question

If nominal GDP is $600 billion and, on the average, each dollar is spent three times per year, then the amount of money demanded for transactions purposes will be:

answer

$200 billion.

question

It is costly to hold money because:

answer

in doing so, one sacrifices interest income.

question

An increase in nominal GDP increases the demand for money because:

answer

more money is needed to finance a larger volume of transactions.

question

The opportunity cost of holding money:

answer

varies directly with the interest rate.

question

If the quantity of money demanded exceeds the quantity supplied:

answer

the interest rate will rise.

question

Answer the question on the basis of the following information for a bond having no expiration date: bond price = $1,000; bond fixed annual interest payment = $100; bond annual interest rate = 10 percent. Refer to the given information. If the price of this bond falls by $200, the interest rate will:

answer

rise by 2.5 percentage points.

question

Answer the question on the basis of the following information for a bond having no expiration date: bond price = $1,000; bond fixed annual interest payment = $100; bond annual interest rate = 10 percent. Refer to the given information. If the price of this bond increases to $1,250, the interest rate will:

answer

fall to 8 percent.

question

Which of the following statements is correct?

answer

Interest rates and bond prices vary inversely.

question

Which of the following is an asset on the consolidated balance sheet of the Federal Reserve Banks?

answer

Loans to commercial banks.

question

Reserves must be deposited in the Federal Reserve Banks by:

answer

all depository institutions, that is, all commercial banks and thrift institutions.

question

The securities held as assets by the Federal Reserve Banks consist mainly of:

answer

Treasury bills, Treasury notes, and Treasury bonds.

question

Federal Reserve Notes in circulation are:

answer

a liability as viewed by the Federal Reserve Banks.

question

When a commercial bank borrows from a Federal Reserve Bank:

answer

the commercial bank's lending ability is increased.

question

The Federal Reserve Banks sell government securities to the public. As a result, the checkable deposits:

answer

and reserves of commercial banks both decrease.

question

The Federal Reserve Banks buy government securities from commercial banks. As a result, the checkable deposits:

answer

of commercial banks are unchanged, but their reserves increase.

question

The commercial banking system borrows from the Federal Reserve Banks. As a result, the checkable deposits:

answer

of commercial banks are unchanged, but their reserves increase.

question

In the United States, monetary policy is the responsibility of the:

answer

Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.

question

The four main tools of monetary policy are:

answer

the discount rate, the reserve ratio, interest on reserves, and open-market operations.

question

Open-market operations refer to:

answer

the purchase or sale of government securities by the Fed.

question

The purchase of government securities from the public by the Fed will cause:

answer

the money supply to increase.

question

Suppose the Federal Reserve Banks sell $2 billion of government bonds to the public, which pays for them by drawing checks. As a result, commercial bank reserves will:

answer

decrease by $2 billion.

question

The Federal Reserve System regulates the money supply primarily by:

answer

altering the reserves of commercial banks, largely through sales and purchases of government bonds.

question

Which of the following is correct? When the Federal Reserve buys government securities from the public, the money supply:

answer

expands and commercial bank reserves increase.

question

Open-market operations change:

answer

commercial bank reserves but not the size of the monetary multiplier.

question

An increase in the legal reserve ratio:

answer

decreases the money supply by decreasing excess reserves and decreasing the monetary multiplier.

question

Assume that the commercial banking system has checkable deposits of $10 billion and excess reserves of $1 billion at a time when the reserve requirement is 20 percent. If the reserve requirement is now raised to 30 percent, the banking system then has:

answer

neither an excess nor a deficiency of reserves.

question

When the required reserve ratio is decreased, the excess reserves of member banks are:

answer

increased and the multiple by which the commercial banking system can lend is increased.

question

A decrease in the reserve ratio increases the:

answer

amount of excess reserves in the banking system.

question

Which of the monetary policy tools can alter both the level of excess reserves and the money multiplier?

answer

The reserve ratio.

question

The interest rate at which the Federal Reserve Banks lend to commercial banks is called the:

answer

discount rate.

question

Which of the following tools of monetary policy is considered the most important on a day-to-day basis?

answer

Open-market operations.

question

Which of the following tools of monetary policy is flexible and able to affect bank reserves quickly and by relatively specific amounts?

answer

Open-market operations.

question

Which of the following tools of monetary policy has not been used since 1992?

answer

The reserve ratio.

question

Which of the following monetary policy tools was introduced in 2008?

answer

Interest on reserves held at the Fed.

question

Interest paid on reserves held at the Fed:

answer

incentivizes financial institutions to hold more reserves and reduce risky lending.

question

Beginning in 2008, the Fed was allowed to:

answer

pay interest on reserves deposited at Fed banks.

question

Which of the following actions by the Fed most likely increase commercial bank lending?

answer

Reducing the interest paid on reserves held at the Fed.

question

The interest rate that banks charge one another on overnight loans is called the:

answer

federal funds rate.

question

Which of the following statements is true?

answer

The Federal Reserve does not set the federal funds rate, but it influences it through the use of its open-market operations.

question

A federal funds rate reduction that is caused by monetary policy will:

answer

decrease the prime interest rate.

question

To reduce the federal funds rate, the Fed can:

answer

buy government bonds from the public.

question

To increase the federal funds rate, the Fed can:

answer

sell government bonds to commercial banks.

question

If the Fed wants to lower the federal funds rate, it should:

answer

buy government securities in the open market.

question

Other things equal, which of the following would increase the federal funds rate?

answer

A decline in excess reserves in the banking system.

question

The benchmark interest rate that banks use as a reference point for a variety of consumer and business loans is the:

answer

prime interest rate.

question

According to the Taylor rule:

answer

if inflation rises by 1 percentage point above its target, then the Fed should raise the real federal funds rate by one-half a percentage point.

question

If the Fed were to set policy according to the Taylor rule, then if real GDP falls by 2 percent below potential GDP, the Fed should:

answer

reduce the real federal funds rate by 1 percentage point.

question

Which of the following best describes the cause-effect chain of an expansionary monetary policy?

answer

An increase in the money supply will lower the interest rate, increase investment spending, and increase aggregate demand and GDP.

question

If the Federal Reserve authorities were attempting to reduce demand-pull inflation, the proper policies would be to:

answer

sell government securities, raise reserve requirements, raise the discount rate, and increase the interest paid on reserves held at the Fed banks.

question

A contraction of the money supply:

answer

increases the interest rate and decreases aggregate demand.

question

Monetary policy is expected to have its greatest impact on:

answer

Ig.

question

Which of the following actions by the Fed would cause the money supply to increase?

answer

Purchases of government bonds from banks.

question

Which of the following best describes the cause-effect chain of a restrictive monetary policy?

answer

A decrease in the money supply will raise the interest rate, decrease investment spending, and decrease aggregate demand and GDP.

question

The purpose of an expansionary monetary policy is to shift the:

answer

aggregate demand curve rightward.

question

All else equal, when the Federal Reserve Banks engage in a restrictive monetary policy, the prices of government bonds usually:

answer

fall.

question

All else equal, when the Federal Reserve Banks engage in an expansionary monetary policy, the interest rates received on government bonds usually:

answer

fall.

question

The price of government bonds and the interest rate received by a bond buyer are:

answer

inversely related.

question

A restrictive monetary policy is designed to shift the:

answer

aggregate demand curve leftward.

question

As part of its zero interest rate policy (ZIRP), the Federal Reserve:

answer

used open-market operations to keep the federal funds rate between zero and 0.25 percent.

question

Which of the following is a difference between "quantitative easing" and ordinary open-market operations?

answer

Open-market operations are done in order to lower interest rates; quantitative easing is merely intended to increase bank reserves.

question

In terms of aggregate supply, a period in which nominal wages and other resource prices are unresponsive to price-level changes is called the:

answer

short run.

question

In terms of aggregate supply, a period in which nominal wages and other resource prices are fully responsive to price-level changes is called the:

answer

long run.

question

In the extended analysis of aggregate supply, the short-run aggregate supply curve is:

answer

upsloping and the long-run aggregate supply curve is vertical.

question

In terms of aggregate supply, the short run is a period in which:

answer

nominal wages and other resource prices are unresponsive to price-level changes.

question

In terms of aggregate supply, the difference between the long run and the short run is that in the long run:

answer

nominal wages and other input prices are fully responsive to price-level changes.

question

The long-run aggregate supply curve is vertical:

answer

because resource prices eventually rise and fall with product prices.

question

Other things equal, a decrease in the price level will:

answer

cause a movement down an aggregate supply curve.

question

Refer to the diagram. Assume that nominal wages initially are set on the basis of the price level P2 and that the economy initially is operating at its full-employment level of output Qf. In terms of this diagram, the long-run aggregate supply curve:

answer

is a vertical line extending from Qf upward through e, b, and d.

question

Other things equal, the short-run aggregate supply curve shifts positions when:

answer

nominal wages and other input prices change.

question

Refer to the diagram relating to short-run and long-run aggregate supply. The:

answer

short-run aggregate supply curve is B.

question

Refer to the diagram. The long-run aggregate supply curve is:

answer

A.

question

Refer to the diagram. If drawn, the long-run aggregate supply curve would include points:

answer

y, w, and u.

question

Which of the following is a true statement? A. Under normal conditions, there is a short-run trade-off between inflation and unemployment. B. There is a long-run trade-off between inflation and unemployment. C. The short-run Phillips Curve is vertical. D. The long-run Phillips Curve is horizontal.

answer

A. Under normal conditions, there is a short-run trade-off between inflation and unemployment.

question

Which of the following is a true statement? A. There is a long-run trade-off between inflation and unemployment. B. There is no trade-off between inflation and unemployment in the long run. C. The short-run Phillips Curve is horizontal. D. The long-run Phillips Curve is horizontal.

answer

B. There is no trade-off between inflation and unemployment in the long run.

question

Which of the following is a true statement? A. There is a long-run trade-off between inflation and unemployment. B. There is no trade-off between inflation and unemployment in the short-run. C. The short-run Phillips Curve is horizontal. D. The long-run Phillips Curve is vertical.

answer

D. The long-run Phillips Curve is vertical.

question

In the last half of the 1990s, the usual short-run trade-off between inflation and unemployment did not arise because:

answer

productivity (and thus aggregate supply) grew faster than previously.

question

Suppose that the Consumer Price Index for a particular economy rose from 110 to 120 in year 1, 120 to 130 in year 2, and 130 to 140 in year 3. We could conclude that this economy is experiencing:

answer

disinflation.

question

Disinflation occurs when:

answer

the inflation rate is declining.

question

As distinct from reductions in the price level, reductions in the rate of inflation are referred to as:

answer

disinflation.

question

When the actual rate of inflation is less than the expected rate:

answer

the unemployment rate will temporarily rise.

question

When the actual rate of inflation exceeds the expected rate:

answer

firms will experience rising profits and thus increase their employment.

question

The diagram is the basis for explaining:

answer

the long-run Phillips Curve.

question

Refer to the diagram. The natural rate of unemployment for this economy is:

answer

5 percent.

question

Refer to the diagram and assume the economy is initially at point b1. Which of the following movements is consistent with the traditional Phillips Curve?

answer

The movement from b1 to c1.

question

Refer to the diagram and assume the economy is initially at point b1. Point c1 represents:

answer

an unstable situation because nominal wage rates will increase.

question

Refer to the diagram and assume the economy is initially at point b1. The long-run relationship between the unemployment rate and the rate of inflation is represented by:

answer

the line through b1, b2, b3, and b4.

question

Government can push the unemployment rate below the natural rate only by:

answer

producing a higher rate of inflation than people expect.

question

In the long run:

answer

there is no inflation-unemployment trade-off.

question

In the diagram:

answer

any rate of inflation is consistent with the natural rate of unemployment in the long run.

question

Refer to the diagram. Point b on short-run Phillips Curve PC1 represents a rate of:

answer

unemployment below the natural rate.

question

Refer to the diagram. Point b would be explained by:

answer

an actual rate of inflation that exceeds the expected rate.

question

Refer to the diagram. The move of the economy from c to e on short-run Phillips Curve PC2 would be explained by an:

answer

actual rate of inflation that is less than the expected rate.

question

The Laffer Curve is a central concept in:

answer

supply-side economics.

question

The given curve is known as the:

answer

Laffer Curve.

question

Refer to the diagram. Supply-side economists believe that tax rates are typically:

answer

at some level above b.

question

Refer to the diagram. The general agreement of most economists is that the U.S. economy today is:

answer

at some level below b.

question

Supply-side economist Arthur Laffer has argued that:

answer

large reductions in personal and corporate income taxes will increase aggregate supply much more than aggregate demand.

question

A basic criticism of supply-side economics is that:

answer

lower taxes will increase aggregate demand much more than they will increase aggregate supply.

question

Critics of supply-side economics:

answer

contend that the relationship between tax rates and economic incentives is small and of uncertain direction.

question

Refer to the table. If the current tax rate is 60 percent, supply-side economists would advocate:

answer

lowering tax rates to 40 percent.

question

In 1993 the federal government boosted income tax rates. The change in tax revenue that occurred in the seven years that followed:

answer

contradicted the claims of supply-side economists and the Laffer Curve.

question

(Consider This) The ideas of economist Arthur Laffer became the centerpiece for tax policy during the:

answer

Reagan administration.

question

(Consider This) Economist Arthur Laffer equated Robin Hood to:

answer

government and equated the people passing through Sherwood Forest to taxpayers.

question

(Last Word) According to the research of Christina Romer and David Romer:

answer

a tax increase of 1 percent of GDP lowers real GDP by roughly 2 to 3 percent.

question

The United States' most important trading partner quantitatively is:

answer

Canada.

question

In recent years, the United States has:

answer

exported more services abroad than it has imported.

question

In terms of absolute dollar volume, the top 3 leaders in world exports are:

answer

China, Germany, and the United States.

question

Which of the following is an example of a land-intensive commodity?

answer

Wool.

question

Which of the following is an example of a labor-intensive commodity?

answer

Digital Cameras.

question

Which of the following is an example of a capital-intensive commodity?

answer

Chemicals.

question

Differences in production efficiencies among nations in producing a particular good result from:

answer

different endowments of fertile soil; different amounts of skilled labor; different levels of technological knowledge.

question

Countries engaged in international trade specialize in production based on:

answer

comparative advantage.

question

In order for mutually beneficial trade to occur between two otherwise isolated nations:

answer

each nation must be able to produce at least one good relatively cheaper than the other.

question

If country A can produce both goods X and Y more efficiently, that is, with smaller absolute amounts of resources, than can country B:

answer

mutually advantageous specialization and trade between A and B may still be possible.

question

The terms of trade reflect the:

answer

ratio at which nations will exchange two goods.

question

In the theory of comparative advantage, a good should be produced in that nation where:

answer

its cost is least in terms of alternative goods that might otherwise be produced.

question

Refer to the diagrams. The solid lines are production possibilities curves; the dashed lines are trading possibilities curves. The opportunity cost of producing a:

answer

beer in West Lothian is ½ pizza.

question

Refer to the diagrams. The solid lines are production possibilities curves; the dashed lines are trading possibilities curves. The trading possibilities curves suggest that the terms of trade are:

answer

1 beer for 1.5 pizzas.

question

The fact that international specialization and trade based on comparative advantage can increase world output is demonstrated by the reality that:

answer

a nation's trading possibilities line lies to the right of its production possibilities line.

question

Answer the question on the basis of the following information about the cost ratios for two products—fish (F) and chicken (C)—in countries Singsong and Harmony. Assume that production occurs under conditions of constant costs and these are the only two nations in the world. Singsong: 1F = 2C Harmony: 1F = 4C Refer to the given information. In Singsong the domestic real cost of each chicken:

answer

is ½ fish.

question

The primary gain from international trade is:

answer

more goods than would be attainable through domestic production alone.

question

If a nation has a comparative advantage in the production of X, this means the nation:

answer

must give up less of other goods than other nations in producing a unit of X.

question

Refer to the graphs. Stanville has a comparative advantage in producing:

answer

product B.

question

Refer to the graphs. These production possibilities curves:

answer

demonstrate that there can be gains from specialization and trade between the two nations.

question

Answer the question on the basis of the following production possibilities data for two countries, Alpha and Beta, which have populations of equal size. The given data show that:

answer

Beta is more efficient than Alpha both in catching fish and in producing chips.

question

Refer to the given diagram in which line AB is the U.S. production possibilities curve and AC is its trading possibilities curve. We can conclude that the United States:

answer

has chosen to specialize in the production of cheese.

question

Refer to the given diagram in which line AB is the U.S. production possibilities curve and AC is its trading possibilities curve. The international exchange ratio between beef and cheese (terms of trade):

answer

is the absolute value of the slope of line AC.

question

A nation's import demand curve for a specific product:

answer

shows the amount of the product it will import at prices below its domestic price.

question

A nation will neither export nor import a specific product when its:

answer

domestic price equals the world price.

question

Export supply curves are __________________; import demand curves are ___________________.

answer

upsloping; downsloping

question

In a two-nation model, the equilibrium world price will occur where:

answer

one nation's export supply curve intersects the other nation's import demand curve.

question

Tariffs:

answer

may be imposed either to raise revenue (revenue tariffs) or to shield domestic producers from foreign competition (protective tariffs).

question

An excise tax on an imported good that is not produced domestically is called a:

answer

revenue tariff.

question

Excise taxes on imported goods that help shield domestic producers of the good are called:

answer

protective tariffs.

question

Country A limits other nation's exports to Country A to 1,000 tons of coal annually. This is an example of a(n):

answer

import quota.

question

Which is an example of a nontariff barrier (NTB)?

answer

Box-by-box inspection requirements for imported fruit.

question

In the past, Canada has agreed to set an upper limit on the total amount of softwood lumber sold to the United States. This is an example of a(n):

answer

voluntary export restriction.

question

In comparing a tariff and an import quota, we find that:

answer

the tariff generates revenue for the U.S. Treasury, but the quota does not.

question

Other things equal, economists would prefer:

answer

free trade to tariffs and tariffs to import quotas.

question

Studies show that:

answer

costs of trade barriers exceed their benefits, creating an efficiency loss for society.

question

Research studies indicate that:

answer

U.S. consumers lose more from tariffs than U.S. producers gain.

question

Which of the following arguments for trade protection contends that new domestic industries need support to establish themselves and survive?

answer

The infant industry argument.

question

Which of the following arguments contends that certain industries need to be protected in the interest of national security?

answer

The military self-sufficiency argument.

question

The organization created to oversee the provisions of multilateral trade agreements, resolve disputes under the international trade rules, and meet periodically to consider further trade liberalization is called the:

answer

World Trade Organization (WTO).

question

The "eurozone":

answer

is the subset of the EU that uses a common currency.

question

How many European nations belong to the European Union (EU)?

answer

28.

question

Which of the following statements about the European Union (EU) is true?

answer

The EU has abolished most trade barriers among participating countries, and has common tariffs applied to non-EU goods.

question

NAFTA:

answer

has reduced most trade barriers between Canada, Mexico, and the United States.

question

"Offshoring" refers to:

answer

shifting work overseas that was previously done domestically.

question

Money functions as:

answer

a store of value; a unit of account; a medium of exchange.

question

A $70 price tag on a sweater in a department store window is an example of money functioning as a:

answer

unit of account.

question

Stock market price quotations best exemplify money serving as a:

answer

unit of account.

question

Purchasing common stock by writing a check best exemplifies money serving as a:

answer

medium of exchange.

question

The paper money used in the United States is:

answer

Federal Reserve Notes.

question

In the United States, the money supply (M1) is comprised of:

answer

coins, paper currency, and checkable deposits.

question

Currency held in the vault of First National Bank is:

answer

not counted as part of the money supply.

question

Checkable deposits are classified as money because:

answer

they can be readily used in purchasing goods and paying debts.

question

To say that coins are "token money" means that:

answer

their face value is greater than their intrinsic value.

question

Which of the following is not part of the M2 money supply?

answer

Large-denominated time deposits.

question

A checking account entry is money because it:

answer

performs the functions of money.

question

Currency in circulation is part of:

answer

both M1 and M2.

question

Checkable deposits are:

answer

included in M1.

question

Paper money (currency) in the United States is issued by the:

answer

Federal Reserve Banks.

question

Coins in people's pockets and purses are:

answer

included both in M1 and in M2.

question

Coins held in commercial banks are:

answer

not part of the nation's money supply.

question

Checkable deposits include:

answer

the deposits of banks and thrifts on which checks can be written.

question

The difference between M1 and M2 is that:

answer

the latter includes small-denominated time deposits, non-checkable savings accounts, money market deposit accounts, and money market mutual fund balances.

question

"Near-monies" are included in:

answer

M2 only.

question

Small-denominated time deposits, by definition:

answer

are less than $100,000.

question

Near-monies:

answer

are certain highly liquid financial assets that do not function directly as a medium of exchange but can be readily converted into M1.

question

Answer the question on the basis of the following list of assets: 1. Large-denominated ($100,000 and over) time deposits 2. Noncheckable savings deposits 3. Currency (coins and paper money) in circulation 4. Small-denominated (under $100,000) time deposits 5. Stock certificates 6. Checkable deposits 7. Money market deposit accounts 8. Money market mutual fund balances held by individuals 9. Money market mutual fund balances held by businesses 10. Currency held in bank vaults Refer to the given list. The M1 definition of money comprises item(s):

answer

3 and 6.

question

Answer the question on the basis of the following list of assets: 1. Large-denominated ($100,000 and over) time deposits 2. Noncheckable savings deposits 3. Currency (coins and paper money) in circulation 4. Small-denominated (under $100,000) time deposits 5. Stock certificates 6. Checkable deposits 7. Money market deposit accounts 8. Money market mutual fund balances held by individuals 9. Money market mutual fund balances held by businesses 10. Currency held in bank vaults Refer to the given list. The M2 definition of money comprises:

answer

Items 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, and 8.

question

Time deposits of $100,000 or more are:

answer

not a component of M1 or M2.

question

Currency held within banks is part of: A. both the M1 and M2 definitions of the money supply. B. the M2 definition of the money supply only. C. the M1 definition of the money supply only. D. none of these definitions of the money supply.

answer

D. none of these definitions of the money supply.

question

The money supply is backed:

answer

by the government's ability to control the supply of money and therefore to keep its value relatively stable.

question

The purchasing power of money and the price level vary:

answer

inversely.

question

If the price index rises from 100 to 120, the purchasing power value of the dollar:

answer

will fall by one-sixth.

question

The purchasing power of the dollar:

answer

is the reciprocal of the price level.

question

During periods of rapid inflation, money may cease to work as a medium of exchange:

answer

because people and businesses will not want to accept it in transactions.

question

Other things equal, an excessive increase in the money supply will:

answer

decrease the purchasing power of each dollar.

question

If P equals the price level expressed as an index number and $V equals the value of the dollar, then:

answer

$V = 1/P.

question

Answer the question on the basis of the following table: Refer to the table. The value of the dollar in year 2 is:

answer

$0.80.

question

The central authority of the U.S. banking system is the:

answer

Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve.

question

In the U.S. economy, the money supply is controlled by the:

answer

Federal Reserve System.

question

The Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC) is made up of:

answer

the seven members of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System along with the president of the New York Federal Reserve Bank and four other Federal Reserve Bank presidents on a rotating basis.

question

Which one of the following is true about the U.S. Federal Reserve System?

answer

There are 12 regional Federal Reserve Banks.

question

The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve has ____ members.

answer

7

question

The members of the Federal Reserve Board:

answer

are appointed for 14-year terms.

question

Which of the following statements best describes the 12 Federal Reserve Banks?

answer

They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic goal is to control the money supply and interest rates in promoting the general economic welfare.

question

The seven members of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System are:

answer

appointed by the president with the confirmation of the Senate.

question

The Federal Reserve System:

answer

is basically an independent agency.

question

Research for industrially advanced countries indicates that:

answer

the more independent the central bank, the lower the average annual rate of inflation.

question

"Subprime mortgage loans" refer to:

answer

high-interest-rate loans to home buyers with above-average credit risk.

question

What are "mortgage-backed securities"?

answer

Bonds backed by mortgage payments.

question

In the financial industry, "securitization" refers to:

answer

bundling groups of loans, bonds, mortgages, and other financial debts into new securities.

question

What does it mean when economists say that home buyers are "underwater" on their mortgages?

answer

Buyers owe more on their mortgage than the properties are worth.

question

New York Life, Prudential, and Hartford are all primarily:

answer

insurance companies.

question

Wells Fargo, J.P. Morgan Chase, and Citibank are all primarily:

answer

commercial banks.

question

Smith Barney, Charles Schwab, and Merrill Lynch are all primarily:

answer

securities firms.

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