Vet Anatomy & Physiology final – Flashcards
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Species terminology: canine- feline- equine- bovine- caprine- murine-
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dog cat horse cattle goats mice & rats
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Dorsal vs Ventral
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dorsal- above the dorsal plane ventral- below the dorsal plane
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Cranial vs Caudal
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cranial- toward the head caudal- toward the rear end/tail
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Proximal vs Distal
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proximal- closer to the body distal- further from the body
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Medial vs Lateral
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medial- toward the middle lateral- away from the middle
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Palmar vs Plantar
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palmar- underside of the front feet plantar- underside of the back feet
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Rostral vs Caudal
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rostral- toward the tip of the nose caudal- away from the nose
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Mesial vs Distal
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mesial- front side distal- back side
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Buccal vs Lingual
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buccal- cheek side lingual- tongue side
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Occlusal
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biting surface
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Flexion vs Extension
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flexion- bending of the limb of joint extention- straightening of the limb or joint
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Adduction vs Abduction
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adduction- moving leg back to standing position abduction- moving leg out sideways
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4 types of tissue
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epithelial connective muscle nervous
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6 types of connective tissue
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blood loose (areolar) adipose (fatty) dense (fibrous) cartilage bone (osseus)
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stuctures that make up integumentary system
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skin hair nails exocrine glands
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most integumentary structures are made of
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epithelial tissue ????
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what are claws, horns, hooves, scales, and foot pads made of
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keratin
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what is the hard outer layer of a horse's hoof called
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sole
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what is the growth plate of the hoof
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coronary band
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Exocrine glands vs Endocrine glands
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exocrine- secrete externally endocrine- secrete internally
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Sebaceous vs Sweat glands
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sebaceous- secretes oil lubricating skin and hair sweat gland- secretes sweat from dermis and epidermis
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lacrimal gland
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eye glad that secretes aqueous layer of tear film
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polled animal
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livestock without horns in species which are normally horned
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SQ vs ID injection
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SQ- given in hypodermis ID- given in dermis
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layers of the skin
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dermis epidermis
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which layer of skin has blood vessels
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dermis
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what are mucous membranes (MM)
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specialized form of epithelial tissue that secrete mucus
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where are MM found
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respiratory system mouth nasal passages eyelids stomach intestines anus vulva
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root word for joint
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Arthr-
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synovial joint
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free moving
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types of synovial joint
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gliding hinge pivot ball-and-socket saddle condyloid compound
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common name for stifle
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knee
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common name for coxofemoral
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hip
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common name for scapulohumeral
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shoulder
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common name for femorotibial
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leg
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common name for humeroradialulnar
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elbow
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antebrachium
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forearm
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what bones make up the antebrachium
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radius ulna
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bones and major joints of the thoracic limb (proximal to distal)
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scapulohumeral humeroradialulnar carpals metacarpals phalanges
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bones and major joints of the pelvic limb (proximal to distal)
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coxofemoral stifle tibia fibula hock tarsals metatarsals phalanges
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groups and numbers of each vertebral region (cranial to caudal)
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cervical 7 thoracic 13 lumbar 7 secral 3 coccygeal 20-23
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Tendon vs Ligament
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tendon- connects muscle to bone ligament- connects bone to bone
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term for an area where the last vertebra region meets with the first vertebra of another region
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junction
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compare and contrast the manubrium and the xiphoid process
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manubruium- landmark for sternum. cranial protection xyphoid process- landmark for sternum. caudal protection
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describe the following bone landmarks as projection or depression, articular or non-articular fossa foramen spine
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fossa- depression/articular foramen- depression/ non-articular spine- projection/articular
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compare and contrast 3 types of tissue
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skeletal- voluntary muscle under conscious control smooth- non-striated involuntary muscle cardiac- involuntary striated muscle only found in the heart
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which muscles are used fr IM injections in dogs and cats
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lumbodorsal hamstring
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what muscles are involved in inspiration
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diaphragm external intercostal muscles
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what is a sphincter
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muscular ring that controls movement
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what type of contraction does smooth muscles perform
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peristalsis of digestive tract labor/birthing
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function of the triceps
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extended the front leg by increasing the angle of the elbow joint
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function of the biceps
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fixes front leg by decreasing the angle of the elbow joint
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function of the digital flexors
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flex the toes of front/rear paws by reducing angle of the interphalangeal joints
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function of the pectorals
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group of muscles in chest area that adduct the shoulder joint to pull entire foreleg toward the mid-line of the body
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which part of the digestive system is responsible for the absorption of water and electrolytes
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large intestine/colon
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what is a cloaca
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common passage for fecal, urinary and reproductive systems
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what species has a cloaca
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avian some reptiles
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what is a ruminant
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stomach + 3 accessory compartments
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what animals are ruminants
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cow goat sheep
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what is a non-herbivore
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simple stomach
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what animals are non-herbivores
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horse rabbit
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which animal have the most molars
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bovine sheep goat horse pig rabbit chinchilla gerbil hamster rat/mouse guinea pigs
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example for dietary classification carnivore
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cats
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example for dietary classification omnivore
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pigs
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example for dietary classification ruminant herbivore
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cow goat sheep
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example for dietary classification non-ruminant herbivore
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horse rabbit
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beginning with the nares (nostrils), put the structures of the respiratory tract in order of the path of airflow on inhalation
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upper-nostrils, nasal passages, pharynx, larynx and trachea lower-bronchi, lungs, bronchioles, alveolar ducts and alveoli
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where does external respiration take place
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in the lungs exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between inhaled air and blood in capillaries
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what is the epiglottis
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a flap of cartilage that closes off of the larynx during swallowing
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what is the function of the epiglottis
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to avoid choking on food or liquids
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what is the pharynx
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common passageway for both digestive and respiratory system (throat)
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what regions make up the pharynx
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nasopharynx oropharynx laryngopharynx
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what is the diaphragm
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the primary muscle
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where is the diaphragm located and what does it do
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located below the thoracic cavity separating the thorax from the abdomen contracts and flattens air volume within the thoracic cavity
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where is the thyroid gland located
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on either side of the larynx
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where is the pituitary gland located
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ventral side of the hypothalamus
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what does the pituitary gland do
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controls all other endocrine glands; influences growth, metabolism, and regeneration also known as the master gland secreting 7 different hormones.
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what is hyothyroidism
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under production of thyroid hormone
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what are signs of hypothyroidism in dogs
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weight gain loss of energy hair loss
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what hormones are produced and secreted from the adrenal gland
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glucocorticoids (3) mineralocorticoids sex hormones
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what does progesterone do
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maintains pregnancy
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what is oxytocin
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hormone that triggers contractions during conception and parturition
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where is oxytocin made
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in the hypothalamus
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what mineral is required by the thyroid gland
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iodine
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what does the antidiuretic hormone do
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prevents diuresis
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what is uniparous
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animals that normally only give birth to one offspring per pregnancy horses, cows
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what is multiparous
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animals that give birth to multiple offspring (litters) cats, dogs, goats
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what part of the uterus does the mare carry her foal
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carry their developing fetuses in the uterine body
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what part of the uterus does the queen carry
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have large uterine horns to carry multiple developing fetuses
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what is the clinical term for spay procedure
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ovariohuysterectomy
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what is the clinical term for castration
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orchiectomy
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what is a seasonally polyestrous animal
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cycle continuously year round. as soon as heat ends the next one begins
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what is a cervix
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muscular valve that seals off the uterus from the vagina and the outside
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where is the cervix
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in the abdomen separating the uterus and the vagina
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what is the prepuce
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sheath of skin that encloses the penis
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gestation period of a bitch (dog)
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60-65 days (2 mo)
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gestation period of a queen (cat)
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60-65 days (2 mo)
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gestation period of a cow
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265-280 days (9 mo)
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gestation period of a mare (horse)
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321-346 days (11 mo)
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gestation period of a doe rabbit
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29-35 days (1 mo)
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gestation period of a sow (pig)
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114 days (3 mo, 3 wk, 3 d)
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parturition term for a dog
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whelp
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parturition term for a cat
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queen
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parturition term for a cows
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calve
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parturition term for a horse
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foal
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what is the path of blood-flow through the heart
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Step 1 deoxygenated blood blood enters the right atrium from the cranial and caudal vana cava. Step 2 The blood flows through the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. Step 3 From the right ventricle, the blood flows through the pulmonic valve into the pulmonary artery. Step 4 The right and left pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood to the right and left lungs for gas exchange. Step 5 The blood releases carbon dioxide as waste and picks up a fresh supply of oxygen. Step 6 The oxygenated blood flows through fpur pulmonary veins from the lungs into the left atrium. Step 7 From the left atrium, the blood flows through the bicuspid, or mitral valve into the left ventricle. Step 8 Left ventricular contraction forces blood through the aortic valve into the aorta for distribution to the systemic circulation
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where is the most oxygenated blood found
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R ; L pulmonary veins
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where is the least oxygenated blood found
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R ; L pulmonary arteries
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which vein is located in the neck and is best for large volume blood draws
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jugular
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what is an artery
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carries blood away from the heart
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what is a vein
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carries blood toward the heart
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which vessel is the best for taking a dog or cat pulse
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femoral artery
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what is plasma
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the fluid portion of blood
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what is serum
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plasma without the clotting factors
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what is the root word for blood
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hemat-
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what is a leukocyte
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white blood cells (WBC)
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what are the other 2 types of cells in the blood
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thrombocytes- platelets erythrocytes- red blood cells
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what is the name for deficiency of WBC's
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leukopenia
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which blood vessel is preferred for the placement of an IV catheter in dogs and cats
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cephalic vein
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what is the name for a substance that is used to prevent blood from clotting
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heparin
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what is a heart murmur
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abnormal sounds during your heartbeat cycle, such as whooshing or swishing, made by turbulent blood in or near your heart
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what is phlebitis
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inflammation of the veins
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what is the primary function of the capillaries
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deliver oxygen and nutrients to the tissues
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function of the kidneys
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blood filtration, reabsorption, and secretion fluid balance regulation acid-base regulation hormone production
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how is blood pressure related to the kidneys
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drives filtration
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what is the primary function of the renal and urinary system
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production of urine maintaining homeostasis
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what is cystocentesis
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surgical procedure of puncturing the urinary bladder with a needle to remove fluid (urine). also know as a sterile collection
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what is the clinical term for inflammation of the lymph vessels
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lymphangitis
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what is the function of the lymph nodes
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to filter out bacteria and other toxins from the lymphatic fluid
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what is active immunity & give an example
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administration of pre-formed antibodies that were NOT developed by the animal's own immune system. Vaccination
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what is passive immunity ; give an example
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when an animal is naturally exposed to an antigen for the first time. Colostrum (mother's milk), antibodies passing thru placenta from mom to fetus
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what structure makes up the central nervous system
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brain and spinal cord
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what are meninges
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protective tissue surrounding the brain and spinal cord
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list structures of the eye from superficial to deep
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nictitating membrane (third eyelid) conjunctiva cornea sclera iris pupil lens vitreous gel retina macula fovea optic nerve
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what is glaucoma
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Increased intraocular pressure (high pressure inside the eye) due to fluid buildup that can lead to damage of the retina
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what is otitis externa
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inflammation of the outer ear
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what is otitis media
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inflammation of the middle ear
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what is otitis interna
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inflammation of the inner ear
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where does the vagus nerve run
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emerges from brain-stem, near carotid artery and jugular vein, thorax and ends in the lower abdomen
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what does the vagus nerve do
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motor nerve for swallowing and voice production
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what is the sciatic nerve
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largest nerve of the lumbosacral plexus
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where is the sciatic nerve
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begins in the lower back and runs through the buttock and down the middle of the hind leg
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what does the sciatic nerve control
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muscles of the back of the thigh, and those of the leg and foot
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what are cataracts
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condition of the eye that causes the clear lens to become opaque, can cause blindness, and can only be corrected with surgery
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what does the autonomic nervous system (ANS) control
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smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
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sympathetic nervous system (SNS)
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fight-or-flight system helps the body in emergency situations in which the animal might have to defend itself or escape
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parasympathetic nervous system (PNS)
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rest-and-restore system that helps the body relax as it restores the processes that were used up during the emergency situation
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what structures in the inner ear aid in equilibrium, balance and head position
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semicircular canals vestibule
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homeostasis
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process of maintaining a stable internal body environment
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micturition
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clinical term for urination
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hematuria
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blood in the urine
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urolithiasis
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formation of urinary bladder stones
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dystocia
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difficult birth
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cardiomyopathy
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disease of the heart muscle
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anemia
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abnormally low amount of red blood cells
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dysuria
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difficulty urinating
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anuria
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no urine
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pollakiuria
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frequent urination, typically in small amounts
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polyuria
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frequent urination, typically in large amounts
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vasodilation
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dilation or opening up of the blood vessels
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vasoconstriction
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constriction, tightening, or shrinking of the blood vessels
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bradycardia
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slow heart beat
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tachycardia
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fast heart beat
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bradypnea
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slow breathing
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tachypnea
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fast breathing
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dyspnea
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difficult breathing
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apnea
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no breathing
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what are the 3 types (shapes) of epithelial tissues
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squamous cubodial columnar
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pulls calcium from bones to blood
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parathyroid
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remodels and eat away bone
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osteoclasts
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smallest functional unit of compact bone
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osteon
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striated and involuntary muscle
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cardiac muscle
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ankle joint known as
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hock
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smallest functioning unit of kidney
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nephron
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3 parts of small intestine in order
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duodenum jejunum ilium
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what does the soft palate separate
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oropharynx and nasopharynx
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what does diaphragm do on exhale
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relax
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what are the 2 active cells
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humoral and cell mediated
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abdominal cavity is lined in double layered membrane
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peritoneum
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vaccines are what type of immunity
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active immunity
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Y shaped proteins recognize specific (antigens)
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antibodies
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what organ produces insulin
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pancreas
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WBC's most predominant type
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neutrophil
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what is increased pressure in eye
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glaucoma
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tympanic membrane
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ear drum
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lymph fluid filtered from digestive tract
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chyle
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ruminant stomach in order
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rumen reticulum omasum abomasum
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part of brain processes smell
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olfactory
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part of pituitary that does not produce hormone
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posterior pituitary
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least predominant wbc
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basophils
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white of eye
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sclera
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what animal has split hooves but is not ruminant
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pig
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where does internal respiration take place
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between blood and tissues all over body
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organ responsible for secretion of amylase and lipase
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pancreas
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animal incapable of vomiting
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rabbit, horse
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3rd phalanx in equine
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coffin bone
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where is antidiuretic produced
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hypothalamus
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the hormone responsible for red blood cell production in the kidneys
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erythropoietin
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what animals do not have salivary amylase
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carnivores
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spleen part of what organ system
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lymphatic system
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largest organ in the body
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skin
