Understanding Pathophysiology: Chapter 33 Alterations of Female Reproductive System – Flashcards

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question
An 18-year-old female is diagnosed with dysmenorrhea. Which of the following symptoms will she most likely experience?
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Painful menstruation. Primary dysmenorrhea is painful menstruation associated with the release of prostaglandins in ovulatory cycles. Absence of menstruation is referred to as amenorrhea. Dysfunctional bleeding would describe both unusually long and irregular menstrual periods.
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A 20-year-old female presents with pelvic and back pain severe enough to miss work beginning with the onset of menses. Physical examination supports the diagnosis of primary dysmenorrhea. The most likely cause of her condition is:
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Elevated prostaglandins. Primary dysmenorrhea is painful menstruation associated with the release of prostaglandins in ovulatory cycles; it is not associated with the lack of estrogen, stress, or poor nutrition.
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A 25-year-old female presents with amenorrhea and hirsutism and is diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). Lab testing will most likely reveal:
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hyperinsulinemia. Glucose intolerance/insulin resistance (IR) and hyperinsulinemia often run parallel and markedly aggravate the hyperandrogenic state, thus contributing to the severity of signs and symptoms of PCOS. Estrogen levels are elevated with PCOS. Cancer is not associated with the lab findings of PCOS. Cortisol levels are not elevated in PCOS.
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A 30-year-old female with newly diagnosed polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is being counseled by her OB-GYN. The physician indicates that this condition often results in:
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infertility. Because FSH levels are not totally depressed, new follicular growth is continuously stimulated, but not to full maturation and ovulation. Symptoms are related to anovulation and hyperandrogenism and include infertility. PCOS is not associated with ovarian cancer, early menopause, or pelvic inflammatory disease.
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Because FSH levels are not totally depressed, new follicular growth is continuously stimulated, but not to full maturation and ovulation. Symptoms are related to anovulation and hyperandrogenism and include infertility. PCOS is not associated with ovarian cancer, early menopause, or pelvic inflammatory disease.
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Candida albicans. The most common cause of yeast vaginitis is Candida albicans. Changes in the vaginal pH may predispose a woman to such an infection by destroying normal vaginal flora, facilitating overgrowth of Candida albicans and causing a yeast infection. E. coli does not cause yeast vaginitis nor does Lactobacillus acidophilus. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the cause of gonorrhea.
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The descent of the bladder and the anterior vaginal wall into the vaginal canal is called a:
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cystocele. A cystocele is the descent of the bladder into the vaginal canal. A rectocele is the bulging of the rectum and posterior vaginal wall into the vaginal canal. A varicocele is the abnormal dilation of a vein within the spermatic cord. A urethrocele is sagging of the urethra.
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The nurse would anticipate the treatment for pelvic organ prolapse to be:
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a pessary. A common first-line treatment is a pessary, which is a removable mechanical device that holds the uterus in position. The physiological problem would not be addressed with the insertion of a urinary catheter, ingestion of dietary fiber, or the administration of urinary antispasmodics.
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During a routine pelvic exam, a 34-year-old female is found to have an ovarian cyst containing skin, hair, cartilage, and bone. This cyst is classified as a _____ cyst.
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Dermoid. Dermoid cysts are growths that may contain mature tissue including skin, hair, sebaceous and sweat glands, muscle fibers, cartilage, and bone. Neither follicular, corpus luteal, nor micro cysts contain skin, hair, or bone.
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A 40-year-old female presents with cramping and excessive vaginal bleeding. Ultrasound reveals benign uterine tumors in the smooth muscle cells of the myometrium. These tumors are commonly called:
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leiomyomas. Leiomyomas are benign tumors that develop from smooth muscle cells in the myometrium. Adenomyosis is the presence of islands of endometrial glands surrounded by benign endometrial stroma within the uterine myometrium. Endometriosis is the presence of functioning endometrial tissue or implants outside the uterus. Adenomas are tumors that can grow anywhere, but are not specific to the myometrium.
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A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with endometriosis. Suppressing which of the following would be the most appropriate medical treatment for this disease?
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Ovulation. Medical therapies include suppression of ovulation with various medications. Endometriosis is not treated by suppressing prostaglandins, infections, or fertilization.
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A 21-year-old female is infected with human papillomavirus (HPV) following unprotected sexual intercourse with a male she recently met. She is now at higher risk of developing which of the following cancers?
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Cervical. HPV is associated with cervical cancer. HPV 16 accounts for about 60% of cervical cancer cases and HPV 18 for about another 10%; other types contribute less than 5% of cases. HPV is not associated with ovarian, endometrial, or vulvar cancers.
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HPV is associated with cervical cancer. HPV 16 accounts for about 60% of cervical cancer cases and HPV 18 for about another 10%; other types contribute less than 5% of cases. HPV is not associated with ovarian, endometrial, or vulvar cancers.
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Vaginal. Exposure in utero to nonsteroidal estrogens (DES) has been identified as a risk factor for vaginal cancer. DES exposure has not been associated with endometrial, cervical, or uterine cancers.
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The most commonly occurring cancer of the female reproductive tract is _____ cancer.
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Endometrial. Carcinoma of the endometrium is the most common type of uterine cancer and most prevalent gynecologic malignancy. Neither carcinoma of the cervix, the ovary, nor the fallopian tube is the most prevalent gynecologic malignancy.
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A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with ovarian cancer. CT scan reveals that the cancer is limited to the ovaries. It would be classified as stage:
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I. In stage I, growth is limited to the ovaries. In stage II, growth involves one or both ovaries and involvement of other organs. In stage III, cancer involves one or both ovaries, and one or both of the following: (i) cancer has spread beyond the pelvis to the lining of the abdomen and (ii) cancer has spread to lymph nodes. In stage IV, growth involves one or both ovaries with distant metastases to lungs, liver, or other organs outside the peritoneal cavity.
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A 35-year-old nonpregnant female presents with breast discharge and is diagnosed with galactorrhea. The condition is most likely caused by:
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prolactin imbalance. The most common cause of galactorrhea is nonpuerperal hyperprolactinemia, or excessive amounts of prolactin in the blood not related to pregnancy or childbirth. These processes are chiefly hormone imbalances caused by hypothalamic-pituitary disturbances, pituitary tumors, or neurologic damage. Galactorrhea is not due to infection, tissue injury, or cancer
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Which of the following signs is usually the first clinical manifestation of breast cancer?
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A painless lump
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Conditions that contribute to dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB) include: (select all that apply)
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apolycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). obesity. thyroid disease. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), obesity, and thyroid disease are common contributors to dysfunctional uterine bleeding. Hepatitis and excessive exercise are not.
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