Psychology Test Ch. 8-10 – Flashcards
Unlock all answers in this set
Unlock answersquestion
1. (p. 279) Developmental psychologists study physical, cognitive, and _____ changes throughout the human life cycle. A. cross-sectional B. socioemotional C. genetic D. embryonic
answer
A. Socioemotional
question
2. (p. 279) _____ refers to the pattern of continuity and change in human capabilities that occurs throughout the course of life. A. Development B. Nurture C. Status quo D. Inertia
answer
A. Development
question
3. (p. 280) Developmental psychologists use the term _____ to refer to a person's genes or biological inheritance. A. accommodation B. nurture C. assimilation D. nature
answer
D. Nature
question
4. (p. 280) _____ refers to the individual's environmental and social experiences. A. Nature B. Nurture C. Genetics D. Genealogy
answer
B. Nurture
question
5. (p. 280) Which of the following is true with regard to development? A. Development requires that we take into account the contributions of a person's biological inheritance without considering the environment. B. Development is the product of nature, nurture, and the complex interaction of the two. C. All development involves growth, not decline. D. Understanding development requires that we take into account the contributions of the environment alone.
answer
B. Development is the product of nature, nature, and the complex interaction of the two
question
6. (p. 281) _____ refers to a person's ability to recover from or adapt to difficult times. A. Rigidity B. Assimilation C. Resilience D. Innatism
answer
C. Resilience
question
7. (p. 281) Which of the following situations indicates resilience that characterizes development in adulthood? A. Jonathan, who did not get good grades in middle school, studies hard in high school and gets a scholarship at an Ivy League university B. Joshua gets low SAT scores after his parents file for a divorce C. Ryle, whose parents fund his university education to Cornell, fails in his end-term examinations D. Cathy is not allowed to write the examinations because she misses school to take care of her mother, who is not well
answer
A. Jonathan, who did not get good grades in middle school,studies hard in high school and gets a scholarship at an Ivy League University
question
8. (p. 283) Leonard, a 30 year-old Princeton University graduate, gives up his corporate job to teach children and seniors of Lubango village. He has decided that all his future endeavors will be focused on eradication of illiteracy in Lubango. In his efforts to experience life in optimal ways, Leonard has developed _____. A. a socioemotional process B. assimilation C. resilience D. a life theme
answer
D. a life theme
question
9. (p. 283) Which of the following is an example of a cognitive process? A. Amy, an 11 year old girl, whose height and weight increase during adolescence B. Cindy, a 20 year old student, who imagines herself as the Governor of Florida C. Kevin, an infant, who smiles in response to his mother's touch D. Jacob, a 22 year old athlete, who is aggressive while playing any sport
answer
B. Cindy, a 20 year old student, who imagines herself as the Governor of Florida
question
10. (p. 283) In the _____ week, the neural tube, which eventually becomes the spinal cord, starts to take shape. A. first B. third C. sixth D. ninth
answer
B. third
question
11. (p. 284) By the end of the _____ period, the heart begins to beat, the arms and legs become more differentiated, the face starts to form, and the intestinal tract appears in human beings. A. germinal B. fetal C. conception D. embryonic
answer
D. embryonic
question
12. (p. 284) Which of the following is the correct sequence of the stages of prenatal development? A. Conception, zygote, embryonic period, fetal period B. Conception, embryonic period, zygote, fetal period C. Conception, fetal period, embryonic period, zygote D. Conception, fetal period, zygote, embryonic period
answer
A. conception, zygote, embryonic period, fetal period
question
13. (p. 285) A(n) _____ is any agent that causes a birth defect. A. androgen B. teratogen C. proestrogen D. estrogen
answer
B. teratogen
question
14. (p. 285) Andrea is a preterm infant who was born 37 weeks after conception. Which of the following characteristics will decrease the probability of Andrea experiencing developmental problems? A. Andrea is from a very low-income family. B. Andrea's parents are chain smokers. C. Andrea's mother is an alcoholic. D. Andrea's parents massage her at least 3-4 times per day.
answer
D. Andrea's parents massage her at least 3-4 times per day
question
15. (p. 286) Research shows that during infancy, motor skills and perceptual skills _____. A. are independent of one another B. are coupled and depend on each other C. undergo very little change D. are influenced almost entirely by biological maturation
answer
B. are coupled and depend on each other
question
16. (p. 287) What is the biggest challenge faced by psychologists who study infant perception? A. Infants are already studied by pediatricians, so it isn't considered appropriate for psychologists to also study them. B. Infant perception is a topic that is of little theoretical interest to psychologists. C. Because infants can't speak, psychologists who study infants rely on what infants can do to understand what they know. D. Infants spend too much time eating and sleeping to be good research subjects.
answer
C. because infants can't speak, psychologists who study infants rely on what infants can do to understand what they know
question
17. (p. 287) What infant perception research technique involves giving an infant a choice at what to look at and then looking for a reliable preference for one stimulus over the other? A. Habituation B. Preferential looking C. Aphasia D. Object permanence
answer
B. Preferential looking
question
18. (p. 287) Four-month-old baby Oscar is a participant in a preferential looking experiment. Researchers show Oscar two photos, one of which is of his mother's face, and the other which is of a female stranger's face. The photos are presented repeatedly in differing locations, and the amount of time Oscar spends looking at the photos is recorded. What will researchers conclude if Oscar shows a reliable preference for his mother's face over the stranger's face? A. Oscar can discriminate his mother's face from a stranger's face. B. Oscar is afraid of strangers. C. Oscar likes strangers as much as his mothers. D. Oscar can't see very well.
answer
A. Oscar can discriminate his mother's face from a stranger's face
question
19. (p. 287) Nathan is a happy and healthy 3-month-old baby. Based on preferential looking and habituation research, what can you predict about Nathan's perceptual abilities? A. Nathan will not be able to distinguish between scrambled faces and real faces. B. Nathan will prefer a stranger's face to his mother's face. C. Nathan will prefer real faces to scrambled faces and he will also prefer his mother's face to a stranger's face. D. Nathan will prefer real to scrambled faces but will not be able to distinguish his mother's face from a stranger's face.
answer
C. Nathan will prefer real faces to scrambled faces and he will also prefer his mother's face t a stranger's face
question
20. (p. 288) Which of the following statements about brain development is false? A. At birth, the infant brain has about 100 billion neurons, but only minimal neural connections. B. During the first two years of life, the dendrites of the neurons branch out and the neurons become far more interconnected. C. Aside from growing larger, the brain does not undergo any anatomical change after birth. D. Synaptic connections increase dramatically during childhood. Connections that are made become stronger and will survive. Unused synaptic connections will be pruned (replaced or eliminated).
answer
C. aside from growing larger, the brain does not undergo any anatomical change after birth
question
21. (p. 289) Which of the following refers to a period of rapid skeletal and sexual maturation that occurs mainly in early adolescence? A. Sensorimotor stage B. Preoperational stage C. Puberty D. Menopause
answer
C. puberty
question
22. (p. 289) Which of the following characterizes pubertal change in adolescents? A. Hormones are alone responsible for adolescent behavior. B. Estradiol, an estrogen, is associated in boys with the development of genitals, an increase in height, and voice change. C. There is no dramatic change in the concentration of certain hormones because they decrease gradually during puberty. D. The peak of pubertal change occurs at an average age of 11½ for girls and 13½ for boys.
answer
D. the peak of pubertal change occurs at an average age of 11 1/2 for girls and 13 1/2 for boys
question
23. (p. 312) In a female embryo, what allows for the development of female sex organs? A. High levels of testosterone B. Low levels of androgens C. The presence of teratogens D. The absence of teratogens
answer
B. low levels of androgens
question
24. (p. 289) Research on adolescent brain development has shown that the _____ is involved with emotional reactions, whereas the _____ is involved with reasoning and decision making. A. prefrontal cortex/amygdala B. amygdala/prefrontal cortex C. hippocampus/amygdala D. brain stem/amygdala
answer
B. amygdala/ prefrontal cortex
question
25. (p. 289) Adolescents often have difficulty controlling their emotions and making sound decisions about risky behavior. Brain research suggests that this is due to the fact that during adolescence _____. A. the amygdala is developed earlier than the prefrontal cortex B. the prefrontal cortex is developed earlier than the amygdala C. growth in the hippocampus is halted D. the corpus callosum becomes severed
answer
A. the amygdala is developed earlier than the prefrontal cortex
question
26. (p. 290) Most adults reach their peak physical development during their _____. A. 20s B. 30s C. 40s D. 50s
answer
A. 20s
question
27. (p. 291) According to _____, as we age our cells become less capable of dividing. A. hormonal stress theory B. free-radical theory C. cellular-clock theory D. Erikson's theory of socioemotional development
answer
C. cellular-clock theory
question
28. (p. 292) The free-radical theory states that aging is caused by _____. A. damage to DNA B. the body's lowered resistance to stress and disease C. biological constraints on cell division D. nutritional deficiencies
answer
A. damage to DNA
question
29. (p. 292) Which theory of aging has focused on the role of chronic stress in reducing immune system functioning? A. Erikson's theory of socioemotional development B. Free-radical theory C. Cellular-clock theory D. Hormonal stress theory
answer
D. hormonal stress theory
question
30. (p. 293) _____ is the specialization of function in one hemisphere of the brain or the other. A. Habituation B. Lateralization C. Assimilation D. Accommodation
answer
B. Lateralization
question
31. (p. 294) According to Piaget, accommodation occurs when individuals _____. A. adjust their schemas to new information B. incorporate new information into existing schemas C. are deprived of parental warmth and sensitivity D. are insecurely attached to their caregivers
answer
A. adjust their schemas to new information
question
32. (p. 295) According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, the first stage of cognitive development that lasts from birth to about 2 years of age is the _____ stage. A. preoperational B. concrete operational C. sensorimotor D. formal operational
answer
C. sensorimotor
question
33. (p. 295) You tried to play peek-a-boo with your 6-month-old nephew, but whenever you hid your face, he would cry. You try it again three months later, and now he laughs and enjoys the game, trying to uncover your face with his hands. Your nephew has begun to develop _____. A. egocentrism B. object permanence C. hindsight bias D. conservation
answer
B. object permanence
question
34. (p. 295) "Out of sight, out of mind" can describe the behavior of a child who lacks the concept of _____. A. conservation B. separation anxiety C. attachment D. object permanence
answer
D. object permanence
question
35. (p. 296) If children cannot grasp the concept of conservation, they are unable to _____. A. accommodate in later life B. see things from the point of view of another person C. recognize that the quantity of a substance remains the same despite changes in its shape D. retain earlier schemas when confronted with new experiences
answer
C. recognizes that the quantity of a substance remains the same despite changes in its shape
question
36. (p. 296) Samantha gives both her 3-year-old and her 4-year-old children identically shaped glasses of juice in order to avoid conflict over who has the most. Samantha is showing her awareness of what limitation in her children's thinking skills? A. Problems with equilibrium B. Problems with object permanence C. Problems with conservation D. Problems with symbolism
answer
C. problems with conservation
question
37. (p. 296) Which of Piaget's stages of cognitive development is characterized by egocentric thought? A. Sensorimotor B. Preoperational C. Concrete operational D. Post-conventional
answer
B. preoperational
question
38. (p. 269-297) According to Piaget, egocentrism refers to young children's _____. A. self-centered arrogance B. exaggerated interest in pleasure C. inability to take another person's mental state into account D. difficulty in realizing that things continue to exist even when they are not visible
answer
C. inability to take another person's mental state into account
question
39. (p. 295) You arrange two rows of pennies so they are equal in length. A child views the rows and states that they have the same amount of pennies. You spread out the pennies in the bottom row so it is longer than the top row. The child now states that the bottom row has more pennies. This child is in which of Piaget's stages? A. Sensorimotor B. Preoperational C. Formal operations D. Concrete operations
answer
B. preoperational
question
40. (p. 297) Most children successfully acquire conservation skills during the _____ stage of cognitive development. A. sensorimotor B. preoperational C. concrete operational D. formal operational
answer
C. concrete operational
question
41. (p. 297) Which stage of cognitive development involves replacing intuitive reasoning with logical reasoning? A. Sensorimotor B. Preoperational C. Concrete operational D. Egocentric
answer
C. concrete operational
question
42. (p. 297) Which of the following is true about the concrete operational stage of reasoning? A. Adolescents can conceive of hypothetical possibilities in this stage. B. This stage denotes ability of an adolescent to systematically deduce, or come to a conclusion about, the best path for solving the problem. C. A kind of abstract, logical reasoning occurs in this cognitive stage. D. One important skill at this stage of reasoning is the ability to classify or divide things into different sets or subsets and to consider their interrelations.
answer
D. one important skill at this stage of reasoning is the ability to classify or divide things into different sets or subsets and to consider their interrelations
question
43. (p. 297) According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, formal operational thought is _____. A. logical, systematic, abstract, and idealistic B. simplistic and systematic C. intuitive and concrete D. based on trial and error
answer
A. logical, systematic, abstract, and idealistic
question
44. (p. 297) According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, the ability to utilize logical thought to assess abstract social problems and situations is attained during the _____ stage. A. preoperational B. concrete operational C. formal operational D. sensorimotor
answer
C. formal operational
question
45. (p. 297) An adolescent who hypothesizes and speaks in terms of possibilities may well be functioning in Piaget's cognitive stage of _____. A. formal operational thought B. concrete operational thought C. moral realistic thought D. transductive thought
answer
A. formal operational thought
question
46. (p. 295) Which of the following represents the correct chronological sequence of Piaget's stages of cognitive development? A. Sensorimotor, preoperations, concrete operations, formal operations B. Sensorimotor, concrete operations, preoperations, formal operations C. Preoperations, concrete operations, formal operations, sensorimotor D. Concrete operations, formal operations, sensorimotor, preoperations
answer
A. sensorimotor, preparations, concrete operations, formal operations
question
47. (p. 295) Which of the following statements about Piaget's theory of cognitive development is false? A. Piaget believed that we go through four stages in understanding the world and that each stage involves a qualitatively different way of making sense of the world. B. Piaget believed that children do not play an active role in constructing their own understanding of the world but rather are passively reacting to environmental influences. C. Piaget believed that children use schemas to make sense of their experience. D. Piaget's theory suggests that over the course of the four developmental stages, a person progresses from sensorimotor cognition to abstract, idealistic, and logical thought
answer
B. Piaget believed that children do not play an active role in constructing their own understanding of the world but rather are passively reacting to environmental influences.
question
48. (p. 297-298) According to the textbook, one of the most important criticisms of Piaget's theory of cognitive development is that _____. A. his theory had very little impact on psychologists' understanding of how children's minds develop B. the popularity of his theory was been very short-lived C. his theory was never scientifically tested D. many cognitive abilities emerge earlier in children than Piaget thought
answer
D many cognitive abilities emerge earlier in children than Piaget thought
question
49. (p. 299) Although _____ did not believe that culture and education play important roles in children's cognitive development, _____ believed that cognitive development is very much an interpersonal process that happens in a cultural context. A. Jean Piaget/Lev Vygotsky B. Lev Vygostsky/Jean Piaget C. Erik Erikson/Jean Piaget D. Lev Vygostsky/Erik Erikson
answer
A. Jean Piaget/ Lev Vygotsky
question
50. (p. 299) Benjamin loves putting together puzzles. He has recently mastered putting together a 10-piece Sesame Street puzzle. His mother claps at his accomplishment but wants to continue challenging Benjamin just beyond his current abilities. The next time they play, she gives Benjamin a 15-piece puzzle and offers some guidance on how to sort the pieces out. According to Vygotsky, Benjamin's mother provides _____ that allows Benjamin's cognitive abilities to be built higher and higher. A. accommodating B. assimilation C. scaffolding D. conservation
answer
D. scaffolding
question
1. Motivated behavior is _____. A. energized, directed, and sustained B. excitatory, disoriented, and dynamic C. logical, analytical, and unmanageable D. reflexive, reflective, and adaptive
answer
A. energized, directed, and sustained
question
2. Ethology describes motivation from a(n) _____. A. psychoanalytic perspective B. behaviorism perspective C. evolutionary perspective D. humanistic perspective
answer
C. evolutionary perspective
question
3. Which of the following statements about instincts is false? A. An instinct is a biological pattern of behavior that is assumed to be universal throughout a species. B. Instincts are learned behavioral responses. C. Instincts are generally set in motion by a "sign stimulus." D. Instincts may explain a great deal of nonhuman animal behavior.
answer
B. instincts are learned behavioral responses
question
4. A(n) _____ is an aroused state that occurs because of a physiological need. A. need B. drive C. instinct D. reflex
answer
B. drive
question
5. A(n) _____ is a deprivation that energizes the drive to eliminate or reduce the deprivation. A. need B. drive C. instinct D. reflex
answer
A. need
question
6. The concept of _____ pertains to a psychological state, whereas _____ involves a physiological state. A. reflex/need B. need/drive C. drive/need D. need/reflex
answer
C. drive/ need
question
7. You just ran a marathon in very hot weather and perspired heavily. According to drive reduction theory, your body will have a(n) _____ for water, which will produce a(n) _____ for water, which will lead to a(n) _____ to get water. A. instinct; motivation; need B. instinct; motivation; drive C. need; motivation; drive D. need; drive; motivation
answer
C. need; motivation; drive
question
8. According to drive reduction theory, the goal of drive reduction is _____. A. self-actualization B. homeostasis C. self-determination D. to elevate the level of arousal
answer
B. homeostasis
question
9. The body's tendency to maintain an equilibrium, or steady state, is known as _____. A. equity B. catharsis C. homeostasis D. homogeneity
answer
C. homeostasis
question
10. When you walk out of an air-conditioned room into the heat of a summer day, your body releases excess heat by sweating. This is due to the body's tendency to maintain _____. A. intrinsic motivation B. self-determination C. homeostasis D. self-actualization
answer
C. homeostasis
question
11. A major criticism of drive reduction theory is that _____. A. all behavior reduces drives, so it doesn't really explain anything B. people sometimes behave in ways that increase drives C. there are no behaviors that actually reduce drives D. drives and needs are always related
answer
B. people sometimes behave in ways that increase drives
question
12. Darrin is a good piano player. When he is alone and bored his arousal is low and he often gets distracted and makes mistakes. When he is in a recital with strangers, he sometimes gets too nervous and aroused and also makes mistakes. His best performances are typically at home when family and friends are nearby, and his arousal level is moderate. The variations in Darrin's performance can be best explained by the _____. A. Yerkes-Dodson law B. Clark Hull's theory C. James-Lange theory D. Cannon-Bard theory
answer
A. Yerkes- Dodson law
question
13. According to the Yerkes-Dodson law, performance is best under conditions of _____ arousal. A. no B. low C. moderate D. high
answer
C. moderate
question
14. When Cannon and Washburn measured stomach contractions with a balloon, they found that _____. A. when subjects report hunger, their stomach is relaxed B. when subjects report a full stomach, their stomach is relaxed C. when subjects report hunger, their stomach is contracting D. when subjects report a full stomach, their stomach is contracting
answer
C. when subjects report hunger, their stomach is contracting
question
15. The hormone _____ helps start the digestion of food, travels to the brain through the bloodstream, and signals us to stop eating. A. cholecystokinin B. dopamine C. gastrin D. oxytocin
answer
A. cholecystokinin
question
16. Which of the following plays an important role in glucose control? A. Oxytocin B. Gastrin C. Insulin D. Androgens
answer
C. insulin
question
17. Which of the following chemical substances plays an important role in the state of feeling full? A. Oxytocin B. Leptin C. Dopamine D. Estrogen
answer
B. leptin
question
18. The chemical substance _____, released by fat cells, decreases food in-take and increases energy expenditure or metabolism. A. cholecystokinin B. leptin C. insulin D. oxytocin
answer
B. leptin
question
19. In humans, _____ concentrations have been linked with weight, body fat, and weight loss in response to dieting A. glucose B. insulin C. leptin D. oxytocin
answer
C. leptin
question
20. The _____ is involved in stimulating eating. A. ventromedial hypothalamus B. lateral hypothalamus C. amygdala D. prefrontal cortex
answer
B. lateral hypothalamus
question
21. The _____ is involved in reducing hunger and restricting eating. A. ventromedial hypothalamus B. lateral hypothalamus C. amygdala D. prefrontal cortex
answer
A. ventromedial hypothalamus
question
22. Which of the following is true of ventromedial hypothalamus? A. When this area of an animal's brain is stimulated, the animal starts eating. B. If this part of the hypothalamus is destroyed, even a starving animal will show no interest in food. C. When this area is destroyed, the animal eats profusely and quickly becomes obese. D. It is involved in stimulating eating.
answer
C. when this area is destroyed, the animal eats profusely and quickly becomes obese
question
23. If it is night, we are likely to feel hungry even if we ate a big lunch. This illustrates _____. A. the effect of learned associations on eating behavior B. the effect of emotional state on eating behavior C. the effect of suggestion on eating behavior D. the effect of mindlessness on eating behavior
answer
A. the effect of learned associations on eating behaviors
question
24. Motivation for sexual behavior is centered in the _____. A. adrenal gland B. hypothalamus C. amygdale D. pituitary gland
answer
B. hypothalamus
question
25. _____ are the class of sex hormones that are predominate in females. _____ are the class of sex hormones that are predominate in males. A. Estrogens/Androgens B. Androgens/Estrogens C. Estrogens/Endorphins D. Endorphins/Androgens
answer
A. estrogens/ androgens
question
26. The beginning of the process of erotic responsiveness occurs during the _____ of the human sexual response pattern. A. plateau phase B. resolution phase C. excitement phase D. orgasm phase
answer
C. excitement phase
question
27. According to research on the human sexual response pattern, orgasm lasts for about _____. A. 60 seconds B. 3 to 15 seconds C. 20 to 30 seconds D. 40 to 45 seconds
answer
B. 3 to 15 seconds
question
28. Males experience a refractory period during the _____ phase of the human sexual response pattern. A. excitement B. plateau C. orgasm D. resolution
answer
C. orgasm
question
29. When considering the human sexual response pattern, how does the male refractory period compare to that of the female refractory period? A. Males have a shorter refractory period than females. B. Males do not have a refractory period. C. Females do not have a refractory period. D. Unlike males, females can have two refractory periods without delay.
answer
C. females do not have a refractory period
question
30. What is the correct order of the human sexual response pattern? A. Plateau, excitement, orgasm, resolution B. Excitement, orgasm, resolution, plateau C. Orgasm, excitement, plateau, resolution D. Excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution
answer
D. Excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution
question
31. According to recent research on sexual patterns of behavior in the United States, _____. A. marriage and monogamy rule sexual behavior B. promiscuity and infidelity rule sexual behavior C. single people have more sex than married people D. most married women have been unfaithful at least once
answer
A. marriage and monogamy rule sexual behavior
question
32. Which of the following statements about gender differences in sexual attitudes and behavior is false? A. Men think about sex more often than women do. B. Men show more changes in their sexual patterns and desires over their lifetime than women do. C. Men view more pornography D. Men have more permissive attitudes toward casual premarital sex.
answer
B. men show more changes in their sexual patterns and desires over their lifetime than women do
question
33. An individual's _____ refers to the direction of his or her erotic interests. A. genetic factors B. gender role C. gender identity D. sexual orientation
answer
D. sexual orientation
question
34. From Maslow's perspective, motivation is primarily the result of _____. A. reinforcement of individual abilities B. instinctive responses to environmental stimuli C. specific responses to ethological, innate drives D. humans focusing on satisfying basic needs before moving to higher needs
answer
D. humans focusing on satisfying basic needs before moving to higher needs
question
35. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following needs must be met first? A. Physiological needs B. Safety needs C. Belonging and love D. Self-actualization
answer
A. physiological needs
question
36. William has volunteered to work in a war-torn country to try to improve the lives of the residents there. The citizens currently have enough to eat and drink. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, what would these citizens be in need of next? A. Safety B. Esteem C. Belongingness and love D. Self-transcendence
answer
A. safety
question
37. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, we seek to fulfill our need for love and affiliation _____. A. after our basic physiological and safety needs are met B. before our basic biological and safety needs are met C. after we have found self-actualization D. after self-esteem needs have been met
answer
A. after our basic physiological and safety needs are met
question
38. The highest and most elusive of Maslow's needs is _____. A. esteem B. self-actualization C. belongingness D. competence
answer
B. self-actualization
question
39. According to Maslow, self-actualization is possible _____. A. at any time B. only before love and belongingness needs are fulfilled C. only after all other needs have been fulfilled D. before physiological needs are met
answer
C. only after all other needs have been fulfilled
question
40. If you had to write a research paper on Maslow's hierarchy of motives, which of the following titles would you choose to capture the essence of Maslow's theory? A. "Keep those reinforcements coming." B. "The power of the unconscious." C. "Easy come, easy go." D. "Be all that you can be."
answer
D. 'Be all that you can be'
question
41. According to self-determination theory, people are most fulfilled when they satisfy which three fundamental needs? A. Hunger, thirst, and sex B. Hunger, security, and love C. Competence, autonomy, and relatedness D. Hunger, esteem, and achievement
answer
C. competence, autonomy, and relatedness
question
42. According to self-determination theory, competence motivation involves _____. A. drive-reduction B. self-efficacy and mastery C. environmental stimuli D. maintaining optimal arousal
answer
B.self- efficacy and mastery
question
43. Self-efficacy refers to _____. A. the belief that one has the competence to accomplish a given goal or task B. the sense that one can gain skills and overcome obstacles C. the need to engage in warm relations with other people D. the sense that one is in control of one's own life
answer
A. the belief that one has the competence to accomplish a given goal or task
question
44. Relatedness refers to _____. A. the belief that one has the competence to accomplish a given goal or task B. the sense that one can gain skills and overcome obstacles C. the need to engage in warm relations with other people D. the sense that one is in control of one's own life
answer
C. the need to engage in warm relations with other people
question
45. Autonomy refers to _____. A. the belief that one has the competence to accomplish a given goal or task B. the sense that one can gain skills and overcome obstacles C. the need to engage in warm relations with other people D. the sense that one is in control of one's own life
answer
D. the sense that one is in control of one's own life
question
46. Don places a great deal of value on money, prestige, and his physical appearance. According to your textbook, compared to someone who values the organismic needs, Don will be more likely to experience _____. A. lowered self-actualization and physical illness B. higher well-being but less physical illness C. higher well-being but less self-esteem D. less physical illness and well-being
answer
A. lowered self- actualization and physical illness
question
47. _____ emphasize individual achievement, independence, and self-reliance, whereas _____ emphasize affiliation, cooperation, and interdependence. A. Individualistic cultures/collectivist cultures B. Collectivist cultures/individualistic cultures C. Agricultural societies/urban societies D. Poverty-ridden societies/wealthy societies
answer
A. Individualistic cultures/ collectivist cultures
question
48. Competence, relatedness, and autonomy are examples of _____. A. extrinsic motivation B. intrinsic motivation C. environmental stimuli D. drive reduction
answer
B. intrinsic motivation
question
49. _____ is based on internal needs (e.g., competence or autonomy). _____ is based on external incentives such as rewards and punishments. A. Extrinsic motivation/Intrinsic motivation B. Intrinsic motivation/Extrinsic motivation C. Internal attribution/external attribution D. Negative affect/Positive affect
answer
B. intrinsic motivation/ extrinsic motivation
question
50. _____ stems from the desire to do something in order to obtain rewards or avoid punishment from the social environment, whereas _____ stems from internal factors such as organismic needs. A. Extrinsic motivation/intrinsic motivation B. Intrinsic motivation/extrinsic motivation C. Internal attribution/external attribution D. Internal attribution/intrinsic motivation
answer
A. extrinsic motivation/ intrinsic motivation
question
1. Which of the following perspectives emphasizes that personality is primarily unconscious? A. Social cognitive perspectives B. Psychodynamic perspectives C. Humanistic perspectives D. Personological and life story perspectives
answer
B. psychodynamic perspectives
question
2. Freud considered _____ to be the primary motivating force of human behavior. A. the conscious B. the unconscious C. rewards and punishments D. selfactualization
answer
B. the unconscious
question
3. Which of the following is true of the three structures of personality described by Freud? A. According to Freud, the id is completely conscious, whereas the ego is partly unconscious. B. In Freud's view, the id has contact with reality. C. The superego acts as a mediator between the conflicting demands of the id and the ego. D. According to Freud, the ego abides by the reality principle.
answer
D. according to Freud, the ego abides by the reality
question
4. According to Freud, the ego _____. A. is the first to form and therefore the most senior personality structure B. operates on the "pleasure principle" C. must balance the needs of the id, superego, and reality D. has no contact with reality
answer
C. must balance the needs of the id, superego, and reality
question
5. Cookie Monster, one of the characters on the children's TV show Sesame Street, has an intense urge to consume cookies, even when doing so is irrational and mal adaptive. Eating cookies gives Cookie Monster a great source of pleasure and satisfaction. Freud would say that his behavior reflects the fact that Cookie Monster is ruled by his _____. A. id B. ego C. superego D. Oedipus Complex
answer
A. id
question
6. According to Freud, the _____ operates according to the pleasure principle, whereas the _____ operates on the reality principle. A. superego/ego B. id/superego C. id/ego D. ego/id
answer
C. id/ego
question
7. Which of the following statements is false? A. The id operates according to the pleasure principle. B. The ego operates according to the reality principle. C. The id and the ego are completely unconscious. D. The superego is our conscience, or internal judge of our behavior.
answer
C. the id and the ego are completely unconscious
question
8. Which structure of personality did Freud refer to as the "it"? A. Id B. Ego C. Superego D. Collective unconscious
answer
A. id
question
9. According to Freud, the _____ is your conscience, or internal judge of your behavior. A. id B. ego C. superego D. collective unconscious
answer
C. superego
question
10. Michelle was reared in a home where high moral principles dominated. She has attended Sunday school and church since early childhood. In high school, her boyfriend asked her to miss school and go on a cruise with him, but something from inside her told her not to. She felt very proud of herself afterward for holding her ground. Which Freudian personality structure made Michelle feel proud of her response? A. Superego B. Preconscious C. Id D. Ego
answer
A. superego
question
11. According to Freud, the _____ represents the moral system of our personality because it consists of our conscience and ego ideal. A. id B. ego C. superego D. hypothalamus
answer
C. superego
question
12. Which of the following defense mechanisms involves directing unacceptable impulses at a less threatening target? A. Displacement B. Sublimation C. Repression D. Fixation
answer
A. displacement
question
13. Darin had an automobile accident in which his brother and another passenger were killed. Though Darin wasn't seriously hurt in the accident, he can't remember any of the accident details. Darin is exhibiting which ego defense mechanism? A. Displacement B. Rationalization C. Reaction formation D. Repression
answer
D. repression
question
14. _____ is a defense mechanism that involves pushing threatening impulses out of conscious awareness. A. Thanatos B. Sublimation C. Repression D. Fixation
answer
C. repression
question
15. The most powerful and pervasive defense mechanism is _____. A. displacement B. sublimation C. repression D. fixation
answer
C. repression
question
16. Which of the following is true of defense mechanisms? A. Defense mechanisms are conscious in nature. B. When used in moderation or on a temporary basis, defense mechanisms are necessarily unhealthy. C. Defense mechanisms are tactics the ego uses to increase anxiety. D. Repression is the foundation for all of the psychological defense mechanisms.
answer
D. repression is the foundation for all of the psychological defense mechanisms
question
17. Six month old Ian loves to suck on anything he can get his hands on (e.g., fingers, dolls, blocks, rattles). The fact that Ian receives pleasure and comfort by exploring the world with his mouth suggests that he is in the _____ stage of psycho sexual development. A. phallic B. oral C. anal D. genital
answer
B. oral
question
18. Clarissa always needs to have something in her mouth. She is trying to give up smoking, but can't get throughout the day without sucking or chewing on her nails, pencils, or any other object she can get her hands on. Freud would suggest that Clarissa may be fixated in the _____ of psycho sexual development. A. anal B. oral C. phallic D. latency
answer
B. oral
question
19. In Freud's view, _____ is the boy's intense desire to replace his father and enjoy the affections of his mother. A. castration anxiety B. Electra complex C. penis envy D. Oedipus complex
answer
D. Oedipus complex
question
20. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of Freud's psychosexual stages of development? A. Oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital B. Anal, oral, phallic, latency, genital C. Phallic, oral, anal, genital, latency D. Genital, oral, phallic, anal, latency
answer
A. oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital
question
21. According to Freud, penis envy and the Oedipus complex is experienced during which of the following psycho sexual stages of development? A. Oral B. Anal C. Phallic D. Latency
answer
C. Phallic
question
22. Freud's view that gender differences in personality development are due to anatomical differences between males and females was criticized by Karen Horney primarily for _____. A. ignoring cultural and environmental influences on personality development B. underestimating cognitive differences between males and females C. dismissing the importance of parenting style on personality development D. overestimating intelligence differences between males and females
answer
A. ignoring cultural and environmental influences on personality development
question
23. Which of the following statements was made by Freud's critics on his ideas about sexuality, early experience, social factors, and the unconscious mind? A. The ego and conscious thought processes do not play a dominant role in our personality as Freud believed. B. Personality is set by age 1. C. The first five years of life are not as powerful in shaping adult personality as Freud thought. D. Biological basis of personality is much more important than Freud thought.
answer
C. the first five years of life are not as powerful in shaping adult personality as Freud thought
question
24. Freud believed that the prime motive in human existence is _____, Karen Horney believed that the prime motive in human existence is _____. A. security/sex B. sex/security C. selfactualization/unconditional positive regard D. sex/selfactualization
answer
B. sex/ security
question
25. According to Jung, the deepest, impersonal layer of the conscious mind that is shared by all humans is called the _____. A. primal memory B. id C. collective unconscious D. normative unconscious
answer
C. collective unconscious
question
26. According to Jung, the collective unconscious contains _____. A. archetypes B. the id C. positive regard D. selfactualization
answer
A. archetypes
question
27. Jung used the term _____ to refer to the "feminine" side of our personality and the term _____ to refer to the "masculine" side of our personality. A. animus/anima B. anima/animus C. mandala/persona D. persona/mandala
answer
B. anima/ animus
question
28. At home Carrie was moody, self centered, and bossy. At social events, Carrie was the life of the party. She was funny, happy, and demonstrated social graces that none of her family ever saw at home. What is Jung's explanation of Carrie's behavior? A. Carrie adopted her persona at parties. B. Carrie became her mandala at parties. C. Carrie was her anima at home. D. Carrie was her archetype at home.
answer
A. Carrie adopted her persona at parties
question
29. Alfred Adler would be most likely to endorse which of the following explanations for human behavior? A. People are primarily motivated by their desires to seek pleasure and avoid pain. B. People are primarily motivated by factors of which they are not consciously aware. C. People are primarily motivated by their desire to overcome perceived shortcomings. D. People are primarily motivated by sexual and aggressive instincts.
answer
C. people are primarily motivated by their desire to overcome perceived shortcomings
question
30. Adler's view that people are motivated by purposes and goals and that perfection, not pleasure, is thus the key motivator in human life is known as _____. A. individual psychology B. humanistic theory C. trait theory D. social cognitive theory
answer
A. individual psychology
question
31. Which of the following is true of Adler's individual psychology? A. In Adler's view, pleasure is the key motivator in human life. B. Alfred used the terms anima and animus to identify two common archetypes. C. Adler believed that compensation is abnormal. D. Adler argued that people have the ability to take their genetic inheritance.
answer
D. Adler argued that people have the ability to take their genetic inheritance
question
32. Ethan is short and thin. Although he's not very strong or athletic, he excels in academics and has a great sense of humor. According to Adler, Ethan's attempts to overcome physical weaknesses by developing strengths in other areas are an example of _____. A. repression B. displacement C. sublimation D. compensation
answer
D. compensation
question
33. Gladys is a therapist who is constantly reminding her clients that people have a natural capacity for personal growth and positive qualities. Gladys likely endorses the _____ of personality. A. psycho dynamic perspective B. humanistic perspective C. learning perspective D. trait perspective
answer
B. humanistic perspective
question
34. Brittney is a counselor who believes that her clients have the innate ability to make good choices. She accepts each individual as they are and as a person in the process of change. It is important to her that her clients learn to evaluate themselves and not depend on the opinion of others. Brittney is practicing _____. A. trait exploration B. psychoanalytic counseling C. social cognitive counseling D. humanistic counseling
answer
D. humanistic counseling
question
35. Which of the following is true of Carl Rogers's approach to personality? A. According to Rogers, conditions of worth cannot become part of who we think we ought to be. B. Rogers believed that each person is born with natural capacities for growth and fulfillment. C. Roger believed that personality psychology should focus on understanding healthy, well- adjusted individuals. D. Rogers believed that the person must not reconnect with his or her true feelings and desires.
answer
B. Rogers believed that each person is born with natural capacities for growth and fulfillment
question
36. According to humanistic theory, a child who receives _____ from her parents is likely to avoid the problems associated with _____, which determine the circumstances under which people approve or disapprove of themselves. A. unconditional positive regard/self actualization needs B. conditions of worth/positive selfregard needs C. selfconsistency/threats D. unconditional positive regard/conditions of worth
answer
D. unconditional positive regard/ conditions of worth
question
37. According to Rogers, we are all born with a need for _____, or a need to be liked, loved, and accepted by those around us. A. unconditional positive regard B. conditions of worth C. the collective unconscious D. catharsis
answer
A. unconditional positive regard
question
38. Ivan is a child who experiences regular punishment from parents and is only rewarded for good behavior. According to Rogers, Ivan is likely to develop knowledge of _____. A. conditions of worth B. positive selfregard C. unconditional positive regard D. situational worth
answer
A. conditions of worth
question
39. Which of the following is NOT a method proposed by Rogers to develop a more positive self-concept? A. Unconditional positive regard B. Empathy C. Genuineness D. Defense mechanisms
answer
D. unconditional positive regard
question
40. Trait theories of personality _____. A. state that situational factors override personal characteristics B. focus on the role of the unconscious C. take a more optimistic view of human nature than humanistic psychologists do D. examine personal characteristics that are stable across situations
answer
D. examine personal characteristics that are stable across situations
question
41. Who is considered the "father of American personality psychology"? A. Carl Rogers B. Alfred Adler C. Gordon Allport D. Albert Bandura
answer
C. Gordon Allport
question
42. Gordon Allport believed that healthy, well adjusted individuals _____. A. show a positive but objective sense of self and others, and have a sense of humor, common sense, and a unifying philosophy of life B. use their innate strengths to fulfill their conscious and unconscious instincts for pleasure, and focus primarily on subjective reality to determine their own sense of truth C. have achieved self actualization, are truthful, work for the common good, and believe in social justice D. do not use defense mechanisms, are logical, independent, and financially successful
answer
A. show a positive but objective sense of self and others, and have a sense of humor, common sense, and a unifying philosophy of life.
question
43. Allport used _____ to conduct research on personality. A. an experiment B. the lexical approach C. projective tests D. a thematic apperception test (TAT)
answer
B. the lexical approach
question
44. Which of the following statements accurately describes how factor analysis is used to identify personality traits? A. Factor analysis allows researchers to create operational definitions of theoretically generated personality traits. B. Factor analysis permits trait inferences by examining people's responses to ambiguous stimuli. C. Factor analysis identifies clusters of highly correlated specific behaviors that are assumed to reflect a single factor. D. Factor analysis guides researchers who use projective tests.
answer
C. factor analysis identifies clusters of highly correlated specific behaviors that are assumed to reflect a single factor
question
45. Alex is shy and keeps to himself most of the time. Alex would score low on what trait? A. Openness B. Extraversion C. Agreeableness D. Neuroticism
answer
B. extraversion
question
46. Which of the following is NOT one of the Big Five personality factors? A. Neuroticism B. Agreeableness C. Dominance D. Extraversion
answer
C. dominance
question
47. Your best friend Kelly is liberal and tolerant. Which trait is she likely high on? A. Emotional stability B. Agreeableness C. Conscientiousness D. Openness
answer
D. openness
question
48. Which statement best describes the relationship between neuroticism and emotion? A. Neuroticism is a personality trait and therefore not related to emotional experience. B. Neuroticism is related to feeling more positive emotion. C. Neuroticism is related to feeling more negative emotion. D. Neuroticism is related to extreme emotions, both positive and negative.
answer
C. Neuroticism is related to feeling more negative emotion
question
49. Your Grandma initiates regular get togethers at her neighborhood community hall. She also believes it's important to experience gratitude and be thankful for the wonderful life she has lived. According to the big five model of personality, Grandma would likely score high on which of the following traits? A. Openness B. Extraversion C. Conscientiousness D. Neuroticism
answer
B. extraversion
question
50. (p. 375) Which of the following individuals illustrates the trait of extraversion? A. Julius, who always dresses neatly but not very stylishly B. Patrick, who displays superior cognitive functioning and IQ C. Archie, who maintains a very good romantic relationship with his girlfriend D. Ethan, who communicates with all the members of his choir group lightheartedly
answer
D. Ethan, who communicates with all the members of his choir group lightheartedly
