Praxis ETS SLP – Flashcards

(C) is correct. Palatopharyngeal insufficiency or, more specifically, velopharyngeal insufficiency is the major cause of the hypernasal speech associated with cleft palate. (A), (B), and (C) are incorrect because otitis media is not congenital; in cleft palate, the maxillary arch is often collapsed and thus is narrow; and irregular vocal fold abduction is not associated with cleft palate.

(B) is correct. Reliability is the consistency with which a test measures or the degree to which repeated measurement with the same instrument of the same individual would tend to produce the same result. Larger values indicate greater reliability; a reliability of 0.90 or greater is desirable for a test to be used in making decisions about individuals.

(A) is correct. The disorder is most limited in scope among those mentioned and, therefore, most likely to be amenable to therapy or treatment. (B) is incorrect because the problem described is diffused or dispersed throughout the head with major impairments to the nerves. (C) and (D) are incorrect because the disorders mentioned are progressive in nature.

(D) is correct. Generalization probes are a principle feature of phonological therapy. The answer choices require the clinician to pay attention to the position of the fricative sound in a word and also the word's syllable structure.

(D) is correct. The parents have described adequate syntactic and semantic knowledge by the child. Testing in English confirms similar strengths. The area that has been identified as a weakness is pragmatics and social rules for interaction.

(A) is correct. When dementia is associated with Parkinson's disease, it is usually irreversible. Therefore, the family or caregivers must understand the nature of the linguistic and intellectual problems, and learn how to maximize the abilities of the client. The sooner the family or caregivers are made aware of the condition of the client, the better the intervention is likely to be.

A) is correct. All measures discussed demonstrate improvement. There is no certainty that the voice is still abnormal. Perturbation, having gone down, shows some improvement. Based only on the data shown, one could say that there is some improvement.

(C) is correct. According to the 2010 Code of Ethics of the American Speech-Language-Hearing Association (ASHA), general information of an educational nature by correspondence is allowed. (A), (B), and (D) are incorrect. These choices are not approved and are discussed in Principle of Ethics I, Rule K.

(C) is correct. According to the 2010 ASHA Code of Ethics, Principle of Ethics I, Rule J, a speech- language pathologist can make general statements about a client's prognosis. (A), (B), and (D) are contrary to the spirit of this ethical position.

(A) is correct. Thresholds at or below 20 dB represent normal hearing in an adult. In the audiogram, air conduction thresholds for both the left and right ears are at or below 20 dB, indicating no hearing loss of any type.

(A) is correct. Voiceless sibilant fricatives such as /s/ would be recorded on a spectrogram as having high-amplitude aperiodic energy in the range of 4K Hz.

(B) is correct. The term "incidence" pertains to the number of new cases of a disease or disorder arising in a population during a given time period (e.g., over one year or over the life span).

(B) is correct. Commissural fibers are the only ones that bridge between the two cortical hemispheres.

(C) is correct. Primary progressive aphasia is isolated language deterioration with relative preservation of other cognitive abilities and symptoms that vary, depending upon the site of lesion. Signs and symptoms may include word- finding problems characterized by pauses during speech, difficulty naming objects, difficulty with comprehension of spoken and written language, and inability to comprehend word meanings.

(D) is correct. According to the Joint Committee on Infant Screening Year 2000 Position Statement: Principles and Guidelines for Early Hearing Detection and Intervention Programs, II-28, infants admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit should be screened for hearing deficits before discharge from the hospital. The intent behind this recommendation is to evaluate a child's hearing at as early an age as possible.

(D) is correct. Free and appropriate public education in the least restrictive environment is a central tenet of IDEA, which governs special education services in the public schools. IDEA makes clear that the services to be provided to a student must be endorsed as educationally necessary by the entire IEP team, which includes the student's parents, a regular education teacher, a special education teacher, a representative of the local education agency, and others as appropriate.

(C) is correct. The spectrogram illustrates the production of the word "star," which has an initial high-amplitude sibilant followed by a plosive, thus the short absence of sound after release of /t/ before production of the vowel.

(B) is correct. The spectrographic recording illustrates a falling intonation contour as the glottal pulses gradually shift downward.

(B) is correct. The primary reason for using a standardized norm-referenced assessment is to compare an individual's performance to norms generated from a much larger representative sample. Use of a norm-referenced assessment enables the client's behavior to be compared to typical function for individuals in the same age range. (A) is incorrect because standardized assessments are not administered as frequently as every session. (C) is incorrect because inclusion of client information in a diagnostic database is not the primary reason to use a norm-referenced instrument. (D) is incorrect because performance on standardized tests is expressed numerically, which makes it quantitative data.

(A) is correct. Ataxic cerebral palsy is characterized by low muscle tone, impaired balance, and tremors. The other types do not have these characteristics. (B) is incorrect. Spastic cerebral palsy involves jerky, uncontrolled movements and high muscle tone. (C) is incorrect. Athetoid cerebral palsy is characterized by slow, arrhythmic, writhing, involuntary movements of the extremities. (D) is incorrect because "Hemiplegic" specifies the body part affected, not to the type of movement pattern.

(C) is correct. Medicare will only authorize continued treatment with physician approval. (A), (B), and (D) are incorrect because they are not used as a basis for treatment eligibility

(C) is correct. Because there are three pictures, a response rate close to 33 percent (one-third) is at the level of chance. (A) is incorrect because the child's performance is only at chance levels, indicating no trend toward successful performance. (B) is incorrect because no conclusion about the superiority of one modality over another can be determined from the limited information provided. (D) is incorrect because the difficulty level of the task should only be increased when performance at the easier level is satisfactory.

(C) is correct. The primary reason is because in continuous reinforcement the desired behavior is reinforced every time it occurs. This schedule is generally best during the initial stages of learning to create a strong association between the behavior and the response. (A), (B), and (D) are incorrect because they represent partial reinforcement schemes in which the correct response is reinforced only part of the time. Learned behaviors are acquired more slowly with partial reinforcement.

(D) is correct. The primary reason is because appropriate intervention for an individual with advanced dementia is geared toward simplifying the individual's communication environment. (A), (B), and (C) are incorrect because an individual with advanced dementia is not likely to benefit significantly from intervention targeting improved communication skills.

(A) is correct. MIT is a process in which SLPs sing or hum phrases to individuals with the goal of having individuals tap, sing, or hum the phrase back to the SLP. Research has shown MIT to be successful with people diagnosed with Broca's aphasia, because their comprehension is better than their expression and they retain the ability to repeat. (B) is incorrect. Individuals with conduction aphasia have extreme difficulty repeating , so MIT would not be beneficial. (C) and (D) are incorrect. Individuals with transcortical sensory aphasia and global aphasia have auditory comprehension skills which are extremely impaired so they are not likely to benefit from MIT as the approach requires ability to comprehend what the speaker is saying and to appreciate their own productions in order to repeat.

(C) is correct. Childhood apraxia of speech is a motor planning disorder. Diadokokinesis is a task in which the rapid, consistent production of "puh- tuh-kuh" is measured. Children with this disorder cannot manipulate the articulators in smooth, controlled volitional ways. (A) is incorrect. Apraxia is not a dysarthria that indicates low muscle tone, which makes (A) incorrect. (B) is incorrect. The apraxic child has trouble imitating responses and so is not echolalic. (D) is incorrect. A specific hearing impairment is not indicative of a motor planning speech disorder.

A) is correct. Children aged 3-5 typically show the ability to code-switch and to use simpler language when speaking to younger children. (B) is incorrect. The use of narratives characterized by causally sequenced events is typically seen in children over the age of 5. (C) is incorrect. The use of language with the intent to persuade or change an opinion is typically seen in children over the age of 5. (D) is incorrect. The use of single words to express intention is typically seen in children between the ages of 18 and 24 months.

(B) is correct. An SLP is legally allowed to make the diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder independently of other professionals. (A), (C), and (D) are all incorrect. It is illegal for an SLP to diagnose Parkinson's disease, obstructive sleep apnea, or Down syndrome, although the SLP may be involved in the treatment of such disorders.

(C) is correct. The assessment should analyze the client's communication needs. (A) is incorrect. The client's needs must be assessed before a device is provided. (B) is incorrect. While the AAC selection will depend on the client's cognitive skills, the match of the device to the client should follow an evaluation of the client's needs. (D) is incorrect. Medical consultation is not needed to evaluate an AAC device.

(B) is correct. Family members speaking to the child in the language they are most comfortable using will not have a negative effect on the child and will allow them to more easily support the child through the acquisition. (A) is incorrect. The child's native culture should continue to be valued. (C) is incorrect. Even a child with language disorders can learn a second language. (D) is incorrect. Full acquisition of a new language takes many years to accomplish.

(D) is correct. A study completed by the American Speech-Language-Hearing Association in 2010 showed that there is not sufficient evidence to support one form of intervention over the other. (A), (B), and (C) are incorrect. None of these statements are supported by current research.

(C) is correct. According to IDEA, an IEP must be in effect before special education and related services are provided to an eligible student. None of the other choices are required. (A) is incorrect. The objectives in an IEP are ordinarily for a single year. (B) is incorrect. IDEA requires that an IEP include a statement of the services and aids to be provided to the child. For some students with disabilities, this will include assistive devices, but many students with disabilities do not require such devices. (D) is incorrect. Although special education teachers certainly have access to their students' IEPs, IDEA requires that regular education teachers and other service providers who are responsible for implementing a student's IEP have access to it as well.