Pega PRPC Business Architect Essentials

Flashcard maker : Lily Taylor
Which of the following are part of Customer Oriented Architecture? (Choose Three)

a. Directly capturing objectives
b. Service oriented architecture
c. Industry-specific frameworks
d. Situational layer cake
e. “6 Rs” case automation
f. Rapid development

a, d, e
(True or False) Direct Capture of Objectives starts with writing requirements and specifications to be implemented by IT.
Which of the following are part of the “6Rs”?
a. React
b. Reuse
c. Retrieve
d. Route
e. Respond
f. Receive
d, e, f
What is the goal of the “situational layer cake”? (Choose One)

a. Build best practice industry-specific frameworks
b. Integrate with service oriented architecture providers like Oracle and SAP
c. Design rich, interactive reports to analyze data in real-time
d. Specialize processes based on the specific customer, product, channel or other factors

(True or False) Pega generates code based on business models.
PRPC applications are unified around ______. (Choose One)

a. design specifications
b. process models
c. user interface mockups
d. Java code

(True or False) In developing Pega applications, business analysts typically create requirements documents and pass them to system architects to implement in PRPC.
What does “Built for Change” mean? (Choose One)

a. PRPC applications are easy to change because they are model driven instead of coded.
b. Pega releases frequent product updates to reflect changing market conditions
c. If you build your application well the first time, fewer changes down the line will be required
d. PRPC applications can be developed for only pennies (“small change”)

PRPC applications are developed mostly using ______? (Choose Two)

a. HTML style sheets
b. XML documents
c. Forms
d. Visual editors

c, d
(True or False) PRPC applications can be developed in significantly less time than traditional business applications.
Which gadget in PRPC’s standard Case Worker portal does a user select to a start a new process? (Choose One)

a. New Work
b. Create Work Item
c. New Request
d. Process Work

A work item ID ____________. (Choose Two)

a. Consists of a prefix and a numeric suffix
b. Can be modified under certain circumstances
c. Is entered by the user
d. Is a permanent unique identifier for a work item

a, d
(True or False) A screen flow is a series of screens that allows users to move forward and backward, entering information on multiple screens.
The Where am I? feature allows users to determine the following_____________. (Choose One)

a. Where a work item currently is in the process
b. What step a work item has just come from
c. Where a work item might go after this step
d. All of the Above

Which of the following are PRPC architect portals? (Choose Two)

a. Designer Studio
b. Case Manager
c. Architect Studio
d. Business Analyst

a, d
Use the Pega button to access __________. (Choose One)

a. Task Lists
b. User Profiles
c. Landing Pages
d. Online Help

(True or False) One application at a time is “active” in the BA Portal.
(True or False) Work pane tabs correspond to different user roles.
Use the application menu to ______________. (Choose One)

a. Change the current application
b. Document an application
c. Open an application viewer in a new window
d. Switch between “application” and “design” modes

On a Pega project, a Business Architect is considered part of what team? (Choose One)

a. The development team
b. The executive team
c. The QA team
d. None of the above; the BA operates separately from the project teams

(True or False) Compared to a traditional business analyst, the Pega Business Architect plays a larger role in an application development project.
Which of the following are lead business architect (LBA) rather than business architect (BA) skills? (Choose One)

a. Gathering requirements
b. Organizing DCO sessions
c. Creating correspondence templates
d. Drafting work flows

The main driver of the Gather Requirements step in the Development Roadmap is ________. (Choose One)

a. A subject matter expert
b. A system architect
c. A business architect
d. An executive stakeholder

The Application Accelerator is a tool to ______. (Choose One)

a. Improve communication between various project b. participants
c. Help find and fix performance bottlenecks in the application
d. Generate a skeleton application as a foundation for continuing development
Quickly and easily deploy an application to a staging server for testing

In which step do architects create decision rules that reflect an organization’s policies?

a. Automate business logic
b. Define the work flows
c. Gather and enter the requirements
d. Deploy and test the application

(True or False) The PRPC Development Roadmap is an alternative to other development methodologies like Scrum, BPM or Waterfall development.
(True or False) PRPC projects are typically developed by just a business architect and a system architect, without needing to include other traditional project roles such as QA test, subject matter experts and UI designers.
Which of the following are DCO tools? (Choose Two)

a. the Case Manager portal
b. the Application Browser
c. the Application Profiler
d. the Documentation Wizard

c, d
Which of the following are part of the DCO process? (Choose Two)

a. UI wireframing
b. Unit and integration testing
c. Flow drafting
d. Decision automation

a, d
(True or False) One of the goals of DCO is to reduce development time.
(True or False) Using DCO eliminates the need for IT involvement in application development.
Which of the following are generated as part of DCO? (Choose Two)

a. An application foundation
b. End user training programs
c. A partner engagement contract
d. Requirements documents

a, d
Which of the following are sections in the Application Profile? (Choose two)

a. Correspondence
b. Testing
c. UI Wireframes
d. Processes

a, d
The primary owner of the Application Profile is ______.(Choose One)

a. Pegasystems
b. the project manager
c. the system architect
d. the business architect

When is the Application Profile closed? (Choose One)

a. Before the Application Accelerator is run.
b. When the project is completed.
c. After the DCO elaboration process is complete.
d. Never – the AP is a “living document” that reflects the current state of the project.

(True or False) The Application Profile represents a complete, detailed design for the final application.
For a new project to release a new version of an existing application, you should… (Choose One)

a. Create a new Application Profile
b. Edit the existing Application Profile in place
c. Copy the existing Application Profile and edit the copy
d. None of the above; the Application Profile is only used for the first version of an application

Which of the following is an example of a work type? (Choose One)

a. Manager approval an expense report
b. A customer’s home address
c. Home insurance claim #89877-3
d. A service order

Which of the following is an example of a work item? (Choose One)

a. Manager approval an expense report
b. A customer’s home address
c. Home insurance claim #89877-3
d. A service order

What is a cover? (Choose One)

a. A user to whom a work item is assigned
b. A work item that depends on a number of subcases
c. A specification for a work item
d. A work type with no starting process

You should consider creating a case work type when ______________. (Choose One)

a. Different parts of the work may have different statuses
b. Items of this type go through a series of steps on the way toward resolution.
c. You want PRPC to store data about the items in separate tables
d. The process to resolve the item is complex

(True or False) Cases may contain other cases.
What is a Discovery Map? (Choose One)

a. A tool for visualizing business processes
b. The same thing as a work flow
c. A tree view of your application class structure
d. A software development methodology

Which of the following are types of Discovery Map steps? (Choose Two)

a. Human-based
b. Automated
c. Decision
d. Requirement

a, b
Which of the following are generated from a Discovery Map? (Choose One)

a. Work Types
b. Flow Rules
c. An Application Profile
d. A Project Plan

Discovery Maps are primarily created by ______. (Choose One)

a. Subject Matter Experts
b. System Architects
c. Business Architects
d. Executive Stakeholders

What is the purpose of an alternate step? (Choose One)

a. To allow for re-use of processes
b. To provide optional additional detail
c. To describe lower priority tasks
d. To show possible actions and results off the primary path

What is the difference between a requirement and a specification in PRPC? (Choose One)

a. Nothing, the terms are used interchangeably in PRPC.
b. Requirements are included the Application Profile; specifications are included in the application foundation.
c. Requirements describe what the application should do; specifications describe how the application meets the requirements.
d. Requirements are managed outside of PRPC; specifications are managed within PRPC.

Which of the following should be associated with a specification? (Choose One)
a. Process steps
b. The AP Overview
c. Project participants
d. Child and parent specifications
Which of the following are parts of a specification in an AP? (Choose Two)

a. Actor
b. Business objective
c. Test plan
d. Developer assignment

a, b
(True or False) During DCO elaboration, specifications can be added, removed or modified.
Which of the following are part of the “Five Cs” for writing good requirements. (Choose Three)

a. Correct
b. Compliant
c. Consistent
d. Current

a, c, d
When should you click the Finish button on an AP? (Choose One)

a. When you want to save
b. When there will be no further changes to the AP
c. When you want to send the AP document out for review
d. When the project is complete

(True or False) To start a new project for a new version of an existing application, you should re-open the Application Profile.
(True or False) You can generate a new Application Profile Document at any time.
An Application Profile is a tool for application ___________ and __________. (Choose Two)

a. Planning
b. Tracking
c. Deployment
d. Collaboration

a, d
What is the status of a finished AP? (Choose One)

a. Open
b. Pending-Development
c. Resolved-Completed
d. Resolved-Withdrawn

DCO elaboration sessions should last no longer than _______. (Choose One)

a. Two weeks
b. Four days
c. Four hours
d. One hour

What’s the main difference between a Real-time Capture and a Prep and Review session? (Choose One)

a. Typically only SAs attend Prep and Review Sessions, not BAs.
b. Prep and Review sessions are appropriate only with very experienced BAs.
c. In Real-time Capture sessions, architects build the processes and wireframes directly in PRPC during the session.
d. Prep and Review sessions occur earlier in the elaboration phase than Real-time Capture sessions.

Whose job is it to organize specification sets to be covered in an elaboration session? (Choose One)

a. Business Architect
b. Lead Business Architect
c. Certified Methodology Black Belt
d. System Architect

In DCO sessions, Business Architects are primarily responsible for ________. (Choose One)

a. Updating specifications
b. Tracking “parking lot” items to resolve after the meeting
c. Defining work flows in PRPC
d. Keeping the meeting on track and focused

(True or False) A single DCO session will typically elaborate on draft flows and UI wireframes for a single work type.
Who is responsible for running the Application Accelerator? (Choose One)

a. The project manager
b. Either the system architect or the business architect
c. The system architect
d. The business architect

Which is a key decision an SA would make affecting application generation? (Choose One)

a. The application requirements
b.Who to include in the project participants
c. Whether to create a framework or implementation application
d. Work flow and routing

(True or False) Changes made in the Application Accelerator are stored in the Application Profile.
Which of the following does the Application Accelerator generate? (Choose Two)

a. Draft work flows
b. Application documentation
c. Work type classes
d. An Application Profile

a, c
(True or False) Use the AA to re-generate the application foundation as needed throughout the project.
PRPC’s business-friendly rule forms can be used to define and configure ____________.(Choose Three)

a. The data model
b. An operator record
c. The user interface
d. The business logic

a, c, d
Which is the correct search order that PRPC follows to find the rules it needs to reuse when we run our process? (Choose One)

a. PRPC starts searching the standard PRPC rules it inherits, then searches any underlying frameworks rules and finally searches our application for the rule
b. PRPC starts searching our application, then searches the standard PRPC rules it inherits, then moves on to any underlying frameworks rules
c. PRPC starts searching our application, then searches any underlying frameworks rules, and finally searches standard PRPC rules it inherits
d. None of the above

Which of the following factors is not used by rule resolution automatically to determine the appropriate rule to use when a process is run? (Choose One)

a. Purpose or the name and type of the rule
b. Availability for use
c. Frequency of use
d. Applicability or whether the rule in scope for our application
e. Circumstance
f. Permission

What are work classes? (Choose One)

a. Sets of related work items
b. Classes that correspond to work types
c. Java classes that perform work in PRPC
d. The same thing as work flows

Three different work types need a rule to calculate the total cost of products ordered. Rather than write the same rule three times, what can you do? (Choose One)

a. Create the rule for the class group that contains the three work types.
b. Create the rule for any one of the work types; it will automatically be available to the other types.
c. Create a single rule with three “applies to” types.
d. PRPC requires that you create three separate rules in this situation.

Whose job is it to design an application’s class structure? (Choose One)

a. Business Architect
b. System Architect
c. Business Architect and System Architect collaboratively
d. Neither; the Application Accelerator automatically generates the full class structure.

Which of the following are required to create a rule? (Choose Two)

a. An “Applies to” class
b. A RuleSet
c. A template
d. A rule owner

a, b
(True or False) A rule form may have different tabs depending on the type of rule.
What is the main difference between an Application Document and an Application Profile document? (Choose One)

a. The AP document describes the planned application, whereas the Application Document describes the application as it is at any given time
b. The AP document is intended for a business audience, whereas the Application Document is intended for a technical audience
c. The Application Document can be customized, the AP document cannot.
d. An Application Profile document is just one type of Application Document.

It is best practice to generate a new Application Document ________. (Choose One)

a. Whenever you need to share information about the current state of the application.
b. Whenever you make any changes to the application.
c. Once at the beginning of the project to document the baseline, and once at the end to compare.
d. Right before running the Application Accelerator.

Which of these can be included in the Application Document? (Choose Two)

a. A project sizing matrix
b. Requirements and specifications
c. Flow diagrams
d. A test plan

b, c
When targeting an Application Document for a business audience, be sure to include _______? (Choose One)

a. Rule short descriptions
b. Links to rule forms in PRPC
c. Class names and RuleSet names for rules
d. An executive summary

Application Documents are generated as _______. (Choose One)

a. XML files
b. PDF files
c. Microsoft Word documents
d. Microsoft Excel spreadsheets

The Application Accelerator generates draft flows based on _________. (Choose One)

a. The specifications in the Application Profile.
b. The process diagrams in the Application Profile.
c. The flow template chosen by the SA when the AA was run.
d. None of the above; the AA generates classes, not flows.

Flows apply to ________. (Choose One)

a. Specifications
b. User roles
c. Data classes
d. Work types

Being in “draft mode” means ________. (Choose One)

a. A flow can be tested before defining the UI for all the steps.
b. A flow has not yet been generated for the process.
c. The flow is not yet ready for review by subject matter experts.
d. The process will not be included in the Application Document.

BAs are responsible for which of the following aspects of flow drafting? (Choose Two)

a. Ordering the steps
b. Identifying parts of the flows that can be re-used in multiple places
c. Turning off draft mode when elaboration is complete
d. Associating flow steps with specifications

a, d
(True or False) Flows should not be changed once elaboration is complete.
In a work flow, you need to have an agent arrange an appointment with a client. What shape will you use? (Choose One)

a. Decision
b. Utility
c. Start
d. Assignment

Insurance claims involving two or more vehicles need to go through different process than single vehicle claims. What shape will you use to make sure claims go through the right process? (Choose One)

a. Assignment
b. Subprocess
c. Integrator
d. Decision

All claim work items, regardless of type, need to go through the same quality verification process before completion. How will you implement this? (Choose One)

a. Assignment
b. Flow Action
c. Subprocess
d. This isn’t possible with PRPC.

A fraud prevention officer needs to decide whether to allow a claim to proceed, or escalate it for investigation. How will you include this step in the flow? (Choose One)

a. Decision
b. Utility
c. Subprocess
d. Assignment

After a claim has been processed, the records need to go to a third party auditing system. What shape will you use to indicate this in the flow? (Choose One)

a. Flow action
b. Connector
c. Notifier
d. Integrator

The UI shown to a user to complete an assignment in a regular flow is which shape? (Choose One)

a. Connector
b. Assignment
c. Menu
d. Integrator

To complete the “Review Claim” assignment an agent can choose Approve, Reject, Escalate or Defer. The default is Approve. How would you indicate this in the flow? (Choose One)

a. Approve will automatically be default because it comes first alphabetically.
b. List the Approve action first on the list on the assignment’s Actions tab.
c. Select the “primary action” checkbox for the Approve action.
d. Set the likelihood for the Approve connector higher than the others.

How does PRPC assign an assignment to the appropriate user? (Choose One)

a. Using a router
b. Using a director
c. Using a decision table
d. Using a work assignment table

In the “Enter Claim Info” assignment, agents should be able to attach photos or documents provided by the client. How can you include this capability? (Choose One)

a. Subprocess
b. Attach shape
c. Local action
d. Connector action

After a claim has been accepted, processed and paid, which of the following work item status values is most appropriate to set for the work item? (Choose One)

a. Closed-Completed
b. Resolved-Completed
c. Pending-Resolution
d. Resolved

Which are differences between screen flows and regular flows? (Choose Two)

a. In screen flows, flow actions are associated with assignments, not connectors.
b. Screen flows cannot change work item status.
c. Screen flows are for processes with human steps; regular flows are used for automated processes.
d. Screen flows are completed by a single user, so no routing is done in assignments.

a, d
How do you define a flow as a screen flow rather than a regular flow? (Choose One)

a. Check the “Screen Flow” option on the Process tab of the flow.
b. Choose the ScreenFlow template when you create the flow.
c. Any flow consisting of only assignment shapes is automatically a screen flow.
d. Use the ScreenFlow shape at the start of the flow.

(True or False) You can change a regular flow to a screen flow after creating the flow.
How do you start a screen flow from a main flow? (Choose One)

a. A Screen Flow shape.
b. A flow action.
c. A Start shape.
d. A Subprocess shape

How do you determine whether a screen flow will use tabs, breadcrumbs or tree navigation? (Choose One)

a. Choose the preferred harness on the screen flow’s start shape.
b. Select the preferred UI option on the screen flow’s Design tab.
c. Use the preferred type of assignment shape.
d. This is determined by a system setting, not the flow itself.

Which of the following are goals for a flow drafting session? (Choose Two)

a. Flows are in their final form.
b.Flows and shapes are aligned with specifications.
c. The user interfaces for assignments are associated with the shapes.
d. Steps that can be automated have been identified.

b, d
(True or False) Specifications can be linked to the whole flow in addition to individual shapes.
Which of the following shapes can be linked to specifications? (Choose Two)

a. Decisions
b. Start shapes
c. “Always” connectors
d. Action connectors

b, d
(True or False) Changes to specifications are saved to the Application Profile.
Flow drafting sessions should last no more than _______. (Choose One)

a. Two hours
b. Four hours
c. One day
d. Two days

Which of the following is a goal for a UI elaboration session? (Choose One)

a. User interface is in its final form.
b. Wireframes created for each flow action connector.
c. Data properties defined for each form field.
d. Look and feel (fonts, colors, etc.)

(True or False) Wireframing should be done in parallel with flow drafting, so that both are completed at the same time.
Whose responsibility is it to create UI wireframes in PRPC? (Choose One)

a. Subject matter experts
b. User interface designers
c. HTML / JavaScript developers
d. System and Business Architects

How many layouts can you use in one section? (Choose One)

a. Exactly one
b. At least one
c. Any number, including none
d. None; layouts include sections, not vice versa.

You need to display a list of books. For each, you need to display a title, publication date and ISBN number. Which type of layout would you use? (Choose One)

a. Triple Smart Layout
b. Repeating Grid Layout
c. Row-Column Layout
d. Free Form Layout

You need a screen to display information about an employee, such as name, employee number and hire date. Which of these layouts would be most appropriate? (Choose One)

a. Repeating Layout
b. Smart Layout
c. Tree Layout
d. Grid Layout

To include a section in a flow action within a flow, what order should you create the relevant rules in? (Choose One)

a. Flow Action then section.
b. Section then flow action.
c. Section only; the flow action will be created automatically when the flow action is saved.
d. None of the above; order of rule creation is not relevant.

(True or False) Only one section at a time can be displayed in a harness.
Which is the most appropriate control to let a user choose whether a request is high, medium, or low priority? (Choose One)

a. Priority Picker
b. Number input
c. Text input
d. Radio buttons

(True or False) PRPC includes controls that can automatically format values like currency or date.
(True or False) During wireframing you typically use text input boxes for all fields and substitute more specialized controls later in development.
What’s the difference between a Text Input and a Text Area control? (Choose One)

a. Text Input is for a single line of text; Text Area is for longer values.
b. Text Input is for unformatted text; Text Area allows for a variety of formatting options.
c. Text Input is to collect user input; Text Area is to display uneditable values.
d. None of the above; Text Area is the technical name for a Text Input control.

How are UI input errors communicated to the user? (Choose One)

a. Errors are displayed on the form after the work item is saved.
b. Errors are displayed on the form before the work item is saved.
c. Errors are displayed on the next step in the flow.
d. Errors set a Pending-Error flag on the work item.

Sections can include which of the following? (Choose Two)

a. Layouts
b. Sections
c. Harnesses
d. Flow Actions

a, b
How many levels deep can sections be nested? (Choose One)

a. None
b. Two
c. Five
d. No limit

You want to display two sections side by side in a flow action. How would you do this? (Choose One)

a. Place both sections side by side on the flow action canvas.
b. Create a new section, and place the second section to the right of the first on the section canvas.
c. Create a new section, add a free-form layout to it, and place the sections in adjacent cells in the layout.
d. This sort of display is not supported in PRPC.

What are two main advantages of creating small, focused, reusable sections? (Choose Two)

a. You can save work by creating a single section and using it in multiple places in the application.
b. Smaller sections make the user interface easier to understand for end users.
c. Layouts can include sections in a variety of different arrangements, allowing for richer user interfaces.
d. Large, single-use sections are difficult to make compliant with corporate style requirements.

a, c
What types of rules are used to control fonts, backgrounds, spacing and so on? (Choose One)

a. Portals
b. Harnesses
c. Skins
d. Styles

Properties are defined by _________. (Choose One)

a. Creating a property rule.
b. Adding a field to a section rule.
c. Creating a new work class.
d. Adding a database column.

Which of the following are valid property types? (Choose Two)

a. Page List
b. Text
c. Date
d. Single Value

b, c
Which of the following are valid property modes? (Choose Two)

a. Page List
b. Text
c. Date
d. Single Value

a, d
Your application has an InsuranceQuote work type that needs to include the name, age and gender of all the requestor’s dependents. You will need a ____________ property. (Choose One)

a. Text List
b. Single Value
c. Page
d. Page List

Your AutoLoan work type has a page property called VehicleInfo. How would you refer to the Model property in VehicleInfo? (Choose One)

a) .VehicleInfo.Model
b) .VehicleInfo>Model
c) .AutoLoan.Model
d) Autoloan>VehicleInfo>Model

When defining a new page or page list property you need to select ________. (Choose One)

a. A type
b. A data class
c. A data transform
d. A set of included properties

When does the pyDefault data transform run? (Choose One)

a. When PRPC starts
b. When a new work item is created
c. When the Application Accelerator generates the foundation application
d. When a new user logs in

In the Purchase application, which of the following properties of the PurchaseRequest work type are inherited from the generic Work class? (Choose Two)

a. pyCreateOperator
b. pyID
c. BillToShippingAddress
d. LineItemList

a, b
You want to make sure that the Priority property of all ServiceRequest work items is initially set to “low”. (A service agent may change it later to “medium” or “high”.) How can you do this? (Choose One)

a. Set the mode for the property to “low”
b. Inherit the property value from the pyDefaultPriority property
c. Use an Integer type property, and define “low” as 0
d. Set the property to “low” in the Service Request pyDefault data transform

(True or False) Defining data classes is a business architect responsibility.
What type of rule helps ensure timely completion of assignments? (Choose One)

a. Service levels
b. Decision tables
c. When rules
d. Expressions

What type of rule automatically assigns a value to a property? (Choose One)

a. Service levels
b. Decision tables
c. When rules
d. Expressions

What type of rule answers simple yes-no questions? (Choose One)

a. Service levels
b. Decision tables
c. When rules
d. Expressions

(True or False) System architects are responsible for identifying which decisions can be automated and which require human expertise.
Which of the following are types of decision rules? (Choose Two)

a. Fork
b. When
c. Decision Tree
d. Result

b, c
Service Request items with priority=high should be escalated to a Tier 2 support team. What type of rule is the best to use to determine this? (Choose One)

a. When
b. Decision Tree
c. Decision Table
d. Fork

Incident Report items are handled by agents in the national office, unless the incident occurred in the states of Arizona or Hawaii, or in any European Union country, in which case they are assigned to regional offices. However, any US incident involving multiple people, or European incidents involving more than €1000 of property are handled by priority agents. What type of rule would best make the decision about how IRs are handled? (Choose One)

a. When
b. Map Value
c. Decision Tree
d. This sort of decision is best made by a human rather than automated rule.

What flow shapes reference When rules? (Choose One)

a. Connectors
b. Decision shapes
c. Assignment shapes
d. When shapes

What types of connectors are used from a decision shape that uses a Decision Table rule? (Choose One)

a. When
b. Outcome
c. Result
d. Always

What type of rule sets a property automatically? (Choose One)

a. A Property rule
b. A Declare Expression rule
c. An Expression rule
d. A Expression Property rule

(True or False) If a property is automatically set by an expression, we can override the automatic value by setting it directly.
Which of the following can be used in an expression? (Choose Two)

a. A property value
b. A field
c. A decision rule
d. A data transform

a, c
A property called UnderAgeLimit is set by an expression that uses the Age property: false if the user is over 21, true if under 21. The user initially enters an Age of 19, and therefore the UnderAgeLimit is set to True. What will happen if the user changes Age to 22? (Choose One)

a. UnderAgeLimit will be set to False.
b. UnderAgeLimit will remain unchanged from its initial setting.
c. An error message will be displayed indicating that the UnderAgeLimit property is now invalid.
d. None of the above; the Age property cannot be changed directly if it is used in an expression.

(True or False) A property that is automatically set by an expression can be used anywhere that a regular property is.
What is the main purpose of service level rules? (Choose One)

a. To assign work items to the appropriate operator
b. To ensure timely completion of assignments
c. To generate service level reports
d. To track assignment status over time

Which milestone reflects the target completion timeframe for an assignment? (Choose One)

a. Target
b. Deadline
c. Goal
d. Urgency

What is the range of values for assignment urgency? (Choose One)

a. 1 to 10
b. 1 to 100
c. -100 to +100
d. None of the above; system architects determine the range.

Which of the following correctly describes how milestone urgency values are used? (Choose One)

a. When the milestone is reached, the value is added to the assignment urgency.
b. When the milestone is reached, the assignment urgency is set to that value.
c. When the milestone is reached, the assignment urgency is checked; if it exceeds the specified value, the escalation activity is started.
d. The urgency value indicates the number of days past the milestone the assignment can go before it is considered “late”.

Which of the following statements about PRPC integration is true? (Choose One)

a. PRPC services send requests to other systems
b. PRPC does not support integration with third-party systems
c. PRPC connectors send requests to other systems
d. PRPC does not support integration with other systems at all

Select the business architect responsibilities regarding integration from the following choices. (Choose Two)

a. Document integration needs in requirement and specifications
b. Configure or adjust the protocol
c. Implement the connector or service to perform the integration
d. Identify integration points within processes

a, d
(True or False) PRPC services are called from an Integrator shape in a flow rule.
Which work party would PRPC use to represent the operator that creates a work item (Choose One)

a. Originator
b. Manager
c. Customer
d. Interested

On which flow shapes can PRPC configure correspondence? (Choose Two)

a. Decision
b. Assignment
c. Utility
d. Subprocess

b, c
Which of the following is NOT a standard PRPC communication channel? (Choose One)

a. PhoneText
b. Phone
c. Email
d. Mail

(True or False) Correspondence rules can only contain text.
Which of the following is not a use of work parties? (Choose Two)

a. Routing
b. Communication
c. Escalation to an operator’s manager
d. Integration

c, d
Which question do we NOT need to answer when planning our correspondence? (Choose One)

a. When do we send communication?
b. What type of channel do we want to use?
c. What correspondence activity should we use?
d. What is the purpose of the communication?

From which flow shapes can we send correspondence? (Choose Two)

a. Decision
b. Assignment
c. Utility
d. Subprocess

b, c
(True or False) Correspondence is logged in the audit trail for a work item.
Which implementation would we choose if we wanted the user to decide whether or not to send correspondence at a specific point in a process? (Choose One)

a. Assignment notification
b. SendCorrespondence local flow action
c. Correspondence activity on a utility shape

Which of the following actions should be performed by a system architect? (Choose Two)

a. Incorporating dynamic elements, such as actions to create work, into correspondence
b. Adding a correspondence trigger to a flow
c. Capturing correspondence requirements
d. Configuring a correspondence activity such as CorrNew

a, d
(True or False) A business architect typically implements a Correspondence Fragment rules to model an outgoing message.
When does PRPC resolve references to properties in a correspondence rule? (Choose One)

a. When saving the correspondence rule
b. When associating the correspondence rule with its trigger
c. When the work item is created
d. When the work item triggers the correspondence

Which of the following should a business architect configure or implement? (Choose Two)

a. A simple notification with a top-level property reference
b. Interactive correspondence with buttons to process actions
c. A correspondence activity
d. A draft flow to indicate a correspondence trigger

a, d
(True or False) The correspondence type for a correspondence rule can be updated.
Which of the following types of report does PRPC produce? (Choose Two)

a. List-type report
b. Chart report
c. Personal
d. Summarized report

a, d
Which of the following is NOT a type of report category? (Choose One)

a. Shared
b. Standard
c. Favorites
d. Personal

(True or False) A property can be used for either a column or a filter condition but not both.
The use of unoptimized properties in reports is discouraged because _____________. (Choose One)

a. Unoptimized properties may negatively impact performance
b. Unoptimized properties aren’t stored in the database, but must be computed for use
c. Data stored in unoptimized properties isn’t formatted for use in reports
d. Unoptimized properties do not contain PRPC data

(True or False) We cannot convert between list-type and summarized reports.
(True or False) Standard reports use standard PRPC properties that have already been exposed for us.
By default, the Data Explorer lists ________________. (Choose One)

a. Optimized and unoptimized properties
b. Optimized properties and standard functions
c. Optimized properties only
d. Other reports

(True or False) You cannot create a new report using the Report Browser; you can only modify an existing report.
Which of the following tasks can only be performed by editing the Report Definition rule? (Choose One)

a. Adding a report to a category
b. Changing the drill-down report
c. Adding or removing a filer condition
d. Scheduling a report

In the exercises for this lesson, we received two report warnings when we saved our report. What was the cause of these warnings? (Choose One)

a. Incomplete filter conditions
b. Saving the report to the wrong class
c. Unoptimized properties
d. A missing chart

We want to restrict our report to work items that are currently in the Pending-Approval state. This is an example of _______________________. (Choose One)

a. A filter
b. A report column
c. A function
d. A parameter

(True or False) Using an unoptimized property in a filter can result in a more significant performance degradation than using an unoptimized property in a column.
Which of the following user interactions cannot be enabled or disabled? (Choose One)

a. Use of a drill-down report
b. Converting from a list-type report to a summarized report
c. Converting from a summarized report to a list-type report
d. Creating a list-type report

Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of a business architect? (Choose One)

a. Gather requirements
b. Update specifications
c. Create test plans
d. Draft flows and UI

Which type of environment is not typically configured on a PRPC project? (Choose One)

a. Development
b. DCO Elaboration
c. Testing
d. Production

Which roles are responsible for migrating applications between environments? (Choose Two)

a. Business architects
b. Project leaders
c. System architects
d. System administrators

c, d
(True or False) Requirements and specifications may be deferred from one release to another.
Which of the following is NOT an example of “do nothing that is hard”? (Choose One)

a. Copying JavaScript from a code library for use on a section rule
b. Use standard flow actions in the initial release of an application
c. Reusing rules when we update an application
d. Implementing applications on a framework

Which of the following rules types should we consider leaving under control of the business? (Choose One)

a. Property
b. Section
c. Service Level
d. Validate

To how many shapes should we limit a flow rule? (Choose One)

a. Twenty (20)
b. Fifteen (15)
c. Ten (10)
d. Twelve (12)

Which of the following is an example of a declarative rule? (Choose One)

a. Activity
b. Validate
c. Data transform
d. Constraints

What is the maximum number of connectors we should attach to an assignment? (Choose One)

a. Four
b. Five
c. Three
d. Six

What is the maximum number of connectors we should attach to an assignment? (Choose One)

a. Four
b. Five
c. Three
d. Six

What is a Discovery Map? (Choose One)

a. Another term for a flow
b. A type of decision rule
c. A section in the Application Profile to describe a process
d. A tool for capturing feedback during elaboration sessions

(True or False) Specifications should be finalized during elaboration and then set as read-only; any changes later in the process are noted in a Change Document.
Correspondence activities automate communications with __________. (Choose One)

a. Work Parties
b. Subject Matter Experts (SMEs)
c. External services
d. All of the above

What do rules “apply to”? (Choose One)

a. Classes (Work Types)
b. Users (Operators)
c. Shapes (Flow Steps)
d. Service Levels (SLAs)


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