Trans CompTIA 220-901 PRACTICE EXAM 1 – Flashcards

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question
You have determined that several computers on your company's network need to have the BIOS updated. Which of the following changes to your computer would MOST likely require that you flash a computer's BIOS afterward? A adding memory B upgrading CPU C replacing the system board D changing the boot sequence
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B upgrading CPU. Explanation: Most modern computers make use of a technology known as flash read-only memory (ROM) or flash basic input/output system (BIOS) that allows code in a computer's core chips (firmware) to be updated by software that is available through the BIOS manufacturer or system board manufacturer.
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Which statement is true for Advanced Technology Extended (ATX) motherboards? A. An ATX motherboard has a 12-pin power connector. B. The processor, memory, and expansion slots on an ATX motherboard are all in line with each other. C. An ATX motherboard can support a maximum of seven expansion slots. D. An ATX motherboard can support Extended Data Output (EDO) Random Access Memory (RAM).
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C. An ATX motherboard can support a maximum of seven expansion slots. Explanation: An Advanced Technology Extended (ATX) motherboard can support a maximum of seven expansion slots. ATX motherboards are generally an improvement over AT and baby AT motherboards and provide more space for expansion slots, such as Industry Standard Architecture (ISA), Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI), and Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) card slots. An ATX motherboard supports a 20-pin power connector. A 20-pin power connector consists of a single connector that can only be connected in one way to the motherboard. A 12-pin power connector is supported on AT and baby AT motherboards. A 12-pin power connector is a combination of two 6-pin power connectors where the P8 and P9 pins are together. Therefore, you must ensure that the black wires are adjacent to each other while connecting a 12-pin power connector to the motherboard. The ATX power supply standard was developed to provide a better way to plug the power supply into the motherboard.
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Identify the memory slot(s) on the motherboard. Click the Load button to open the interactive. Click to select the appropriate component. http://online.transcender.com/examimages/CompTIA/Cert-220-901/v02.00.00/inline_motherboard_label.jpg
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A B C D
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Which component detects both single-bit and multi-bit errors? A. parity bit B. ECC C. L1 cache D. L2 cache
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B ECC Explanation: Error correction code (ECC) detects both single-bit and multi-bit errors in RAM. ECC memory should be required for mission-critical applications. The motherboard in the computer must support ECC memory. Without memory controller support built into the motherboard, the ECC memory module is effectively the same as non-ECC memory. A parity bit can only detect single-bit errors. Parity memory is better than non-parity memory, but ECC memory is the best. L1 cache is cache memory built into the processor. L2 cache is cache memory located on a separate chip. L1 cache is much faster than L2 cache. Neither type of cache detects errors. CompTIA A+ Complete Review Guide, Chapter 1: Hardware, 1.3 Compare and Contrast Various RAM Types and Their Features, Types
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Which hardware component will require the least amount of time to replace? A motherboard B memory module C power supply unit D network interface card
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B memory module. Explanation: A memory module is inserted into the memory slot without investing substantial effort.
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A graphics designer asks you to ensure that her computer supports scalable link interface (SLI). What is the purpose of scalable link interface (SLI) technology? A It groups two or more network links together to increase performance. B It groups two video cards together to increase video performance. C It utilizes multiple serial connections to increase performance. D It provides scalability for motherboard serial connections.
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B It groups two video cards together to increase video performance.
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What is the name of the media of a hard drive where data is stored? A head actuator B disk platter C read/write heads D firmware
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B disk platter. write heads access data on a disk platter. The head actuator actually places the read-write head into position over the appropriate track on the surface of the disk platter. The disk platter stores the data. Firmware is a software program that stores the set of programming instructions in read-only memory to control disk drive functionality-
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For which type of device should you use the Safely Remove Hardware icon to stop the device's operation before removing it from the computer? A. CD-ROM drive B. hard drive C. DVD drive D. USB flash drive
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D USB flash drive. (You should use the Safely Remove Hardware icon to stop a USB flash drive before removing the drive from the computer. USB flash drives are hot-swappable. However, if you remove the drive from the computer without using the Safely Remove Hardware utility, you may interrupt the write operation. They may also be referred to as compact flash drives-)
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which media types could be used to transport a 1,100 MB file? (Choose two.) A CD B CD-RW C DVD+R D DDS-3
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C. DVD+R. D. DDS-3. (Explanation: The DVD+R and Digital Data Storage (DDS)-3 media types could be used to transport a 1,100 MB file. The DVD+R, DVD-R, DVD+RW, and DVD-RW media standards can store up to 4.7 GB on a single optical disk. Double-sided DVDs can store up to 9.4 GB. DVD media are the media type most used to duplicate bootable media. DVD-ROM is the DVD version of the standard CD format and allows up to 16 GB of data.)
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You have decided to enable overclocking to increase the performance of a computer. On which computer components can you specifically enable overclocking? (Choose all that apply.) A. motherboard. b. processor. C. system bus. D. RAM. E. hard drive.
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B. processor. C. system bus. (You can specifically overclock the processor and system bus. No other computer components can be overclocked. However, overclocking the system bus may also cause other components to be overclocked. Overclocking allows you to run the processor or system bus at a higher speed than the manufacturer's rating to gain increased performance.Overclocking cannot be specifically enabled on the motherboard, RAM, or hard drive-)
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You have a motherboard that includes an LGA 1155 CPU socket. Which CPU would NOT be supported with this motherboard? a. Core 2 Duo b. Core i7 c. Celeron e. Xeon
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a. Core 2 Duo. (Exb..planation: A motherboard that includes an LGA 1155 CPU socket will NOT support a Core 2 Duo CPU. An LGA 1155 CPU socket supports Core i3/i5/i7, Pentium, Celeron, and Xeon CPUs. Core 2 Duo CPUs will require an LGA 775 socket. LGA 775 sockets also support Pentium 4, Celeron, Pentium 4 Extreme Edition, Core 2 Quad, and Xeon processors.)
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Which of the following CPU sockets will NOT support an AMD Opteron CPU? a. F b. FM1 c. 940 d. AM2
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b. FM1
question
What is the primary purpose of an integrated GPU? processing gaming applications processing video and graphics providing additional memory providing video capture capability
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The primary purpose of an integrated Graphics Processing Unit (GPU) is processing video and graphics.None of the other statements describes the primary purpose of a GPU. A paging file provides additional memory capabilities. A video capture card provides video capture capability. Objective-Hardware
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Which architecture is used to build central processing unit (CPU) sockets? a. CHS b. PGA c. ATA d. EIDE
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b. PGA Explanation: Today, CPU sockets are built on the Pin Grid Array (PGA) and Land Grid Array (LGA) architecture. Such CPU sockets can easily be identified by their square shape and white color. A CPU PGA socket is displayed in the image: Cylinder-head-sector (CHS), also referred to as Cylinders/Heads/Sectors, refers to the way data is physically addressed on the hard disk drive. The Advanced Technology Attachment (ATA) interface is used to connect storage devices such as CD-ROM drives and hard disks. The Enhanced Integrated Device Electronics (EIDE) interface is used to connect storage devices.
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Which component can you connect to a Zero Insertion Force (ZIF) socket? a. central processing unit (CPU) B. Single inline memory module (SIMM) C. dynamic random access memory (DRAM) D. electrically erasable programmable read only memory (EEPROM)
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Explanation: A ZIF socket holds a Central Processing Unit (CPU) in place on a system board and connects it to a computer's expansion bus. The ZIF socket design includes a lever for easy insertion. To install a CPU, users need only open the lever, insert the CPU, and then close the lever to secure the CPU's connection to a system board. The ZIF interface itself has evolved through several variations, each with different pin layouts. Intel's 486 CPU chips and early Pentium microprocessors are compatible with ZIF sockets. With a Pentium II processor, Intel changed to a new connection configuration called Slot 1. Single inline memory module (SIMM) holds several RAM chips on a circuit board for connection to a computer's system board. Dynamic random access memory (DRAM) is a type of RAM module that is used commonly on computer system boards today. Electrically erasable programmable read only memory (EEPROM) is a type of read-only memory (ROM) chip whose contents can be erased and re-programmed.
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Which technology allows a central processing unit (CPU) to execute two separate instructions concurrently? Network Access Protection (NAP) Hyperthreading Hyper-V Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA) E
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Explanation: The Hyperthreading (HT) technology allows a CPU to execute multiple instructions at the same time. This option is enabled by default. You can disable or enable Hyperthreading from the system basic input/output system (BIOS) setup program. Network Access Protection (NAP) ensures that computers on a network comply with system health requirements for access and communication, such as being updated with the latest antivirus definitions. NAP is based on policies configured on a Windows Server 2008 computer. Hyper-V is a Windows Server 2008 component that provides server virtualization, allowing you to configure virtual machines (VMs). Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA) is a computer bus primarily designed for the transfer of data between a computer and mass storage devices.
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Which hard drive interface is used by Steven's disk drive? IDE EIDE SCSI Serial ATA
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Explanation: The hard disk drive in Steven's computer uses the Serial ATA (SATA) interface. Serial ATA supports a maximum data transmission speed of 150 Mbps, and uses a 7-wire cable that can be up to one meter in length. SATA hard drives are the primary storage devices used in many desktop computers. Unlike the IDE and EIDE interface, which uses two channels per ribbon cable, or the SCSI cable, which can support up to 15 additional devices, the SATA cable has only a single interface. Therefore, a computer with two SATA drives requires two SATA interfaces on the motherboard. For testing purposes, you should be familiar with the following SATA and eSATA specifications and maximum throughput: SATA 1 - up to 150 megabytes per second (MBps) or 1.5 gigabits per second (Gbps) SATA 2 - up to 300 MBps or 3.0 Gbps SATA 3 - up to 600 MBps or 6.0 Gbps External SATA (eSATA) - extends the SATA bus at full speed and can support a cable length of up to 2 meters.
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Which hard drive specification has the fastest theoretical bus speed? SATA 1 SATA 2 SATA 3 IEEE 1394 FireWire
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Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA) 3 is capable of approximately 6.0 gigabytes per second. SATA 2 is capable of approximately 300 megabytes per second (MBps). SATA 1 is capable of approximately 150 MBps. The eSATA specification is for external SATA hard drives and provides higher data transfer rates than FireWire or USB. SATA devices will not connect to IDE/ATA ports. Most SATA devices require the installation of third-party drivers. During operating system installation, you need to press the F6 key to install the third-party drivers. Parallel Advanced Technology Attachment (PATA) 133 is capable of approximately 133 MBps. PATA 100 is capable of approximately 100 MBps. PATA drives are able to connect to IDE/ATA ports. SATA drives cannot share the same physical interface cable, while PATA can. Another drive specification, Fibre Channel-Arbitrated Loop (FC-AL), is a hard drive specification that attaches via a dedicated fibre channel network. The different FC-AL specifications are as follows: FC-AL 1 GB - 100 MBps FC-AL 2 GB - 200 MBps FC-AL 4 GB - 400 MBps FC-AL 8 GB - 800 MBps
question
Which operating frequency band is used by Bluetooth technology? a. 2.4 GHz to 2.485 GHz b. 125 KHz to 134 KHz c. 13.56 MHz d. 860 MHz to 930 MHz
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a. 2.4 GHz to 2.485 GHz Explanation: Bluetooth technology operates at a frequency band of 2.4 GHz to 2.485 GHz. Bluetooth allows you to establish a wireless connection between devices such as laptops, printers, mobile phones, wireless mice and keyboards, and other devices that supports Bluetooth technology. Bluetooth devices are of four types: Class 1, Class 2, Class 3, and Class 4. Bluetooth Class 1 has a maximum transmission distance of 100 meters (328 feet) and a maximum transmission speed of 1 Mbps. Bluetooth Class 2 has a maximum transmission distance of 10 meters (33 feet) and a maximum transmission speed of 3 Mbps. Bluetooth Class 3 has a maximum transmission distance of 1 meter (3 feet) and a maximum transmission speed of 24 Mbps. Bluetooth Class 4 is still being developed. The 125 KHz to 134 KHz operating frequency band is used by low frequency (LF). LF is typically used as a frequency range for radio frequency identification (RFID). LF has a read range of up to .5 meters and is used in animal tracking, access control, or vehicle immobilizers.
question
You have purchased a new 20-pin power supply to replace one that failed. However, the motherboard only has a 24-pin connector. What should you do? a. Purchase a 24-pin power supply. b. Plug the 20-pin power supply into the motherboard, leaving pins 1, 2, 13, and 14 on the motherboard unconnected. c. Plug the 20-pin power supply into the motherboard, leaving pins 11, 12, 23, and 24 on the motherboard unconnected. d. Purchase a motherboard with a 20-pin power connector. e. Change the setting on the voltage selector switch.
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c. Plug the 20-pin power supply into the motherboard, leaving pins 11, 12, 23, and 24 on the motherboard unconnected. Explanation: You should plug the 20-pin power supply into the motherboard, leaving pins 11, 12, 23, and 24 unconnected. These four pins are for higher current capabilities of the processor which don't need to be used in the current scenario-
question
You are an IT technician for a small computer store. You are designing a new gaming PC for a customer. You need to ensure that it provides the capabilities that will be needed by this type of PC. Which of the following should be a concern? (Choose all that apply.) a. motherboard b. CPU c. graphics card d. sound card
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b. CPU c. graphics card d. sound card Explanation: When designing a new gaming PC, you need to ensure that the following items are available to you: High-end processor (CPU) High-end video/specialized Graphic Processing Unit (GPU) High definition sound card High-end cooling You do not need to worry about purchasing a special motherboard for a gaming PC. Just ensure that the motherboard supports the CPU you plan to use. The hard drive and RAM only need to be as large as the games that you play recommend. {All specialized systems have different requirements based on their day-to-day operation. For a graphic/CAD/CAM design workstation, you should consider a multicore processor, high-end video, and maximum RAM. For an audio/video-editing workstation, you should consider a specialized audio/video card, large fast hard drive, and dual monitors. For a virtualization workstation, you should consider maximum RAM and CPU cores. For a home-theater PC, you should consider surround sound audio, HDMI output, HTPC compact form factor, and a TV tuner expansion card. For a standard thick client, you should consider the desktop applications that the computer will run and the recommended operating system requirements. For a thin client, you should consider the basic applications that will be running and the minimum operating system requirements. A thin client (sometimes also called a lean or slim client) is a computer that depends heavily on a server to fulfill its traditional computational roles, so it will require network connectivity. For a home server PC, you should consider media streaming requirements, file- and print-sharing requirements, a Gigabit network interface card (and Gb network hardware), and a RAID array.}
question
A user reports that he is having problems with his monitor. He explains that his Liquid Crystal display (LCD) is no longer spreading the light over the entire area of the laptop's LCD screen. Which component of the LCD is most likely causing this problem? a. inverter b. deflection yoke c. electron gun d. diffuser
answer
d. diffuser (Explanation: The diffuser takes the points of light and uniformly spreads them out over the entire area of the display. An LCD is mounted onto an inverter or backlight assembly to provide backlight to the display. Usually, fluorescent tubes are used for backlighting in LCDs. The light is dispersed by a plastic plate around the entire area of the display. A diffuser is placed on top of the dispersion plate. Deflection yokes and electron guns are not used in LCD monitors. These two components are used in cathode ray tube (CRT) monitors. An electron gun contains a heater, cathode, focusing anode, and accelerating anode for three electron beams. An electron gun creates electrons and then accelerates them to a high speed. The deflection yoke is placed around the CRT's neck of the CRT and creates a magnetic field that controls the direction of the electron beams. The deflection yoke guides the electron beams to strike the proper position on the screen. When considering display technologies, there are several terms that you should understand: Refresh/frame rate - The horizontal refresh rate is the rate at which the electron beam moves across the screen. The vertical refresh rate is the amount of time it takes to draw the screen and return the electron to the upper-left corner of the screen. The video card ultimately determines that refresh rate used. Pushing the display device at too high a refresh rate can damage the display device. Technicians should use the highest refresh rate as possible while ensuring that the display device can safely run at the configured rate. Resolution - The resolution is the number of horizontal pixels times the number of vertical pixels. Common resolutions include 640x480, 800x600, 1024x768, 1280x960, and 1600x1200 using a 4:3 ratio. Wide-screen monitors using a 16:9 or 16:10 ratio use common resolutions such as 1366x768 or 1920x1080. Native resolution - All LCD displays have a native resolution that is documented by the display vendor. Using the native resolution allows the device to obtain the sharpest display possible. Brightness/lumens - Brightness is a measurement of the LCD display's backlight strength and is expressed in nits. A higher number is better. Analog versus digital - CRT displays require analog signals. Computers use digital signals. Most video cards are capable of converting the digital signals from the computer into an analog signal for a CRT display. If a display uses the standard DB-15 VGA input, it most likely requires an analog signal. Privacy/anti-glare filters - These filters are used as a security measure to prevent shoulder surfing. Multiple displays - Multiple displays allows a single computer to send display images to multiple display devices. You can support this by installing multiple video cards and attaching a separate display device to each card or by installing a single video card that supports multiple display devices. Windows is able to detect a multiple-monitor configuration. You can configure the same display image to extend across the multiple display devices, or you can configure each of the display devices to display a different display image.)
question
Vincent has a computer with two DVI ports and wants to connect it to an HDMI display. What is the easiest solution? A. Install a video adapter card in the PCI slot. B. Purchase a DVI to HDMI cable or adapter. C. Connect the HDMI cable to the DVI port. D. Install a video adapter card in the PCIe slot
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B. Purchase a DVI to HDMI cable or adapter. (Explanation: High-Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) and Digital Video Interface (DVI) ports are not compatible with one another. The digital video signals for DVI and HDMI are similar, but you would need a DVI to HDMI cable or an adapter to transfer the digital data between the ports. Because the digital video signal doesn't need to be converted between DVI and HDMI, an adapter isn't really a converter. It is just a way of fitting a square peg into a round hole. DVI to HDMI adapters are an effective and inexpensive way to make use of the cables you already have, but make sure to get the right one. The main difference between DVI and HDMI is the way they transmit audio. HDMI has an integrated audio signal, whereas DVI only transmits digital video. )
question
Abigail works in Europe. She has a laptop with a standard VGA port that she uses for presentations at client sites. When she gets to the United States, she realizes that the companies she's presenting for all have HDMI displays and interfaces. What would you recommend she purchase for her travel bag as the most cost-effective solution? a. Purchase a new laptop with both VGA and HDMI connectors. b. Purchase a portable projector for VGA. c. Purchase a VGA to HDMI adapter. d. Purchase an HDMI to DVI cable.
answer
c. Purchase a VGA to HDMI adapter. (VGA and HMDI are interfaces used for connecting various devices, such as computers, laptops and projectors, to a display. However, there is no comparison when it comes to way they transmit data as VGA is an older standard that carries only a video signal. HDMI has quickly become the default cable standard for newer electronic devices, because it can carry both digital video and audio signals. But don't get too comfortable because HDMI could soon be phased out by USB 3.1's versatile Type-C connector. It has the potential to replace the HDMI standard.)
question
Which cable connector is used in a 1000BaseT network? a. SC b. ST c. MTRJ d. RJ-45 CompTIA A+ Complete Review Guide, Chapter 2: Networking, 2.1 Identify the Various Types of Network Cables and Connectors, Twisted Pair
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d. RJ-45. Explanation: The RJ-45 cable connector is used in a gigabit Ethernet or 1000BaseT network. The RJ-45 connector is used with unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) copper-wire cabling and can be used to carry data at up to 1,000 Mbps, which is 1 gigabit per second (Gbps). The SC, ST, and MTRJ connectors are used with fiber-optic cabling. For instance, these cable connectors can be used in a 100BaseFX network. An RJ-11 connector is used to connect telephone cable to a computer modem. While an RJ-11 connector looks similar to an RJ-45 connector, the RJ-11 connector is narrower than an RJ-45 connector because it uses fewer wires.
question
Jack has several areas in office where he needs to install cabling. He has coaxial cable on hand, and he would like to use splitters to connect the different computers and areas. If he runs multiple splitters, which effects should he anticipate? (Choose all that apply.) a. signal loss b. connection speed issues c. service quality issues d. more collisions e. fewer collisions
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a. signal loss b. connection speed issues c. service quality issues (Explanation: If he runs multiple splitters, he should anticipate signal loss, connection speed issues, and service quality issues. Adding a splitter should not affect the number of collisions on the network. Splitters are devices that take two or more signals of the same frequency range and reassemble signals from multiple signal sources. Splitters are meant to extend cables on networks. Latency is a term that means delay. Latency is rated on how long it takes for a packet to get from one location to the other. You often hear more about latency with RAM, but in this case, running multiple splitters would affect each splitter's ability to spread the signal.)
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Why would you implement a KVM switch? a. to segment a network b. to protect an internal network c. to cache Web data and images d. to reduce device needs in a data center
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d. to reduce device needs in a data center. You would implement a KVM switch to reduce device needs in a data center. A KVM switch allows a user to connect a single keyboard, video display device, and mouse to multiple computers. KVM switches include multiple input connectors, including PS2, VGA, and USB connectors-
question
You need to connect two computers for a customer. The customer does not have a network and does not wish to purchase a concentrator, but both computers include functional Ethernet network interface cards with RJ-45 connectors. Which component will allow you to meet your customer's needs? a. an Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) card b. a passive hub c. a crossover cable d. a protocol analyzer
answer
c. a crossover cable. You can use a crossover cable to connect two computers directly through the RJ-45 connectors on their Ethernet network cards. A crossover cable consists of a standard 10BaseT cable with RJ-45 connectors that have specific pin contacts reversed
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Which network topology supports the longest maximum cable length? a. 10Base2 b. 10Base5 c. 10BaseF d. 100BaseT
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c. 10BaseF. (Explanation: Of the choices given, 10BaseF networks, which operate at 10 megabits per second (Mbps), support the longest cable length with a maximum distance of 2,000 meters (m) or 2 kilometers (km). 10BaseF is also known as 10BaseFL; another fiber-optic standard known as 10BaseFP exists, but it never received widespread acceptance. The 100BaseFX standard is identical to 10BaseFL, except that the network speed is 100 Mbps rather than 10 Mbps. Networks configured with a 10Base2 topology support a maximum cable length of 185 m. Networks built on a 10Base5 topology support a maximum cable length of 500 m. The 10BaseT and 100BaseT topologies support a maximum distance of 100 m between two devices.)
question
You are installing the network cabling for your company. A diagram of the cabling is shown in the following image: (Picture) Which type of cable are you installing? a. shielded twisted pair (STP) cable b. unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable c. coaxial cable
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d. fiber optic cable Explanation: Based on the image displayed, you are installing fiber optic cable. Fiber optic cabling has a center glass core that is surrounded by protective materials. Fiber optic cabling transmits light. It provides a higher transmission speed and better security than the other options listed. However, it is the most expensive to implement. UTP cable consists of four pairs of wires, each pair with a specific number of twists to reduce electromagnetic interference (EMI). The wires are contained within a rubber casing. STP cable looks the same as UTP cable except that STP cable will also have an outer shielding material, usually foil, located between the wires and the outer casing. Coaxial cable consists of a single copper core surrounded by plastic insulation. Outside the plastic insulation is a metal shield, which is surrounded by the rubber casing.
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For what purpose have IP addresses in the 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255 range been reserved? a. multicasting b. private networks c. military installations only d. government organizations other than the military
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b. private networks. Explanation: There are three blocks of IP addresses that have been reserved by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) for private networks. These addresses can be used for IP addressing on a private network that does not need to be connected to the Internet. The three blocks of addresses are listed below: 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 A computer using a private IP address cannot directly communicate with the Internet. The only way Internet communication can occur with a computer that uses an IP address in the private network range is through a proxy server. An Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address is an automatic IP address that is assigned when computers that are configured for DHCP cannot contact a DHCP server.
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Which printer upgrade option allows a printer to act as a standalone printer on a network? a. NIC b. RAM c. duplexer d. finisher
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NIC Some printers allow you to install a network interface card (NIC) so that the printer can act as a standalone printer on a network. This allows you to attach the computer directly to the network as you would any other device.
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Which address is a MAC address? a. 124.24.0.2 b. AD-4F-C1-A9-12-CB c. 00120193:06F1A345CA11 d. 1234:EF14:45:ADD1:EA23:222:1290:A e. 122A::ABCA:0:0:2100 f. ACA1:1345:1::123.23.0.1
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The address AD-4F-C1-A9-12-CB is a media access control (MAC) address. A MAC address is assigned to each network interface card (NIC). A MAC address is a 12-digit hexadecimal number. Each pair of hexadecimal numbers is referred to as an octet, and the octets are usually separated by dash (-) characters when a MAC address is represented in text. The first three octets in a MAC address identify the NIC manufacturer, and the last three octets act as a serial number to identify the individual NIC-
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Which properties are true regarding IPv6? (Choose two.) a. It has 4 billion available addresses b. It has 340 undecillion available addresses c. It uses 32-bit addresses d. It uses 128-bit addresses
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b. It has 340 undecillion available addresses. d. It uses 128-bit addresses. (IPv6 uses 128-bit IP addresses and allows for the use of 340 undecillion addresses.IPv4 uses 32-bit addresses and allows for the use of 4 billion addresses-)
question
Jeffrey wants to purchase some software for his department from Dreamsuites.com. After researching company policies, you inform him that he can only make the purchase if it is from a secure site. Which port and protocol are qualify as secure? A. Port 23 Telnet B. Port 443 HTTPS C. Port 80 HTTP D. Port 110 POP3
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B. Port 443 HTTPS. (Explanation: Port 443, also known as Hyper Text Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS), is used for secure Web browsing. Data that is communicated through this port is less likely to be hacked or intercepted due to the way it establishes connections. You will almost always find this port active on Web servers and e-commerce sites due to its high level security feature that does not keep any window open and hides private data. HTTPS uses the Secure Socket Layer (SSL) protocol and asks for authentication between the client and server. Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) uses port 80 for regular Web browsing and is not secure. Telnet uses port 23 and is not secure. Its primary use is to communicate back and forth from clients to servers to remotely manage the server. Post Office Protocol version 3 (POPv3) is used for email clients to retrieve mail through the TCP/IP connection. It operates over port 110. Apple Filing Protocol (AFP), formerly Apple Talk, is used exclusively in Apple and Mac computers to communicate through TCP/IP and operates over port 427 or 528. Common Internet File System (CIFS), which uses Server Message Block (SMB), operates at the Application layer of the OSI model and shares resources, such as file, printers and various networking nodes, on a network. CIFS/SMB uses UDP ports 137 and 138 and TCP ports 139 and 445.)
question
You administer your company's 100BaseTX Ethernet network. TCP/IP is the networking protocol used on the network. You want the routers on the network to send you notices when they have exceeded specified performance thresholds. Which protocol should you use to enable the routers to send the notices? A. ARP B. SMTP C. SNMP D. Telnet
answer
C. SNMP. Explanation: Of the protocols presented, you should use Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) to enable the routers to notify you when they exceed specified performance thresholds. SNMP is a protocol in the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) protocol suite that enables the collection of data about various devices connected to a TCP/IP network, including bridges, hubs, and routers. Each SNMP-compatible device has a Management Information Base (MIB) database that defines the type of information that can be collected about the device. You can also configure SNMP traps to analyze network performance and network problems. A trap is a message that an SNMP-compatible device sends when the device has exceeded a performance threshold. You can configure SNMP to send traps to the network management software you are using, to your e-mail address, or to another destination. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is used on a TCP/IP network to resolve Internet Protocol (IP) addresses to media access control (MAC) addresses. TCP/IP uses IP addresses to identify hosts, whereas Ethernet uses MAC addresses to identify network nodes. For Ethernet and TCP/IP to interoperate, a host's IP address must be resolved to a MAC address. You cannot use ARP to notify you when network devices have exceeded performance thresholds. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to transfer e-mail messages from e-mail clients to e-mail servers. SMTP is also used to transfer e-mail messages between e-mail servers. SMTP will not send traps when network devices have exceeded performance thresholds. Telnet is a terminal emulation protocol. You can use Telnet to establish a remote session with a server from a local host through a terminal window to issue commands on the remote server. Telnet client software provides you with a text-based interface and a command line from which you can issue commands on a server that supports the Telnet protocol. Telnet will not send notices when network devices have exceeded established performance thresholds.
question
You are responsible for performing all routine maintenance on your company's laser printers. Which of the following maintenance tasks would result in the need to reset the page count? A. replacing the toner B. installing the maintenance kit C. calibrating the printer D. cleaning the printer
answer
B. installing the maintenance kit. You should only reset the page count when you install the maintenance kit. The maintenance kit may include a new fuser as well as new rollers and pads. Maintenance kits need to be installed when a printer reaches a certain print threshold number. Resetting the count will ensure that you will be reminded after a certain number of pages have been printed-
question
You want to set up a wireless network with data throughput of 54 Mbps. Which two wireless specifications will provide a data throughput of 54 Mbps? (Choose two.) A. 802.11 B. 802.11a C. 802.11b D. 802.11g
answer
B. 802.11a D. 802.11g Explanation: You can use either the 802.11a or the 802.11g specifications. Both 802.11a and 802.11g provide data throughput of 54 megabits per second (Mbps). The 802.11g wireless network standard provides backward compatibility with the 802.11b wireless network specification, but the 802.11a network specification does not provide backward compatibility to any other wireless network because it operates in the 5 GHz frequency range, rather than the 2.4 GHz range that 802.11b and 802.1g operate in. You should not use the 802.11b wireless network specification. The 802.11b network specification provides data throughput of only 11 Mbps. You should not use the 802.11 wireless network specification. The 802.11 provides data throughput of only 2 Mbps. The 802.11n wireless standard uses the 2.4 or 5.0 GHz range and is reported to be capable of up to 600 Mbps. However, 300 to 400 Mbps is usually the maximum in most of today's deployments. The 802.11ac wireless standard uses the 2.4 or 5.0 GHz range. It is reported as capable of up to 450 Mbps in the 2.4 GHz range, and up to 1.3 Gbps on the 5.0 GHz range. Because it uses channel bonding to provide increased speed, fewer channels are available on this standard.
question
The protocols given use these default ports: Port 21 - FTP Port 110 - POP3 Port 143 - IMAP Port 443 - HTTPS Port 3389 - RDP FTP also uses port 20, but it was not listed in this scenario.
answer
The protocols given use these default ports: FTP use Port 21 POP3 use port 110 MAP use Port 143 HTTPS use port 443 RDP use port 3389 FTP also uses port 20, but it was not listed in this scenario. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_TCP_and_UDP_port_numbers
question
Which technology has the SHORTEST maximum range? A. Bluetooth 1.0 B. Bluetooth 2.0 C. 802.11a D. 802.11b
answer
Bluetooth 2.0 Explanation: Of the technologies listed, Bluetooth 2.0 has the shortest maximum range (10 meters or 33 feet). In terms of all Bluetooth technologies, Bluetooth 3.0 has the shortest maximum range (1 meter or 3 feet). 802.11a, 802.11ac, and 802.11b all have a maximum range of 115 feet (approximately 35 meters). The following lists the maximum ranges of the major wireless technologies included on the A+ exam. Bluetooth technologies have the following ranges: Bluetooth 1.0 - 100 meters or 300 feet Bluetooth 2.0 - 10 meters or 33 feet Bluetooth 3.0 - 1 meter or 3 feet Wireless networking technologies have the following ranges: 802.11a - up to 115 feet or 35 meters 802.11b - up to 115 feet or 35 meters 802.11g - up to 125 feet or 38 meters 802.11n - up to 380 feet or 115 meters 802.11ac - up to 115 feet or 35 meters
question
You are responsible for performing routine maintenance on your company's laser printers. Which of the following routine maintenance does NOT require that you disconnect the laser printer from its power source? replacing the toner installing the maintenance kit calibrating the printer cleaning the printer
answer
calibrating the printer
question
ou are an IT technician at your company. The company has two small offices in different cities. The company's head office contains a DNS server and a DHCP server. The branch office does not contain a DHCP server. A user travels frequently between the head office and the branch office. You are configuring the IP address on this user's laptop. You are required to ensure that the user is able to connect to the Internet from both offices. How should you configure the Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) Properties dialog box on the user's laptop while expending the least administrative effort? A. Configure the General tab to use the DHCP server at the head office. Configure a static IP address from the branch office network range on the Alternate Configuration tab. B. Configure the General tab and the Alternate Configuration tab to use the DHCP server. C. Configure a static IP address from the head office network range on the General tab. Configure a static IP address from the branch office network range on the Alternate Configuration tab. D. Configure the General tab and the Alternate Configuration tab to use a static IP address from the branch office network range.
answer
B. Configure the General tab and the Alternate Configuration tab to use the DHCP server. You should configure the General tab to use the DHCP server at the head office and configure a static IP address from the branch office network range on the Alternate Configuration tab. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is used to assign IP addresses automatically to the hosts on the network. DHCP provides unique IP address to all the hosts. You should configure DHCP to assign IP addresses automatically. In this scenario, the head office contains a DHCP server. Therefore, configuring the General tab to use the DHCP server will ensure that the user's laptop automatically receives the IP address settings from the DHCP server when the user is in the head office-
question
A salesman for your company travels primarily in Europe and Asia. You need to provide him with a wireless Internet technology that will work internationally on his laptop and that can be installed easily when he arrives at a new location. Which technology should you install? A. CDMA cellular B. GSM cellular C. satellite D. Bluetooth
answer
B. GSM cellular. You should install Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM) cellular on the salesman's laptop. This cellular technology is used globally. A cellular WAN card or mobile hotspot can provide an Internet connection in most locations for a laptop computer. Another cellular option is to use tethering, which is when you use a cell phone's wireless connection and tether the laptop onto that connection. Remember that you should always keep in mind the maximum data allowed per month when using this type of connection-
question
What is the purpose of PoE? A. It allows a network of computers to appear to the Internet as a single entity. B. It provides a file storage solution that is attached to the network. C. It allows an Ethernet connection to be used as both a network and power connection. D. It provides a cryptographic hardware platform for securely storing data.
answer
C. It allows an Ethernet connection to be used as both a network and power connection.. Power over Ethernet (PoE) allows an Ethernet connection to be used as both a network and power connection. Basically PoE is network cables that carry electrical power to devices plugged into a network connection. PoE requires a PoE injector be installed. Ethernet over power (EoP) is the direct opposite of PoE, in that Ethernet over power transmits Ethernet communication over power lines. EoP requires an adapter as well-
question
Which hardware device operates at the data-link layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model and ensures that data is delivered only to the destination port? A. switch B. hub C. bridge D. router
answer
A. switch. A switch operates at the Data Link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI model and provides network connectivity to computers connected to the switch. A switch enhances the network connectivity and performance to reduce the network traffic by forwarding the data packets only to the destination port. A hub is a hardware device that operates at the Physical layer (Layer 1) of the OSI model and provides network connectivity to computers connected to a hub. A bridge is a hardware device that connects two portions of a network or two similar networks. A bridge also operates at the Data Link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI model, but it broadcasts data packets to all the possible destinations within a particular segment. A router is a hardware device that transmits data among computers in different networks. A router operates at the Network layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model.If you create a test network of several computers and any one of these devices, you should ensure that the cables are properly routed, especially if the cables must cross aisles. You should keep tripping hazards forefront in any routing considerations-
question
Zachary has a desktop computer that he is replacing with a laptop. He wants to know why everyone is raving over their new flash memory drives. What is the number one reason to purchase a laptop with a flash memory drive rather than a conventional hard drive? A. quiet sound B. mechanical motor C. ease of backup D. ease of partitioning
answer
A. quiet sound. Flash memory drives are noted for their quiet sound and their ability to access files quickly. Because there are no moving parts in a flash memory drive, unlike conventional hard drives, flash drives are also less fragile. Flash memory drives are a type of solid state drive (SSD)-
question
You work in a customer call center. Martin is on the phone inquiring about the difference between solid state drives (SSDs), hybrids, and magnetic hard drives for his laptop. He is only going to be web surfing, emailing, and creating documents. Which hard drive would provide the best performance and reliability? A. hybrid B. solid state drive (SSD) C. magnetic hard drive D. eSata external drive
answer
B. solid state drive (SSD). Explanation: A solid state drive (SSD) is the best option for Martin's needs because it has no moving parts. These drives are not as fragile as magnetic hard drives because they do NOT use a read/write assembly, do not have any moving parts, and are resistant to shock. When in operation, solid state drives are silent. Solid state drives are faster, more reliable, and require less power than magnetic drives. On the flip side, SSDs are limited on storage space compared with traditional hard drives.
question
Verigon hired you to train employees on how to repair computers and mobile devices. Which term below do you think is highly important to share with your trainees prior to teaching them to replace broken screens? A. touch pad B. swiping C. digitizer D. microphone
answer
C. digitizer Explanation: Digitizers work behind the surface of touch screens to act like a mouse pointer and execute the command when users apply pressure on the surface of the display. Users use their fingers or a stylus for swiping or pointing. The digitizer is a thin piece of clear material that fits on top of the display and has its own cable. If the digitizer gets cracked, it can be replaced without replacing the entire display. You should teach them to check whether they can replace the digitizer before deciding to replace the entire screen. One of the easiest ways to attach a digitizer is with a hair dryer, which heats the adhesive.
question
Raymond has contacted your IT department for assistance in replacing his webcam on his laptop. What is the first step he should take? A. Shut down the computer and remove the battery. B. Remove the screws from the bottom of the laptop. C. Remove the keyboard. D. Disconnect the laptop from all external power sources.
answer
D. Disconnect the laptop from all external power sources. Explanation: The first step any user should take is to disconnect the laptop from all external power sources. Next you should shut the operating system down and remove the battery. Next you will remove the screws from the bottom of the laptop and take off the casing. If necessary, you may have to remove the keyboard and motherboard so that the top half and bottom sections are separated. Remove all screws, wires and cables. You should draw a diagram of where each screw goes because this will save time and frustration during reassembly. Always keep a diagram handy for when you reassemble it. Locate the webcam attachment. Carefully remove the old webcam and put the new one in the exact same place so that the wires align properly. Reassemble the laptop by reversing the process of what you just did to take it apart. Before you put the battery back in and plug into a power source, make sure that all cables, wires and screws are in place. Plug it in, restart the laptop and test the newly installed camera
question
Adele works as a graphic artist for a media publishing company. She is shopping for a laptop that can give her the versatility of landscape and portrait modes without having to purchase two monitors. What solution do you recommend? docking station digitizer rotating screen LCD display
answer
rotating screen Explanation: She should purchase a laptop that has a rotating screen or a removable screen. This will allow her to rotate the screen to either be in portrait or landscape mode. Most laptops or tablets have the ability to change their screen viewing settings to accommodate the users. Convertible is a term used for screens that flip on a tablet or laptop. A docking station would allow Adele to connect to connect to external components, such as an external display, keyboard, and mouse. However, her external monitor may not be able to provide both portrait and landscape orientations. A digitizer attaches to the LCD screen to allow the device to read any touch movements from the user, including swiping, pinching, touching, and other movements. It will not affect screen orientation. Not every LCD screen allows rotation of the image from landscape to portrait. That can only be fulfilled using a rotating screen.
question
You need to purchase a device that will allow you to turn your laptop computer into a desktop computer while you are in your office. The device must include slots for extra storage bays and a DVD drive. Which device should you purchase? docking station port replicator UPS transformer
answer
docking station Explanation: You should purchase a docking station. A docking station provides slots for extra storage bays and a DVD drive. A docking station basically turns a laptop computer into a desktop computer. Expansion cards in the docking station will allow a laptop to have more ports using expansion cards. A docking station provides a connection for an external keyboard, mouse, printer, monitor, and network when using a laptop. It would allow a user to utilize multiple hardware profiles to control an external display and the power options.
question
Interconn is a marketing firm that wants to help their employees do their job more efficiently. The company wants their computer technicians to be able to record video, upload the video feed to the cloud, and talk to customers while they perform on-site repairs. Which device should you recommend? A. smart watch B. e-reader C. smart glasses D. phablet
answer
C. SMART GLASSES Explanation: Smart glasses will allow users to record video, upload the video feed to the cloud, talk to customers, and perform repairs all at the same time. Google Glass was the originator of the first computer to be worn on your face. These glasses are meant to mimic a computer screen, allowing "wearers" to glance back and forth from screen to live tasks. The glasses are actually voice activated. They also boast to have a camera that can store photos and videos. They have their own battery used for video recording and other items that need to be done remotely. They can be charged with a Micro USB cable and charger. They are compatible with a MyGlass companion app that allows you to set up Glassware for both Android and iOS devices.
question
You need to establish a Bluetooth connection between an iPhone and a Bluetooth headset. What is the correct order for establishing the connection on the iPhone? A. Enable Bluetooth. Enable pairing. Find and select device. Enter the appropriate PIN. B. Enable Bluetooth. Find and select the device. Enable pairing. Enter the appropriate PIN. C. Enable pairing. Enable Bluetooth. Find and select the device. Enter the appropriate PIN. D. Enable Bluetooth. Enable pairing. Enter the appropriate PIN. Find and select the device.
answer
A. Enable Bluetooth. Enable pairing. Find and select device. Enter the appropriate PIN. Explanation: The process for establishing a Bluetooth connection between an iPhone and a Bluetooth headset is as follows: Enable Bluetooth on both devices. On the remote device, enable pairing. (In some cases, you may simply need to turn on the device. In others, you have to make the device discoverable. Check the device's documentation.) On the iPhone, find and select the device. Enter the appropriate PIN. After completing these steps, you should test the connection. Another thing to note on Bluetooth headsets and mobile devices is that you must keep your devices fully charged. Some devices use proprietary vendor-specific ports for communication and power. Modern iPhones use the Thunderbolt charging port and cable for their devices, also referred to as Lightning. Most mobile devices use a USB to micro-USB cable for charging. The following exhibit shows both of these types of USB plugs:
question
You are helping a friend build his new home computer. After completing the assembly, you discover that none of the unused expansion slots have covers, and you cannot find the slot covers anywhere. You suspect that your friend threw them away along with the packing material for the case, thinking that they were simply unneeded metal punch-outs. Why should you go through the trouble of finding new slot covers and installing them on the unused slots? (Choose two.) to keep foreign objects out of the case to keep radiation exposure at a minimum to properly ground the computer motherboard to dampen the noise coming from inside the computer to keep air circulating properly inside the computer case
answer
to keep foreign objects out of the case to keep air circulating properly inside the computer case
question
A user has been using his desktop computer on a daily basis for over a year now. Today, when he starts your computer, he notices that the computer does not power on. You have been dispatched to troubleshoot this problem. What could be the reason for this? The memory is faulty. The power supply is bad. The CPU is overheated. The hard disk has crashed
answer
The power supply is bad.
question
You are teaching a one-week computer repair class. Early Monday morning, you discover that a student from the previous week protected his computer with a BIOS startup password, and you are unable to contact the student to obtain the password. This week's class starts in one hour, and all seats are taken. What should you do to make the computer available to a student in this week's class? Replace the CMOS chip. Remove the CMOS battery. Replace the system board. Use a system board jumper. Use your Windows Administrator password. Explanation: Some system boards include a jumper that allows only the complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) password and no other CMOS settings to be cleared. Removing the computer's CMOS battery would clear all CMOS settings, including the password; after replacing the battery, you would have to reconfigure the necessary CMOS settings.
answer
Use a system board jumper. Explanation: Some system boards include a jumper that allows only the complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) password and no other CMOS settings to be cleared. Removing the computer's CMOS battery would clear all CMOS settings, including the password; after replacing the battery, you would have to reconfigure the necessary CMOS settings.
question
George, a user, receives a blue screen error when attempting to access a third-party application on his computer. When you are troubleshooting the computer, you get a blue screen error that lists the same memory location for the error. What should you do? Replace the defective CPU. Replace the defective memory module. Replace the defective hard drive. Uninstall and reinstall the applications
answer
Replace the defective memory module.
question
A technician is dispatch to troubleshoot a user's computer. After performing diagnostics, the technician determines that drive thrashing is occurring. What are the factors that can affect this? (Choose all that apply.) hard drive memory paging file running processes
answer
hard drive memory paging file running processes Explanation: The factors that can affect drive thrashing are the hard drive, memory, paging file, and running processes. Drive thrashing occurs when an excessive amount of data is moved between physical RAM (memory) and the paging file. Some possible fixes for this problem include the following: Increase the amount of physical memory. Increase the size of the paging file. Eliminate unnecessary running processes and applications. Disable unnecessary services, especially indexing services.
question
While performing routine maintenance for a customer, you hear a grinding noise coming from inside the computer case. Which component should you suggest the customer replace? power supply B. hard drive keyboard sound card
answer
B. hard drive The hard drive should be replaced as soon as possible. Grinding or clicking noises coming from inside a computer case are usually the result of physical problems with a hard drive. Because loud noises can also be caused by other components, you first need to confirm that the noise is coming from the hard drive. If you have confirmed this, completing a backup of your data should be your first priority. Then replace the hard drive, and restore the data from the backup-
question
A user needs the video capability in his computer upgraded to support a new graphics application. The computer includes an onboard video card. You install a new video card in the computer. You need to disable the onboard video card. Where should this card be disabled? in Control Panel in the System Configuration utility in Device Manager in the BIOS
answer
in the BIOS. The onboard video card should be disabled in the BIOS. After you disable the onboard video card in the BIOS, it will no longer function. Only the new video function will be available. In some cases, the BIOS will automatically disable the onboard video if a new video card is installed. If you need to use both video cards, you will need to make sure that the onboard video is enabled-
question
A user complains that the image on his monitor flickers a lot. This flickering occurs no matter which application the user has opened. What should you do? Replace the monitor. Configure the video card driver to use a lower refresh rate. Configure the video card driver to use a higher refresh rate. Upgrade the video card drivers.
answer
Configure the video card driver to use a higher refresh rate.. You should configure the video card driver to use a higher refresh rate. Using a refresh rate that is too low can often cause image flickering on your monitor-
question
A user is not able to access shared folders on the network. While troubleshooting the problem, the technician first checks for the link lights on the Network Interface Card (NIC). The technician observes that the link lights are not on or blinking on the NIC. Which actions should the technician perform to resolve the problem by using the least amount of administrative effort? (Choose two.) A.Run the ipconfig /release command. B. Check that the switch is on and the other end of the cable is connected to the switch. C. Replace the network cable. D. Replace the NIC. E. Run the ipconfig /flushdns command.
answer
B. Check that the switch is on and the other end of the cable is connected to the switch. C. Replace the network cable. To resolve the problem by using the least amount of administrative effort, the technician should check that the switch is on and the other end of the network cable is connected to the switch. If the switch is not on or the other end of the network cable is not connected to the switch, the user's computer will not be connected to the network. Therefore, the technician should check these first-
question
Users are having trouble accessing resources by computer or host name. Which device is likely causing the problem? DHCP server DNS server IIS server firewall
answer
DNS server Explanation: A Domain Name System (DNS) server is responsible for resolving host names to TCP/IP addresses. If users are having trouble accessing resources using their host names, there is a problem with the DNS server. A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server is responsible for assigning TCP/IP address information on a network. If users are not receiving a valid TCP/IP address, there is a problem with the DHCP server. An Internet Information Services (IIS) server is responsible for maintaining Web sites. If users are having trouble accessing a Web site, there could be a problem with the IIS server. However, Web sites are accessed using their host name. Therefore, a Web site communication problem can also be caused by a DNS server. A firewall is responsible for protecting your network or individual computer from unauthorized users or computers. A firewall is configured to allow or deny traffic based on the parameters you configure. Most firewalls are configured to allow host name traffic
question
You are checking connectivity between two devices using the ping command. You want the ping command to continue sending messages until interrupted. Which parameter of the ping command should you use? -t -a -f -v
answer
-t Explanation: The -t parameter of the ping command will cause the command to continue sending messages until interrupted. The -a parameter of the ping command will display the host name of the IP address that you are pinging, if successful. The -f parameter of the ping command will send the messages without fragmenting the messages. The -v parameter of the ping command will specify the value of the Type of Service (TOS) field in the IP header for the messages sent.
question
You are the network administrator for Nutex Corporation. You have configured a wireless network for a group of users to provide Internet access. However, users complain that they are facing intermittent loss of wireless connection. You have verified the hardware and software configuration of both your Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) modem and wireless router and your DSL line from the Internet Service Provider (ISP). What could be causing your problems? DSL filters cordless phones wireless router television set
answer
cordless phones Explanation: Cordless phones and other type of physical obstructions can cause intermittent loss in wireless connectivity. Wireless devices use 2.4 GHz range, which is also used by devices such as cordless phones and microwaves. These devices can interfere with wireless devices. For example, if you are experiencing wireless connectivity problems every day around noon, a microwave being used to heat lunches could be causing the problem. You can reduce the radio frequency interference (RFI) by relocating the interfering devices. You could also reduce the range of the wireless network. Different wireless frequencies experience different RFI problems. You should always research the frequency that you plan to deploy to determine which devices will cause you problems.
question
A user complains that his internal wireless network card in his laptop is no longer functioning. After troubleshooting, you decide to replace the wireless network card. You replace the wireless network card with the same model as the old card. You connect the internal antenna cables. You then reboot the computer. What should you do next? Install the latest drivers for the wireless card. Flash the BIOS. Connect to the wireless network. Configure the wireless network settings.
answer
Install the latest drivers for the wireless card.. You should install the latest drivers for the wireless card. This will ensure that the computer has the most up-to-date drivers to ensure that all functions are supported. Make sure to attach the internal antenna cables. If they are not attached properly, the functionality of the wireless card will be limited. Internal wireless adapters in a laptop use the mini-PCI technology-
question
You frequently operate your Windows 7 portable computer on battery power when you are traveling. When you use battery power, your Windows 7 computer is configured to enter standby mode after 15 minutes of inactivity. Which components are turned off in this mode? (Choose two.) the CPU the monitor the keyboard the hard disk
answer
the monitor the hard disk Explanation: In standby mode, your Windows 7 portable computer will turn off the hard disk and the LCD screen. The CPU will reduce its power consumption in standby mode, but the CPU and keyboard will not be turned off completely. You can wake a computer from standby mode by pressing a key on the keyboard, pressing a mouse button, or moving the mouse. Standby mode is useful for saving battery power on a portable computer.
question
A user contacts you regarding a problem with his laptop's keyboard. Several keys have stopped functioning. This problem occurs in multiple applications, even after rebooting the computer. What should you have the user do FIRST? Clean the keyboard. Enable the keyboard in the BIOS. Plug in an external keyboard. Replace the internal keyboard.
answer
Plug in an external keyboard. Explanation: To ensure that the problem is with the internal keyboard, you should plug in an external keyboard. If the external keyboard works, you can then proceed to checking the internal keyboard connections and settings. Often when a user disconnects the laptop from a docking station, the internal keyboard may not work because the user has never used the laptop away from the docking station.
question
You are troubleshooting a problem with a printer attached to a Windows 2008 computer. Several print jobs are queued and the printer is online, but the print jobs are not printing. Which two conditions could cause the problem? (Choose two.) Printing is paused. The printer is in energy-save mode. There is a problem with the spooler. The disk used for spooling is extremely fragmented.
answer
Printing is paused. There is a problem with the spooler.
question
You receive a technical support call from a department manager. She reports that the laser printer in her department prints only blank pages. A telephone interview reveals that the paper is not jamming in the printer and that the problem began occurring after the toner cartridge was replaced. What is the most likely cause of the problem? The printer needs more RAM. The feed rollers are defective. The photosensitive drum was not fully discharged. The sealing tape was not removed from the toner cartridge.
answer
The sealing tape was not removed from the toner cartridge.
question
Your laser printer produces accurate images that smear easily. Which printer component should you examine? the fuser the feed roller the transfer corona the photosensitive drum
answer
the fuser Explanation: A laser printer's fuser contains two rollers, which use heat and pressure to fuse an image onto paper. If the fuser subsystem fails to heat properly or supply sufficient pressure, the toner merely rests on the surface of the paper and can be easily smeared. Toner is a powdery ink consisting of pigment, such as carbon black or iron, bound in a polymeric or waxy matrix. The transfer corona places the toner from the drum onto the paper through an electrostatic attraction process. If the fuser roller does not heat up, then you should look for a blown fuse. Another common problem with the fuser assembly is a pressure roller contaminated with toner. A contaminated pressure roller will cause black specks to appear on the back of a printout. Cleaning the fuser rollers with a soft cloth and alcohol can occasionally resolve this problem; the cleaning should be performed after the rollers are allowed to cool briefly.
question
A user reports that his dot-matrix printer is printing dark and clear on the left side of the paper but that the print is very light on the right side of the paper. What should you do to correct this problem with the printer? Adjust the platen. Replace the ribbon. Clean the ink nozzle. Align the print head. Adjust the transfer roller. Clear debris from the tractor feed.
answer
Adjust the platen. Explanation: Dot-matrix printers use a platen (rubberized roller) to hold the paper in place and to help advance the continuous paper on which it prints. If the platen does not hold the paper evenly, the print will appear lighter as you move across the page. Adjusting the platen usually solves the problem.
question
ou are an IT technician for a consulting company. You installed a new inkjet printer and successfully printed a test page. Later, users complained that they were unable to print any documents on the new printer. What should you verify FIRST? availability of paper printer driver ink cartridge print head
answer
availability of paper
question
You purchase an old inkjet printer for your company. When you print a test page, extra horizontal lines are printed all over the page. What should you do FIRST to print a test page successfully? Clean the print head. Refill the printer ink cartridge. Clean the printer paper feeder. Use high-quality paper for printing.
answer
Clean the print head.
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