Quiz Questions Test Questions – Flashcards

Unlock all answers in this set

Unlock answers
question
(Q9)
Name at least four genera that belong to the Enterobacteria that are lactose fermenters.
answer
Citrobacter
Enterobacter
Escherichia coli
Klebsiella (pneumoniae; oxytoca)
Serratia (fonticola; rubidaea)
question

(Q9)

 

 

Name at least four genera that belong to the Enterobacteria that are lactose non-fermenters. 

answer
  • Proteus (mirabalis; vulgaris; penneri)
  • Providencia (stuartii)

question

(Q9)

 

 

A Kligler Iron Agar slant shows a yello butt with blackish areas after growth in the incubator for 24 hours. What does this result indicate? 

answer

 

Result indicates that glucose fermentation has occurred and ferris sulphide was produced. 

question

(Q9)

 

 

Which enteric bacterial species can cause pneumonia? 

answer

 

 

 

Proteus spp.

question

(Q9)

 

 

How does the natural microbiota of the digestive sstem become established? Explain. 

answer
Through exposure of to the microorganisms by ingestion. Competition for nutrients allows for the "good bacteria" outcompete the "bad bacteria" keeping infections from pathogenic bacteria at bay.
question

(Q9)

 

 

Name a bacterial species that is a Gram negative rod, lactose negative, and does not belong to the Enterobacteriaceae

 

 

 

answer
  • Pseudomonas spp.
  • Campylobacter spp. 
question

(Q8)

 

 

Name a human pathogen that belongs to the Apicomplexa. 

answer

 

 

Plasmodium vivax

 

question

(Q8)

 

 

Name a human pathogen that is a flagellate. 

answer

 

 

 

Trypanosomas cruzi

Trypanosomas bruceii

question

(Q8)

 

 

Name two modes of transmission for helminths in humans and five an example for each (name the species).

answer
  • ingestion - Taenieae saginata - beef tape worm
  •  skin - Schistosoma
question

(Q8)

 

 

How are intestinal human protozoan and animal parasites detected in the laboratory? Explain. 

answer

Intestinal human protozoa and animal parasites are detected by stool sample examination for eggs.

question

(Q7)

 

 

What is the difference between cystitis and pyelonephritis? 

answer

Cystitis in an infection of the bladder and pyeloneprhitis is an infection in the kidneys. 

question

(Q7)

 

 

Name one Gram-positive and one Gram-negative bacterial species that commonl cause urinary tract infection. 

answer
  • Gram-positive
    • Staphylococcus (epidermis; saprophyticus
    • Enterococcus
  • Gram-negative
    • Escherichia coli
    • Proteus
    • Pseudomonas aeruginosa

 

question

(Q7)

 

 

How should a voided urine sampe be collected and handled to be useful in the diagnosis of UTI? 

answer

 

Afre careful cleansing of rhe hands and genital area a urine sample should be taken mid-stream. Cup should not make contact with skin. Urine should be tested immediately, stored in the refrigerator, or treated with boric acid (if refrigeration is not possible), in order to prevent microbial growth. 

question

(Q7)

 

A pateint complains about a burning pain when urinating and the urge to frequently urinate. An investigation of a urine sample on Blood Agar (collected properly) revealed less than 1,000 cell/ml. Can you conclude that htis patient has no urinary tract infection? 

answer

 

Although the number is not significant, the patient may still have an UTI as the pathogen resposible may not grow on Blood Agar.

question

(Q6)

 

 

What is the diference between an antimicrobial, an antibiotic and a semisynthetic drug? 

answer
  • antibiotic - living organisms that inhibit the growth of other living organisms
  • semisynthetic - an antimicrobial that encompasses both living organism and a synthetic component
  • antimicrobial - all antimicrobials, synthetic, semisynthetic, and antibiotics 
question

(Q6)

 

 

(T or F)

S. aureus can transfer resistance to Methicillin to Enterbacter faecalis. 

answer

 

 

 

True

question

(Q6)

 

 

What does MIC and MBC stand for? 

answer
  • MIC - Minimum Inhibitory Concentration 
  • MIB - Minimum Bactericidal Concentration
question

(Q6)

 

 

Briefly describe the MIC method. 

answer

MIC make use of several wells containing either a broth or agar that conatin various concentrations of antimicrobial. A measured amount of a specific organism is inocculated into the edium and allowed to incubate. REsults are read according to amounf of growth. The one with the least concentration of antimicrobial showing no growht is th MIC.

question

(Q7)

 

Which culture media and conditions would you choose to culture a sample from a patient that might have contracted a sexually transmitted disease?

 

Would it be helpful to investigate a genital swab sample microscopically? 

answer

It would be best to use an immunoassay test or a DNA test. A smear would possible show intracellular diplocci in a man which would be a presumptive diagnosis for N. gonnoerrhea, but not for a female.

question

(Q5)

 

How can Bacillus spp. be differentiated from Clostridium spp. in the laboratory? 

answer
Clostridium spp. are strict anaerobes and will grow only under anaerobic conditions.
question

(Q5)

Case study 1: You are called about a 66 year old female long-term care resident who has had 5 episodes of loose diarrhea daily for the past 3 days. She now has a fever to 100.3°F, and is complainging of cramping lower abdominal pain. Microscopy of a stained ample of her stool found Gram-positive rods. Her history is significant for a recent UTI, caused by E. coli, for which she is currently on levofloxacin.

Should a urine sample be investigated again? Defend your answer.

answer

It is not necesary to do another urine sample as the stool sample ant the fact that she is on antibiotics is indicative of antibiotic induced diarrhea (pseudomebranous colitis) caused by Clostridium difficile.

question

(Q5)

 

 

What species is responsible for gas gangrene?

What is the treatment for gas gangrene? 

answer

Clostridium perfringens

 

question

(Q3)

 

(T or F)

Streptococcus pneumoniae possesses a capsule. 

answer

 

 

True

question

(Q3)

 

Why does a culture of Bacillis subtilis have to be at least 

3-5 days old when you want to detect spores? In which growth phase are the organisms most likely in at this time? 

answer
Conditions have to be right for spore formations. Spore formation occurs when the environment becomes less suitable for the organism, so a culture that is 3-5 days old will have depleted the nutrients in the medium causing B. subtilis to form spores
question

(Q3)

 

What kind of medium would you choose when you plan to detct the causative agent of a demal wound infection caused by bacteria? Why? 

answer
Blood agar plates to deterimine hemolytic activity and MSA (mannitol salt agar) to determine to distiguish betwee mannitol fermenters.
question

(Q3)

 

What kind of medium would you choose when you want to detect the causative agent of severe diarrhea caused by bacteria? 

answer
MacConkey as it is selective for Gram-negative bacteria and differentiates between lactose fermentors and non-fermentors.
question

(Q2)

 

(T or F)

All prokaryotes have a peptidoglycan in the cell wall. 

answer

 

False

Archaea do not have peptidoglican in their cell wall.

question

(Q2)

Name a selective and a differential medium and explain its application.

 

For what does it select?

What does it differentiate?

How does it achieve that? 

answer
  • PEA (phenylethyl alcohol agar): selective for Gram-positive bacteria. Contains phenylethyl alcohol which inhibits the growth of Gram-negative bacteria

 

  • BAP (blood agar plate) differential for hemolytic organisms. Contains 5% defibrinated sheep blood.
question

(Q2)

 

Name a differential staining procedure and explain its application. What is differentiated and how? 

answer

Spore stain: it differentiates the spores from the rest of teh cell by staining the vegetative cells so that the outside of the spore can be seen. 

Get an explanation on any task
Get unstuck with the help of our AI assistant in seconds
New