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Research Methods TEST 1 – Flashcards

Q: 15. According to Thomas Kuhn, it is generally a good thing for scientists to hang on to their pet theories tenaciously. Why? a. they seem more human that way b. by seeking out controversies with other scientists, they keep their aging minds sharp c. by vigorously advocating their theory, it won\'t be abandoned without a thorough test d. none of the aboveâbecause they are objective, dispassionate, and ruled only by data, \"tenacity\" is not a term that characterizes scientists

c. by vigorously advocating their theory, it won\'t be abandoned without a thorough test

Maisie Clarke

7 July 2022

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question

1. What do the preface to Wundt's Principles of Physiological Psychology and the original constitution of the American Psychological Association have in common? a. they both defined psychology as the study of behavior b. they both recognized that psychology was a subdivision of philosophy c. they both emphasized the scientific nature of the new psychology d. they both defined psychology as the study of the mind

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c. they both emphasized the scientific nature of the new psychology

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2. A research methods course differs from a course in developmental psychology by emphasizing a. process over content b. content over process c. basic rather than applied research d. applied rather than basic research

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a. process over content

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3. A research methods course is to a social psychology course as ______ is to ______. a. content; process b. process; content c. scientific; nonscientific d. philosophy; sociology

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b. process; content

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4. Which of the following is not listed in the text as a reason for taking a research methods course? a. it helps the student become a critical consumer of information b. it is essential for admission to most graduate schools c. it is the most important course in the psychology curriculum for achieving self-understanding d. it provides a foundation for achieving a better understanding of other psychology courses

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c. it is the most important course in the psychology curriculum for achieving self-understanding

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5. Why is it important for professional psychologists to be familiar with research methods? a. they might need to perform an evaluation to determine the effectiveness of an agency's program b. they might need to critically evaluate the scientific evidence for the effectiveness of some new clinical treatment for depression c. both alternatives a. and b. are true d. none of the above—professional psychologists only need to apply the results of research; they need not be familiar with how the research was done

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c. both alternatives a. and b. are true

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6. When students assume that their textbook must be correct, they are relying on _________ as a way of knowing. a. the a priori method b. experience c. creativity d. authority

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d. authority

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7. Which of the following is true about relying on authority as a way of searching for the truth? a. the authority could be wrong b. it is a problem for nonscientists but not for scientists c. it is almost certain that the authority's knowledge is based on subjective experience only d. authority should seldom if ever be believed-people should discover things for themselves

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A. The authority could be wrong

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8. Relying on authority as a basis for fixing belief is illustrated by which of the following statements? a. Because all events have causes, there must be some First Cause, namely God b. Why do I know it? I just know it, that's all c. My country, right or wrong d. It just stands to reason that animals with a cortex must have some level of consciousness

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c. My country, right or wrong

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9. Ted argues that the mind equals the brain. His argument is based on the assertion that the mind ceases to function when the brain ceases to function. This illustrates which of Peirce's ways of fixing belief? a. the a priori method b. the method of direct experience c. the scientific method d. the method of authority

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A. The a priori method

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10. As a way of fixing belief, Peirce's a priori method relies heavily on a. belief perseverance b. drawing conclusions from making systematic observations of nature c. relying on the expertise of others d. convincing others through logical arguments

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d. convincing others through logical arguments

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11. Peirce was critical about the a priori method as a way of fixing belief because a. it was especially prone to a confirmation bias b. the use of logic is not really needed for arriving at truth c. it really meant nothing more than relying on authority d. carefully reasoned arguments can produce opposite conclusions

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d. carefully reasoned arguments can produce opposite conclusions

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12. The problem with relying on a belief that "experience is the best teacher" is that a. our experiences might be limited and influenced by bias b. our experiences seldom provide any information about what life is like c. relying on experience makes us overlook the most important source of knowledge—authorities d. none of the above—personal experience is the only reliable way to truth

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a. our experiences might be limited and influenced by bias

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13. If our experiences include some unforgettable events, we might overestimate how often those kinds of events occur. This is called a. belief perseverance b. a confirmation bias c. the availability heuristic d. the a priori heuristic

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c. the availability heuristic

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14. Our experiences can be a valuable guide to the truth, but drawing firm conclusions from experience can be affected by our tendencies to ignore events that don't support our beliefs. That is, we sometimes a. use the availability heuristic b. have a confirmation bias c. decide on the truth on the basis of logic rather than direct experience d. rely too much on introspection

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b. have a confirmation bias

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15. According to Thomas Kuhn, it is generally a good thing for scientists to hang on to their pet theories tenaciously. Why? a. they seem more human that way b. by seeking out controversies with other scientists, they keep their aging minds sharp c. by vigorously advocating their theory, it won't be abandoned without a thorough test d. none of the above—because they are objective, dispassionate, and ruled only by data, "tenacity" is not a term that characterizes scientists

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c. by vigorously advocating their theory, it won't be abandoned without a thorough test

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16. Relying on Peirce's a priori method as a way of fixing belief is illustrated by which of the following statements? a. Because all events have causes, there must be some First Cause greater than all the rest b. My country, right or wrong c. Nothing will ever convince me that men have been on the moon d. Of course it's right—it was in the book

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a. Because all events have causes, there must be some First Cause greater than all the rest

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17. Students sometimes change their answers on multiple-choice questions. Many students believe that the most common outcome is that they change from the correct answer to a wrong answer, despite research that shows that students more often change from an incorrect answer to a correct one. What accounts for the strength of this erroneous belief? a. scientific thinking via logical deduction b. social cognition biases that distort their beliefs of their experiences c. a priori thinking—they reason that it would have been better to go with the first hunch or instinct d. none of the above—students in fact believe that they are successful when they change answers

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b. social cognition biases that distort their beliefs of their experiences

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18. As psychologists use the term, determinism means that a. free choice does not exist b. all the events of our lives have been "determined" ahead of time c. every event has a cause that can be known and discovered with certainty d. events can be predicted with greater than chance probability

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d. events can be predicted with greater than chance probability

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19. Research psychologists believe all of the following except a. the causes of behavior can be discovered by using scientific methods b. if statistical determinism is true, then free choices cannot be made c. it may not be possible to predict behavior with certainty d. making effective choices requires that events be predictable

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b. if statistical determinism is true, then free choices cannot be made

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20. What did the philosopher Rudolph Carnap have to say about human freedom of choice? a. free choices are really determined ahead of time by fate b. the concept is meaningless if determinism is true c. because determinism is true, we might think we have free choice, but we don't d. the ability to make meaningful choices demands that events be orderly and predictable

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d. the ability to make meaningful choices demands that events be orderly and predictable

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21. A major characteristic of psychological science is its objectivity, which means that a. science is free from human biases b. psychologists assume that people are essentially machines c. observations can be verified by more than a single observer d. results of research are always reported in terms of numbers (statistics)

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c. observations can be verified by more than a single observer

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22. An objective observation is one a. that can only be made by a mechanical recording device b. completely free from any personal bias on the part of the observer c. that can be verified by a second observer d. that cannot be questioned

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c. that can be verified by a second observer

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23. The major shortcoming with introspection as a method was that a. it relied too heavily on the a priori method b. it was used to answer philosophical rather than empirical questions c. it relied too heavily on direct observations of behavior d. observations could not be verified—they were too subjective

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d. observations could not be verified—they were too subjective

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24. The method of introspection was gradually replaced by behavioral methods because a. the latter were more objective b. the latter yielded more in depth descriptions of one's personal experience c. introspection required considerable training but no training is required to use behavioral methods d. behavioral methods allowed a closer examination of mental processes

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A. The latter were more objective

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25. To be data driven is to a. insist on empirical support for assertions b. use scientific methods even when they are inappropriate c. collect more data than is really necessary in order to answer an empirical question d. insist that the only valid question is an empirical question

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a. insist on empirical support for assertions

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26. Scientific thinking by psychologists is characterized by all of the following except a. they realize that conclusions are tentative and could change depending on future research b. they are most interested in finding answers to the "big" questions (e.g., mind-body) c. they expect claims to be supported by data collected in a systematic fashion d. they assume that behavior has causes that can be discovered using scientific methods

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b. they are most interested in finding answers to the "big" questions (e.g., mind-body)

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27. With which of the following attributes of scientific thinking is most likely to confuse and frustrate the general public? a. the desire for objectivity b. the emphasis of supporting claims with data c. the recognition that conclusions are tentative d. the reliance on empirical questions

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c. the recognition that conclusions are tentative

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28. Questions that can be answered through systematic observation and data collection are called a. introspective questions b. authoritative questions c. empirical questions d. nonempirical questions

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c. empirical questions

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29. Which of the following is most clearly phrased as an empirical question? a. Are newborns essentially good or bad? b. Do Catholics believe in the reality of Hell? c. Are the mind and body two separate entities? d. Is there life after death?

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b. Do Catholics believe in the reality of Hell?

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30. Empirical questions a. are answerable with objective data b. cannot be answered via scientific methods c. are best answered through Peirce's a priori method d. can only be answered relying on accounts of personal experiences

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a. are answerable with objective data

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31. Which of the following is not an empirical question? a. Can prayer reduce blood pressure? b. Are prayers regularly answered by God? c. Do college seniors pray for different things than college freshmen? d. none of these are empirical questions — prayer is too private

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b. Are prayers regularly answered by God?

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32. Phrenology originated in the legitimate scientific attempt to a. find a good measure of personality b. prove that humans were descended from apes c. study localization of brain function d. none of the above—like other pseudosciences, phrenology had no connection with legitimate science

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c. study localization of brain function

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33. Phrenology eventually failed as science because a. it was shown that localization of brain function does not occur b. its measures failed the test of objectivity c. it avoided disproof by having an explanation for every possible outcome d. it abandoned its use of the anecdotal method

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c. it avoided disproof by having an explanation for every possible outcome

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34. Which of the following is true about graphology? a. it relies on anecdotes as supporting evidence b. it reduces complexity to simplicity c. it uses multiple measurements and calculations to appear scientific d. all of the above

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D. all of the above

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35. All of the following generally characterize pseudoscience except a. they try to confuse the naive by associating with concepts from legitimate science b. they rely exclusively on anecdotal evidence for support c. they cannot be adequately falsified d. they take simple concepts and make them seem overly complex

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d. they take simple concepts and make them seem overly complex

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36. Which of the following is true about pseudoscience? a. pseudosciences seldom last very long because they are so easily falsified b. to create apparent legitimacy, they take simple phenomena and add unnecessary complexity c. pseudoscientific theories are flexible enough to account for any outcome and are therefore untestable as theories d. all science eventually becomes pseudoscience

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c. pseudoscientific theories are flexible enough to account for any outcome and are therefore untestable as theories

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37. In general, pseudoscientific theories a. take fairly simple behavioral phenomena and overly complicate them b. recognize the weakness of relying on anecdotal evidence c. avoid disproof by describing their studies in vague terms d. reject the idea that their theories should be tested by collecting empirical data

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c. avoid disproof by describing their studies in vague terms

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38. People often will believe that learning graphology will allow them to assess one's personality. One reason is motivational—having spent $30, they convince themselves of the value of the experience and work harder to bring about the desired outcome. This phenomenon is called a. confirmation bias b. belief perseverance c. availability heuristic d. effort justification

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d. effort justification

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39. A way to scientifically test (and potentially falsify) graphology's claims is to a. collect writing samples whose topics are not about the individual (e.g., copy a piece of text) b. compare graphology's results with those of valid and reliable personality tests c. avoid anecdotal evidence d. all of the above

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d. all of the above

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40. Researchers studying children and attempting to develop a classification system for children's play are illustrating which of psychology's goals? a. description b. prediction c. explanation d. control

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A Description

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41. Regular and predictable relationships between variables are called a. explanations b. theories c. predictions d. laws

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D laws

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42. Which of the following is not an important factor when determining that X is causing Y to occur? a. X and Y covary b. X and Y should occur simultaneously c. alternative explanations for Y can be ruled out d. variation in X produces predictable variation in Y

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b. X and Y should occur simultaneously

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43. Psychologists would conclude that frustration was a cause of aggression if it could be shown that a. when frustration occurred, aggression also occurred with some regularity b. other explanations for the aggression could be ruled out under the circumstances c. the frustration preceded the aggression d. all of the above

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D all the above

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44. When psychologists use the various principles that have been established through research to help people, they are meeting the goal of a. description b. prediction c. explanation d. application

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D. Application

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45. Which of the following is an example of describing behavior? a. students with test anxiety should perform better on oral than written tests b. test anxiety results from an early history of school failure c. test anxiety can be reduced through relaxation training d. test anxious subjects left the exam sooner than non-anxious subjects

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d. test anxious subjects left the exam sooner than non-anxious subjects

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46. Which of the following is an example of predicting behavior? a. students with test anxiety should perform better on oral than written tests b. test anxiety results from an early history of school failure c. test anxiety can be reduced through relaxation training d. test anxious subjects left the exam sooner than non-anxious subjects

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a. students with test anxiety should perform better on oral than written tests

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47. "Ergonomic" psychologists develop airplane dials that are fool proof. That is, pilots cannot inadvertently turn them the wrong way. This demonstrates the use of which of psychology's goals? a. description b. explanation c. prediction d. application

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D. Application

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48. The statement "Many students likely fear taking the research methods course" is an example of ________ behavior; the statement "The fear of taking the research methods course is caused by unfounded gossip" is an example of _________ behavior. a. describing; explaining b. describing; predicting c. explaining; predicting d. predicting; explaining

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a. describing; explaining

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49. Eleanor Gibson's creation of the visual cliff was motivated by her interest in a. the ability to perceive details at great distance b. the perception of depth c. experimental extinction of a conditioned response d. discovering an alternative to introspection

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b. the perception of depth

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50. B. F. Skinner first uncovered evidence of extinction in his laboratory when a. he repeated Pavlov's famous experiments (i.e., followed authority) b. he reasoned that an absence of reinforcement would eliminate a behavior c. his apparatus malfunctioned d. he forgot to feed his animals

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c. his apparatus malfunctioned

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1. People are using their own personal system of ethics when they make statements like this: a. I enjoy watching baseball on TV b. I think I'll cut the grass tomorrow instead of today c. I don't think it is a good idea to physically punish children d. I don't think it is a good idea to take a research methods course until after you've taken a statistics course

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c. I don't think it is a good idea to physically punish children

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2. All of the following are the kinds of statements that derive from one's system of ethics except a. I don't think it is appropriate to allow children to watch more than three hours of TV per day b. People should not be allowed to have pets; it's slavery c. I don't think it is appropriate to separate mind from body; the mind is just a looser term for the brain d. If you spare the rod, you will produce an emotionally healthy child

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c. I don't think it is appropriate to separate mind from body; the mind is just a looser term for the brain

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3. The purpose of Watson and Rayner's Little Albert study was to a. determine if emotional responses could be conditioned b. evaluate the effectiveness of a therapy for treating children's fears c. determine the stimuli that produced the basic emotions d. see if humans learned in the same way as animals

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a. determine if emotional responses could be conditioned

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4. How did Watson and Rayner justify doing the Little Albert study? a. they knew they would be removing the fear at the end of the study; thus Albert would leave the experiment without the fear b. they had the parents' informed consent and the approval of the IRB c. they thought he was strong and healthy and would not be harmed by the procedure d. none of the above - they gave no thought to the ethical dimensions of their study

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c. they thought he was strong and healthy and would not be harmed by the procedure

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5. What was Myrtle McGraw's purpose in doing the "pin-pricking" study with infants? a. she wanted to study physiological maturation in the infants b. she wished to determine if the infants would habituate to the pin pricks and not notice them c. she was studying fear conditioning, but using better controls than Watson d. she was examining which parts of the body were most sensitive to skin punctures

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a. she wanted to study physiological maturation in the infants

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6. Dennis studied a pair of female twins. What was true about his study? a. he obtained parental consent before testing them b. he was interested in whether environmental deprivation would affect development c. he was able to show that twins have about the same IQ, even if raised in different environments d. it was the first developmental psychology study to use assent in addition to consent

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b. he was interested in whether environmental deprivation would affect development

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7. When formulating the original APA code of ethics, the Hobbs committee used an empirical procedure called the __________ method. a. informed consent b. critical incidents c. ethics case study d. archival

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b critical incidents

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8. What was the "critical incidents" technique? a. a survey procedure used to elicit examples of unethical conduct by psychologists b. a 10-point scale measuring the severity of an ethical infraction c. a procedure for identifying studies that were ethically questionable but "critical" for advancing psychological science d. a procedure whereby psychologists were sent a set of 50 experiments and asked to criticize them on ethical grounds

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a. a survey procedure used to elicit examples of unethical conduct by psychologists

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9. The most recent APA code (2002) includes 5 general principles and 89 standards. Which of the following is true? a. the standards are "aspirational goals" guiding the general behavior of psychologists b. the principles are "enforceable rules of conduct" for psychologists c. both alternatives a. and b. d. none of the above

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D none of the above

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10. The most recent APA code (2002) includes 5 general principles and 89 standards. One of the general principles obligates researchers to continually weigh the profit and the cost of the research they complete. Which general principle is this? a. beneficence and nonmaleficence b. integrity c. justice d. fidelity and responsibility

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a. beneficence and nonmaleficence

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11. In the original Milgram obedience experiment, the research participants played the role of a. experimenter b. learner c. teacher d. either learner or teacher, depending on a coin toss

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c teacher

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12. The most recent APA code (2002) includes 5 general principles and 89 standards. The general principles are "aspirational goals." Which of the following is an example of an aspirational goal? a. concern for the rights and dignity of others b. ethnic quotas for admission to graduate school in psychology c. blind review of research articles (reviewer doesn't know name of article's author) d. the obligation for psychologists to provide some of their services free of charge

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c. blind review of research articles (reviewer doesn't know name of article's author)

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13. Milgram's participants thought they were in a study about _______ when in fact they were in a study about _________. a. obedience; punishment and learning b. punishment and learning; obedience c. obedience; helping behavior d. helping behavior; obedience

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b. punishment and learning; obedience

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14. When planning any study, the research psychologist faces the conflicting demands of producing meaningful research and a. respecting the rights of human participants b. wasting time by doing an experiment that doesn't come out as predicted c. getting something published d. being sure to avoid any deception of participants

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a. respecting the rights of human participants

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15. If a study is planned by a research psychologist but actually carried out by a graduate student, who holds primary responsibility for the "dignity and welfare" of the participants? a. the graduate student b. the research psychologist c. the Institutional Review Board (i.e., neither the student nor the psychologist) d. the participants themselves (buyer beware)

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b the research psychologist

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16. If participants find themselves performing tasks like those encountered in ordinary daily living, then they are considered to be a. experiencing no risk b. at risk c. at minimal risk d. none of the above

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C at minimal risk

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17. If there is minimal or no risk to participants, the IRB will a. not have to consider the case b. typically complete a formal review (just to be sure) c. typically complete an expedited review d. always approve the research

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c. typically complete an expedited review

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18. Concerning the assignment of risk, where would you place the participants in Milgram's experiment? a. at minimal risk b. at risk c. experiencing no risk d. none of the above

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B at risk

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19. At a university or college, the Institutional Review Board is a university or college committee that a. evaluates proposals and awards grant money to researchers b. evaluates the methodological soundness of research proposals c. evaluates the ethical soundness of research proposals d. accomplishes all three of the tasks outlined in alternatives a., b., and c.

answer

c. evaluates the ethical soundness of research proposals

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20. A study that involves naturalistic observation of public behavior would likely receive the following designation from an IRB a. exempt from review b. expedited review c. full review d. none of the above

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a. exempt from review

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21. IRB's have been criticized by some researchers in psychology. Which of the following is an often-heard and serious criticism? a. there is no appeal process to protect researchers from overzealous IRB's b. IRB procedures slow down the research process c. because psychologists have always had a keen sensitivity to ethical issues, IRB's are not really needed d. IRB's should be made up of research scientists only—nonscientists just don't get it

answer

a. there is no appeal process to protect researchers from overzealous IRB's

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22. Which of the following is true about an IRB? a. its membership includes nonscientists b. it always judges the methodological soundness of studies c. its approval is not needed for research completed outside a laboratory d. its decisions can be appealed to the APA ethics board

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a. its membership includes nonscientists

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23. Which of the following is not part of the APA's ethics code for humans? a. those who are at least at minimal risk must give their informed consent b. people may or may not decide to participate, but once they start a study, they are obliged to finish it c. participants must be thoroughly debriefed at the end of a study d. participants must be assured of confidentiality

answer

b. people may or may not decide to participate, but once they start a study, they are obliged to finish it

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24. According to the APA's ethics code for humans, those who volunteer for a study a. can quit at any time, without penalty b. must be debriefed at the end of the study, if they request it c. must sign an informed consent form that fully explains all aspects of the study ahead of time, including its complete hypothesis d. must complete the study, once they begin

answer

a. can quit at any time, without penalty

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25. Researchers believe that some degree of deception in research is sometimes warranted because a. without it, participants might not behave naturally b. without it, participants would be less likely to volunteer c. most participants really cannot understand the complexity of research in psychology d. participants expect to be deceived

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a. without it, participants might not behave naturally

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26. A study by Gardner compared participants who were fully informed ahead of time about the predicted effects of noise on stress with others who were not informed. What were the results? a. fully informed subjects were more adversely affected by the noise than uninformed subjects b. uninformed participants were more adversely affected by the noise than those fully informed c. there was no difference between the two types of participants, thereby showing that deception is not needed for that type of research d. there was no difference between the two types of participants, thereby showing that deception is needed for that type of research

answer

b. uninformed participants were more adversely affected by the noise than those fully informed

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27. In terms of the current ethics code, Milgram's obedience research is most questionable with respect to which issue? a. confidentiality b. debriefing c. following up on participants to insure their well being d. allowing participants to quit any time in the procedure

answer

d. allowing participants to quit any time in the procedure

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28. Consent forms typically include a. a brief survey eliciting participant opinions about psychological research b. the precise research hypothesis being tested c. an assurance of confidentiality d. a statement indicating that participants must complete the study once they start it

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c. an assurance of confidentiality

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29. Research participants can expect to find several pieces of information in an informed consent form. Which of the following is not likely to be found? a. a statement of the possible risks for participating b. a mechanism for contacting the researcher after the participation is over c. a statement of the study's true purpose and hypothesis d. an assurance of confidentiality

answer

c. a statement of the study's true purpose and hypothesis

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30. The Society for Research in Child Development publishes a set of ethical guidelines that supplement the APA code. One such guideline applies when studying school age children in a school setting. In this research, which of the following is true? a. no student in a class can be tested unless all students in the class agree to be tested b. in addition to parents, the students' teachers should also give their consent c. at least one representative parent must be recruited to observe the research trials d. because some children might be reluctant to participate, it is OK to provide them with incentives large enough to get them to volunteer

answer

b. in addition to parents, the students' teachers should also give their consent

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31. In research with school children, what is meant by the principle of assent? a. this is when the parents give consent b. this is when the teachers allow their classroom to be used in the study c. this is when the children agree to participate d. this is when the children are given concrete rewards for participating

answer

c. this is when the children agree to participate

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32. In a study using prisoners, special care must be taken to insure that a. families of the prisoners give consent b. deception is never used c. prisoners don't feel coerced into participating d. provide incentives large enough to gain the trust of the prisoners

answer

c. prisoners don't feel coerced into participating

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33. Which of the following is true of the Willowbrook hepatitis study? a. there was a complete absence of informed consent b. the researchers made no attempt to justify the study c. it violated the principle that mentally disabled children should only be studied in research concerning mental disability d. patient confidentiality was violated

answer

c. it violated the principle that mentally disabled children should only be studied in research concerning mental disability

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34. How did researchers justify the Willowbrook hepatitis study? a. they believed the ultimate goal of eliminating hepatitis at the institution justified the deliberate exposure to hepatitis b. they believed that hepatitis was so rampant that the participants would be likely to contract it anyway c. both of the above justifications were used d. the researchers made no attempt to justify the study

answer

c. both of the above justifications were used

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35. What did the Willowbrook and Tuskegee studies have in common? a. took advantage of mentally ill participants b. questionable informed consent procedures c. first uses of effective debriefing d. first medical studies to use proper control procedures

answer

b. questionable informed consent procedures

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36. Which of the following is true of the Tuskegee syphilis study? a. there was a complete absence of informed consent b. the researchers were really studying poverty, not syphilis c. it violated the principle that mentally disabled participants should only be studiedin research concerning mental disability d. confidentiality was violated when patients were described in a news story

answer

a. there was a complete absence of informed consent

question

37. What distinguishes the following two historical examples of ethically "challenged" incidents: the Willowbrook case and the MK-ULTRA case? a. Willowbrook broke confidentiality; MK-ULTRA was a failure to debrief b. the Willowbrook researchers hoped to improve health; the MK-ULTRA researchers were not concerned with medical benefit to society c. Willowbrook failed on the issue of assent, but was adequate on the issue of consent; the opposite was true of MK-ULTRA d. Willowbrook involved human participants, while MK-ULTRA used animals

answer

b. the Willowbrook researchers hoped to improve health; the MK-ULTRA researchers were not concerned with medical benefit to society

question

38. In debriefing after helping behavior studies, experimenters often emphasize that some situations are often so powerful that nobody could be expected to help. This portion of the postexperimental session is emphasizing what Holmes referred to as a. debriefing b. dehoaxing c. desensitizing d. both alternatives b. and c.

answer

c desensitizing

question

39. Dehoaxing is to desensitizing as _______ is to ________. a. explanation; stress reduction b. explanation; consent c. stress reduction; explanation d. stress reduction; consent

answer

a. explanation; stress reduction

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40. During debriefing, the experiment must be prepared to reassure the participant if the procedures have created some stress. This part of debriefing is called a. informed consent b. insuring confidentiality c. dehoaxing d. desensitizing

answer

d. desensitizing

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41. If a researcher is concerned about _______, then the researcher may ask participants to not disclose any information to others until the study is completed. a. deception b. participant crosstalk c. confidentiality d. desensitizing

answer

b. participant crosstalk

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42. Sullivan and Deiker asked psychologists and students to evaluate the ethical appropriateness of several deception studies. What did they find? a. for the psychologists it was "anything goes"; the students were deeply concerned b. psychologists were more likely to consider the procedures ethical than were students c. students were more likely to consider the procedures ethical than were psychologists d. psychologists found some of the procedures questionable; students found all of the procedures questionable

answer

c. students were more likely to consider the procedures ethical than were psychologists

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43. According to APA guidelines, when is it considered appropriate to deceive participants about the true purpose of the study? a. never b. only when debriefing is excluded (therefore participants won't need to discover that they have been deceived) c. only when the subjects are nonhuman d. only when the research hypothesis could not be tested in any other way

answer

d. only when the research hypothesis could not be tested in any other way

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44. Research using the Internet is increasing. Which of the following guideline is least likely to be a problem for participants? a. informed consent b. confidentiality and privacy c. debriefing d. the option to quit any time

answer

d. the option to quit any time

question

45. Which of the following problems is unique to electronic research? a. it is impossible to accomplish debriefing b. deception might occur c. participants might think they cannot quit the experiment without penalty d. there is no way to insure that a participant is age 18 or older

answer

d. there is no way to insure that a participant is age 18 or older

question

46. Which of the following is true about the use of animals in psychological research? a. animals used to be subjects in the majority of psychological research; they are now used in less than 1% of the studies b. animals are no longer used in psychological research c. animals are used in about half of the studies done by research psychologists d. animals are used in about 8% of psychological research

answer

d. animals are used in about 8% of psychological research

question

47. Most research psychologists believe that a. "sentient" animals have the same basic rights as humans b. animals can be subjected to procedures not to be used with people c. ethical guidelines are essential for research with humans, but not so for research with animals d. animal research has no relevance for understanding human behavior

answer

b. animals can be subjected to procedures not to be used with people

question

48. Why did Gibson and Walk study animals in the visual cliff studies? a. the animals could be raised in visual isolation b. animals can be fully mobile without a matter of hours c. studying animals enabled them to control for perceptual experience d. all of the above

answer

d all the above

question

49. In their visual cliff research, Gibson and Walk studied both children and goats. Why goats? a. goat and human visual systems are identical b. goats could be placed on the visual cliff while blindfolded; you cannot do that to children c. unlike children, goats can be raised is perceptual isolation d. goats can move through the environment at about the same time as humans

answer

c. unlike children, goats can be raised is perceptual isolation

question

50. In the early years of the nineteenth century, antivivisectionists criticized a. Watson's research on determining which senses contributed to maze learning b. Watson and Rayner's Little Albert study c. Small's pioneering maze learning studies d. any medical research involving either humans or animals

answer

a. Watson's research on determining which senses contributed to maze learning

question

51. Moderate animal rights activists who grant the necessity of using animals for medical research often criticize the use of animals in psychological research on what grounds? a. it is needlessly repetitive b. animal research has no relevance for human behavior c. both a. and b. d. none of the above

answer

c. both a. and b.

question

52. Animal rights activists argue that instead of using laboratory animals, psychologists should use alternatives. They recommend all of the following except a. using nonintrusive observational procedures and study animals in their natural environments b. substituting nonsentient for sentient animals (bugs instead of rats) c. using computer simulations instead of live animals d. using non-primate mammals (e.g., dogs) instead of primates

answer

d. using non-primate mammals (e.g., dogs) instead of primates

question

53. In his address on "The Value of Behavioral Research with Animals," Miller argued that a. all animal research is justified b. animal research contributes to the psychological well being of humans c. animal research should only be done if it can be shown that the research directly benefits animals as well as humans d. the benefits of animal research have been significantly overstated

answer

b. animal research contributes to the psychological well being of humans

question

54. In his address on "The Value of Behavioral Research with Animals," Miller argued that a. animal rights activists have overstated the harm done to animals by researchers b. animal research doesn't do much for animals, but it can benefit humans c. animal research doesn't do much for humans, but it can benefit animals d. animal research never harms the animals

answer

a. animal rights activists have overstated the harm done to animals by researchers

question

55. What does the APA ethics code for animal research have in common with the code for human research? a. both have a need for informed consent b. both have a need to balance scientific merit and potential harm to subjects c. both have a need to test as few subjects as possible d. both require IRB approval

answer

b. both have a need to balance scientific merit and potential harm to subjects

question

56. All of the following are included in the APA ethics code for research with animals except a. periodic checks of the facility by a veterinarian b. an animal subjects committee analogous to an IRB c. a prohibition against the use of animals for mere educational use d. painless death if euthanasia is necessary

answer

c. a prohibition against the use of animals for mere educational use

question

57. According to the APA code of ethics for animal research, a. appetitive procedures are preferred over aversive procedures b. using animals for mere educational use is prohibited c. in research involving pain, only nonsentient animals may be used d. the research supervisor must also be a veterinarian

answer

a. appetitive procedures are preferred over aversive procedures

question

58. The "scientific purpose" of an animal research study can fit into one of three categories. Which of the following is not one of those categories? a. increase our knowledge of the basic processes underlying the evolution of a behavior b. yield results that benefit humans and/or the species being studied c. increase the basic understanding of the species being studied d. improve the safety and efficiency of commercial products that will be used by humans

answer

d. improve the safety and efficiency of commercial products that will be used by humans

question

59. The late British psychologist Cyril Burt has been suspected of scientific fraud in the reporting of some of the data from his famous twin studies. What does his case illustrate about data falsification? a. if fraudulent results are virtually the same as legitimate results (other twin studies), the fraud may go undetected b. most scientific fraud can be detected because the results will not be replicated when other scientists study the phenomenon c. scientific fraud is often uncovered during the peer review process for journal publication d. scientific fraud generally happens when researchers become mentally unbalanced

answer

a. if fraudulent results are virtually the same as legitimate results (other twin studies), the fraud may go undetected

question

60. The traditional view about data falsification is that it will be detected eventually by the scientific community because a. faked results won't replicate and will therefore be discarded b. a faked result will raise suspicions during the peer review process c. both alternatives a. and b. d. none of the above

answer

c. both alternatives a. and b.

question

61. In the case in which a researcher fabricated data about a treatment for hyperactive children, the fraud was detected because a. the results never replicated b. it caught the attention of peers during the peer review process; the results were never published c. a colleague suspected that the data were not genuine d. the researcher was overwhelmed with guilt

answer

c. a colleague suspected that the data were not genuine

question

62. Which of the following is true about falsified data? a. it might go undetected if it is consistent with results from other laboratories b. almost all research involves replication, so falsified data is easy to spot c. creating all the data for a study is obviously fraudulent, but making up one or two data points is normal practice d. fraudulent data is easily spotted because it produces results that don't make sense

answer

a. it might go undetected if it is consistent with results from other laboratories

question

63. What does the APA ethics code have to say about the status of data collected by a research psychologist? a. before results based on these data can be published, the data must be statistically analyzed by a person not involved in the data collection b. researchers are expected to make the data set available to other scientists who ask to examine it c. all research participants should have the opportunity to examine all the data, in order to determine if they want their to stay in the data set or be removed d. researchers have copyright ownership over their data and can deny its availability to others

answer

b. researchers are expected to make the data set available to other scientists who ask to examine it

question

1. Participants are asked to memorize three different lists of words. The lists are presented at three different presentation speeds. How would you classify this study? a. applied research b. field research c. basic research d. both a. and b.

answer

c basic research

question

2. Basic research is concerned with ______ while applied research tries to ________. a. experimental realism; accomplish mundane realism b. establishing essential principles; solve practical problems c. the laboratory only; use field studies only d. mundane realism; accomplish experimental realism

answer

b. establishing essential principles; solve practical problems

question

3. Which of the following research studies is most obviously an example of basic research? a. the effect of delaying reward on maze learning in rats b. the effectiveness of hypnosis for improving courtroom eyewitness memory c. worker productivity in well-lit vs. poorly-lit environments d. whether hands-free cell phones are less disruptive to driving than hand-held phones

answer

a. the effect of delaying reward on maze learning in rats

question

4. Applied research a. always has mundane realism but seldom has experimental realism b. always has experimental realism but seldom has mundane realism c. can be either laboratory or field research d. is always field research, while basic research is laboratory research

answer

c. can be either laboratory or field research

question

5. The studies by Cherry and by Broadbent, using dichotic listening, are examples of a. basic research on attention b. applied research on the factors that enhance the focusing of attention c. research high in mundane realism but low in experimental realism d. basic research on car driving

answer

b. applied research on the factors that enhance the focusing of attention

question

6. Broadbent's study on selective attention is to Strayer's study on cell phone use while driving as _______ is to _________. a. field research; laboratory research b. mundane realism; experimental realism c. applied research; basic research d. basic research; applied research

answer

c. applied research; basic research

question

7. Compared to field research, what is the advantage of laboratory research? a. informed consent is easier b. it allows experimental realism to occur c. there is a greater degree of mundane realism d. only lab research yields data that can be analyzed adequately (statistically)

answer

a. informed consent is easier

question

8. Compared to field research, which of the following is true about laboratory research? a. it allows for a greater degree of control over variables b. it may be lower in mundane realism c. both informed consent and debriefing are easier to manage d. all of the above

answer

d. all of the above

question

9. Compared to laboratory research, which of the following is true about field research? a. it allows for a greater degree of control over variables b. it may be higher in mundane realism c. both informed consent and debriefing are easier to manage d. it will be higher in experimental realism

answer

b. it may be higher in mundane realism

question

10. If a study is high on experimental realism, then a. participants will take the procedures seriously b. the participant's task will resemble a normal daily activity c. it is certain that deception has been used d. it is almost certainly a field study rather than a laboratory study

answer

a. participants will take the procedures seriously

question

11. Which of the following is true of the studies done by Bushman and Anderson (which evaluated exposure to violence and helping behavior)? a. it combined both laboratory and field research in a series of experiments b. it was a series of experiments high in mundane realism but low in experimental realism c. it combined both basic and applied research in a single experiment d. it was a series of experiments high in experimental realism but low in mundane realism

answer

a. it combined both laboratory and field research in a series of experiments

question

12. In the laboratory research study by Bushman and Anderson, participants played either violent or nonviolent video games, then filled out a questionnaire. Which of the following describes what they found? a. participants who played violent video games completed the questionnaires faster than participants who played non-violent video games b. participants who played violent video games reported less violence in the video games than participants who played non-violent video games c. participants who played violent video games d. participants who played violent video games were slower to help an individual in an adjacent room compared to participants who played non-violent video games e. participants who played violent video games did not help an individual in an adjacent room compared to participants who played non-violent video games

answer

c. participants who played violent video games

question

13. After completing their laboratory experiment on exposure to violent video games, why did Bushman and Anderson complete a field experiment on the exposure to violence and helping behavior? a. they wanted to improve experimental realism b. they wanted to see if the results of their first experiment would generalize to everyday situations c. they wanted to rule out alternative interpretations of their laboratory experiment d. they wanted to increase sample size

answer

b. they wanted to see if the results of their first experiment would generalize to everyday situations

question

14. In Bushman and Anderson's field experiment, who was the experimental confederate? a. a young man who was heard fighting with another person b. a young woman with and apparent ankle injury and crutches at a movie theater c. a young woman with and apparent ankle injury and crutches in the laboratory d. the experimenter who administered the questionnaires

answer

b. a young woman with and apparent ankle injury and crutches at a movie theater

question

15. Qualitative research is to quantitative research as _______ is to _______. a. analytic narrative; inferential analysis b. applied research; basic research c. field research; laboratory research d. basic field research; applied field research

answer

a. analytic narrative; inferential analysis

question

16. The study in the text that examined male female patterns of control over the TV remote is a good example of a study that combines a. basic and applied research b. field and lab research c. qualitative and quantitative research

answer

c. qualitative and quantitative research

question

17. Sternberg and Grigerenko studied the effects of parasitic infections on cognitive functioning in several field sites around the world. They argued that field research offers several advantages over laboratory research. All of the following are advantages they cited except a. some conditions (e.g., extreme heat) could never be duplicated in the lab b. discoveries that result from the research can have immediate beneficial effects on people c. field research can correct misconceptions that might arise from laboratory research d. field research automatically allows the experimenters greater experimental realism

answer

d. field research automatically allows the experimenters greater experimental realism

question

18. Empirical questions must a. be answerable with data b. include terms that can be operationally defined c. both alternatives a. and b. d. none of the above

answer

c. both alternatives a. and b.

question

19. A researcher is measuring aggression. Which of the following is most clearly inadequate as an operational definition of the term? a. choosing a button which makes it difficult for another subject to complete a task b. honking one's horn at an intersection for a period of more than two seconds c. attempting to harm someone d. delivering electric shocks to a competitor

answer

c. attempting to harm someone

question

20. What is the advantage of using operational definitions? a. they force researchers in different laboratories to all use the exact same definition b. they facilitate replication c. it's easy to agree on a universal definition for a concept like aggression d. there are no advantages to using operational definitions; no two persons can ever agree on the best definition

answer

b. they facilitate replication

question

21. Operational definitions a. are seldom needed because of modern advances in behavioral technology b. are needed to force researchers in different laboratories to all use the exact same definition of a construct c. force researchers to be clear about defining the terms of their studies d. differ from one study to another, which means that using operational definitions hinders the replication process

answer

c. force researchers to be clear about defining the terms of their studies

question

22. Which of the following is the best example of converging operations? a. several studies use different operational definitions of aggression yet produce the same basic results b. several studies of anxiety, each with a different operational definition of anxiety, each yields different results c. researchers from different laboratories agree ahead of time to use the same operational definitions for intelligence d. researchers from different laboratories collaborate on the same research program

answer

a. several studies use different operational definitions of aggression yet produce the same basic results

question

23. Two researchers with two completely different operational definitions for aggression nonetheless produce the same result — frustration leads to aggression. This outcome is referred to as a. exact replication b. operationism c. converging operations d. serendipity

answer

c. converging operations

question

24. What do the following discoveries have in common: Skinner's extinction curve and Hubel and Wiesel's feature detectors? a. both examples of research ideas resulting from everyday observations b. both examples of research deduced logically from theory c. both examples of a serendipitous finding d. both examples of failures to replicate

answer

c. both examples of a serendipitous finding

question

25. Which of the following would be an example of a research project began as the result of a serendipitous event? a. A suspects B of fraud, so A replicates B's work b. A notices that complete strangers who take the same subway to work every day begin to greet one another at the station; A wonders why c. A comes across an interesting study and does a partial replication and an extension of it d. A has an equipment failure and notices some unusual behavior that leads to a series of studies

answer

d. A has an equipment failure and notices some unusual behavior that leads to a series of studies

question

26. Which of the following is an example of research began as the result of reflecting on a real news event? a. Festinger's cognitive dissonance research b. Darley's helping behavior research c. Broadbent's dichotic listening research d. Bushman and Anderson's violence and helping behavior research

answer

b. Darley's helping behavior research

question

27. The idea for Zeigarnik's study on the forgetting of completed tasks came from a. a deduction from a theory b. the observation of an everyday event in a restaurant c. the accidental discovery of a memory problem with incomplete tasks d. an unanswered question from a study Zeigarnik had just completed

answer

b. the observation of an everyday event in a restaurant

question

28. Which of the following examples illustrates research that resulted from reflecting on an everyday observation? a. Skinner's research on extinction b. Festinger's application of dissonance theory to the decision making c. Zeigarnik's decision to study the effects of incomplete tasks on memory d. Pfungst's study of Clever Hans

answer

c. Zeigarnik's decision to study the effects of incomplete tasks on memory

question

29. Theories a. are not highly regarded until proven true b. lead to hypotheses through the process of induction c. provide the basis for making predictions that can be tested empirically d. are ideal if they can explain all possible outcomes

answer

c. provide the basis for making predictions that can be tested empirically

question

30. All of the following are true of theories except a. they organize existing data b. an attribute of a good theory is that it is high on "productivity" c. provide the basis for making predictions that can be tested empirically d. they are tentative until the facts prove them true

answer

d. they are tentative until the facts prove them true

question

31. A prediction is made from a theory and the results are just as predicted. What can be concluded about the theory? a. it has been proven true b. it has been inductively supported c. it has been turned into a fact d. it has been disproven

answer

b. it has been inductively supported

question

32. If a number of studies all seem consistent with a theory, then the theory is said to have been supported through a. induction b. deduction c. serendipity d. parsimony

answer

A induction

question

33. According to the original cognitive dissonance theory, dissonance occurs when people a. experience electrical shock that is painful b. simultaneously experience contradictory thoughts c. are rewarded by others for feeling sad d. must learn difficult tasks and they sometimes fail

answer

b. simultaneously experience contradictory thoughts

question

34. Anxiety is not observed directly but is inferred from certain behaviors. That is, anxiety is an example of a. a construct b. a law c. a theory d. an operational definition

answer

a. a construct

question

35. In the original cognitive dissonance theory, it was said that dissonance develops as a result of experiencing contradictory thoughts. This "dissonance" is an example of a. a behavior b. a hypothesis c. an operational definition d. a construct

answer

D a construct

question

36. Hypotheses are a. reasonable predictions about what should occur under specific circumstances b. guesses about the causes of events c. generated from theory through the process of induction d. considered to be "proven true" when supported by more than one experiment

answer

a. reasonable predictions about what should occur under specific circumstances

question

37. Hypotheses are derived from theories through the process of a. induction b. deduction c. falsification d. parsimony

answer

B deduction

question

38. To reason inductively is to a. reason from the specific event to the general principle b. reason from the general principle to the specific event c. use a modus tollens improperly d. affirm the consequent

answer

a. reason from the specific event to the general principle

question

39. When is a theory discarded? a. when a study does not come out as predicted, thereby producing falsification b. whenever a better theory is proposed c. when empirical results consistently fail to support it d. when the theory's originator dies

answer

c. when empirical results consistently fail to support it

question

40. "If a theory is true, then event X should occur." Which of the following outcomes illustrates the fallacy of affirming the consequent? a. event X occurs, therefore the theory has been proven true b. event X occurs, therefore the theory has been supported c. event X does not occur, therefore the theory has been disproven d. event X does not occur, therefore the theory has not been supported

answer

a. event X occurs, therefore the theory has been proven true

question

41. "If a theory is true, then event X should occur." Suppose event X does not occur. What would the typical scientist conclude? a. the theory has been disproven — let's get rid of it b. the outcome must have been an accident c. the study failed to support the theory — let's replicate d. the original hypothesis must have been deduced improperly

answer

c. the study failed to support the theory — let's replicate

question

42. On the basis of cognitive dissonance theory, it was predicted that after making a hard choice, people will convince themselves that they have made a wise choice. Suppose you do a study and discover that exact outcome. What is the proper conclusion? a. cognitive dissonance theory has been proven b. cognitive dissonance theory has been disproven c. cognitive dissonance theory has not been supported d. cognitive dissonance theory has been supported

answer

d. cognitive dissonance theory has been supported

question

43. On the basis of cognitive dissonance theory, it was predicted that after making a hard choice, people will convince themselves that they have made a wise choice. Suppose you do a study and discover the exact opposite outcome. Logically, what can be concluded? a. cognitive dissonance theory is true b. cognitive dissonance theory is not true c. cognitive dissonance theory has not been supported d. cognitive dissonance theory has been supported

answer

d. cognitive dissonance theory has been supported

question

44. On the basis of a theory a prediction is made; from the prediction a study is run, and the study does not come out as expected. What is the researcher most likely to conclude? a. the theory should be discarded b. the study should be replicated c. the theory has been supported but not proven d. the equipment must have failed

answer

b. the study should be replicated

question

45. Which of the following distinguishes a good theory from a bad one? a. the good theory has been proven true b. the good theory can explain all possible research outcomes c. both alternatives a. and b. d. none of the above

answer

b. the good theory can explain all possible research outcomes

question

46. The predictions from dissonance theory did not always come out as predicted. What happened to the theory? a. it was discarded b. it was concluded that it must be true; most of the research proved it c. it evolved to incorporate the idea that dissonance occurred most strongly when the self was threatened d. it was logically disproven but hung on over the years because nothing better came along

answer

d. it was logically disproven but hung on over the years because nothing better came along

question

47. Theories that can explain all outcomes after the fact a. do not allow for predictions to be made b. have been falsified c. are said to be highly parsimonious d. illustrate the results of converging operations

answer

c. are said to be highly parsimonious

question

48. According to Popper, science proceeds by a. creating theories and trying to falsify them b. searching for the ideal (i.e., cannot be falsified) theory c. accumulating data in the absence of formal theories d. achieving the proof of a theory after sufficient inductive support has accumulated

answer

a. creating theories and trying to falsify them

question

49. Some dogs can open gates with their noses. To explain this phenomenon by attributing logic and problem solving abilities to the dog is to a. give a parsimonious explanation b. falsify a simpler explanation c. be guilty of a confirmation bias d. give an explanation that is not very parsimonious

answer

a. give a parsimonious explanation

question

50. A theory that has the minimum of constructs and assumptions, yet adequately summarizes and organizes information, is said to be a(n) ________ theory. a. parsimonious b. operationalized c. falsified d. simplistic

answer

D simplistic

question

51. Which of the following is true about the case of Clever Hans? a. it was shown to be a case of scientific fraud b. Pfungst demonstrated that the most parsimonious explanation was that the horse had a higher level of intelligence than other horses c. Pfungst ruled out intelligence by showing that if the questioner didn't know the answer, thehorse didn't know the answer d. he only answered correctly when his trainer (von Osten) knew the answer

answer

a. it was shown to be a case of scientific fraud

question

52. According to the text, which of the following is true about the Freudian and the learning theory explanations for why young children imitate their parents? a. the learning theory explanation has fewer assumptions and is therefore more parsimonious b. the Freudian explanation has fewer assumptions and is therefore more parsimonious c. Freudian theory has been falsified d. learning theory has been falsified

answer

c. Freudian theory has been falsified

question

53. Which of the following is the least accurate description of most research in psychology? a. the outcome of one study is usually a question that leads to the next study b. research is more likely to be the product of a research team than of an individual investigator working alone c. the majority of research ideas come from a logical deduction from an established theory d. researchers don't complete projects in topic A, then move to B; they develop programs of research on topic A

answer

a. the outcome of one study is usually a question that leads to the next study

question

54. In the early stages of designing a study, the feasibility of some procedures is often evaluated by conducting a a. debate among different members of the research team b. pilot study c. hypothetical "what's next?" exercise d. rigorous attempt to falsify the prediction

answer

c. hypothetical "what's next?" exercise

question

55. Research in psychology is characterized by all of the following except a. most research is a logical "what's next?" consequence of a study just completed b. to avoid getting off to a bad start, most research is highly structured in its early stages c. research is more likely to be completed by research teams than individual researchers d. at the start of a research project, researchers often conduct loosely structured pilot studies

answer

b. to avoid getting off to a bad start, most research is highly structured in its early stages

question

56. A researcher uses some of the same procedures in her method as in a previous study, but she adds a new variable to be tested. What has she done? a. engaged in data falsification b. did an exact replication of the previous study c. partially replicated the previous study d. created serendipity in her study

answer

b. did an exact replication of the previous study

question

57. Study #1 compares 2- and 4-month old children on a perceptual task. Study #2 uses the same task and compares four groups of children, aged 2, 4, 6, and 8 months. Which of the following is true? a. study #2 is an exact replication b. study #2 should not have tested the 2- and 4-month olds (already been done) c. study #2 is a partial replication and an extension d. study #1 should have tested 6- and 8-month olds

answer

c. study #2 is a partial replication and an extension

question

58. According to Pasteur, "chance favors the prepared mind." Thus, creative breakthroughs in physics are most likely to be made by a. random accident (thus they could be made by anyone) b. physicists c. chemists d. any scientist other than a physicist

answer

C Chemists

question

59. The creation of the maze apparatus a. a. required the presence of scientists (Small and Kline) with "prepared" minds (i.e., they knew about rat behavior) b. was not creative because it merely copied the human version c. is an example of following authority (i.e., lab director Sanford imposed his will) d. resulted from a desire to produce a laboratory situation unrelated to the rat's everyday experience (that way, learning could be studied in its purest form)

answer

b. was not creative because it merely copied the human version

question

1. Which of the following is an example of a construct? a. entering arm #3 of a radial maze b. using fingers when adding c. social effectiveness d. naming letters

answer

c. social effectiveness

question

2. Which of the following is not an example of a construct? a. perceived social support b. letter identification c. habituation d. social effectiveness

answer

b. letter identification

question

3. Which of the following sequences of "time (in seconds) spent looking" suggests that habituation is occurring? a. 14, 10, 8, 12 b. 6, 6, 6, 6 c. 10, 6, 10, 6 d. 10, 8, 6, 4

answer

d. 10, 8, 6, 4

question

4. Which of the following sequences of "time (in seconds) spent looking" suggests that habituation occurs initially, but is followed by the perception of "something new?" a. 12, 10, 7, 11 b. 6, 6, 6, 6 c. 10, 6, 10, 6 d. 10, 8, 6, 4

answer

a. 12, 10, 7, 11

question

5. In a sequence of trials, an infant looks at a stimulus for 10 seconds, then 8, then 6, then 4. On the next trial, the infant looks for 12 seconds. What has occurred on this last trial? a. the infant has noticed a change in the stimulus b. habituation has occurred c. the infant has lost interest in the stimulus d. the infant is afraid of the stimulus

answer

a. the infant has noticed a change in the stimulus

question

6. A gradual decline in responding in the face of a repeated stimulus is known as a. inhibition b. habituation c. extinction d. reaction time

answer

b. habituation

question

7. In the mental rotation studies, Shepard and Metzler predicted that a. participants would make more errors with a 30o rotation than with a 60o rotation b. participants would make more errors with a 60o rotation than with a 30o rotation c. participants would take more time with a 30o rotation than with a 60o rotation d. participants would take more time with a 60o rotation than with a 30o rotation

answer

d. participants would take more time with a 60o rotation than with a 30o rotation

question

8. Suppose a child in Kim and Spelke's habituation experiment showed a gradual decrease in looking time when shown ten examples of balls rolling down a plane while accelerating. The child then sees (trial 11) a ball rolling down a plane while decelerating. If the child has grasped the concept of gravity, what will happen to the behavior? a. they will look longer on trial 10 than on trial 11 b. they will look longer on trial 11 than on trial 10 c. they will look for the same amount of time on both trials 10 and 11 d. not enough information to decide

answer

b. they will look longer on trial 11 than on trial 10

question

9. Suppose a child in Kim and Spelke's habituation experiment showed a gradual decrease in looking time when shown ten examples of balls rolling down a plane while accelerating. The child then sees (trial 11) a ball rolling up a plane while decelerating. If the child understands the concept of gravity, what will happen to the behavior? a. they will no longer look at the display b. they will look much longer on trial 11 than on trial 10 c. they will look for the same amount of time on both trials 10 and 11 d. not enough information to decide

answer

c. they will look for the same amount of time on both trials 10 and 11

question

10. If simple reaction time takes an average of 0.17 seconds and discrimination reaction time takes an average of 0.26 seconds, then according to Donders' method, how long does the mental event of discrimination take? a. 0.43 seconds b. 0.26 seconds c. 0.09 seconds d. 0.20 seconds

answer

c. 0.09 seconds

question

11. Using Donders method, if the mental event called discrimination takes 0.07 seconds and discrimination reaction time takes 0.23 seconds, what is the person's basic reaction time? a. 0.07 seconds b. 0.30 seconds c. 0.16 seconds d. 0.93 seconds

answer

c. 0.16 seconds

question

12. In the early reaction time research, reaction times for seemingly complex events were occasionally equal to the reaction times for simpler events. How could this have happened? a. the simple additive model was inadequate b. the equipment must have malfunctioned c. the complex event was really much simpler d. the experimenters did not have sufficient training

answer

a. the simple additive model was inadequate

question

13. A test with a minimum amount of measurement error is said to be a. reliable b. valid c. both alternatives a. and b. d. none of the above

answer

A reliable

question

14. When phrenologists assessed the trait of "destructiveness" by measuring skull contour, their measurements were a. reliable and valid b. reliable but not valid c. valid but not reliable d. neither reliable nor valid

answer

b. reliable but not valid

question

15. The results of an inkblot test might be quite different when given to the same person on two different occasions. If this is the case, then based on this fact alone, the inkblot test is a. not reliable but probably valid b. not reliable c. not valid d. neither reliable nor valid

answer

b. not reliable

question

16. On a reaction time test, which of the following factors could contribute to measurement error? a. subject attentiveness b. equipment irregularities c. increased boredom if the task lasts too long d. all of the above

answer

D all the above

question

17. If an IQ test is reliable and a child scores 115, what is known? a. the child will only be an average student in school b. the student will perform at a level in school that is about 15% higher than others c. the IQ test is a good measure of intellect d. the person has a higher IQ than someone who scores 95

answer

d. the person has a higher IQ than someone who scores 95

question

18. Which of the following is true about measures of behavior? a. they are more likely to be valid than reliable b. they all include some degree of measurement error c. measurement error can be eliminated completely by careful researchers d. if a measure has content validity, it is almost certain to be reliable

answer

b. they all include some degree of measurement error

question

19. Magazine surveys about your mental health a. have been shown to be highly reliable b. have criterion validity but not construct validity c. have construct validity but not criterion validity d. have face validity but not construct validity

answer

d. have face validity but not construct validity

question

20. A test is said to be reliable if ___________, and valid if it _____________. a. its results are repeatable; measures what it is supposed to measure b. has a sufficiently high amount of measurement error; measures what it is supposed to i. measure c. its results are repeatable; is low in measurement error d. measures what it is supposed to measure; is low in measurement error

answer

a. its results are repeatable; measures what it is supposed to measure

question

21. A test might not appear to be a good test of native intelligence and yet it might do a very good job of predicting how well someone does in school. That is, this test a. has both face validity and predictive validity b. has criterion validity but not face validity c. is reliable but not valid d. has criterion validity but lacks reliability

answer

b. has criterion validity but not face validity

question

22. For each of the following, a construct is paired with a measure. Which measure has the least content validity? a. creativity — crossword puzzle completion b. delay of gratification — choosing to wait for a larger reward c. verbal intelligence — vocabulary d. short-term memory — recall of nonsense syllables

answer

a. creativity — crossword puzzle completion

question

23. On the "Connectedness to Nature" scale, convergent validity was established when it was found that a correlation existed between scores on the scale and a. SAT scores b. scores on a test of social desirability c. scores on the NEP ("New Ecological Paradigm") test d. scores on a shyness test

answer

c. scores on the NEP ("New Ecological Paradigm") test

question

24. Which of the following is true about construct validity? a. it is never established in a single study b. it is concerned with the question of whether the construct being measured is a meaningful construct c. it is concerned with the question of whether a tool developed to measure a construct is the best one available d. all of the above

answer

D all the above

question

25. On the "Connectedness to Nature" scale, divergent validity was established when it was found that no correlation existed between scores on the scale and a. SAT scores b. scores on a test of social desirability C both alternatives a and b d. none of the above - the outcomes in alternatives a. and b. supported convergent validity

answer

C both alternatives a and b

question

26. A study examines scores on an employment test and job performance six months later. This study is most likely attempting to establish a. criterion validity b. face validity c. reliability d. construct validity

answer

a. criterion validity

question

27. Classification is the major purpose of a(n) ________ scale of measurement. a. nominal b. ordinal c. interval d. ratio

answer

A nominal

question

28. Guéguen and Ciccotti tested whether having a dog present would lead women to provide their phone numbers to inquiring men. In this study, a nominal scale of measurement was used for which variable? a. gender b. whether or not a dog was present c. whether or not phone numbers were provided d. a nominal scale of measurement was not used in this study

answer

c. whether or not phone numbers were provided

question

29. When considering a student's overall standing in a class (first, second, third, etc.), which measurement scale is being used? a. nominal b ordinal c. interval d. ratio

answer

B ordinal

question

30. When using a(n) ______ measurement scale, the most that can be said is that one score is greater than another. a. nominal b. ordinal c. interval d. ratio

answer

B ordinal

question

31. All of the following are examples of ratio scale measures except a. reaction time b. number of errors in maze running c. Grade Point Average (GPA) d. number of words recalled on a memory test

answer

c. Grade Point Average (GPA)

question

32. Consider the experiment on multiple choice answer changing. What measurement scale was used in reporting the results of this study? a. nominal b. ordinal c. interval d. ratio

answer

A nominal

question

33. The main difference between an interval and a ratio scale is that an interval scale a. is used only for placing participants into categories b. does not have a true zero point c. does not preserve a rank order in the assignment of numbers d. has equal intervals between numbers

answer

b. does not have a true zero point

question

34. Which of the following is true about interval and ratio scales? a. in a ratio scale, a score of zero means the absence of the phenomenon being measured b. in an interval scale, it is not possible to achieve a score of zero c. equal intervals exist in interval scales, but such is not the case in ratio scales d. equal intervals exist in ratio scales, but such is not the case in interval scales

answer

a. in a ratio scale, a score of zero means the absence of the phenomenon being measured

question

35. In Sheldon's research, 7-point ______ scales were used to measure body type and temperament. a. nominal b. ordinal c. interval d. ratio

answer

C interval

question

36. In the study by Korn, Davis, and Davis, it was determined that department chairs rated B. F. Skinner higher on their "all time" list than historians did. The study featured a(n) _______ scale of measurement. a. nominal b. ordinal c. interval d. ratio

answer

B ordinal

question

37. Psychologists generally assume that most personality and IQ tests use a(n) _____ scale. a. nominal b. ordinal c. interval d. ratio

answer

C interval

question

38. Descriptive statistics a. enable the researcher to determine the significance of results b. summarize the data of an experiment c. both alternatives a. and b. d. none of the above

answer

b. summarize the data of an experiment

question

39. Descriptive statistic is to inferential statistic as _________ is to ________. a. mean; standard deviation b. central tendency; variability c. sample; population d. median; range

answer

c. sample; population

question

40. All of the following are measures of central tendency except a. range b. median c. mean d. mode

answer

a. range

question

41. When is the median a better measure of central tendency than the mean? a. when several of the scores are the same score b. when there are a few scores that are much higher or lower than the others c. when the scores are normally distributed d. none of the above; the mean is always preferred

answer

b. when there are a few scores that are much higher or lower than the others

question

42. Five children are tested for IQ and their scores are: 110, 160, 100, 100, 110. What is the best way to describe the central tendency of these scores? a. the mode b. the median c. the mean d. the range

answer

B The median

question

43. Five children are tested for IQ. For which sets of scores will the median and the mode both be the same? a. 110, 150, 100, 110, 115 b. 90, 100, 120, 110, 90 c. 100, 180, 90, 110, 80 d. 90, 90, 100, 120, 100

answer

a. 110, 150, 100, 110, 115

question

44. What is the relationship between a frequency distribution (FD) and a normal distribution (ND)? a. FD uses the median as the primary measure of central tendency; ND uses the mean b. FD is a hypothetical distribution; ND is based on actual data c. FD is a distribution of actual scores, while ND is a hypothetical distribution d. FD is always bell shaped, while ND may or may not be bell shaped

answer

c. FD is a distribution of actual scores, while ND is a hypothetical distribution

question

45. A graph in which each vertical bar corresponds to the frequency of some score is called a a. normal curve b. Gee Whiz graph c. histogram d. line graph

answer

c. histogram

question

46. In a normal distribution, what (approximate) percentage of scores likely fall within one standard deviation of the mean? a. 50% b. 68% c. 75% d. 95%

answer

b. 68%

question

47. Knowing the standard deviation of a set of scores, it is possible to calculate a. range b. variance c. the mean d. the frequency distribution

answer

b. variance

question

48. When summarizing data, why is it important to report both the mean and the standard deviation? a. two sets of data could have the same mean but different amounts of variability b. this way both descriptive and inferential statistics are covered c. this way the null hypothesis can be evaluated d. this enables the researcher to avoid Type I and Type II errors

answer

a. two sets of data could have the same mean but different amounts of variability

question

49. Normally, which of the following outcomes is most desired by the researcher? a. reject Ho; Ho is true b. reject Ho; Ho is false c. fail to reject Ho; Ho is true d. fail to reject Ho; Ho is false

answer

b. reject Ho; Ho is false

question

50. A Type I error occurs when the researcher a. rejects Ho, but Ho is true b. rejects Ho, but Ho is false c. fails to reject Ho, but Ho is true d. fails to reject Ho, but Ho is false

answer

rejects Ho, but Ho is true

question

51. In a study examining gender differences in verbal fluency, the null hypothesis is that a. males and females perform equally b. females will most likely outperform males c. males will most likely outperform females d. could be either alternative b. or c., depending on the researcher's prediction

answer

a. males and females perform equally

question

52. A Type II error occurs when the researcher a. rejects Ho, but Ho is true b. rejects Ho, but Ho is false c. fails to reject Ho, but Ho is true d. fails to reject Ho, but Ho is false

answer

d. fails to reject Ho, but Ho is false

question

53. In a maze learning study, a researcher compares the performance of laboratory-bred rats and wild rats, hoping to find that the wild rats are better. Which of the following is true? a. the null hypothesis is that wild rats will learn faster than lab rats b. a Type II error would be to find a difference in the study when no true difference exists c. a Type I error would be to find no difference in the study when a true difference exists d. if wild rats really are better, but the researcher fails to reject the null hypothesis, then a Type II error has occurred

answer

d. if wild rats really are better, but the researcher fails to reject the null hypothesis, then a Type II error has occurred

question

54. In a maze learning study, a researcher compares the performance of laboratory-bred rats and wild rats, hoping to find that the wild rats are better. Which of the following would be a Type II error? a. the null hypothesis is rejected when it is in fact true b. the wild rats outperform the lab rats in the study c. no difference is found in the study, but wild rats are in truth better maze learners d. lab rats learn faster in the study, but in truth there is no difference

answer

c. no difference is found in the study, but wild rats are in truth better maze learners

question

55. In a "Gee whiz" graph, a. the differences are so obvious that an inferential analysis is not needed b. the hoped-for differences fail to materialize c. apparent differences are exaggerated by failing to label the Y-axis appropriately d. there are too many lines, making it impossible to interpret

answer

c. apparent differences are exaggerated by failing to label the Y-axis appropriately

question

56. Which of the following is true about Type I errors? a. the probability of one occurring is equal to the alpha level b. they cannot occur if the statistical test is powerful enough c. they occur when a true effect exists, but we fail to discover it in our study d. if one occurs, there is no chance that your study will be published

answer

a. the probability of one occurring is equal to the alpha level

question

57. Which of the following is true about Type II errors? a. the probability of one occurring is equal to the alpha level b. they cannot occur if the statistical test is powerful enough c. they occur when a true effect exists, but we fail to discover it in our study d. they occur when we reject the null hypothesis, when we really should not do so

answer

c. they occur when a true effect exists, but we fail to discover it in our study

question

58. Researchers are happy whenever a. systematic variance is large b. error variance is small c. both alternatives a. and b. d. none of the above

answer

c. both alternatives a. and b.

question

59. A set of data has a mean of 12 and a 95% confidence interval of 10-14. What does this mean? a. the standard deviation will be 14-10, or 4 b. you can be 95% sure that 12 is the population mean c. in order for the mean to be significantly different fro some other mean, the scores producing the other mean cannot be between 10 and 14 d. you can be quite sure that the population mean falls somewhere between 10 and 14

answer

d. you can be quite sure that the population mean falls somewhere between 10 and 14

question

60. What is accomplished by a meta-analysis? a. this analysis determines the probability of making both type I and type II errors b. this is the statistical technique used to measure power c. this is the term used to describe the complete statistical analysis of data—both the descriptive and the inferential analyses d. this is a statistical procedure that combines effect sizes of several studies

answer

d. this is a statistical procedure that combines effect sizes of several studies

question

61. The power of a statistical analysis refers to a. the chances of rejecting the false null hypothesis b. the chances of rejecting a true null hypothesis c. the chances of rejecting any null hypothesis d. whether the analysis involves descriptive or inferential statistics (inferential are more powerful)

answer

a. the chances of rejecting the false null hypothesis

question

62. Null hypothesis significance testing answers the question ________, while an effect size analysis answers the question ________. a. how much of an effect did one factor have on another?; is the difference significant? b. is the difference significant?; how much of an effect did one factor have on another? c. can we reject Ho; is the sample large enough? d. have we made a Type I error?; have we made a Type II error?

answer

b. is the difference significant?; how much of an effect did one factor have on another?

question

63. Suppose there are 100 studies that failed to demonstrate an effect of gender on false memories, but 8 studies that showed a gender difference. One may conclude from reading the published studies there is a gender difference, but one may be incorrect due to a. incomplete confidence intervals. b. error variance. c. systematic variance. d. a phenomenon called a file drawer effect.

answer

d. a phenomenon called a file drawer effect

question

64. Researchers often report effect sizes to demonstrate a. the relationship between systematic variance and error variance. b. confidence intervals. c. the size or magnitude of the effect. d. statistical power.

answer

c. the size or magnitude of the effect.

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