Psychiatry NBME – Flashcards

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Fixed false belief-
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Delusion
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misinterpretation of an external stimuli
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illusion
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Sensory perception without an external stimuli
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Hallucination
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_______: is exemplified by either delusions, hallucinations or severe disorganized thought/behavior
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psychosis
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_____ hallucinations are most commonly exhibited by schizophrenia patients
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auditory
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Increasing duration of a schizophrenia like diagnosis (3 things)
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1. Brief psychotic disorder (6m)
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Criteria for schizophrenia
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1. Hallucinations 2. Delusions 3. Disorganized speech 4. Disorganized thought 5. Negative symptoms - At least two of the following with one from (1-3) - Duration of illness 6 months - Significant social, occupational or self-care deterioration
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____: treatment for schizophrenia when all else fails. Can cause agranulocytosis. Monitor WBC and ANC counts regularly
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Clozapine
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Most drugs that are effective in treating schizophrenia are dopamine receptor _____. Some of the atypical antipsychotics also anatagonize _____
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antagonists; seritonin
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Brain image findings in people with schizophrenia
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- enlarged ventricles - diffuse cortical atrophy - reduced brain volume
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Side effects from: typical antipsychotics- atypicals-
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extrapyramidal symptoms- tremor rigidity, bradykenisia, slurred speech, akathisia, tardive dyskenesia. Metabolic syndrome
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_______ a disorder that results in involuntary, repetitive body movements. This may include grimacing, sticking out the tongue or smacking of the lips.
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tardive dyskenisisa
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Metabolic syndrome:
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HTN, dyslipidemia, inc blood sugar, inc waist circumference.
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_____ characterized by fever, labile BP, tachycardia, tachypnea, diaphoresis, muscular rigidity (lead pipe rigidity), altered mental status, and autonomic dysfunction. Typically as a result of treatment with high-potency first gen antipsychotics). Treatment is to discontinue meds and medical management.
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neuroleptic malignant syndrome
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Schizoaffective disorder: _______ + ______
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mood disorder + schizophrenia
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Types of delusions:
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Erotomanic; grandiose; somatic; persecutory; jealous; mixed.
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Criteria for schizoaffective disorder:
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- Meet criteria for MDD or manic episode during which psychotic symptoms consistent with schizophrenia are also met. - Delusions or hallucinations for 2 weeks in the absence of mood disorder symptoms - Mood disorder symptoms present for the majority of the psychiatric illness
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Deluisonal disorder criteria
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- 1 or more delusions at least 1month - do not meet criteria for schizophrenia - Function not impaired, no obvious bizarre behavior
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_______ (PD): solitary activities, lack enjoyment from social interactions, no psychosis.
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schizoid
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______ (PD): paranoid, odd or magical beliefs, eccentric, lack of friends, social anxiety.
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schizotypal
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Criteria for MDE
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- Must include 5 of the following for at least a 2 week period: - M SIGE CAPS (must include either M or I)
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Criteria for Manic episode
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- Persistent elevated mood for at least 1 week (or any duration if hosp reqd) - At least 3 of the following: DIG FAST, 4 of these reqd if mood only irritable
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Mania: - lasts at least __ days - Causes severe social impairment or occupational functioning - May nessecitate hosp - may have ____ features Hypomania: - lasts at least __ days - _____ impairment in social/occup function - Does not req hosp - No psychotic features
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7; psychotic; 4
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Symptoms of Mania- DIG FAST meaning
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Distractibility Insomnia/Impulsive behavior Grandiosity Flight of ideas Agitation Speech pressured Thoughtlessness
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_____ inability to experience pleasure
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anhedonia
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MDD criteria
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- previous MDE - No history of mania/hypomania
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Side effects of SSRIs
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GI intolerance, sexual dysfunction.
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TCA side effects
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cardiac arrthymias; weight gain; orthostatic hypotension; anticholinergic effects
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Seasonal affective disorder triad:
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1. Irritability 2. Hypersomnia 3. Carbohydrate craving
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Bipolar 1 involves episodes of mania and a of major depression however, episodes of major depression are _____ reqd for diagnosis. Only mania reqd.
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not
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______ has the highest genetic link of all major psychiatric disorders
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Bipolar 1
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_____ is the best treatment for a pregnant woman who is having a manic episode.
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ECT
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Lithium has a ____ therapeutic window and many side effects such as: weight gain, tremor, GI disturbance, fatigue.
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narrow
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Bipolar 2 criteria
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- At least one MDE and at least one hypomanic episode. (Cannot have past Manic episode if so then Bipolar 1)
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Criteria for Persistent Depressive Disorder
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- 2 Ds- depressive disorder or 2 years, never asymptotic for 2 months, and 2 of the following: Hoplessness Energy low 'Self esteem low 2 Sleep Appetite Decision making impaired/low conc - May have major depression episode or meet criteria for major depression continuosly
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Cyclothymic disorder
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- Over 2 years patient have periods of hypomanic symptoms and depressive symptoms but do not meet criteria for (hypomania or MDE) - pt cannot be symptom free for more than 2 months
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Dysruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD) crtieria
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- Outbursts out of proportion to sit - ;3 outburtst per wk - Btwn outburst angry/irritable mood - Symptoms in at least 2 settings - Symptoms before age 10 - Must be present for 1 yeat, cannot go more than 3 months without symptoms
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Panic disroder criteria:
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- recurrent, unexpected panic attacks with no identifiable trigger
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_______: is intense fear of being in public places where escape or obtaining help may be difficult
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agorophobia
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________: intense fear of a specific object or situation that is out of proportion to the threat.
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specific phobia
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______: fear of scrutiny by others or fear of acting in a humiliating or embarrassing way
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social anxiety disorder
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specific phobia/SAD criteria
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- fear out of proportion to threat - exposure to situation triggers fear response - situation avoided or tolerated with intense fear - significant social/occupation dysf - duration ;6 months
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_____: failure to speak in specific situations for at least 1 month, despite the ability to comprehend and use the language.
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selective mutism
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Stranger anxiety occurs between _____ months; Separation anxiety from _____ months
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6-9m 12-18m
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_______: are recurrent, intrusive, undesired thoughts that increase anxiety.
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obsessions
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______: repetitive behaviors or mental acts that pt feels driven to perform.
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compulsions
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OCD criteria
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- experience obsessions and/or compulsions that are time-consuming and last ;1h daily or cause significant distress or dysfunction.
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PTSD criteria:
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Traumatic event Reexperience Avoidance Unable to function Month or more of symptoms Arousal increased - symptoms last for at least one month
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_____ treat nightmares in those with PTSD
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prazosin
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Acute stress disorder: Trauma occured ___ 1m ago symptoms last ___ 1m In PTSD trauma may have occurred any time in the past.
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less, less
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In PTST the stressful event is ____ threatining. in adjustment disorder the stressful event is not life threatining.
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life
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Adjustment disorder criteria:
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- emotional or behavioral symptoms within 3 months of a stressful life event - stressful event not life threatining - marked distress in excess to what is expected - significant impairment in daily functioning - not part of normal berevement - symptoms resolve within 6 months after stressor has terminated
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Categories of personality disorders
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Cluster A- Weird Cluster B- Wild Cluster C- Whimpy
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Cluster A personality disorders:
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Paranoid, Schizoid, Schizotypal
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Cluster B personality disorders
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Antisocial, Borderline, Histrionic, Narcissitic,
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Cluster C personality disorders
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Avoidant; Dependent; Obsessive-Compulsive PD
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Criteria for Personality disorders
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- Enduring pattern of behavior/inner experience that deviates from the persons culture, manifested by at least 2 of the following: - CAPRI- Cognition; Affect; Personal relations; Impulse control - The pattern of personality is pervasive, inflexible and stable
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_________: general distrust, suspicious
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paranoid PD
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_________: no desire for close relationships. loners.
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Schizoid PD
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________: strange, eccentric, magical thinking
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schizotypal PD
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_______: violates the rights of others without showing guilt. Childhood behavior consistent with conduct disorder. Must be ;18y.
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antisocial PD
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_______: unstable, impulsive, moody, suicidal guestures, feeling of emptiness.
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borderline PD
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Borderline patients often use mechanism of ____- they view others and themselves as all good or all bad.
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spliting
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_______: colorful, dramatic, must be center of attention, use physical appearance to draw attention, perceive relationships are more intimate than they are, easily influenced by others.
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histrionic PD
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_______: inflated sense of worth, demands special treatment, want their own way.
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narcissitic PD
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________: desire companionship but are extremely shy and easily injured. Fear of rejection.
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avoidant PD
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_______ prefer to be alone. _____ want be with others but are too scared of rejection.
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schizoid, avoidant
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______: excessive need to be taken care of that leads to submissive and clinging behavior. Fear of being alone. difficulty making decisions on their own.
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dependent PD
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________: perfectionism, inflexible, orderliness. Preoccupied with unimportant details so and trouble completing tasks in timely fashion.
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obsessive-compulssive PD
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Withdrawl symptoms for a drug are usually _____ of its intoxication effects
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opposite
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_____________________:characterized by a problematic pattern of substance use.
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substance use disorder
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Alcohol is a CNS ______. Alcohol ______ inhibitory GABA receptors and _____ excitatory Glutamate receptors
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depressant; activates; inactivates
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Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal: insomnia, anxiety, irritability, hand tremor, nausea/vomiting, autonomic hyperactivity (diaphoresis, _______cardia, hypertension)
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tachy
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Treatment of alcohol withdrawal
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Thiamine, folate, benzo
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Symptoms of DT- _____ hallucinations, agitation, tremor, autonomic instability, fluctuating levels of psychomotor activity.
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visual
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_______________: opioid receptor blocker. Works by decreasing desire/craving and decrease"high" associated with alcohol
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naltrexone
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__________ (antabuse) blocks the enzyme aldehyde dehydrogenase and causes aversive rxn to alcohol
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Disulfiram
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All patients should be given _____ before glucose to to prevent precipitating Wernikes-Korsakoffs
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Thiamine
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Wernikes encephalopathy caused by _______(vitamin B1) deficiency. Triad of symptoms ____, ____, _____
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thiamine; ataxia, confusion, occular abnormalities
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_________: if Wernike's left untreated. Can also occur on own. Reversible in 20%. Chronic amnestic syndrome. Impaired recent memory, anterograde amnesia, compensatory confabulation
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Korsakoffs
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______ nystagmus is strongly suggestive of PCP intox
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rotary
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Benzo intoxication- ______ is a very short acting benzo antagonist used to treat overdose
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Flumazenil
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Barbituates overdose- _______ urine with sodium bicarb to promote renal excretion
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alkalinize
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Withdrawl of ____ + _____ can be life threatening. Treat with benzos. ____ withdrawl is not life threatening
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alcohol, benzo, opioid
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In general withdrawal from ______ drugs is life threatening. While withdrawal from _____ is not.
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sedating, stimulants
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Examples of opioids:
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oxycodone, codeine, dextromethorphan, morphine, methadone, meperidine.
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Triad of Opioid overdose
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Resp depression, Altered mental status, Miosis
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________ (opiod antagonist) is the treatment of choice for opioid overdose
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Naloxone
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The 6 cognitive domains:
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complex attention; executive function; learning and memory; language; perceptual motor skills; social cognition
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Types of delirium: (5 types)
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- Substance intox delirium - Substance withdrawal delirium - Medication induced delirium - Delirium due to another medical con - Delirium due to multiple etiologies
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______ : cognitive deficits in attention, abstraction, planning, and problem solving. Disinhibited verbal, physical or sexual behavior. No memory impairment.
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Frontaltemporal dementia
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rapidly progressive cognitive decline with myoclonus is suggestive of ________
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Creutzfeldt-jacob disease
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_________: Triad of wet, wobbly and whacky
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NPH
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Anticholinergic side effects:
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Can't see, pee, spit, shit. Hot as a hare, dry as a bone, red as a beet, mad as a hatter, blind as bat.
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Criteria for Intellectual disability:
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- Deficits in intellectual functioning and adaptive functioning - Onset during developmental period - Intellectual deficits confirmed by clinical assessment and standardized intelligence testing (2 SD) - Ongoing support reqd for ADLs
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Prenatal causes of mental retardation. Infections and toxins- TORCH (meaning)
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Toxoplasmosis Other (syphillis, AIDS, Alcohol/drugs) Rubella Cytomegalovirus (CMV) Herpes Simplex
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Genetic syndromes causing ID: _______: epicanthic folds, flat nasal bridge, palmar crease _______: macrocephaly, joint hyperlaxity, macroorchidsm, males;female. Most common inherited ID. _______: obese, small stature, almond shaped eyes, male.
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Down syndrome Fragile X syndrome Prader-Willi syndrome
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Three features of Fetal Alc Syndrome
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1. Growth retardation 2. CNS involvement 3. Facial dysmorphology (smooth philtrum, short palpebral fissures, thin vermillion border)
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Three types of ADHD
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1. Predominantly inattentive 2. Predominantly hyperactive/impulsive 3. Combined
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_______: inattention and hyperactivity in two different settings for ; 6 months. Onset before age 12 but can be diagnosed retroactively.
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ADHD
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First line treatment for ADHD
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stimulants- methylphenidate, dextroaphetamine, mixed aphetamine salts.
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Criteria for Autism Spectrum Disorder
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- Impairment in social interaction and restricted/repetitive (behaviors, activities, interests) - Abnormalities in function in early developmental period
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Most important predictors of adult outcome in someone with ASD: 2 things
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Intellectual functioning Language impairment
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Treatment for ASD
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Early intervention Remedial education Behavioral therapy Psychoeducation Low dose antipsychotic
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Delirium is a disorder of _____ and awareness that develops _______. Symptoms _____ over the course of the day.
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attention; acutely; fluctuate
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Typical symptoms of delirium: ____ attention span, disorientation, fluctuations in level of consciousness, ______ hallucinations, impairment in recent ______.
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short; visual; memory.
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Investigations to determine cause of delirium
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- blood glucose, pulse ox, abg, ECG - Labs- CBC, lytes, urinalysis, urine cult - Urine drug screen, BAL, therapeutic drug levels, hepatic panel, thyroid, - Chest xray, head CT or MRI, EEG, lumbar puncture.
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__________: gradual progressive decline in cognitive function. Primary cognitive domains affected are memory, learning and language. Impairment in one or more neurocognitive domains. Definitive diagnosis not established until postmortem.
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Alzheimer's disease
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________: progressive cognitive decline. Visual hallucinations. Development of extrapyramidal signs. Day time sleepiness.
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lewy body dementia
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______- sudden, rapid, repetitive, stereotyped movements or vocalizations.
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Tic
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__________: AD inheritance. Avg age of diagnosis is 40. Triad of motor, cognitive and psychiatric symptoms. Executive function is the primary cognitive domain affected.
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Huntington's Disease
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_______- utterance of obscene, taboo words as an abrupt, sharp bark or grunt
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Coprolalia
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____- repeating other peoples words.
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Echolalia
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Fact- Tic disorder is one of the few psych disorders where diag criteria do not require symptoms to cause significant distress.
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-
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Treatment for tics:
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- Behavioural interventions - Alpha 2 agonists- guafacine
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______- single or multiple motor or vocal tics (but not both) and have never met criteria for Tourettes. ____: single or multiple motor and/or vocal tics ; 1 year
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Persistent (Chronic) motor or vocal tic disorder Provisional Tic Disorder
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Criteria for Oppositional Defiant Disorder:
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- Anger/Irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, Vindictiveness - Symptoms present for 6 months - Symptoms associated with distress to individual or others
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ODD often preceds ______.
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conduct disorder
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Unlike CD, ODD does not involve physical aggression or violating others basic human ____
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rights
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Treatment for ODD
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behavioural modificaiton
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Enuresis criteria:
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- Reccurrent urination into clothes or bed-wetting - occurs 2x wk for ;3 consecutive months or results in clinical distress or marked impairment
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Encopresis criteria:
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- Reccurent defacation into inappropriate places (clothes, floor) - Occurs ; or equal 1x per months for ; or equal to 3 months
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Treatment for enuresis
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- alarm - DDAVP, imipramine
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____________: disruption in the continuity of an individual's memory. Patients report gaps in the recollection of particular events, usually traumatic ones. Treatment is psychotherapy.
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Dissociative amnesia
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______: lapses in autobiographical info
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amnesia
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_________ is the most severe of the tic disorders. Characterized by multiple motor tics and at least one vocal tic last > 1 year. (not reqd to co occur)
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Tourette syndrome.
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_______: feelings of detachment from one's surroundings
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derealization
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_______: feelings of detachment from one's self. Experiences of unreality or detachment from one's body, thoughts, feelings or actions.
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depersonalization
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Criteria for somatic symptom disorder:
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- One or more somatic symptoms that are distressing - Extensive thoughts, feelings or behaviors related to somatic symptoms - Lasts at least 6 months
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Treatment for somatic symptom disorder:
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- Regularly scheduled vistis with single primary care provider
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Criteria for conversion disorder
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- At least one neuro symptom (sensory or motor) - Incompatibility btwn symptom and recognized neuro or medical conditions - Common symptoms: blindness, paralysis, weakness, mutism, sensory complaints, seizures. - Treatment with CBT
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Criteria for illness anxiety disorder
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- preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness - Somatic symptoms not present or if present are mild in intensity - High level of anxiety about health - Persists at least 6 months - Treatment with scheduled visits with one doc and CBT
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_________ syndrome is another older name for factitious disorder.
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Munchhausen
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Criteria for factitious disorder
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- Falsification of physical or physiological signs or symptoms in order to assume sick role - Absence of external rewards - Treat- collect collateral. Collaborate with family doc. Confrontation in non threatening way
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___________: Intentional reporting of symptoms in order to achieve personal gain. Symptoms improved once they get their desired objective.
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Malingering
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______ most serious disruptive behaviors, which violate the human rights of other humans or animals. Inflict cruelty or harm through physical and sexual violence. Lack remorse, lack empathy.
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Conduct Disorder
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__________: patients believe they are ill and do not intentionally produce or feign symptoms. __________: patients intentionally produce symptoms of a psychological or physical illness because of a desire to assume the sick role, not for external rewards. __________: Patients intentionally produce or feign symptoms for external rewards.
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somatic symptom disorder factitious disorder malingering
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4 core qualities of impulse control disorders
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1. Repetitive or compulsive engagement 2. Little control over behaviour 3. Anxiety or craving of behavior 4. Relief or satisfaction after completing behavior
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Criteria for intermittent explosive disorder
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- Recurrent behavioral outbursts resulting in verbal and/or physical aggression against people or property - Either: - Frequent small verbal/physical outburst 2x wk for 3 months - ;3/year resulting in physical damage to others, animals or property - Grossly out of proportion to stressor - Not premeditated - Marked distress or impairment in functioning
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Treatment for intermittent explosive disorder
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SSRIs, anticonvulsants or Li - CBT in combo with meds - Group/family therapy may be useful to create behavior plans to help manage episodes
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_________: subtype of dissociative amnesia. Sudden, unexpected travel away from home, accompanied by amnesia for identity or other autobiographical info.
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Dissociative fugue.
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Low levels of _____ in the CSF has been shown to be associated with impulsiveness and agression
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seritonin
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Criteria for Kleptomania
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- failure to resist uncontrollable urges to steal objects - Increasing tension immediately prior to theft - Pleasure or relief while stealing and often intense guilt and depression often reported - treatment with CBT and SSRI
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Criteria for pyromania
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- At least two attempts and deliberately starting fires - Tension or arousal experienced before the act - Curiosity/fascination with fire
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Criteria and treatment for Dissociative Identity Disorder (Multiple Personality Disorder)
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- Disruption of identity, two or more distinct personality states - features of as amnesia, depersonalization, derealization - predominantly develops in those with history of significant childhood trauma - Treat with: psychotherapy. SSRI for comorbid PTSD.
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Presentation of anorexia nervosa- ____cardia, orthostatic hypotension, arrhythmias,___ prolongation, ____ changes, anemia, leukopenia
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brady; QT; ST
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Anorexia and bulima are characterized by a desire for ______. Both may binge and purge. Anorexia involves ___ body weight and _____ of caloric intake which distinguishes it from bulimia.
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thinness; low; restriction
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_________:Neuro symptom incompatible with any known neuro disease. Often acute onset. Often patient calm and unconcerned
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conversion disorder
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Two types of anorexia
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Restrictive type Binge/Purge type
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Criteria for Anorexia Nervosa
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- Restriction of energy intake --> low BW - intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat - Disturbed body image
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Physical manifestations of anorexia:
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Ammenorrhea, cold intolerance, hypotension, bradycardia, arrhythymia, acute coronary syndrome, cardiomyopathy, MVP, constipation, lanugo, alopecia, edema, dehydration, peripheral neuropathy, seizures, hypothyroidism, osteopenia, osteoporosis.
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Laboratory abnormalities of anorexia
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hyponatremia, hypochloremic hypokalemic alkalosis (if vomiting), QT prolongation, hypercholesterolemia, transaminitis, leukopenia, anemia (normocytic, normochromic), elevated BUN, elevated cortisol, elevated GH, reduced FSH/LH, hypothyroidism, hypoglycemia, osteopenia.
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__________ syndrome refers to electrolyte and fluid shifts that occur when severely malnourished patients are refed too quickly.
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refeeding
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People with bulimia usually maintain a ____ body weight
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normal
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Criteria for Bulimia
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- Episodes of binge eating - Inappropriate attempts to compensate for overeating - Binge eating and compensatory behaviour occur at least 1x wk for 3m - Self worth influenced by BW + shape
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physical manifestations of bulimia
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salivairy gland enlargement (sialadenosis), dental erosion/carries, callous/abraisons on dorsum of hand (russell's sign), petechiae, peripheral edema, aspiration.
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labratory manifestations of bulimia
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hypocholermic hypokalemic alkalosis (if vomitting), metabolic acidosis (laxative abuse), elevated bicarb (compensation), hypernatremia, elevated BUN, elevated amylase, altered thyroid hormone, cortisol homeostasis and esophagitis.
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______ is often elevated in patients with anorexia
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cortisol
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_____ is an effective medication for bullimia
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fluoxetine
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Bulimia has a _____ prognosis compared to anorexia
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better
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Treatment for bulimia
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fluoxetine + therapy
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_________- eating excessive amount of food in a 2hr period associated with a lack of control
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binge eating
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Criteria for binge eating disorder
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- Binge eating with at least 3 of following: - eating rapidly - until uncontrollably full - eating large amounts when not hung - eating alone due to embarsment - feeling disgusted/depressed/guilty after eating - stress over binge eating - Occurs at least 1x wk for 3months - Binge eating not associated with compensatory behaviours
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Treatment for binge eating
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- CBT - Meds--> stimulants, topiromate, Orlistat
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Two stages of normal sleep-
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REM and NREM
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NREM sleep alternates with REM every ____ mins
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90
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During REM sleep, brain wave patterns resemble EEG of a _____ person
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aroused
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_________: insufficient, excessive, or altered timing of sleep
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Dyssomnias
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_______: unusual sleep related behavior
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Parasomnias
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Dyssomnias include: ______- difficulty falling or remaining asleep ______- day time sleepiness
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insomnia, hypersomnia
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Criteria for Insomnia disorder:
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- Difficulty intiating/maintaining sleep or early morning awakenings with inability to fall back to sleep - Occurs 3day/wk for 3 months - Causes sig distress or impairement in function -
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Treatment for Insomnia
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- Sleep hygiene - CBT - Pharmacotherapy - Benzos - Non benzos--> zolpidem (ambien), eszopiclone (Lunesta) - Antidepressents- Trazadone, amitryptiline, doxepin
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Criteria for hypersolmnolence disorder
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- Excessive sleepiness despite 7 hrs of sleep with at least one of the following: reccurent periods of sleep within same day; prolonged, nonrestorative sleep >9hr; difficult being fully awake after awakening - Occurs 3x/wk for 3 months - Causes distress or impairement in functioning
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Treatment for hypersolmenesce
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- Life long therapy with modafinil, methylphenidate, amoxetine - Scheduled napping
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Features of sleep apnea
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- Excessive daytime sleepiness - Apnic or hypoapenic episodes during sleep - Snoring - Frequent awakenings due to gasping - Nonrefreshing sleep - Morning headaches - Hypertension
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RF for Sleep apnea
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Obesity, increased neck circumference,
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Treatment for OSA
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- CPAP - Weight loss and exercise - Surgery
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Causes of central sleep apnea- 2things
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- Idiopathic with Cheyne stokes breathing - Due to opiod use
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____________- pattern of periodic cresendo-decresendo variation in tidal volume due to HF, stroke or renal failure.
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Cheyne-Stokes
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Treat central sleep apnea
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- Treat underlying condition - CPAP/BiPAP - Supplemental O2
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__________________- polysomnography demonstrates decreased respiration and elevated CO2 levels. Frequently comorbid medical or neuro disorders. treat underlying condition. CPAP/BiPAP.
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Sleep related hypoventilation.
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"tetrad of narcolepsy,"
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cataplexy sleep paralysis hypnagogic hallucinations excessive daytime sleepiness
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_______ hallucination: when going to sleep _______ hallucination: when transitioning from sleep.
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hypnaGOgic hyponopomic
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Criteria for narcolepsy
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- Recurrent episodes of need to sleep, lapsing into sleep, napping during the day. Occurs 3x per wk for 3 months. And at least one of the following: - Cataplexy - Hypocretin deficiency in CSF - Reduced REM sleep latency on polysomnography
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Treatment for narcolepsy
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sleep hygiene, scheduled naps, aphetamines
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Treatment for narcoleptic cataplexy
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sodium oxybate
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__________ in the hypothalmus coordinates 24h or circadian rhythmicity
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suprachiasmatic nucleus
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_________: Delay in sleep onset and wake up times with preserved sleep quality and duration. _________: Normal duration and quality of sleep with sleep onset and awakening times earlier than desired. _________: working shift work. _________: sleep disturbances associated with travel across multiple time zones
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Delayed sleep phase disorder Advanced sleep phase disorder Shift-work disorder Jet lag disorder
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NREM sleep arrousal disorders. Occur during first third of the sleep episode. Include _____ + _____
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sleep walking and sleep terrors.
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Features of sleepwalking
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- Repeated episodes of simple to complex behaviors that occur during the slow wave of sleep - Eye usually open with glassy look - Difficult to arpuse - Amnesia of the episode - benign self limited condition
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Features of sleep terrrors
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- Episodes of sudden terror arousals usually beginning with screaming or crying that occur during slow wave sleep - Difficulty arousing during episode - Amnesia of the episode - benign self limited
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Nightmare disorder
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- Reccurrent frightening dreams, occur during second half of sleep episode - Terminate in awakening with vivid recall - No confusion or disorientation on awakening - Causes distress or impairment in functioning - Imagery rehersal therapy- is a form of treatment
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___________- involves the use of mental imagery to modify the outcome of a reccurrent nightmare, writing down the improved outcome and mentally rehearsing it in a relaxed state
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Imagery rehearsal therapy
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_____ treatment for nightmares in person with PTSD
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prazosin
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REM sleep behaviour disorder
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- Arousals of sleep associated with vocalization or complex motor behavior occuring during REM sleep. Treatment with clonazepam is efficacious in most patients.
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Treatment for restless leg syndrome
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Iron replacement if low ferritin. Dopamine agonists and benzos are first line treatments
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4 stages of sexual response cycle
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Desire Excitement/Arousal Orgasm Resolution
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Most common 2 causes of sexual dysfunction in men:
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Erectile dysfunction, premature ejaculation
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Most common 2 causes of sexual dysf in women
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interest/arousal disorder female orgasmic disorder
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Class of drug used to treat erectile disorder
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Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors
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________: oral med enhances blood flow to penis. Require physcological or physical stimulation to achieve erection.
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Sildenafil
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______: either injected into corpora cavernosa or transeuthral, acts locally; produces erection in 2-3 mins, works in absence of sexual stimulation
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Alprostadil
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Treatment for premature ejaculation
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SSRI; TCAs
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Treatment for hypoactive sexual desire in men and women
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Men- testosterone if testosterone low Women- low dose testosterone, vaginal estrogen replacement if vagina dry
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_______:Incongruence btwn ones experienced and assigned gender
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gender dysphoria
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___________ disorder: engagement in unusual sexual activities and/or preoccupation with unusual sexual urges or fantasies for at least 6 months.
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paraphilias
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Three most common types of paraphilias
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Pedophillia Voyeurism Exhibitionism
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Topograpic theory: _____: repressed thoughts that are out of ones awareness ____: contains memories that are easy to bring into awareness but not unless consciously retrieved. _____: current thoughts and secondary process thinking
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Unconcious Preconcious Concious
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Structural Theory: ____: unconcious involves instictual sexual/aggressive urges ____: Moral conscience and ego ideal ____: Serves as mediator between Id and Superego. Uses defence mechanisms.
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Id Superego Ego
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___________: are used by the ego to protect oneself and relieve anxiety by keeping conflicts out of awareness. They are mostly unconscious processes. healthy when used in moderation.
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defense mechanisms
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Types of defense mechanisms:
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mature- healthy and adaptive in high functioning patients. neurotic- seen in people with obssessive compulsive patients immature- seen in children
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examples of mature defenses
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altuism humor sublimation suppression
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examples of neurotic defenses
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controlling displacement intellectualization isolation of affect rationalization reaction formation repression
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_____ is conscious, repression is unconscious
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suppression
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examples of immature defenses
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acting out denial regression projection
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_____: labeling people as all good or all bad
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splitting
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__________: resolve unconscious conflicts by bringing repressed experiences and feelings into awareness and integrating them into the patients conscious experience. Treatment is usually 3-5 days per week for many years.
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psychoanalysis
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psychoanalysis can be useful in treating:
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Cluster B + C personality disorders anxiety disorders problems coping with life events sexual disorders persistent depressive disorder
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_________: the patient is asked to say whaterever comes into his or her mind during therapy sessions
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free association
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__________: projection of unconscious feelings about important figures in the therapists life onto the patient
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countertransferance
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________: giving a reward for a desired behavior ________: encouraging a behaviour by removing a aversive stimulus.
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positive reinforcement negative reinforcement
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Behavioral therapy techniques: ________: pt learns to relax while exposed to an increasing dose of the phobia. _____: confronted with the real or imagined anxiety provoking stimuli. Not allowed to withdraw until feel calm. ____: negative stimulus paired with a specific behaviour. _____: rewards are given for specific behaviours ____: physical data are given to patients as they try to mentally control physiological states.
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systematic desensitization flooding and implosion aversion therapy token economy biofeedback
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_____ focuses on a patients current symptoms and problems by examining the connection btwn thoughts, feelings and behaviours. Effective in treating depression, anxiety, schizophrenia and substance abuse disorders.
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CBT
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pillars of DBT
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DIME Distress tolerance Interpersonal effectiveness Mindfulness Emotional regulation
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DBT is effective in treatings ______
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borderline PD
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Group therapy is especially useful in the treatment of :
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substance abuse disorder adjustment disorder personality disorder
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HAM side effects
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Anti Histamine- sedation, weight gain Antiadrenergic- hypotension Antimuscarinic- dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation
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HAM side effects seen in :
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TCAs and low dose antipsychotics.
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__________: Confusion, flushing, diaphoresis, tremor, myoclonic jerks, hyperthermia, hypertonicity, rhabdo, renal failure. Classically occurs when SSRIs and MAOIs are combined.
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seritonion syndrome
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__________: caused by a build up of stored chatecholamines; caused by a combination of an MAOi with tyramine rich foods (ex. wine, cheese, chicken liver, cured meats.)
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hypertensive crisis
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EPS can be caused by: It is reversible. Symptom onset in hours to days of starting meds or increasing dose.
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first gen antipsychotics.
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Hyperprolactinemia caused by:
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high potency, typical antipsychotics and risperidone
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Tardive dyskinesia due to:
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occurs after years of antipyscotic use (more likely high potency typical antipsychotics). Usually changes are irreversible.
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__________: mental status changes, fever, tachycardia, htn, tremor, elevated creatinine phosphokinase (CPK), lead pipe rigidity. Caused by antipsychotic.
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Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
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Approx _____ respond to antidepressant meds
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60-70%
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_________ (SSRI): - longest half life - Safe in pregnancy - Safe in children and adolescents - SE: insomnia, anxiety, sexual dys
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Fluoxetine (Prozac)
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_______ (SSRI): - Higher risk of GI side effects - SE: insomnia, anxiety, sexual dys
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Sertraline (Zoloft)
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_______ (SSRI): - short half life (withdrawl phenomenon if not taken consistenly) - SE: anticholinergic effects, sexual dysf
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Paroxetine (Paxil)
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_______ (SSRI): - approved only for use in OCD - SE: Nausea and vomitting
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Fluvoxamine (Luvox)
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_______ (SSRI): - fewest drug-drug interactions - Dose dependent QTc prolongation
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Citalopram (Celexa)
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_______ (SSRI): - Dose dependent QTc prolongation
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Escitalopram (Ciprolex, lexapro)
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Common SSRI side effects: - Fewer side effects than TCAs + MAOIs because they do not act on HAM receptors - Much safer in overdose - Common side effects: GI disturbance, insomnia, headache, anorexia. Often resolve in days to wks - Other side effects: Sexual dysfunction, restlessness, seritonin syndrome, hypnatremia
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-
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________ (SNRI): - Used to treat depression and anxiety disorders - Similar SE to SNRI. Can cause high BP in high doses
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Venlafaxine (Effexor)
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________ (SNRI): -used to treat depression, neuropathic pain - SE similar to SSRI but more dry mouth and constipation
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Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
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__________ (Nonepnephrne-Dopamine Reuptke inhib) - Lack of sexual side effects compared to SSRIs - Effectiveness for smoking cessation - Can increase risk of seizures
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Buproprion (Wellbutrin)
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________ (TCA): -useful in treatment of OCD
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Clomipramine
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Major complications of TCAs
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3 Cs: Cardiotoxicity Convulsions Coma
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FACTs Side effects of TCAs: - SE mostly due to lack of specificity - HAM SEs
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-
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Side effects of MAOIs - Seritonin syndrome, wait at least 2 weeks before switching from SSRI to MAOI - Hypertensize crisis- MAOI and tyramine rich foods
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-
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Treatment of seritonin syndrome
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- discontinue medications - Then provide supportive care and benzos -the seritonin antagonist cyproheptadine can also be used
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Tx for OCD
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high dose SSRI, TCA clomipramine
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Tx for PTSD
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SSRI
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Tx for enuresis
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TCAs (imipramine)
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Tx for neuropathic pain
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TCA (amitriptyline and nortrytyline), SNRI
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Tx for chronic pain or fibro
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SNRI
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Tx for premenstrual dysthmic disorder
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SSRI
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Tx for insomnia
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Mirtazapine, Trazadone
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______ block dopamine (D2) receptors ______ block both D2 and seritonin receptors
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typical antipsychotics atypical antipsychotics
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High potency antipsychotics are often given as an intramuscular injection to treat acute ______ or psychosis
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agitation
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Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are treated by action of the mediators in the _______ dopamine pathway
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mesolimbic
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Negative symptoms of schizophrenia are thought to occur due to decrease dopaminergic action in the ______ pathway
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mesocortical
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Side effects of typical antipsychotics: - EPS: Parkinsonism, Akathisia, Dystonia - Hyperprolactinemia - Anti HAM side effects - Tardive dyskinesia - Neuroleptic malignant syndrome - Seizures
answer
-
question
There is roughly a ____% chance of developing tardive dykinesia for each year treated with a typical antipsychotic
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5
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______: - choreoathetoid movements of tongue - old age is risk factor - 50% of cases remit spontaneously with discontinuing antipsychotic, however most cases permanent change
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Tardive Dyskinesia
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Neurleptic malignant syndrome is a medical emergency. Often occurs in young males early in treatment with antipsychotic. What are symptoms
answer
FLAT REED Fever Leukocytosis Autonomic instability (tachy, htn, diaphore Tremor Rigidity (Lead pipe) Elevated CPK Excessive sweating Delerium - Treatment is supportive- cooling/hydration
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Onset of antipsychotic side effects - NMS: ___ - Acute dystonia:___ - EPS:____ - TD:____
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anytime but usually early hours to days days to weeks months to years
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Atypical antipsychotics block both dopamine and seritonin receptors. Less likely to cause EPS, TD or NMS more likely to cause _____
answer
metabolic syndrome
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While on atypical antipsychotic these lab values should be monitored:____
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Fasting glucose, lipids, LFTs
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Atypical antispychotics names:
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Clozapine (Clozaril) Risperidone (Risperdal) Quetiapine (Seroquel) Olanzapine (Zyprexa) Aripiprazole (Abilify) Ziprasidone (Geodon) Paliperidone (Invega)
question
____________: - less likely to cause TD - used in treatment of refractory schizophrenia - more anticholinergic side effects compared to other antipsychotics - 1% incidence of agranulocytosis - must be stopped if ANC drops below 1500/microliter - only antipsychotic that reduces suicide risk - Blood draws to check WBC and ANC
answer
Clozapine (Clozaril)
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_____: - Can cause increase prolactin
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Risperidone (Risperdal)
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______: - much less likely to cause EPS - sedation and orthostatic hypotension common side effects
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Quetiapine (Seroquel)
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____: - Common side effects weight gain and sedation
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Olanzapine (Zyprexa)
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____: - More likely to be activating - Less potential for weight gain
answer
Aripiprazole (Abilify)
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____ is the only mood stablizer shown to decrease suicidality
answer
lithium
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Two main drawbacks with lithium
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- high incidence of side effects - narrow therapeutic index
question
Blood levels are useful when monitoring these drugs:
answer
- Lithium - Valproic acid - Carbamazapine - Clozapine
question
Factors that increase Li levels:
answer
NSAIDs, Aspirin, thiazide diuretics, dehydration, salt deprivation, sweating, impaired renal function
question
Side effects of lithium:
answer
- regularly monitor blood levels of lithium, thyroid func, kidney function - Fine tremor; GI disturb; Weight gain; sedation; EKG changes; benign leukocytosis; nephrogenic diabetes insipidus - Ebsteins anomaly- a cardiac defect in babies born to mothers taking lithium
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SE of ________: - most common side effect are GI and CNS (drowsiness, ataxia, sedation, confusion) - rare side effect- Stevens- Johnson Syndrome - Teratogenic- (neural tube defects)
answer
Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
question
Lamotrogine most serious side effect _____
answer
Stevens Johnshon Syndrome
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Topirimate most beneficial side effect _____. And most limiting side effect is _______
answer
weight loss; cognitive slowing
question
Benzos that are safe to give to chronic alcoholics or liver disease as they are not metabolized by the liver.
answer
Lorazepam Oxazepam Temazepam
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_______: - work by potentiating effects of GABA - they reduce anxiety and can be used to treat akathisia
answer
Benzos
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Long acting benzos (Half life >20 hours) Intermediate (half life 6-20 hours) Short acting (half life <6 hours)
answer
LA- Diazepam (valium), Clonazepam IA- Alprazolam (xanax), Lorazepam (ativan), Oxazepam, Temazepam. SA- Triazolam, Midazolam
question
____- used during detox from alcohol
answer
diazepam
question
Treatment for benzo overdose:
answer
flumazenil
question
Side effects of benzos: - withdrawal ______ - Toxicity: ____
answer
can be life threatening and cause seizures respiratory depression in overdose, especially when combined with alcohol
question
Psychostimulants, two broad categoies
answer
DextroAmphtamines (Adderal, Dexedrine) Methylphenidate (Ritalin, Concera)
question
Sides effects of dextroamphetamines and methylphenidate
answer
- anorexia, insomnia, exacerbation of tics, decreased seizure threshold
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