Sterile Processing Study Material for Certification Exam

What is the Area Temp & Humidity for Decontamination?
60 deg to 65 deg F, 30% to 60% Humidity
What is the air exchange rate & pressure type for Decontamination?
10 air exchanges per hour under Negative Pressure
What is the Area Temp & Humidity for the Sterile Storage Area?
68 deg to 75 deg F, 35% to 70% Humidity
What is the air exchange rate & pressure type for Sterile Storage Area?
4 air exchanges per hour under Positive Pressure
What is the Area Temp & Humidity for the Prep & Packaging Area?
68 deg to 73 deg F, Ideal Humidity 50% – not lower than 35%
What is the air exchange rate & pressure type for the Prep & Packaging Area?
10 air exchanges per hour under Positive Pressure
The main role of sterile processing is to:
Provide dependable reliable services to enhance the quality of patient care.
Ethics is the practice of:
Doing the right thing.
Compliance with OSHA is:
Required by law.
Which of the following establishes sterilization practice standards based on opinion, research, and/or theory:
AAMI
Recommended practices are:
Statements of sound principals of practice that are based on scientific data and the opinions of experts.
EPA, FDA, OSHA and state departments of health (DOH) primarily issue:
Regulations.
Standards for CS/SPD practice are written by:
AAMI
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act provides for which ethical issue?
Confidentiality
A rule designed to govern behavior is called a:
Regulation
An established norm which is based on theory is called a:
Standard
Before a pesticide can be marketed and used in the United States, it must be evaluated and registered by which of the following?
EPA
Which of the following regulates and makes sure products are safe and effective before companies put them on the market?
FDA
If healthcare facilities reprocess single-use devices, the devices must be cleared by:
FDA
How often should cleaning and sterilization instructions be requested from device manufacturers?
Each time the item is purchased
Which agency regulates reprocessing of single-use devices?
FDA
OSHA has a great effect on CS/SPD by its regulation of occupational exposure to airborne contaminants, exposure from bloodborne pathogens, and which of the following:
Communication of workplace hazards
The Medical Device Reporting regulation requires:
Healthcare facilities to report deaths or serious injuries from medical devices.
Which agency requires that eyewash stations be available for emergency use?
OSHA
The OSHA Hazard Communication Standard requires that an MSDS must be available for:
Each chemical in the department
The Right-to-Know Standard requires employers to have which of the following available for employees?
Material Safety Data Sheets for chemicals
When should a new employee become familiar with MSDS’s in CS/SPD?
On their first day at work
Which of the following defines what a department MUST do?
Policies
Steps for performing a task are defined in a:
Procedure
Any equipment with a cord that is cracked, frayed or broken should be:
Disinfected and sent out for repair
Collection of data and identification of issues are part of what kind of program?
Quality Assurance
To ensure that all employees are learning the same information, training should be:
Standardized
Annual competency testing is required by:
JC
Which branch of science refers to the form and organization of body parts?
Anatomy
Which branch of science refers to the function of specific body parts?
Physiology
The smallest and most numerous structural units possessing the basic characteristics of life are called:
Cells
Which of the following is NOT an environmental factor required for the life of a cell?
Cold
The nucleus is the cell’s:
Brain
DNA is found in which part of the cell?
Nucleus
Complex structures with specialized functions within the body are known as:
Organs
Red blood cells develop in which part of the body?
Bone Marrow
The smallest bones of the body are found in the:
Middle Ear
Which of the following supports the tongue and the functions in swallowing?
Hyoid Bone
The skull, hyoid, vertebral column, and thoracic cage are part of the:
Axial Skeleton
Muscles make up what part of the body’s bulk?
1/2
Which of the following bones can be found in the axial skeleton?
Sternum
Which of the following is part of the appendicular skeleton?
Humerus
The femur, tibia, and fibula are bones of the:
Lower limbs
The humerus, radius, and ulna are bones of the:
Upper limbs
Smooth muscle cells lack:
Striations
What connects muscle to bone?
Tendons
Specialized cells responsible for contractions in the body are called:
Muscles
Which of the following is the largest organ OF the body?
Skin
Nerves and blood supply are located in which layer of the skin?
Dermis
Which of the following are responsible for providing immunity?
White Blood Cells
The breathing process removes which of the following gases from body cells?
Carbon Dioxide
pH is regulated through which system in the body?
Respiratory
Which of the following transports food to the stomach?
Esophagus
The longest part of the GI tract is the:
Small Intestine
Which organ produces bile?
Liver
The entire delicate central nervous system is protected by:
Bony Encasement
The portion of the brain responsible for consciousness is the:
Cerebrum
Which of the following is a function of the voluntary nervous system?
Skeletal Muscle Contractions
Which of the following is a function of the autonomic nervous system?
Heart Rate
Where is the tympanic membrane located?
The Ear
The bladder, ureters, and kidneys are part of the:
Urinary System
The seminal vesicles and bulbourethral glands are part of the:
Male Reproductive System
It is important for the CS/SPD technician to learn anatomy and physiology in order to:
Recognize where instruments are used
The term pathogenic means:
Disease-Producing
What color do Gram-Positive microorganisms stain?
Blue or Purple
What color do Gram-Negative microorganisms stain?
Red or Pink
Microorganisms are measured in:
Microns
The shape of Streptococcus is:
Spherical
The shape of a Spirochete is:
Spiral
Bacteria are unicellular and reproduce by:
Binary Fission
What is the shape of Cocci?
Round
Which type of microorganism has the ability to slow down its metabolism and become dormant?
Gram-Positive Bacillus
Rod-Shaped bacteria are called:
Bacilli
Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a bacteria to survive?
Bright Light
Which of the following is used to test the effectiveness of sterilization cycles?
Spores
A dehydrated cell with a thick, shell-like wall is know as a:
Spore
A microorganism that has a slime-like outer covering is called a:
Capsule
In order to survive, aerobic bacteria require:
Oxygen
CJD is caused by:
Prions
Protozoa are:
Single-Celled Microorganisms
Which of the following requires a living host to multiply?
Viruses
Which of the following pathogens is the cause of tuberculosis?
Mycobacteria
Which of the following is true of fungi?
They include single celled yeasts
Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a virus?
CJD
Prions are of concern in health care because they:
Are difficult to kill by usual sterilization methods
Which of the following BEST describes a prion?
An Abnormal Protein
Staphylococcus Aureus is a:
Gram-Positive Coccus
VRE can survive on the hands for:
Hours
A healthcare-acquired infection is generally termed a:
Nosocomial Infection
Healthcare-acquired infections account for more than:
90,000 deaths annually
The principal living reservoir of human disease comes from:
The Human Body
Water that has been contaminated by the feces of humans and other animals is most notably responsible for:
Gastrointestinal Disease
The principal route of nosocomial infections is:
Direct Contact
The general term for any inanimate object involved in the spread of infection is:
Fomite
Which of the following is NOT a disease spread by droplets?
Measles
The pathogens that cause tuberculosis, whooping cough, pneumonia, measles, mumps, and smallpox are discharged through the:
Respiratory Tract
Living things responsible for causing disease are called:
Vectors
One of the most common portals of exit in disease transmission is:
The Respiratory Tract
An infection caused by a needle stick enters through which portal of entry?
Parenteral Tissue
The single most effective way to prevent infection is to:
Wash Hands
The MINIMUM time needed for effective hand washing is:
15 seconds
Unless the water turns off automatically, the water should be:
Turned off using a disposable towel
Bloodborne pathogen exposure is regulated by:
OSHA
Which concentration is most effective in alcohol hand sanitizers?
60% to 95%
Waterless hand antiseptics are NOT appropriate when:
Hands are visually soiled
Under standard precautions, all blood and other potentially infectious materials are:
Handled as if they were infectious
A confidential medical evaluation must be performed any time:
An employee is exposed to blood or body fluid
According to AAMI, “The removal of contamination from an item to the extent necessary for further processing or for the intended use” defines”:
Cleaning
According to OSHA, the use of physical or chemical means to inactivate bloodborne pathogens from a surface is known as:
Decontamination
What is the first step in the decontamination process?
Manual and/or automated, mechanical cleaning
Microorganisms on contaminated items are referred to as:
Bioburden
Which of the following terms refers to disease-producing microorganisms?
Pathogens
The number of air exchanges in the decontamination area should be:
10
The ventilation system in the decontamination area must be maintained at:
Negative Pressure
OSHA recommends that contaminated scrub attire be:
Laundered by the facility
When a new medical device is purchased and received into SPD, what information must the technician have before processing it?
Request written instructions for processing from the manufacturer
A solution is considered neutral when the pH is:
7
A solution having a pH of 9 is:
Alkaline
Enzyme-based detergents contain organic substances that assist in the breakdown of:
Protein soils and blood
What is the temperature range for enzymatic cleaners?
109 to 140 degrees F
A proteolytic enzyme detergent breaks down:
Blood
Which of the following should never be used to remove gross soil on instruments?
Saline
Before any item with multiple parts is cleaned, it must be:
Disassembled
Metal-bristled brushes may be used to clean:
Tungsten carbide jaws of needle holders
The final rinse in the cleaning process should be performed using:
Treated Water
The mechanical action in the automated cleaning process that uses sound waves and imploding bubbles is called:
Cavitation
Prior to processing instruments in an ultrasonic cleaner:
The gross soil should be removed
Powered equipment should be:
Cleaned as specified by the manufacturer
Generally, fiberoptic light cables should be cleaned:
Using a soft cloth and detergent
Before it is manually cleaned, what must be done to a flexible endoscope?
It must be tested for leaks
All instruments and devices received from another facility should be:
Completely reprocessed
What material can be used as a simple test to check the functioning of the ultrasonic cleaner?
Aluminum Foil
The TOSI line of products is used to verify the effectiveness of:
Mechanical washers
The process that kills most microorganisms but not necessarily spores is known as:
High-level disinfection
According to Spaulding’s classification of medical devices, a semi-critical item requires which form of disinfection?
High-level
Which level of disinfection is needed for the destruction of HIV?
Low-level
The ability of a disinfectant to perform correctly depends on:
Whether it remains wet for the stated amount of time
Sodium hypochlorite belongs to which class of disinfectants?
Halogens
Which of the following disinfectants should NEVER be used as an environmental disinfectant?
Glutaraldehyde
Which of the following will be noted on an improperly cleaned instrument that has been disinfected in ortho-phthaldehyde?
Blue-Stain
Which of the following areas of information is NOT necessary to be recorded on the high-level disinfectant record?
Whether the item was completely dry
Which sterilization method is suitable for the following packaging materials: textiles, non-wovens, polyolefin wraps, paper-plastic pouches and rolls, and rigid sterilization containers
Steam
Which sterilization method is suitable for the following packaging materials: textiles, non-wovens, polyolefin wraps, paper-plastic pouches and rolls, Tyvek (all-plastic) pouches, polyethylene, and most rigid sterilization containers
Ethylene Oxide
Which sterilization method is suitable for the following packaging materials: polyolefin wraps, Tyvek (all-plastic) pouches, and certain rigid sterilization containers
Low-Temperature Gas Plasma (LTGP)
Which sterilization method is suitable for the following packaging materials: Metal and glass containers, aluminum foil, glassine envelopes
Dry Heat
Which sterilization method is suitable for the following packaging materials: Non-woven cellulosic wrap (paper) and certain containers
Ozone
Which sterilization method is suitable for the following packaging materials: polyolefin wraps and Tyvek (all-plastic) pouches that have been validated for use with low-temperature hydrogen peroxide
Low-Temperature Hydrogen Peroxide (V-Pro 1 Low Temperature Sterilization System)
The unit calls for a patient-cooling machine. Which of the following would be sent?
Hypo/Hyperthermia machine
Which of the following pieces of equipment is used in the prevention of blood clots?
Sequential compression device
Patient care equipment MUST be processed:
After each use
Before being disinfected, patient care equipment should be:
Cleaned with detergent
What is the BEST way to transport an IV Pump to CS/SPD after patient use?
In a covered cart or closed bag
Which disinfectant is to be used for patient care equipment?
The disinfectant recommended by the device manufacturer
Which of the following is NOT part of the FINAL preparation of patient care equipment for re-use?
Placement of disassembled parts into a plastic bag
A small cut is noted in the cord of an IV Pump that has been disinfected. Which of the following steps should the CS/SPD technician take?
Send to the biomedical engineering department
Patient care equipment that is soiled needs to be:
Contained during transport
There is a high patient census, and there are no IV Pumps available in the CS/SPD department for distribution. Which of the following steps should be taken?
Have staff check the units more frequently
Which series of stainless steel is used to manufacture malleable retractors?
300
Which of the following would be used to hold back tissue or organs?
Retractor
The weakest part of the instrument is/are the:
Box Lock
What is the most difficult part of a hemostat to clean?
Box Lock
What is the FINAL stage in manufacturing a surgical grade instrument?
Passivation
Scissors with black handles are often referred to as:
Super Sharps
The layer of a surgical instrument created by the passivation process is called:
Chromium oxide
How is an instrument with tungsten carbide inserts identified?
Gold Handles
What type of finish on a surgical instrument is used for laser procedures?
Ebonized
Which of the following lubricants is recommended for use on surgical instruments?
Water-based
The chromium oxide layer is intended to make an instrument:
Resistant to corrosion
Unless otherwise directed by the manufacturer, an instrument should be lubricated:
Every time it is used
When testing a scissor for sharpness, it is important to:
Make several cuts in the testing material
When the jaws of a stainless steel needle holder becomes worn, the needle holder MUST be:
Discarded
A crack in a hand-held instrument would MOST likely be found in the:
Box Lock
Cracked insulation on a laparoscopic instrument can cause:
Electrical Shock
Power equipment should be lubricated:
According to manufacturer’s instructions
When labeling a rigid scope for sterilization, which of the following information is NOT required?
Surgeon’s name
Black dots in a fiber optic light cable indicate:
There is damage to the glass rods
Which of the following is NOT a method for checking the visual clarity of a rigid endoscope?
Using a leak tester
When marking and identifying instruments, which of the following should NEVER be used?
Engraving
The air flow in the preparation and packaging area must be maintained at:
Positive Pressure
The preparation and packaging area MUST have an air exchange rate of:
10 per hour
What is the acceptable temperature range for the prep and packaging area?
68 deg F – 73 deg F (20-23 deg C)
The IDEAL humidity level in the prep and packaging area should be:
50%
If a non-perforated tray is used for the sterilization of instruments sets, it MUST be:
Tilted on the sterilizer rack
The floors in the preparation area should be:
Wet-mopped daily
Where should the heavier instruments be placed when assembling a set containing heave and delicate instruments?
On the bottom of the set
Which of the following can be done to aid in the drying of wrapped instrument sets?
Place a towel in the bottom of the tray
Which of the following should be used to write on the count sheets and tray lists?
Permanent, non-toxic ink
Where should the chemical indicator be placed in a wrapped set of instruments?
The center of the set
Multi-layer container systems should have chemical indicators placed in:
Each level
What is the MAXIMUM size and weight of a textile pack?
12″ X 12″ X 20″, 12 pounds
Basin sets must be prepared for sterilization with:
An absorbent material between each basin
Which of the following is NOT one of the basic principles of packaging?
The material must be acceptable for all types of sterilization
Steriliant penetration can be inhibited by using:
A wrapper that is too large
Approximately how much space should be left between an item and the inside edges of a peel pouch?
1″
Which of the following packaging materials is acceptable for Steam sterilization?
Non-woven wraps
Which of the following packaging materials is acceptable for Low-Temperature Gas Plasma (LTGP) and Ozone sterilization
Tyvek
Tamper-evident seals on rigid containers include:
Latches and locks
When rigid containers are processed in a steam sterilizer, they MUST be placed:
Flat on the cart during sterilzation
The absence of all forms of microbial life, including spores, is known as:
Sterility
The sterilizer’s heat-sensing thermometer is located in the:
Drain line
In non-tabletop steam sterilizer’s, where are PCDs (Process Challenge Devices or test packs) placed to present the greatest challenge to the steam sterilizer?
Over the drain
The three parameters of steam sterilization are:
Steam under pressure, time and temperature
Which of the following is the minimum exposure time for wrapped goods in a prevac steam cycle at 275 deg F (135 deg C)?
3 minutes
Immediate-use steam sterilization (flash) is appropriate when:
A one-of-a-kind instrument is dropped
Unless otherwise specified by the device manufacturer, instruments used on patients with known or suspected CJD should be:
Decontaminated as usual
Which of the following is the recommended cycle for processing decontaminated instruments from a suspected CJD case?
18 minutes, 273 deg F (134 deg C), prevac cycle
For sterilization to occur, steam must:
Make direct contact with all surfaces
Which step should be taken when a wet pack is noticed while unloading the sterilizer?
Reprocess the item
Which method of sterilization is used to sterilize liquids?
Gravity steam
Which of the following can occur if packages are moist at the end of the steam cycle?
Bacteria can wick into the package
For sterilization, paper-plastic peel packages should be placed:
On their edge
In a mixed load of textile and metal goods the textile packs should be placed:
On the top rack
For sterilization, basin sets should be positioned:
Tilted on their side
Stacking of rigid sterilization containers on the autoclave rack is permitted when:
The manufacturer provides technical data stating that is is acceptable
What is used to verify that the sterilizer air removal mechanism is functioning properly?
Bowie Dick Test
Which of the following monitoring methods verifies that conditions within the load were adequate to kill bacterial spores?
Biological
What is the correct action to take if a written item needs to be removed from the load record?
Draw a line through the item and initial
The Bowie Dick test is considered which type of monitoring process?
Chemical
A Class 5 indicator is called a(n)?
Integrator or Integrating Indicator
A Class 1 indicator is also referred to as:
Process Indicators or External CIs (Chemical Indicator) (example: Indicator Tape)
An example of a Class 2 indicator is:
The Bowie Dick test
An example of a Class 3 indicator or Single-variable indicator is:
A glass ampule containing a chemical that melts when the sterilization temp is achieved
Emulating indicators (Class 6 indicators) should be used:
Only in the specific cycle for which they are labeled
The Bowie Dick test is used to monitor:
Dynamic-air-removal cycles
What should be done if the Bowie Dick test fails the FIRST time?
Report to the Supervisor for further instruction
Which of the following is the correct sterilizer setting for the Bowie Dick test?
3-1/2 to 4 minutes at 270 deg F (134 deg C) dynamic-air-removal
The most commonly available Dynamic-air-removal (Pre-vac) steam sterilization cycle for wrapped items is:
3 minutes at 275 deg F (135 deg C) and 28 to 30 psi
If a biological test is performed daily, how often is it necessary to incubate a control biological indicator?
Once a day, and if a new lot number is used
In the even of a positive BI, how many loads should be recalled?
All loads back to the last negative BI
Routine BI testing for steam sterilizers should be performed AT LEAST:
Weekly
All loads containing implantable devices should be:
Monitored with a BI
When testing rigid sterilization containers, the BI should be placed:
As recommended by the manufacturer of the the container
Sterilized packs are MOST likely to become contaminated:
Within the first hour of sterilization
When cooled items are unloaded from the steam sterilizer rack, they should be handled with:
Clean hands
The risk of fire with EO can be minimized by mixing:
EO with HCFC or CO2
What is the MAXIMUM number of 100% EO cartridges permitted by OSHA to be stored OUTSIDE of a flammable goods cabinet?
12
What are the MINIMUM air exchanges to be maintained in an area where 100% EO cartridges or EO mixture cylinders are stored?
10
At the end of the EO sterilization cycle, the EO cartridges and the gloves used to handle them should be:
Discarded
The basic parameters of gas sterilization in a 100% EO sterilizer are concentration, exposure time, :
Humidity and temperature
Which of the following is CRITICAL to EO penetration of bacterial cells?
Humidity
The cycle phase in an EO sterilizer when the cycle is held at the specified temperature and concentration for a specified time is called:
Exposure
Which of the following packaging materials is NOT recommended for EO sterilization?
Nylon
Generally, the EO biological test pack is placed in the:
Geometric center of the load
One or more air samples representing a full-shift exposure to EO are taken to comply with OSHA’s:
Permissible Exposure Limits (PELs)
The Action Level for EO exposure is:
0.5 ppm
Which of the following should NOT be processed in a Low Temperature Gas Plasma (LTGP) sterilizer?
Gauze sponges
The parameters for Low Temperature Gas Plasma (LTGP) sterilization are:
Time, temperature, hydrogen peroxide gas plasma
Which of the following microorganisms is used to biologically monitor the Low Temperature Gas Plasma (LTGP) sterilizer?
Geobacillus stearothermophilus
Items to be sterilized in Low Temperature Gas Plasma (LTGP) must be packaged in:
Non-cellulose-based material
Microbial kill in the Ozone sterilizer is achieved through a process called:
Oxidation
Which of the following devices are compatible with Ozone sterilization?
Stainless instruments
Which of the following microorganisms is used to biologically monitor the Ozone sterilizer?
Geobacillus stearothermophilus
The packaging of choice for dry heat sterilization is:
Aluminum foil
Which of the following microorganisms is used to biologically monitor the dry heat sterilizer?
Bacillus atrophaeus
Which of the following is a wet sterilization system for unwrapped items?
Peracetic acid
Sterile items that are protected from the environment have been proven to remain sterile:
Indefinitely
The period of time during which a sterile item is considered safe to use is known as:
Shelf life
Which of the following factors is a reason for assigning an expiration date to a product?
Package degradation
A package must be visually inspected for integrity:
Every time it is handled
Sterile trays that might be subjected to storage challenges should be:
Placed in a sterility maintenance cover
What should be done if a sterile basin set is dropped on the floor?
Send it to be reprocessed
The Sterile Storage area should be located:
Adjacent to the sterilization area
Humidity can be measure in the Sterile Storage area by using a:
Hygrometer
The number of air exchanges per hour in the Sterile Storage areas should be at least:
4
The Sterile Storage area should be maintained at:
Positive pressure
All supplies in Sterile Storage must be how many inches from the floor?
8 to 10
The relative humidity in the Sterile Storage area should not exceed:
70%
The temperature in the Sterile Storage area should not exceed:
75 deg F (24 deg C)
It is important to control the humidity in the Sterile Storage area in order to prevent:
The growth of microorganisms
The bottom shelf of storage carts should be:
Solid
Sterile items stored on the top shelf must be how far from the fire sprinkler head?
18 inches
Shelving in the Sterile Storage area must be how far from the outside walls?
2 inches
Shipping cartons are not acceptable storage containers in the Sterile Storage area because they:
Harbor soil
Rotating stock to ensure using the oldest supplies first is known as:
FIFO (First In, First Out)
Before releasing an item to fill a sterile supply order, all of the following must be checked EXCEPT:
Cost effectiveness data
Which of the following is NOT an element of a distribution system?
Purchasing
Which area is the first to accept responsibility for all supplies in the facility?
Receiving
Supplies should NEVER be stored:
On the floor
Which of the following is NOT a necessary requirement of a requisition?
It must have the facility’s phone number
Transportation carts should be cleaned AT LEAST:
Daily
Which distribution system requires the using department to be responsible for maintaining inventory levels?
Demand distribution
Par levels should be based on:
Actual use
Demand distribution systems are:
Labor intensive
Which type of inventory distribution system requires the use of a predetermined inventory list?
Par level
A simple but labor-intensive system is the:
Demand system
The most efficient distribution system is the:
Total exchange cart
The computerized locked supply system is a variation of the :
Par level system
Which of the following is NOT considered a specialty cart?
Exchange
An effective case cart system requires:
Good communication
Just-in-time distribution systems are also known as:
Stockless distribution systems
The inventory of medical and surgical supplies can represent up to what percentage of a facility’s operating budget?
40%
An ongoing inventory management system is known as:
Perpetual inventory system
The reorder point is the:
Lowest amount of stock
Ordering the optimum quantity of an item based on historical data is known as:
Economical order quantity
Bar-coding of instrument sets is an integral part of:
Tracking systems
The basic requirements for bacteria to survive are:
Warmth, Food, Water, Alkaline pH, Elimination of Waste material, & Oxygen
Bacteria that require oxygen are called:
Aerobes
Bacteria that do NOT require oxygen are called:
Anaerobes
Streptococci are:
Round-shaped Gram-Positive organisms
Mycobacteria, which are responsible for tuberculosis, are:
Rod-shaped Gram-Positive organisms
Enterococci are:
Round-shaped Gram-Positive organisms
Staphylococci are:
Round-shaped Gram-Positive organisms.
Staphylococcus Aureus is most commonly referred to as:
MRSA
Gram-Negative Bacilli are:
Rod-shaped
E. Coli is:
Gram-Negative Bacilli
The 3 areas in SPD that should have negative air pressure are:
The Decontamination Area, the Sterilizer Access Area & the EVS closet