Psychology Unit 1 Test

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Several weeks after a political election, voters often exaggerate their ability to have predicted the election outcome. This best illustrates A) the placebo effect. B) random assignment. C) wording effects. D) hindsight bias.
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D) hindsight bias.
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Which of the following is most likely to inhibit critical thinking? A) operational definitions B) overconfidence C) random assignment D) the double-blind procedure
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B) overconfidence
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Rodesia insists that Dr. Phillip’s theory of aggression be checked against observable evidence. She is demonstrating the scientific attitude of A) pride. B) skepticism. C) practicality. D) enthusiasm.
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B) skepticism.
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Critical thinking is smart thinking that involves A) debriefing. B) case study. C) evaluating evidence. D) informed consent.
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C) evaluating evidence.
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Which technique involves repeating the essence of an earlier research study with different participants and in different circumstances? A) replication B) random sampling C) naturalistic observation D) the double-blind procedure
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A) replication
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A hypothesis is a(n) A) observable relationship between specific independent and dependent variables. B) testable prediction that gives direction to research. C) set of principles that organizes observations and explains newly discovered facts. D) unprovable assumption about the unobservable processes that underlie psychological functioning.
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B) testable prediction that gives direction to research.
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To assess reactions to a proposed tuition hike at her school, Ariana sent a questionnaire to every fifteenth person in the registrar’s alphabetical listing of all currently enrolled students. Ariana is ensuring that her survey results are accurate by using A) random assignment. B) naturalistic observation. C) replication. D) random sampling.
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D) random sampling.
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A researcher would be most likely to discover a positive correlation between A) intelligence and academic success. B) financial poverty and physical health. C) self-esteem and depression. D) school grades and school absences.
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A) intelligence and academic success.
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If psychologists discovered that wealthy people are less satisfied with their marriages than poor people are, this would indicate that wealth and marital satisfaction are A) causally related. B) negatively correlated. C) independent variables. D) positively correlated.
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B) negatively correlated.
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In which type of research would an investigator manipulate one factor and observe its effect on some behavior or mental process? A) the survey B) the case study C) experimentation D) naturalistic observation
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C) experimentation
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To assess the influence of self-esteem on interpersonal attraction, researchers either insulted or complimented students about their physical appearance just before they went on a blind date. In this research, the dependent variable was A) insults or compliments. B) physical appearance. C) interpersonal attraction. D) feelings of self-esteem.
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C) interpersonal attraction.
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The symmetrical bell-shaped figure used to represent the distribution of many physical and psychological characteristics is called a A) bar graph. B) normal curve. C) correlation. D) scatterplot.
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B) normal curve.
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A synapse is a(n) A) chemical messenger that triggers muscle contractions. B) automatic response to sensory input. C) junction between a sending neuron and a receiving neuron. D) neural cable containing many axons.
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C) junction between a sending neuron and a receiving neuron.
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The chemical messengers released into the spatial junctions between neurons are called A) hormones. B) neurotransmitters. C) synapses. D) genes.
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B) neurotransmitters.
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José has just played a long, bruising football game but feels little fatigue or discomfort. His lack of pain is most likely caused by the release of A) glutamate. B) dopamine. C) acetylcholine. D) endorphins.
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D) endorphins.
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The central nervous system consists of A) sensory and motor neurons. B) somatic and autonomic systems. C) the brain and the spinal cord. D) sympathetic and parasympathetic branches.
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C) the brain and the spinal cord.
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Messages are transmitted from your spinal cord to muscles in your hands by the ________ nervous system. A) peripheral B) parasympathetic C) sympathetic D) autonomic
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D) autonomic
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The part of the peripheral nervous system that controls the glands and the muscles of the internal organs is called the A) somatic nervous system. B) reticular formation. C) limbic system. D) autonomic nervous system.
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D) autonomic nervous system.
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You come home one night to find a burglar in your house. Your heart starts racing and you begin to perspire. These physical reactions are triggered by the A) somatic nervous system. B) sympathetic nervous system. C) parasympathetic nervous system. D) sensory cortex.
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B) sympathetic nervous system.
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Your conscious awareness of your own name and self-identity depends primarily on the normal functioning of your A) cerebellum. B) amygdala. C) hypothalamus. D) cerebral cortex.
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D) cerebral cortex.
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Auditory stimulation is first processed in the ________ lobes. A) occipital B) temporal C) frontal D) parietal
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B) temporal
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The classic case of railroad worker Phineas Gage best illustrated that frontal lobe damage can A) prevent reward deficiency syndrome. B) enhance moral reasoning skills. C) alter one’s personality. D) facilitate neurogenesis.
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C) alter one’s personality.
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A picture of a dog is briefly flashed in the left visual field of a split-brain patient. At the same time a picture of a boy is flashed in the right visual field. In identifying what she saw, the patient would be most likely to A) use her left hand to point to a picture of a dog. B) verbally report that she saw a dog. C) use her left hand to point to a picture of a boy. D) verbally report that she saw a boy.
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D) verbally report that she saw a boy.
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The simultaneous processing of information at both conscious and unconscious levels is called A) the cocktail party effect. B) the pop-out phenomenon. C) dual processing. D) neuroadaptation.
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C) dual processing.
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Even if musically inclined, it is difficult to tap a steady three times with your left hand while tapping four times with your right hand because both tasks require A) hypnagogic sensation. B) circadian rhythm. C) change blindness. D) conscious attention.
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D) conscious attention.
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Drivers are slower to detect traffic signals if they are talking on a cell phone. This best illustrates the impact of A) latent content. B) selective attention. C) REM rebound. D) choice blindness.
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B) selective attention.
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Failing to see visible objects when our attention is directed elsewhere is called A) narcolepsy. B) neuroadaptation. C) paradoxical sleep. D) inattentional blindness.
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D) inattentional blindness.
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Fast and jerky movements of the eyes are especially likely to be associated with A) sleep spindles. B) dissociation. C) REM sleep. D) sleep apnea.
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C) REM sleep.
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Forty-year-old Lance insists that he never dreams. Research suggests that he probably A) would report a vivid dream if he were awakened during REM sleep. B) dreams during NREM-1 rather than during REM sleep. C) experiences more NREM-2 sleep than most people. D) cycles through the distinct sleep stages much more rapidly than most people.
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A) would report a vivid dream if he were awakened during REM sleep.
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In which of the following disorders does the person repeatedly stop breathing while asleep? A) narcolepsy B) sleep apnea C) night terrors D) insomnia
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B) sleep apnea
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The need to take larger and larger doses of a drug in order to experience its effects is an indication of A) withdrawal. B) dissociation. C) tolerance. D) narcolepsy.
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C) tolerance.
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Compulsive craving for and use of a drug is an indication of A) dissociation. B) narcolepsy. C) addiction. D) hypnagogic sensations.
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C) addiction.
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Although Max never experiences caffeine withdrawal symptoms, he feels that he needs coffee every morning as part of his daily routine. Max best illustrates A) narcolepsy. B) REM rebound. C) psychological dependence. D) the pop-out phenomenon.
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C) psychological dependence.
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The reckless aggressive behavior that may follow alcohol consumption best illustrates that alcohol may act as a(n) A) methamphetamine. B) disinhibitor. C) hallucinogen. D) stimulant.
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B) disinhibitor.
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Experimental participants who consumed alcohol rather than a placebo beverage were less likely to notice that their minds were wandering during a reading task. This best illustrates that alcohol reduces A) narcolepsy. B) dissociation. C) self-awareness. D) inattentional blindness.
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C) self-awareness.
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Which of the following is a common symptom of nicotine withdrawal? A) anxiety B) drowsiness C) diminished appetite D) insensitivity to pain
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A) anxiety
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One of the dangers of using Ecstasy at all-night dances is A) increased appetite. B) dehydration. C) lethargy. D) pupil constriction.
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B) dehydration.
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With repeated use of most psychoactive drugs, the immediate pleasant effects become ________ and the unpleasant aftereffects become ________. A) less strongly pleasant; less strongly unpleasant B) more strongly pleasant; more strongly unpleasant C) less strongly pleasant; more strongly unpleasant D) more strongly pleasant; less strongly unpleasant
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C) less strongly pleasant; more strongly unpleasant
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Sixteen-year-old Bethany is becoming increasingly concerned about her use of marijuana on weekends. To reduce her use of this drug Bethany should A) recognize that life is stressful and often beyond control. B) be warned that marijuana interferes with female sexual functioning. C) stop associating with friends who use marijuana. D) recognize that drug use results from her own lack of social skills.
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C) stop associating with friends who use marijuana.
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Chromosomes are contained within A) brain cells. B) sperm cells. C) blood cells. D) all of these types of cells.
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D) all of these types of cells.
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Identical twins originate from the fertilization of A) a single egg cell by a single sperm cell. B) two egg cells by a single sperm cell. C) a single egg cell by two sperm cells. D) two egg cells by two sperm cells.
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A) a single egg cell by a single sperm cell.
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An infant’s temperament refers most directly to its A) ability to learn. B) social connectedness. C) emotional excitability. D) physical health.
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C) emotional excitability.
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Heritability refers to the extent to which A) unrelated individuals share common genes. B) genetic mutations can be transmitted to one’s offspring. C) trait differences among individuals are attributable to genetic variations. D) adult personality is determined by infant temperament.
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C) trait differences among individuals are attributable to genetic variations.
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People have always responded so positively to Alyssa’s good looks that she has developed a socially confident and outgoing personality. This best illustrates A) the impact of temperament on gender identity. B) that gender schemas and social roles are complementary. C) the interaction of nature and nurture. D) the reciprocal influence of norms and roles.
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C) the interaction of nature and nurture.
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The study of influences on gene expression that occur without a DNA change is called A) collectivism. B) epigenetics. C) behavior genetics. D) evolutionary psychology.
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C) behavior genetics.
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The reproductive advantage enjoyed by organisms best suited to a particular environment is known as A) self-regulation. B) behavior genetics. C) natural selection. D) collectivism.
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C) natural selection.
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An evolutionary psychologist would suggest that people are genetically predisposed to A) fear dangerous animals. B) love their own children. C) seek healthy-looking mates. D) do all of these things.
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D) do all of these things.
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Compared with women, men are ________ likely to feel comfortable about having casual sex with different partners and ________ likely to cite affection as a reason for their first sexual intercourse. A) less; more B) more; less C) less; less D) more; more
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B) more; less
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Compared with men, women are ________ likely to desire more frequent sex and ________ likely to perceive simple friendliness as a sexual come-on. A) more; less B) more; more C) less; more D) less; less
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D) less; less
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Compared with environmentally impoverished rats, those rats housed in enriched environments experienced a dramatic increase in the number of their A) genomes. B) schemas. C) synapses. D) sex hormones.
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C) synapses.
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Premature infants who are regularly touched and massaged are more likely than their unstimulated counterparts to show signs of A) reduced brain plasticity. B) an inhibited temperament. C) an epigenetic mark. D) rapid weight gain.
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D) rapid weight gain.
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Children raised in the same family are not especially likely to have similar personalities. This most clearly implies that we should be cautious about attributing personality to A) gender schemas. B) parental influences. C) temperament. D) peer influences.
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B) parental influences.
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The invention and transmission of dating and courtship customs best illustrate A) epigenetics. B) cultural influence. C) a pruning process. D) the male answer syndrome.
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B) cultural influence.
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People are most likely to notice the impact of environmental influences on behavior when confronted by A) identical twins. B) gender schemas. C) cultural diversity. D) human temperaments.
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C) cultural diversity.
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Norms are best described as A) the biochemical units of heredity. B) a person’s characteristic emotional reactivity. C) rules for socially acceptable behavior. D) a universally shared moral grammar.
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C) rules for socially acceptable behavior.
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In recent years, the percentage of American boys and girls given one of the 10 most common names for their birth year has plunged. This best reflects Americans’ increasing A) gender typing. B) individualism. C) heritability. D) divorce rates.
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B) individualism.
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Men and women are most likely to differ in their A) happiness. B) intelligence. C) self-esteem. D) aggressiveness.
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D) aggressiveness.
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During the course of a conversation between Lola, Martha, and Gus, which of the following events is most likely to occur? A) Gus interrupts Lola. B) Lola interrupts Martha. C) Martha interrupts Gus. D) All of these events are equally likely to occur.
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A) Gus interrupts Lola.
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A gender role refers to A) one’s biological sex. B) a sense of being male or female. C) a set of expected behaviors for males or for females. D) a sense of being homosexual or heterosexual.
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C) a set of expected behaviors for males or for females.
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The social roles assigned to women and men A) are virtually the same in all cultures. B) have been virtually the same in all historical periods. C) differ widely across cultures. D) differ widely across historical time periods but not across cultures.
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C) differ widely across cultures.
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Gender identity refers to A) one’s biological sex. B) the sense of being male or female. C) the set of expected behaviors for males or for females. D) how masculine a boy is or how feminine a girl is.
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B) the sense of being male or female.
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People whose gender identity feels mismatched with their biological sex are A) transgender. B) bisexual. C) heterosexual. D) lesbian.
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A) transgender.
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67. A child’s temperament is likely to be A) difficult to observe. B) stable over time. C) a product of parenting style. D) a reflection of his or her schemas.
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B) stable over time.
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Psychologists who view the developmental process as a sequence of distinct stages generally believe that ________ is(are) the same for everyone. A) both the order and the timing of the stages B) the order but not the timing of the stages C) the timing but not the order of the stages D) neither the order nor the timing of the stages
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B) the order but not the timing of the stages
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A preference for our mother’s voice over our father’s voice has been detected as early as A) during embryonic development. B) the day after birth. C) one week after birth. D) one month after birth.
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B) the day after birth.
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Just after birth, the cries of newborns bear the intonation of A) identity. B) imprinting. C) object permanence. D) their mother’s native language.
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D) their mother’s native language.
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One of the most consistently damaging teratogens is A) blood. B) oxygen. C) testosterone. D) alcohol.
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D) alcohol.
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Habituation refers to the A) awareness that things continue to exist even when not perceived. B) decreasing responsiveness to a stimulus to which one is repeatedly exposed. C) adjustment of current schemas to make sense of new information. D) biological growth processes that are relatively uninfluenced by experience.
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B) decreasing responsiveness to a stimulus to which one is repeatedly exposed.
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A failure to practice important motor skills can result in a loss of agility because unused neural connections A) habituate. B) assimilate. C) imprint. D) are pruned.
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D) are pruned.
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Mr. and Mrs. Batson can’t wait to begin toilet training their year-old daughter. The Batsons most clearly need to be informed about the importance of A) imprinting. B) habituation. C) maturation. D) object permanence.
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C) maturation.
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Interpreting new experiences in terms of existing schemas is called A) egocentrism. B) assimilation. C) imprinting. D) accommodation.
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B) assimilation.
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According to Piaget, accommodation refers to A) parental efforts to include new children in the existing family structure. B) incorporating new experiences into existing schemas. C) developmental changes in a child’s behavior that facilitate social acceptance by family and peers. D) adjusting current schemas in order to make sense of new experiences.
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D) adjusting current schemas in order to make sense of new experiences.
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Nageeb thought all nurses were young females until a middle-aged male nurse took care of him. Nageeb’s altered conception of a \”nurse\” illustrates the process of A) habituation. B) assimilation. C) accommodation. D) attachment.
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C) accommodation.
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Object permanence is the understanding that A) developmental stages occur in a predictable sequence. B) biological growth processes enable orderly development. C) things continue to exist even when they are not perceived. D) the mass and volume of objects remain the same despite changes in their form.
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C) things continue to exist even when they are not perceived.
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According to Piaget, egocentrism refers to A) a sensorimotor need for self-stimulation, as evidenced in thumb sucking. B) young children’s exaggerated interest in themselves and their own pleasure. C) the difficulty perceiving things from another person’s point of view. D) a failure to realize that things continue to exist even when they are not visible.
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C) the difficulty perceiving things from another person’s point of view.
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If children cannot grasp the principle of conservation, they are unable to A) deal with the discipline of toilet training. B) see things from the point of view of another person. C) recognize that the quantity of a substance remains the same despite changes in its shape. D) retain earlier schemas when confronted by new experiences.
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C) recognize that the quantity of a substance remains the same despite changes in its shape.
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Piaget emphasized how the child’s mind grows through interaction with the physical environment. Vygotsky emphasized how the child’s mind grows through A) imprinting. B) a pruning process. C) social mentoring. D) cross-sectional study.
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C) social mentoring.
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Infants develop a fear of strangers at about 8 months of age because they can’t assimilate unfamiliar faces into their A) schemas. B) attachments. C) theory of mind. D) self-concept.
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A) schemas.
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Providing children with a safe haven in times of stress contributes most directly to A) habituation. B) stranger anxiety. C) object permanence. D) secure attachment.
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D) secure attachment.
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In a pleasant but unfamiliar setting, infants with a secure maternal attachment are most likely to A) act as though their mothers are of little importance to them. B) use their mothers as a base from which to explore the new surroundings. C) cling to their mothers and ignore the new surroundings. D) show hostility when their mothers approach them after a brief absence.
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B) use their mothers as a base from which to explore the new surroundings.
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Which of the following factors contributes most positively to the development of secure attachment between human infants and their mothers? A) conventional morality B) responsive parenting C) stranger anxiety D) authoritarian discipline
answer

B) responsive parenting
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Severe and prolonged child sexual abuse places children at risk for A) fetal alcohol syndrome. B) menarche. C) imprinting. D) substance abuse.
answer

D) substance abuse.
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One study of 4 1/2- to 6-year-old children in 10 American cities found that the children’s rate of aggressiveness was influenced more by ________ than by the amount of time they spent in day-care programs. A) children’s temperaments B) parents’ caregiving sensitivity C) family’s economic and educational levels D) all of these factors
answer

D) all of these factors
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Authoritative parents are likely to have children who A) are obedient but have low self-esteem. B) have high self-esteem and are self-reliant. C) have high self-esteem but are somewhat dependent. D) are rebellious and have low self-esteem.
answer

B) have high self-esteem and are self-reliant.
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Boys who mature at an early age tend to be more A) physically uncoordinated. B) sexually inhibited. C) popular and self-assured. D) academically successful.
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C) popular and self-assured.
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Ten-year-old Heidi is maturing early and already towers over all the girls and most of the boys in her fifth-grade class. Heidi is likely to be A) the most popular student in class. B) self-assured and independent. C) challenging her teacher’s authority. D) the object of some teasing.
answer

D) the object of some teasing.
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According to Kohlberg, morality based on the avoidance of punishment and the attainment of concrete rewards represents ________ morality. A) conventional B) preconventional C) concrete operational D) postconventional
answer

B) preconventional
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Regis thinks it’s wrong to drive over the speed limit simply because he might get punished for doing so. He is demonstrating Kohlberg’s ________ stage of morality. A) conventional B) postconventional C) preconventional D) preoperational
answer

C) preconventional
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The corrupt behavior of many ordinary people who served as Nazi concentration camp guards best illustrates that immorality often results from A) social influence. B) the curse of knowledge. C) abnormal cognitive development. D) postconventional moral thinking.
answer

A) social influence.
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Sixteen-year-old Brenda questions her parents’ values but does not fully accept her friends’ standards either. Her confusion about what she really wants and values in life suggests that Brenda is struggling with the problem of A) autonomy. B) identity. C) initiative. D) integrity.
answer

B) identity.
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Persistent exclusion from peer social relationships is most likely to increase teens’ risk for A) imprinting. B) egocentrism. C) depression. D) habituation.
answer

C) depression.
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Aerobic exercise programs during late adulthood stimulate improvement in A) object permanence. B) basic trust. C) menarche. D) memory.
answer

D) memory.
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A cross-sectional study is one in which A) the same people are retested over a period of years. B) different age groups are tested at the same time. C) different characteristics of a given individual are assessed at the same time. D) the behavior of a group is assessed by different researchers.
answer

B) different age groups are tested at the same time.
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Researchers studied the effects on exercise on the physical health of over 5000 residents in one locale throughout their middle and late adulthood. The research best illustrates a ________ study. A) formal operational B) cross-sectional C) concrete operational D) longitudinal
answer

D) longitudinal
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The best predictor of a couple’s marital satisfaction is the A) frequency of their sexual intimacy. B) intensity of their passionate feelings. C) ratio of their positive to negative interactions with each other. D) experience or nonexperience of a prior marriage.
answer

C) ratio of their positive to negative interactions with each other.
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There is very little relationship between the age of an adult and his or her A) risk of dementia. B) ability to recall meaningless information. C) level of life satisfaction. D) susceptibility to accidental physical injury.
answer

C) level of life satisfaction.

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