Spine + Extras AT214 – Flashcards

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Seventy-five percent of back flexion occurs at the joint between:
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L5-S1
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A syndrome characterized by the narrowing of the spinal canal that can impinge the spinal cord resulting in burning and tingling bilaterally is known as:
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Spinal stenosis
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Which of the following postures results from an increased curve in the lumbar spine?
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Lordosis
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Which of the following is not a group of the erector spinae muscles
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Cervicis
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Which lumbar vertebra is most likely to slip as a result of spondylolisthesis
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L5
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Axial loading combined with flexion of the cervical vertebrae from a force to the top of the head could lead to a fracture of which vertebrae
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C5-C6
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Sports movements that characteristically hyperextend the lumbar spine are likely to cause
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Spondylolysis
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Which of the following is (are) sign(s) of cervical neck fracture?
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All the above
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This spinal pathology on palpation will often present with a step deformity
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Spondylolisthesis
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Most serious cervical injuries in football result from purposeful
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Axial loading as a result of spearing
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The major muscle of back extension is the:
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Erector spinae
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The outer periphery of the intervertebral disk composed of strong fibrous tissue is called the:
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Annulus fibrosus
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Which of the following portions of the spine have a convex curve anteriorly?
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Cervical, lumbar
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The postural position resulting in hip extension from an anterior shift of the pelvis is called:
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Swayback
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Adolescents engaging in sports such as gymnastics and swimming are prone to accentuation of the kyphotic curve and backache common to:
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Scheuermann's disease
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____________ is a condition that is characterized by wedge fractures, disk space abnormalities, and degeneration of vertebral epiphyseal end plates is seen in:
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Scheuermann's disease
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The most discernible difference between a cervical dislocation and a cervical fracture is:
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The position of the neck
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The most common mechanism for acute low back strain is:
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Extension with trunk rotation
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When occurs, the athlete is unable to move certain parts of the body and complains of numbness after trauma; but after a short while the numbness disappears and free movement is possible.
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Cervical cord neuropraxia
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Which of the following should not be done when managing a bleeding nose?
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Tilt the head back to decrease bleeding
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All of the following are ways to manage a fractured tooth EXCEPT:
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Attempt to reattach the fracture piece
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Which condition is a progressive degenerative disease of the brain and also involves the accumulation of tau protein?
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Chronic traumatic encephalopathy
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A test used to determine the degree of attention span is the
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Color word test
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Which of the following fractures is the third most common and results in epistaxis and diplopia as well as numbness of the cheek?
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zygomatic
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Which of the following eye injuries is painless and results in the athlete seeing floating specks, flashes of light and having blurred vision?
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Detached retina
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An athlete who starts to exhibit symptoms of giddiness, attention difficulties, anxiety, and headaches hours or days after a collision may be considered to have:
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Post concussion syndrome
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Which of the following can occur if an athlete who has sustained a previous concussion, is returned to play prior to resolution of symptoms, and receives another head injury?
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Second-impact syndrome
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Which of the following symptoms are not indicative of a serious eye injury?
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Excessive watering of the eye
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After the head is struck, the brain continues to move in the fluid and may be contused against the opposite side, causing this type of injury:
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contrecoup
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Which of the following describes the inability of an athlete to remember events after the injury has occurred?
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Anterograde amnesia
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Management of an avulsed tooth includes all the following EXCEPT:
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Scrub the tooth with a sterile gauze pad to get dirt off
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An orbital fracture of the eye:
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Can result in double vision
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The treatment preferred by most physicians for an athlete with a hernia is:
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To undergo surgical repair
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Abdominal rigidity and pain at McBurney's point may indicate:
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Appendicitis
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Getting the "wind knocked out" of you is characteristic of a:
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Blow to the solar plexus
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A condition in which the pleural cavity becomes filled with air that has entered through an opening in the chest is called:
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pneumothorax
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A protrusion of the abdominal viscera through a portion of the abdominal wall is called a(n):
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hernia
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The condition in which an athlete takes a violent blow or compression to the chest, without any accompanying rib fracture, and presents with severe pain during breathing, coughing up of blood, and shock is known as:
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hemothorax
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Hematuria in an athlete participating in contact or collision sports is a sign or symptom of:
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A kidney contusion
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In managing a scrotal contusion, the first responsibility is to:
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Reduce test spasm
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A blow to the rib cage can contuse the:
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Intercostal muscles
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A direct blow to the anterolateral aspect of the thorax, or a sudden twist, or falling on the ball, can compress the rib cage and can result most often in a:
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Costochondral separation
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Any athlete who receives a severe blow to the abdomen or back region should be instructed to check for:
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Blood in the urine
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Tapping over the transverse carpal ligament tests for:
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Carpal tunnel syndrome
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Which bone in the wrist is most commonly dislocated?
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Lunate
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Which of the following nerve roots provides innervation to the opponens digiti minimi?
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C8
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Which of the following is the most common cause of wrist sprains?
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Forced hyperextension
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Stenosing tenosynovitis of the first tunnel of the wrist through which the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus move is characteristic of:
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De Quervain's disease
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To ensure the most complete healing of a PIP dorsal dislocation, constant splinting must be maintained at a 30-degree angle of flexion for how long?
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3 weeks
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A deformity caused by a rupture of the extensor tendon over the middle phalanx is called:
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Boutonniere defomity
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Which of the following tests is used to detect De Quervain's syndrome?
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Finkelstein's test
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Which side of the arm receives the most frequent impact and therefore is where the majority of bruising occurs?
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ulnar
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Which nerve controls extension of the fingers, wrist and thumb?
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radial
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Which of the following tests may be used to determine the function of the radial and ulnar arteries supplying the hand?
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Allen's test
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A sprain of the ulnar collateral ligament of the MCP joint of the thumb caused by forceful abduction of the proximal phalanx is called:
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Gamekeeper's thumb
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A wrist fracture resulting from the radius and ulna being forced backward and upward (hyperextension), is called a:
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Colle's fracture
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Which of the following finger nail deformities results from thyroid problems?
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Spooning
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Which of the following results from a repeated static contraction of the forearm muscle that correlates to medial tibial stress syndrome?
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Forearm splints
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Severe point tenderness in the anatomical "snuffbox" may indicate a fracture of which bone?
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Scaphoid
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Which of the following is not a result of forced hyperextension of the wrist?
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De Quervain's syndrome
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Which of the following conditions is due to a developmental abnormality of the wrist characterized by anatomic changes in the radius, ulna and carpal bones leading to palmar and ulnar wrist subluxation?
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Madelung deformity
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Which of the following tendons is involved with mallet finger?
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Extensor Digitorum
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Which of the following results from a rupture of the flexor digitorum profundus tendon?
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Jersey finger
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Fractures of the transverse and spinous processes in the lumbar spine present little danger to the athlete and will usually permit considerable activity within the range of pain tolerance.
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True
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