:
long thoracic nerve
Valgus stress testing of the elbow stresses the lateral collateral ligament of the elbow
If an athlete complains of burning and tingling or paresthesia to the fourth and fifth fingers, what structure may be damaged?
Ulnar Nerve
With the elbow flexed at 45 degrees, the athlete flexes and extends the wrist as far as possible. We are testing for:
Capsular Pain
Using a tennis racket with an inappropriate grip size can cause added stress to be placed on the elbow
If resistance is applied to an athlete’s extended wrist with the elbow flexed at a 45-degree angle, the athletic trainer is testing for:
Lateral Epicondylitis
The ligament that stabilizes and encircles the head of the radius is the:
Annular Ligament
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