Nutrition-ch. Wrote This Chapter 5- Nutrition Understanding Nutrition

question

what percentage of the lipids in foods are triglycerides
answer

95
question

which form are most dietary lipids found
answer

triglycerides
question

what percentage of stored body fat is in the form of triglycerides
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99
question

lipids that are solid at room temp are known as:
answer

fats
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lipids that are liquid at room temp are known as:
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oils
question

what is the chemical composition of fats
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fatty acids and glycerol
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a compound composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen with 3 fatty acids attached to a molecule of glycerol would be known as:
answer

triglyceride
question

what compound is composed of 3 fatty acids and glycerol
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triglyceride
question

how many double bonds are present in stearic acid
answer

question

what is a property of dietary lipids
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omega 3 fatty acids are always unsaturated
question

what is the simplest 18 carbon fatty acid
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stearic acid
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what food represents a chief source of short chain and medium chain fatty acids
answer

dairy
question

how many hydrogen atoms are attached to each carbon adjacent to a double bond
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1
question

what is the simplest fatty acid found in the diet
answer

acetic acid
question

lipids differ in their degree of saturation or unsaturation due to their number of what
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double bonds
question

what is a common dietary saturated fatty acid
answer

stearic acid
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how many carbons are contained in a medium chain fatty acid
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6-10
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what food is a common source of medium chain fatty acids
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dairy products
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what describes a fatty acid that has one double bond
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monounsaturated
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what type of fatty acid is found in high amounts in olive oil
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monounsaturated
question

what compound is missing 4 or more hydrogen atoms
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polyunsaturated fatty acid
question

what is a polyunsaturated fatty acid in foods
answer

linoleic acid
question

a person wishing to increase consumption of polyunsaturated fats should choose what
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vegetable oils
question

an omega 3 fatty acid has its first double bond on:
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third carbon from the methyl end
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what is a triacylglyceride
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a triglyceride
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what is the easiest way to increase intake of oleic acid
answer

consume more olive oil
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a triglyceride always contains:
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3 fatty acids
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what is a feature of polyunsaturated fats
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low melting point
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what is known as a tropical oil
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cocoa butter
question

what is a factor that determines the hardness of a fat at a given temp
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degree of saturation
question

what food source would yield the softest lipids at room temp
answer

safflower
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a major cause of rancidity of lipids in foods is exposure to
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heat and oxygen
question

what is a structural feature of fatty acids that determines their susceptibility to spoilage by oxygen
answer

number of double bonds
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what is a characteristic of lipids
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corn oil and sunflower are more prone to spoilage than palm kernel oil
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what dietary lipid would turn rancid in the shortest time when stored at room temp in loosely capped containers
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soybean oil
question

what would be least effective at preventing oxidation of the polyunsaturated fatty acids in processed foods
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addition of phosphorus
question

what has the highest percentage of its fat in saturated form
answer

coconut oil
question

what has the highest percentage of its fat in polyunsaturated form
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corn oil
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what is a characteristic that is shared by olive and canola oil
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both contain high levels of monounsaturated fatty acids
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what type of oil provides abundant amounts of omega 3 fatty acids
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flaxseed oil
question

the food industry caries out the process of hydrogenation on what lipid
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corn oil
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what is considered a major source of polyunsaturated fat
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corn oil
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what lipids contain saturated fat
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butter, cottonseed oil, soybean oil
question

in the process of fat hydrogenation, hydrogen atoms are added to which part of the molecule
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carbon
question

what is a conjugated linoleic acid
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a fatty acid with the chemical makeup of linoleic acid but with a different configuration
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oil that is partially hydrogenated sometimes changes one or more of its double bond configurations from
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cis to trans
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what is descriptive of fatty acid configuration
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naturally occurring trans fatty acids are found in dairy products
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what describes a feature of cis fatty acids and trans fatty acids
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in the body, trans fatty acids are metabolized more like saturated fats than like unsaturated fats
question

what is a feature of phospholipids
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soluble in both water and fat
question

what type of compound is lecithin
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phospholipid
question

what is the usual fate of dietary lecithin
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hydrolyzed by the intestinal enzyme lecithinase
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what is a feature of choline
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it is a part of lecithin
question

what is a characteristic of lecithin supplements
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they are mostly hydrolyzed in the intestine
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how much energy is contributed by one gram of lecithin in a dietary supplement
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9 kcal
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what is the approximate energy value of one teaspoon of liquid lecithin supplement
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45 kcal
question

what is a characteristic shared by cholesterol and lecithin
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both are synthesized in the body
question

what is the major sterol in the diet
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cholesterol
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how much cholesterol is synthesized by the liver every day
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less than 300 mg
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what food contains cholesterol
answer

roasted turkey
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what is the major source of “good” cholesterol
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endogenous synthesis
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what is a common feature of the plant sterols
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they inhibit absorption of dietary cholesterol
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what is a feature of cholesterol (3)
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synthesized by the body and only about 10% of the body’s total cholesterol is extracellular and its daily value is 300 mg
question

what is a characteristic of cholesterol
answer

it is a precursor for bile and vitamin D synthesis
question

what term describes a substance that is hydrophobic
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lipophilic
question

what is a characteristic of the lipase enzymes
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salivary gland lipase plays and active role in fat digestion in infants
question

emulsifiers function as what in digestion of fats
answer

detergents
question

what part of the gastrointestinal tract is the predominant site of dietary fat hydrolysis
answer

small intestine
question

chylomicrons are synthesized within the what
answer

intestinal cells
question

how is soluble fiber in the diet thought to help lower blood cholesterol level
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it enhances excretion of bile leading to increased cholesterol turnover
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what does bile assist in the absorption of
answer

fat only
question

what is the storage site of bile
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gallbladder
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spherical complexes of emulsified fats are known as what
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micelles
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after a meal, most of the fat that eventually empties into the blood is in the form of particles known as
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chylomicrons
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what is an example of enterohepatic circulation
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recycling bile from the intestine to the liver
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what lipoprotein is largest in size
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chylomicron
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in comparison to a low density lipoprotein, a high density lipoprotein contains what
answer

less lipid
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what lipoprotein contains the highest percentage of cholesterol
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low density lipoprotein
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what is the least effective method to control blood cholesterol levels
answer

eat more insoluble fiber
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what tissue contains special receptors for removing low density lipoproteins from the circulation
answer

liver
question

a high risk of heart attack correlates with high blood levels of what
answer

low density lipoproteins
question

what lipoprotein is responsible for transporting cholesterol back to the liver from the periphery
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high density lipoprotein
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a low risk of cardiovascular disease correlates with high blood levels of what
answer

high density lipoproteins
question

an important function of fat in the body is to
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protect vital organs against shock
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what lipid is an essential nutrient
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linoleic acid
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what acid is used by the body to synthesize arachidonic acid
answer

linoleic acid
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what acid is an omega 3 fat
answer

docosahexaenoic acid
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what are the building blocks in the body’s synthesis and elongation of fatty acids
answer

2 carbon fragments
question

what is the immediate precursor for the eicosanoids
answer

fatty acids
question

aspirin works to reduce the symptoms of infection or pain by retarding the synthesis of
answer

certain eicosanoids
question

what food provides essential fatty acids
answer

fish, beef, plants
question

what are the precursors for synthesis of the eicosanoids
answer

long chain polyunsaturated fatty acids
question

what is a feature of adipose cell lipoprotein lipase
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the enzyme works to promote uptake of circulating triglycerides into storage triglycerides
question

what is the function of lipoprotein lipase
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hydrolyzes blood triglycerides for uptake into cells
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what is a feature of fat metabolism
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triglycerides in the blood must first be broken down to monoglycerides, fatty acids, and glycerol prior to uptake by the adipose cells
question

what nutrient is used to form ketones
answer

fat
question

what is the function of adipose cell hormone sensitive lipase
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hydrolyzes triglycerides to provide fatty acids for other cells
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what percentage of the body’s energy needs at rest is supplied by fat
answer

60
question

what is the highest total blood cholesterol concentration that falls within the desirable range
answer

199
question

which dietary fatty acid has been found to raise blood cholesterol level by the least amount
answer

stearic
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the results of blood tests that reveal a person’s total cholesterol and triglycerides are called
answer

lipid profile
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what source of lipids should be substituted for saturated fats to help lower blood cholesterol levels
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canola oil
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what is a characteristic of egg nutrition
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although it is high in cholesterol, the egg is low in saturated fat
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what oil is a good source of omega 3 fats
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canola oil
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what is a feature of fat intake and health
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intake of saturated fat raises blood cholesterol more than intake of cholesterol
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what is a characteristic of the blood cholesterol level
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it can be lowered more effectively by reducing dietary intake of saturated fat than of cholesterol
question

what is the daily trans fatty acid intake in the US
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6 g
question

what food contains the least cholesterol per serving
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steamed corn
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when consumed regularly, which fatty acid helps prevent the formation of blood clots
answer

eicosapentaenoic acid
question

how many milligrams of cholesterol are in an egg
answer

200
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what is a characteristic of eggs in nutrition
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consumption of one egg per day by most people is not considered detrimental
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what vegetable oil is a good source of omega 3 fatty acids
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canola
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what is a feature of butter and margarine
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butter contains more saturated fat and cholesterol than margarine does
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what food would be a good source of omega 3 fats
answer

salmon
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what percentage of the DV for saturated fats in the US diet is provided by one egg
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5
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what is a feature of the lipid content of foods
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omega 3 fats are found in fish
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a lacto-ovo vegetarian wishing to ensure a liberal intake of linolenic acid should consume
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canola oil and walnuts
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a person qho regularly consumes fish is at risk for ingesting potentially toxic amounts of
answer

mercury
question

what is a characteristic of fish consumption
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fatty fish contain the highest amounts of omega 3 fatty acids
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what is a good source of eicosapentaenoic acid
answer

tuna
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to achieve a dietary balance of omega 3 and omega 6 fatty acids, what is the recommended intake of omega 3 fats for a person who consumes 30 g of omega 6 fats
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there is no specific recommendation based on omega 6 intake
question

the oils found in walnuts, soybeans, flaxseed, and wheat germ represent a good source of preformed
answer

linolenic acid
question

what is a likely explanation for the imbalance between omega 6 and omega 3 lipids in the US diet
answer

high intakes of meat and low intakes of fish
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what describes a recognized relationship between dietary fat and cancer
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fat from milk does not increase risk of cancer
question

according to the DRI what is the upper limit of fat that may be consumed by a healthy person requiring 3000 kcalories per day
answer

117
question

according to the dietary guidelines, what should be the max total fat intake as percentage of energy intake
answer

35
question

what is the recommended min amount of fat that should be consumed as a percentage of total energy intake
answer

20
question

what is the recommended range for the essential fatty acids as a percentage
answer

5.6-11.2
question

what should be the max daily intake of cholesterol on a 2500 kcalorie diet
answer

300mg
question

how many grams of fat would be contained in an 800 kcalorie meal that provides 50% of the energy from carb, 20% from protein, and the rest from fat
answer

27
question

surveys show average intake of fat as a percentage of total energy intake is
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34
question

the average daily cholesterol intake of US women is about
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235
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what is a feature of fat in the diet of athletes
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minimum of 20% fat energy in the diet is needed
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what is the most desirable quality that fat adds to food
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palatability
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what is a characteristic of the lipid content of livestock
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free range animals contain more omega 3 fats in the meat than grain fed animals
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what is the dietary advice for reducing fat intake
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limit intake of all fried foods because they contain abundant fat
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a food that represents a visible fat would be what food
answer

butter
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sucrose polyester is another name for
answer

olestra
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what is a drawback of olestra consumption
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it inhibits absorption of vitamin e
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what is a feature of olestra in foods
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it causes no net loss of fat soluble vitamins from the digestive tract
question

in most nuts, what is the distribution of satruated and unsaturated fats, in order of highest to lowest amounts
answer

monounsaturated, polyunsaturated, saturated
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what is a feature of nut consumption and improved cardiovasuclar health
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the benefit may be related to the high content of monounsaturated fats and low content of saturated fats
question

what is the percentage of monounsaturated fat of the most commonly eaten nuts
answer

60
question

studies show that regular consumption of fatty fish leads to
answer

lower blood pressure
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what fish is generally highest in mercury
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shark
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why does the FDA advise against consumption of certain fish like swordfish and shark by women of childbearing age
answer

these fish are a major source of toxic mercury
question

what is a characteristic of farm raised fish
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they are lower in omega 3 fats
question

studies show that a 1% increase in dietary saturated fatty acids will raise the risk of heart disease by what percent
answer

2
question

what is a good plant source of omega 3 lipids
answer

flax seeds
question

a major feature of the mediterranean diet is liberal intake of
answer

olive oil
question

d
answer

1. What element is found in proteins but NOT in carbohydrates and fats? a. Carbon b. Oxygen c. Calcium d. Nitrogen
question

c
answer

2. In comparison to the composition of carbohydrates and fats, which element found in proteins makes them unique? a. Carbon b. Oxygen c. Nitrogen d. Hydrogen
question

a
answer

3. Which of the following is the primary factor that differentiates one amino acid from another? a. The side group b. The central carbon atom c. The number of oxygen atoms d. The number of nitrogen atoms
question

b
answer

4. Which of the following elements is found in certain amino acids? a. Iron b. Sulfur c. Calcium d. Potassium
question

c
answer

5. Which of the following terms is NOT used to classify amino acids in the diet? a. Essential b. Nonessential c. Partially essential d. Conditionally essential
question

d
answer

6. How many different kinds of amino acids make up proteins? a. 8 b. 10 c. 14 d. 20
question

c
answer

7. Which of the following is NOT contained in an amino acid? a. An acid group b. An amino group c. An aldehyde group d. A central carbon atom
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c
answer

8. Approximately how many different amino acids are used in the synthesis of body proteins? a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 35
question

b
answer

9. What is the simplest amino acid? a. Valine b. Glycine c. Alanine d. Methionine
question

a
answer

10. Which of the following is NOT an essential amino acid in human nutrition? a. Proline b. Threonine c. Methionine d. Tryptophan
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b
answer

11. Any of the following can be used by the body for the synthesis of a nonessential amino acid EXCEPT a. a fragment of fat. b. an essential mineral. c. an essential amino acid. d. a fragment of carbohydrate.
question

b
answer

12. What amino acid is classified as conditionally essential when dietary intake of phenylalanine is insufficient or the body cannot normally metabolize phenylalanine? a. Cysteine b. Tyrosine c. Glutamine d. Isoleucine
question

b
answer

13. Which of the following is a feature of an essential amino acid? a. It is not necessary in the diet b. It must be supplied by the diet c. It can be made from fat in the body d. It can be made from glucose in the body
question

d
answer

14. What type of reaction is required to bind two molecules of glycine together and release a molecule of water? a. Hydrolysis b. Deamination c. Denaturation d. Condensation
question

a
answer

15. When two amino acids are chemically joined together, the resulting structure is called a a. dipeptide. b. diglyceride. c. polypeptide. d. disaccharide.
question

b
answer

16. What is the composition of a tripeptide? a. One amino acid with three carbons b. Three amino acids bonded together c. One amino acid with three acid groups d. Three small protein chains bonded together
question

c
answer

17. What is meant by the amino acid sequence of a protein? a. Number of side chains in the protein b. Folding arrangement of the peptide chain c. Order of amino acids in the peptide chain d. Order of only the essential amino acids in the protein
question

b
answer

18. A dispensable amino acid is one that a. is not needed by the body. b. can be synthesized by the body. c. can be used to synthesize an indispensable amino acid. d. cannot be synthesized by the body because of a genetic defect.
question

b
answer

19. In comparison to the well-defined structure of starch, which of the following is the most important factor that allows for the synthesis of thousands of different proteins? a. Number of cell ribosomes b. Number of different amino acids c. Availability of amino acids containing sulfur d. Availability of amino acids containing hydroxyl groups
question

d
answer

20. Which of the following would be classified as a polypeptide? a. 1 amino acid b. 3 amino acids bonded together c. 9 fatty acids bonded together d. 20 amino acids bonded together
question

b
answer

21. The following amino acids are linked together: glycine-lysine-valine. This compound is a a. dipeptide. b. tripeptide. c. polypeptide. d. oligopeptide.
question

b
answer

22. The weak electrical attractions within polypeptide chains account for the protein’s a. primary structure. b. secondary structure. c. tertiary structure. d. quaternary structure.
question

c
answer

23. Which of the following is a feature of hemoglobin? a. It has no tertiary structure b. It holds the mineral calcium c. It is constructed of 4 polypeptide chains d. It has no primary or secondary structure
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c
answer

24. An example of a protein with quaternary polypeptide structures is a. insulin. b. tryptophan. c. hemoglobin. d. disulfide bridges.
question

c
answer

25. What is the process by which heat or acidity disrupts the normal shape of a protein chain? a. Digestion b. Condensation c. Denaturation d. Hydrogenation
question

c
answer

26. The application of heat or acid to a protein that causes its shape to change is known as a. stiffening. b. condensation. c. denaturation. d. destabilization.
question

b
answer

27. What process results in the hardening of an egg when it is exposed to heat? a. Solidification b. Denaturation c. Condensation d. Protein interaction
question

b
answer

28. After a hamburger is eaten, in what organ is the hydrolysis of its proteins initiated? a. Mouth b. Stomach c. Small intestine d. Large intestine
question

c
answer

29. What is the name of the inactive form of the protein-splitting enzyme in the stomach? a. Peptidase b. Propepsin c. Pepsinogen d. Propeptidase
question

a
answer

30. In what organ is pepsin active? a. Stomach b. Pancreas c. Small intestine d. Large intestine
question

a
answer

31. What digestive enzyme would be most affected in people who are unable to produce hydrochloric acid? a. Pepsin b. Transaminase c. Pancreatic protease d. Intestinal peptidase
question

a
answer

32. Protein-hydrolyzing enzymes are commonly known as a. proteases. b. hydrolyzers. c. prodigestins. d. denaturases.
question

a
answer

33. The function of a protease is to a. hydrolyze proteins. b. synthesize proteins. c. hydrolyze ribosomes. d. synthesize ribosomes.
question

d
answer

34. What is the chief function of pepsin? a. Emulsifies dietary proteins b. Activates hydrochloric acid c. Activates pancreatic proteases d. Cleaves proteins into smaller polypeptides
question

a
answer

35. What percentage of dietary protein is hydrolyzed in the mouth? a. 0 b. 5-10 c. 15-20 d. 25-30
question

d
answer

36. After digestion of proteins, what products are absorbed into the circulation? a. Free amino acids only b. Free amino acids and oligopeptides c. Free amino acids and dipeptides only d. Free amino acids, and a few dipeptides and tripeptides
question

a
answer

37. What is the usual fate of orally ingested enzyme supplements? a. Digested by gastrointestinal proteases b. Rapidly degraded by salivary secretions c. Mostly absorbed in original form from the stomach d. Completely absorbed in original form from the jejunum
question

d
answer

38. Which of the following statements is NOT characteristic of enzymes? a. They are all catalysts b. They have a protein structure c. They can be destroyed by heat d. They are involved in synthesis reactions only
question

b
answer

39. Which of the following describes the structure of pepsin? a. Lipid b. Protein c. Nucleic acid d. Carbohydrate
question

b
answer

40. All of the following are fates of amino acids within the small intestine EXCEPT a. some may be used for energy by the intestinal cells. b. some may be used for synthesis of gastric protease. c. some may be used for synthesis of proteins by the intestinal cells. d. they may be transported across the intestinal cell membrane to the capillaries.
question

a
answer

41. Of the following sources of amino acids, which would be best absorbed in normal, healthy people? a. Whole proteins b. Predigested proteins c. Proteins from raw foods d. Mixture of free amino acids
question

b
answer

42. Your cousin Wanda was born with a genetic defect affecting her digestion, namely, a lack of intestinal villus tripeptidases and dipeptidases. Which of the following digestive processes would NOT take place? a. Protein → oligopeptides b. Peptides → amino acids c. Amino acids → peptides d. Polypeptides → tripeptides
question

a
answer

43. Which of the following describes a process in protein synthesis? a. The code to make a protein is carried by a strand of messenger RNA b. The final step in completing the protein is carried out in the mitochondria c. The function of transfer RNA is to assist in absorption of amino acids into the cell d. The DNA binds to ribosomes and directs uptake of specific amino acids to form the peptide chain
question

b
answer

44. Which of the following is a characteristic of protein synthesis? a. Mitochondria are bound to DNA to initiate peptide bond synthesis b. Messenger RNA is constructed from a DNA template to carry instructions c. Hormones carry messages from RNA to DNA to direct peptide bond synthesis d. RNA transfers up to 6 amino acids simultaneously to the mitochondria for peptide elongation
question

c
answer

45. The process whereby messenger RNA is made from a DNA template is a. expression. b. sequencing. c. transcription. d. ribosome assembly.
question

c
answer

46. What is a ribosome? a. A template for protein synthesis b. A hard knot of subcutaneous protein mass c. A structure upon which proteins are assembled d. An antibody synthesized by specialized immune cells
question

c
answer

47. Which of the following does NOT describe a feature of protein in nutrition? a. The study of the body’s proteins in known as proteomics b. Protein synthesis requires messenger RNA and transfer RNA c. Most of the body’s thousands of proteins have been studied thoroughly d. The synthesis of a protein by following the genetic code is known as gene expression
question

a
answer

48. Your college dormitory roommate, James, told you that he’s had anemia for quite some time and that it’s from having abnormally-shaped hemoglobin. What type of anemia does James have? a. Sickle-cell anemia b. Macrocytic anemia c. Iron-deficiency anemia d. Low oxygen-carrying anemia
question

d
answer

49. A common genetic variation which causes a change in the amino acid sequence in the structure of hemoglobin leads to the disease a. diabetes. b. marasmus. c. phenylketonuria. d. sickle-cell anemia.
question

c
answer

50. Which of the following is characteristic of sickle-cell anemia? a. The disorder can be serious but not fatal b. The disorder leads to depression of energy expenditure c. The abnormal structure of the hemoglobin alters the shape of the red blood cell d. The hemoglobin amino acid sequence is abnormal in all four of the polypeptide chains
question

b
answer

51. What is the structure of an enzyme? a. Lipid b. Protein c. Nucleic acid d. Carbohydrate
question

c
answer

52. What protein is intimately involved in the formation of scar tissue in wound healing? a. Albumin b. Thrombin c. Collagen d. Hydroxyproline
question

c
answer

53. What type of protein would the body make in order to heal a wound? a. Ferritin b. Albumin c. Collagen d. Hemoglobin
question

b
answer

54. What term signifies when a cell makes a protein under the directions of a gene? a. Gene encoding b. Gene expression c. Protein secretion d. Protein amplification
question

b
answer

55. Which of the following is a characteristic of hormones? a. Inactivate bacteria b. Act as messenger molecules c. Coordinate visual response d. Act as buffers in the bloodstream
question

a
answer

56. Which of the following do(es) NOT function as a transport protein? a. Collagen b. Transferrin c. Hemoglobin d. Lipoproteins
question

a
answer

57. What is the relationship between body proteins and water? a. Proteins attract water b. Water attracts proteins c. Water degrades proteins d. Proteins form polymers of water
question

c
answer

58. Which of the following does NOT describe an association between protein nutrition and the body’s water balance? a. Inadequate protein intake may lead to edema. b. Insufficient protein synthesis by the liver may lead to edema. c. Excessive protein losses by the kidney may lead to dehydration. d. Excessive protein intake burdens the kidneys to excrete unused nitrogen.
question

a
answer

59. The conditions known as acidosis and alkalosis refer to a disruption of the body’s a. pH balance. b. protein balance. c. nitrogen balance. d. endogenous metabolism.
question

a
answer

60. Tissue swelling that results from water accumulating between cells is known as a. edema. b. acidosis. c. alkalosis. d. extravascularization.
question

b
answer

61. Proteins, because they attract hydrogen ions, can act as a. acids. b. buffers. c. enzymes. d. antibodies.
question

b
answer

62. What function does a buffer perform? a. Helps emulsify fats b. Helps maintain a constant pH c. Facilitates chemical reactions d. Helps protect against plaque buildup
question

a
answer

63. Which of the following processes is regulated primarily by the buffering action of proteins? a. pH balance b. Fluid balance c. Blood clotting d. Synthesis of visual pigments
question

d
answer

64. How do sodium and potassium travel into and out of cells? a. Antidiuretic hormone transports potassium and prodiuretic hormone carries sodium b. There are specific transport proteins in the blood that deliver the minerals to the cell cytoplasm c. The balance of insulin and glucagon determines the movement of these minerals into and out of cells d. There are transport proteins within the cell membrane that pick up and release the minerals across the membrane
question

c
answer

65. What is opsin? a. An antigen b. An antibody c. A light-sensitive protein d. A blood transport protein
question

d
answer

66. Which of the following proteins inactivates foreign bacteria and viruses? a. Enzymes b. Collagen c. Hormones d. Antibodies
question

b
answer

67. The body’s usual response to detection of antigens is to synthesize a. mutations. b. antibodies. c. erythrocytes. d. whey protein.
question

c
answer

68. Which of the following describes the structure of an antibody? a. Tripeptide b. Small nucleic acid c. Huge protein molecule d. Large peptide molecule
question

b
answer

69. Which of the following is involved in the clotting of blood? a. Opsin b. Fibrin c. Collagen d. Transferrin
question

d
answer

70. Given that protein is 16% nitrogen, how many grams of nitrogen are contained in a 2500-kcalorie diet that provides 15% of the energy as protein? a. 2.5 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15
question

b
answer

71. Which of the following may be used to determine protein utilization? a. Calorimetry b. Nitrogen balance c. Amino acid pool d. Supplementary value
question

c
answer

72. When nitrogen taken into the body exceeds nitrogen losses, we say the person is in a. a healthy state. b. nitrogen equilibrium. c. positive nitrogen balance. d. negative nitrogen balance.
question

b
answer

73. Which of the following defines protein turnover? a. The sum of protein in food and the body b. The sum of protein synthesis and degradation c. The amount of protein absorbed from the diet d. The amount of protein used to synthesize glucose
question

d
answer

74. What is the amino acid pool? a. The total amino acid content derived from a 24-hour dietary intake b. A measure of the circulating essential amino acid levels available for protein synthesis c. The total amount of free amino acids in the circulation destined for deamination and excretion d. A mix of essential and nonessential amino acids derived from protein breakdown and dietary protein intake
question

a
answer

75. Which of the following describes the state of nitrogen balance for a normal, healthy 35-year-old person who weighs 60 kg and consumes a diet that provides 75 g of protein and adequate energy? a. Equilibrium b. Positive balance c. Negative balance d. Endogenous balance
question

d
answer

76. The body’s amino acid pool consists of a. essential amino acids only. b. endogenous amino acids only. c. nonessential amino acids only. d. both essential and nonessential amino acids.
question

d
answer

77. What is the nitrogen balance of a person who consumed a 3500-kcalorie diet containing 10% protein and excreted a total of 12 grams of nitrogen? (Protein is 16% nitrogen.) a. 0 g b. -3 g c. -1 g d. +2 g
question

c
answer

78. Which of the following would describe the state of nitrogen balance of a person who ingested 16 g of food nitrogen and lost 19 g of nitrogen? a. Equilibrium b. Positive balance c. Negative balance d. Exogenous balance
question

c
answer

79. What is the usual state of nitrogen balance for healthy infants, children, and pregnant women? a. Equilibrium b. Metabolic c. Positive d. Negative
question

d
answer

80. What amino acid is used to synthesize the neurotransmitter serotonin and the vitamin niacin? a. Glycine b. Tyrosine c. Methionine d. Tryptophan
question

c
answer

81. What is meant by protein turnover? a. Nitrogen equilibrium b. The antibody-antigen complex c. The synthesis and degradation of body proteins d. The secondary structure of proteins that initiates folding
question

b
answer

82. What is the fate of excess dietary protein? a. After absorption, the liver will store the extra amino acids b. After absorption, the extra amino acids will be rapidly degraded c. Digestion will be decreased by 30 to 60%, resulting in less absorption d. After absorption, extra proteins will be synthesized and stored for use when protein intake returns to normal
question

b
answer

83. When amino acids are deaminated, the immediate products are ammonia and often a a. uric acid. b. keto acid. c. folic acid. d. gluco acid.
question

c
answer

84. Protein sparing in the body is best achieved when a person ingests a. proteins of plant origin only. b. proteins of animal origin only. c. adequate levels of carbohydrate and fat. d. mixed protein sources on alternate days.
question

d
answer

85. A person who is starving is losing a. fat only. b. glycogen only. c. glycogen and fat only. d. glycogen, protein, and fat.
question

a
answer

86. Which of the following illustrates a deamination reaction? a. Removal of the amino group from an amino acid b. Separation of an amino acid from a peptide chain c. Addition of an amino group to form a new amino acid d. Addition of an amino acid to form a larger peptide chain
question

d
answer

87. Approximately how much urea (g) can be produced daily by the average adult? a. 5 g b. 50 g c. 100 g d. 250 g
question

b
answer

88. Which of the following is the most likely side effect of a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet? a. Diarrhea b. Increased thirst c. Nitrogen toxicity d. Increased water retention in the body
question

d
answer

89. Which of the following compounds does NOT contain nitrogen? a. Urea b. Enzymes c. Ammonia d. Cholesterol
question

c
answer

90. Which of the following is a consequence of excess protein intake? a. Decreased excretion of calcium b. Decreased size of the liver and kidneys c. Increased production and excretion of urea d. Increased protein storage by the liver and kidneys
question

a
answer

91. Which of the following are precursors of urea synthesis? a. All amino acids b. Animal proteins only c. Essential amino acids only d. Nonessential amino acids only
question

c
answer

92. What is the process whereby an amino group is combined with a keto acid to form an amino acid? a. Deamination b. Ureagenesis c. Transamination d. Ammoniogenesis
question

a
answer

93. In the metabolism of amino acids for energy, what is the fate of the amino group? a. Excreted as urea b. Burned for energy c. Stored in the liver d. Converted to glucose
question

a
answer

94. The body’s need for water increases on a diet high in a. protein. b. carbohydrate. c. saturated fat. d. unsaturated fat.
question

a
answer

95. What is the most likely reason for a person to have abnormally high blood ammonia levels? a. Liver dysfunction b. Kidney dysfunction c. Protein intake twice the RDA d. Protein intake one-tenth the RDA
question

b
answer

96. Jason is 35 years old and was recently diagnosed with 2 failing kidneys. He was advised to decrease the amount of protein he consumes. If Jason cheats by eating an 8-ounce steak for dinner tonight, shortly thereafter there would most likely be an increase in the urea levels of his a. urine. b. blood. c. stools. d. sweat.
question

b
answer

97. What is the most likely reason for having an abnormally high blood urea level? a. Liver dysfunction b. Kidney dysfunction c. Protein intake twice the RDA d. Protein intake one-tenth the RDA
question

b
answer

98. A prominent result of transamination reactions is the synthesis of a. essential amino acids. b. nonessential amino acids. c. neurotransmitters and hormones. d. both nonessential and essential amino acids.
question

a
answer

99. Your father, who has a high blood ammonia concentration, most likely has a poorly functioning a. liver. b. spleen. c. kidney. d. intestinal tract.
question

c
answer

100. Your mother, who has a high blood urea content, most likely has a poorly functioning a. liver. b. spleen. c. kidney. d. intestinal tract.
question

a
answer

101. A reference protein equals or exceeds the essential amino acid requirements of all of the following population groups EXCEPT a. infants. b. preschool aged children. c. adolescents. d. elderly.
question

c
answer

102. What is the percent digestibility of most plant proteins? a. 25-45 b. 50-65 c. 70-90 d. 95-99
question

d
answer

103. What is the percent digestibility of most animal proteins? a. 50-65 b. 70-75 c. 80-85 d. 90-99
question

a
answer

104. Which of the following food proteins has the best assortment of essential amino acids for the human body? a. Egg b. Rice c. Corn d. Gelatin
question

a
answer

105. Which of the following is related to the quality of a food protein? a. Essential amino acid balance b. Nonessential amino acid balance c. Total amino acids per gram of food d. Quantity of nonessential amino acids that can be converted to glucose
question

b
answer

106. What primary factor governs the quality of a food protein? a. Fat content b. Essential amino acid content c. Complex carbohydrate content d. Nonessential amino acid content
question

a
answer

107. In the study of protein nutrition, what term describes the amount of amino acids absorbed from a given amount of protein consumed? a. Digestibility b. Completeness c. Complementary index d. Comparative equivalence
question

c
answer

108. Which of the following is NOT considered to be a source of high-quality protein in human nutrition? a. Soy b. Egg c. Corn d. Fish
question

c
answer

109. Which of the following animal-derived proteins is classified as a poor-quality protein? a. Fish b. Cheese c. Gelatin d. Turkey
question

b
answer

110. If the diet is lacking an essential amino acid, what will be the course of action? a. Body cells will synthesize it b. Protein synthesis will be limited c. Health will not be affected as long as other nutrients are adequate d. Proteins will be made but they will lack that particular amino acid
question

c
answer

111. What is a “limiting” amino acid in a protein? a. A nonessential amino acid present in high amounts, which inhibits protein synthesis b. An amino acid of the wrong structure to be utilized for protein synthesis efficiently c. An essential amino acid present in insufficient quantity for body protein synthesis to take place d. An amino acid that limits the absorption of other essential amino acids by competing with them for transport sites within the GI tract
question

b
answer

112. Which of the following could NOT be a limiting amino acid in the diet? a. Lysine b. Glycine c. Threonine d. Tryptophan
question

a
answer

113. Gelatin is a poor-quality protein because it a. lacks tryptophan. b. lacks methionine. c. is poorly digested. d. is poorly absorbed.
question

d
answer

114. Alberta is a 20 year old who has been a vegetarian for 3 years. She comes to you for advice after reading some material online by the Meat Promoters of America organization. One of their statements is: “…vegetarians are at risk for protein deficiency because they cannot consume all of the essential amino acids necessary for healthy individuals.” How should Alberta be advised? a. She should consume dairy and egg products at every meal to protect herself against protein deficiency b. She should avoid the “limiting” amino acids because they are limiting her ability to maintain proper protein status c. Because the statement is basically true, she should consider eating small quantities of meat every day in order to avoid protein deficiency d. Although many foods don’t provide all the essential amino acids individually, she could consume complementary proteins throughout the day, which would provide all the essential amino acids she needs
question

d
answer

115. Which of the following is characteristic of protein nutrition in vegetarians? a. Vegetarians in general must practice complementary protein nutrition b. Most vegetarians should consume gelatin to ensure adequate tryptophan intake c. Healthy vegetarians typically consume protein sources of very high digestibility d. Most vegetarians eating a variety of foods need not balance essential amino acid intake at each meal
question

b
answer

116. What is the Daily Value for protein based on a 2000-kcalorie intake? a. 25 g b. 50 g c. 75 g d. 100 g
question

b
answer

117. What is complementary protein nutrition? a. A dietary program that involves eating vegetable and animal proteins on alternating days b. A strategy that combines plant proteins in the same day to improve the balance of essential amino acids c. A technique developed specifically for the elderly that involves optimizing the ratio of protein intake to energy intake d. A body process that involves synthesis of crucial proteins from amino acids made available by the breakdown of storage proteins
question

a
answer

118. In general, the protein quality in grains would be most improved by the addition of a plant protein rich in a. lysine. b. tryptophan. c. phenylalanine. d. glutamic acid.
question

c
answer

119. In general, the protein quality of legumes would be most improved by the addition of a plant protein rich in a. lysine. b. tyrosine. c. methionine. d. glutamic acid.
question

c
answer

120. Relative to animal proteins, which of the following amino acids is present in lesser amounts in proteins of legumes? a. Alanine b. Isoleucine c. Tryptophan d. Glutamic acid
question

c
answer

121. Excessive amounts of homocysteine in the blood are thought to increase the risk for a. cancer. b. diabetes. c. heart disease. d. protein-energy malnutrition
question

a
answer

122. Which of the following amino acids has been reported to lower blood pressure and reduce homocysteine levels? a. Arginine b. Cysteine c. Tryptophan d. Phenylalanine
question

d
answer

123. Which of the following is NOT among factors known to raise homocysteine levels? a. High folate intake b. Smoking cessation c. Arginine consumption d. Excess alcohol intake
question

c
answer

124. Which of the following is a feature of homocysteine? a. It is found only in animal foods b. It is a risk factor for osteoporosis c. It is increased in the blood of coffee drinkers d. It is increased in the blood of vitamin C-deficient people
question

d
answer

125. Which of the following describes a relationship between protein/amino acids and heart disease? a. Substituting soy protein for animal protein raises blood cholesterol levels b. High blood levels of the amino acid arginine are a risk factor for atherosclerosis c. High levels of homocysteine in food promote elevation of blood low-density lipoproteins d. Elevated blood homocysteine levels are associated with smoking cigarettes and drinking alcohol
question

c
answer

126. What ratio (mg:g) of calcium to protein intake is believed to promote optimal bone health? a. 2:1 b. 9:1 c. 20:1 d. 45:1
question

b
answer

127. Which of the following describes an association between protein intake and kidney function? a. Low-protein diets increase the risk for kidney stone formation b. Restricting protein intake may slow the progression of kidney disease c. High protein intakes over the long term represent a risk factor for kidney disease d. Liberal protein intakes result in high urea production, which increases the long-term efficiency of the kidneys
question

d
answer

128. Based on the range of protein intake as a percentage of energy intake, what would be the highest safe level of protein intake for a 60-kg adult ingesting 2500 kcalories? a. 48 g b. 96 g c. 120 g d. 219 g
question

b
answer

129. Which of the following describes a relationship between protein intake and calcium metabolism? a. Calcium excretion falls with increasing intake of animal-derived proteins b. Calcium excretion rises with increasing intake of animal-derived proteins c. Calcium absorption declines with higher intakes of plant-derived proteins d. Calcium absorption increases with higher intakes of animal-derived proteins
question

c
answer

130. What is the RDA for protein for a 48-kg woman? a. 24 g b. 34 g c. 38 g d. 40 g
question

b
answer

131. What is the actual ratio of calcium to protein intake (mg to g) for most U.S. women? a. 3:1 b. 9:1 c. 15:1 d. 21:1
question

b
answer

132. What would be the primary principle of wise diet planning as related to protein nutrition? a. Variety b. Moderation c. Nutrient density d. kCalorie control
question

a
answer

133. Which of the following is a feature of the protein RDA? a. The recommendations are generous b. It is highest proportionately for adult males c. It is established at 8 grams per kilogram of ideal body weight d. An assumption is made that dietary protein is from animal sources only
question

c
answer

134. If protein needs are expressed per kilogram of body weight, which of the following describes the requirements of infants? a. Less than adults b. Similar to adults c. Greater than adults d. Less than adolescents
question

b
answer

135. What is the range of daily protein intake, in g/kg, recommended for athletes by fitness authorities? a. 0.8-1.1 b. 1.2-1.7 c. 1.8-2.4 d. 2.5-3.0
question

c
answer

136. Your friend Jill has just joined her community college soccer team. How much protein should she consume each day? a. 0.8 g/kg b. up to 1.0 g/kg c. 1.2-1.7 g/kg d. 2.5-2.9 g/kg
question

c
answer

137. Which of the following is an assumption made in the formulation of the RDA for protein? a. Dietary protein is of high quality only b. Dietary protein is of animal origin only c. Dietary carbohydrate and fat intakes are adequate d. Dietary protein should represent 12% of total energy
question

c
answer

138. All of the following assumptions are made by the committee in setting the RDA for protein EXCEPT a. adequate kcalories will be consumed. b. protein eaten will be of mixed quality. c. the fat content of the diet will be high. d. other nutrients in the diet will be adequate.
question

b
answer

139. Which of the following is a feature of protein nutrition? a. Protein in body tissues is preserved fairly well on low-energy diets b. The protein RDA assumes that dietary protein is from a mix of low- and high-quality sources c. Many people in the United States and Canada consume somewhat less protein than is needed d. Athletes in training benefit from increasing their protein energy intake to 45-50% of total daily energy
question

c
answer

140. What is the percentage of total energy derived from protein in a diet containing 50 grams of protein and 2000 kcalories? a. 2.5 b. 5 c. 10 d. 20
question

b
answer

141. If a person consumes 65 grams of protein and a total of 2700 kcalories per day, approximately what percentage of energy would be derived from protein? a. 7 b. 10 c. 14 d. 20
question

d
answer

142. Approximately how many grams of protein are found in one quart of milk? a. 5 b. 12 c. 25 d. 32
question

c
answer

143. Which of the following is a feature of whey protein? a. It is a high-priced protein supplement b. It is chemically extracted from gelatin c. It is a waste product of cheese production d. Regular consumption by athletes enhances performance
question

d
answer

144. Jim, a college baseball player, tells you that he has started to take glutamine supplements. How would you advise him? a. As long as he keeps the dose under 10 g/day, the benefits outweigh the costs b. Since he plays baseball, he should consider taking alanine supplements instead c. Since he plays baseball, he should consider taking tryptophan supplements instead d. Since single amino acids do not occur naturally in foods, they offer no benefit to the body and may even be harmful
question

d
answer

145. Which of the following is a feature of the branched-chain amino acids? a. They are all dispensable amino acids b. Large doses may suppress ammonia production c. They represent the major energy source for muscle tissue d. They may be helpful in treatment of advanced liver failure
question

c
answer

146. What amino acid has been linked to the development of the rare blood disorder eosinophilia-myalgia syndrome in people who took it as a supplement? a. Glycine b. Arginine c. Tryptophan d. Phenylalanine
question

a
answer

147. What amino acid supplement has been advertised in the popular media for treating herpes infections? a. Lysine b. Arginine c. Tryptophan d. Phenylalanine
question

d
answer

148. The disease phenylketonuria is related chiefly to abnormal metabolism of a. lactose. b. omega-3 fats. c. soy polysaccharides. d. a certain amino acid.
question

a
answer

149. The study of how food interacts with genes is known as a. nutritional genomics. b. chromosomals. c. nucleotide expression. d. mutagenic expression.
question

a
answer

150. The study of how environmental factors influence the expression of genes without altering the DNA is known as a. epigenetics. b. nucleotide sequencing. c. microarray technology. d. epidemiological consequences.
question

b
answer

151. The cell’s proteome consists of a. all nucleotide bases. b. all the protein in the cell. c. the ratio of DNA to RNA. d. the protein metabolic apparatus.
question

a
answer

152. The cell process of silencing or activating genes is in part accomplished by a. DNA methylation. b. multigene genomics. c. translational sequencing. d. a transcription-translation cycle.
question

d
answer

153. Approximately what percentage of a person’s genes are similar to those of an unrelated person? a. 20 b. 50 c. 75 d. 99.9
question

b
answer

154. What dispensable amino acid becomes essential in people with PKU? a. Glycine b. Tyrosine c. Arginine d. Glutamine
question

a
answer

155. The incidence of PKU in infants in the United States is one in every a. 15,000 births. b. 100,000 births. c. 500,000 births. d. 1,000,000 births.
question

c
answer

156. Which of the following is NOT among the characteristics of phenylketonuria? a. It is a single-gene disorder b. It leads to a dietary requirement for tyrosine c. It is treated by total elimination of dietary phenylalanine d. It results in mental retardation unless treatment is started in infancy
question

d
answer

157. Dietary restriction of phenylalanine combined with adequate tyrosine is the usual treatment for people born with the disorder a. DNA. b. ALC. c. NLM. d. PKU.
question

d
answer

158. A variation in a single nucleotide of a DNA strand is called a(n) a. RNA switch. b. thymine substitution. c. environmental mutation. d. single nucleotide polymorphism.
question

Which one of the following compounds is missing 4 or more hydrogen atoms? Monounsaturated fatty acid Polyunsaturated fatty acid Long-chain saturated fatty acid Short-chain saturated fatty acid
answer

B) Polyunsaturated fatty acid
question

1. Which of the following is a feature of polyunsaturated fats? Low melting point High melting point Solid at room temperature Solid at refrigerator temperature
answer

A) Low melting point
question

1. Characteristics of hydrogenated oils include all of the following EXCEPT they are stored in adipose tissue. they lower HDL and raise LDL cholesterol in the body. some of their fatty acids change shape from cis to trans. products containing them become rancid sooner, contributing to a shorter shelf life.
answer

D)products containing them become rancid sooner, contributing to a shorter shelf life.
question

1. Oil that is partially hydrogenated sometimes changes one or more of its double bond configurations from cis to trans. solid to liquid. covalent to ionic. saturated to unsaturated.
answer

A) cis to trans.
question

1. What is the major source of “good” cholesterol? Fatty fish Fatty meat Endogenous synthesis Monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fatty acids
answer

C) Endogenous synthesis
question

1. Your aunt Gladys has a family history of heart disease. She decides to begin eating a bowl of oatmeal every morning to help lower her blood cholesterol. After about a month of following this routine, her cholesterol declined about 5 points. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this effect? Oatmeal is a low-fat food and inhibits the body’s synthesis of cholesterol Oatmeal is high in complex fibers that inhibit cholesterol-synthesizing enzymes Oatmeal consumed on a regular basis suppresses the craving for high-cholesterol foods Oatmeal is high in soluble fibers that trap bile, causing the body to use more cholesterol for bile replacement
answer

D) Oatmeal is high in soluble fibers that trap bile, causing the body to use more cholesterol for bile replacement
question

1. Important factors in the selection of a margarine product include all of the following EXCEPT it should be trans fat free. it should be soft instead of hard. it should contain primarily omega-3 fatty acids. it should list liquid vegetable oil as the first ingredient.
answer

C) it should contain primarily omega-3 fatty acids.
question

which is a good source of omega-3 fatty acid Corn oil Canola oil Safflower oil Liquefied lard
answer

B )Canola oil
question

1. You and your friend John are planning a college graduation party and you want to include healthy snack alternatives. You select fruit, veggies, low-fat dips, low-fat cheeses, whole-wheat crackers, and low-fat potato chips. John says he has heard about the fat replacer olestra in the potato chips and asks you how it works. You reply that olestra slows the pancreas’s release of lipase enzyme. consists of tight protein-binding molecules that replace the fat molecules usually present in potato chips. contains a fat-like substance that the body’s enzymes can’t break down and therefore cannot be absorbed. is first subjected to radiation exposure to desaturate the bonds within the fat molecules, which reduces the kcalorie content.
answer

C) contains a fat-like substance that the body’s enzymes can’t break down and therefore cannot be absorbed
question

1. Why does the FDA advise against consumption of certain fish such as swordfish and tilefish by women of childbearing age? These fish are a major source of toxic mercury The omega-3 fatty acids may induce premature labor The omega-3 fatty acids prolong bleeding time during delivery These fish contain unusually high amounts of medium-chain triglycerides
answer

A) These fish are a major source of toxic mercury
question

1. About how much cholesterol is synthesized by the liver every day? None A few mg Less than 300 mg At least 800 mg
answer

D) At least 800 mg
question

1. Which of the following describes a feature of cis-fatty acids and trans-fatty acids? In nature, most double bonds are trans Hydrogenation converts trans-fatty acids to cis-fatty acids The conversion of cis-fatty acids to trans-fatty acids is inhibited by the presence of antioxidants In the body, trans-fatty acids are metabolized more like saturated fats than like unsaturated fats
answer

D) In the body, trans-fatty acids are metabolized more like saturated fats than like unsaturated fats
question

1. What compound is composed of 3 fatty acids and glycerol? Steroid Lecithin Triglyceride Monoglyceride
answer

C) Triglyceride
question

1. What is the chemical composition of fats? Hexose polymers Glycogen granules Fatty acids and glycerol Combinations of long-chain fatty acids
answer

C) Fatty acids and glycerol
question

1. Which of the following is a feature of fat intake and health? Intake of saturated fat raises blood cholesterol more than intake of cholesterol High intakes of fish oil lower bleeding time and improve diabetes and wound healing High intakes of short- and medium-chain fatty acids raise high-density lipoprotein levels Trans-fatty acids contained in polyunsaturated fats but not in monounsaturated fats alter blood cholesterol levels
answer

A) Intake of saturated fat raises blood cholesterol more than intake of cholesterol
question

1. Which of the following is characteristic of the lipase enzymes? Gastric lipase plays a significant role in fat digestion in adults Intestinal mucosal lipase is responsible for most dietary fat digestion Salivary gland lipase (lingual lipase) plays an active role in fat digestion in infants Pancreatic lipase hydrolyzes most dietary triglycerides completely to glycerol and free fatty acids
answer

C) Salivary gland lipase (lingual lipase) plays an active role in fat digestion in infants
question

1. A low risk of cardiovascular disease correlates with high blood levels of triglycerides. free fatty acids. high-density lipoproteins. very-low-density lipoproteins.
answer

C) high-density lipoproteins.
question

1. Which of the following is an omega-3 fat? Acetic acid Palmitic acid Linoleic acid Docosahexaenoic acid
answer

D) Docosahexaenoic acid
question

1. Approximately what percentage of the body’s energy needs at rest is supplied by fat? 5 25 40 60
answer

D) 60
question

1. Which of the following fish is generally highest in mercury? Shark Catfish Salmon Canned light tuna
answer

A) Shark
question

1. Which of the following is a common dietary saturated fatty acid? Oleic acid Stearic acid Linolenic acid Arachidonic acid
answer

B) Stearic acid
question

1. Which of the following is a feature of butter and margarine? Butter is a major source of trans fatty acids Butter contains more saturated fat and cholesterol than margarine does Margarine contains approximately half as much cholesterol as butter does Stick margarine contains half as much trans-fatty acids as soft margarine does
answer

B) Butter contains more saturated fat and cholesterol than margarine does
question

1. All of the following compounds may be synthesized from cholesterol EXCEPT bile. glucose. vitamin D. sex hormones.
answer

B) Glucose
question

1. In which form are most dietary lipids found? Sterols Glycerols Triglycerides Monoglycerides
answer

C) Triglycerides
question

1. Surveys show that U.S. adults’ average intake of fat as a percentage of total energy intake is 20. 27. 34. 55.
answer

C) 34
question

1. What part of the gastrointestinal tract is the predominant site of dietary fat hydrolysis? Mouth Stomach Small intestine Large intestine
answer

C) Small intestine
question

1. Lipids differ in their degree of saturation or unsaturation due to their number of amino acids. double bonds. saccharide units. peptide linkages.
answer

B) double bonds.
question

1. Which of the following is the most desirable quality that fat adds to foods? Color Sweetness Palatability Hydrogenation
answer

C) Palatability
question

1. An omega-3 fatty acid has its first double bond on the third carbon from the acid end. first 3 carbons from the acid end. third carbon from the methyl end. first 3 carbons from the methyl end.
answer

C) third carbon from the methyl end
question

1. Results of the Seven Countries Study found that the population groups with highest and lowest rates of heart disease both consumed at least 40% of their kcalories from fat but the healthier group was found to ingest more dairy. olive oil. fatty fish. grass-fed livestock.
answer

B) olive oil
question

A compound composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen with 3 fatty acids attached to a molecule of glycerol would be known as a
answer

triglyceride
question

A food that represents a visible fat would be
answer

butter
question

In which form are most dietary lipids found
answer

triglyceride
question

A common feature of the plant sterols is they
answer

inhibit absorption of dietary cholesterol
question

Bile is known to assist in the absorption of
answer

fat only
question

How is soluble fiber in the diet thought to help lower blood cholesterol level
answer

It enhances excretion of bile leading to increased cholesterol turnover
question

Lipids differ in their degree of saturation of unsaturation due to their number of
answer

double bonds
question

Lipids that are liquid at room temperature are known as
answer

oils
question

A high risk of heart attack correlates with high blood levels of
answer

low-density lipoproteins
question

A Low risk of cardiovascular disease correlates with high blood levels of
answer

high-density lipoproteins
question

Among the following dietary fatty acids, which has been found to raise blood cholesterol level by the least amount?
answer

Stearic
question

An important function of fat in the body is to
answer

protect vital organs against shock
question

Among the following, which would be the least effective method to control blood cholesterol levels?
answer

Eat more insoluble fiber
question

A meal providing 1200 kcalories contains 10g of saturated fats, 14g of monounsaturated fats, and 20g of polyunsaturated fats. What percentage of energy supplied by the lipids?
answer

33
question

A person who regularly consumes fish such as shark, king mackerel, and swordfish is at risk for ingesting potentially toxic amounts of
answer

mercury
question

A triglyceride always contains 3
answer

fatty acids
question

All of the following statements are characteristics of lipid intake of U.S. adults excepts..
answer

trans-fatty acid averages about 1 g per day
question

Approximately what percentage of the body’s energy needs at rest is supplied by fat?
answer

60
question

Approximately what percentage of the lipids in foods are triglycerides?
answer

95
question

Which of the following contains the least cholesterol per serving?
answer

Steamed Corn
question

Which of the following describes a feature of cis-fatty acids and trans-fatty acids?
answer

In the body, trans-fatty acids are metabolized more like saturated fats than like unsaturated fats.
question

Which of the following is not a common dietary source of trans fats?
answer

Whole milk
question

Each of the following is known to be linked to excessive intake of fats except
answer

lactose intolerance
question

An omega-3 fatty acid has its first double bond on the..
answer

third carbon from the methyl en
question

Approximately how many grams of fat would be contained in an 800-kcalorie meal that provides 50% of the energy from carbohydrates, 20% from protein, and the remainder from fat?
answer

27
question

Approximately how many carbons are contained in a medium-chain fatty acid?
answer

6-10
question

Approximately how many milligrams of cholesterol are found in an egg?
answer

200
question

Lipids that are solid at room temperature are known as?
answer

fats.
question

Important factors in the selection of a margarine product includes all of the following except?
answer

it should contain primarily omega-3 fatty acids
question

In comparison to a low-density lipoprotein, a high density lipoprotein contains?
answer

less lipid
question

Which of the following is a feature of cholesterol?
answer

Only about 10% of the body’s total cholesterol is extracellular
question

Which of the following is a feature of cholesterol?
answer

Its Daily Value is 300 mg
question

Which of the following is a feature of olestra in foods?
answer

It causes no net loss of fat-soluble vitamins from the digestive tract
question

Which of the following is a feature of phospholipids?
answer

Soluble in both water and fat
question

Which of the following is a feature of polyunsaturated fats?
answer

Low melting point
question

Which of the following lipids is an essential nutrient?
answer

Linoleic acid
question

Information on a food label about the fat content per serving includes all of the following except?
answer

the percentage of total kcalories contributed by fat
question

Jenny is trying to lose weight by decreasing the fat in her diet. At the grocery store she is overwhelmed by all the claims on the food product labels, and finally chooses an expensive fat-free frozen dessert. Which of the following would be an appropriate analysis of Jenny’s decision?
answer

Fat-free products typically have so much added sugar that the kcalorie count can be as high as in the regular-fat product
question

The results of blood test that reveal a person’s total cholesterol and triglycerides are called a?
answer

lipid profile
question

What compound is composed of 3 fatty acids and glycerol?
answer

Triglyceride
question

What is the approximate daily trans-fatty acid intake in the United States?
answer

6 g
question

What is the chemical composition of fats?
answer

Fatty acids and glycerol
question

What is the major source of “good” cholesterol?
answer

Endogenous synthesis
question

Major sources of cholesterol include all of the following except?
answer

Avocados
question

What is the major sterol in the diet?
answer

Cholesterol
question

Ronnie east a fairly balanced diet but wants to include a good source of omega-3 fats. Which of the following should be your recommendation?
answer

Salmon
question

Studies show that regular consumption of fatty fish leads to?
answer

lower blood pressure
question

What is the storage site of bile?
answer

Gallbladder
question

Which of the following describes a fatty acid that has one double bond?
answer

Monounsaturated
question

Which of the following characteristics is shared by olive oil and canola oil?
answer

Both contain high levels of monounsaturated fatty acids
question

Which of the following cannot be found in plants?
answer

Cholesterol
question

What type of fatty acid is found in high amounts in olive oil?
answer

Monoun
question

What percentage of stored body fat is in the form of triglycerides?
answer

99
question

What nutrient is used to form ketones?
answer

Fat
question

What lipoprotein is responsible for transporting cholesterol back to the liver from the periphery?
answer

High-density lipoprotein
question

Which of the following fish is generally highest in mercury?
answer

Shark
question

Which of the following foods contains cholesterol?
answer

Roasted Turkey
question

Which of the following foods provides(s) essential fatty acids?
answer

Fish, beef, and plants
question

Which of the following has the highest percentage of its fats in polyunsaturated form?
answer

Corn oil
question

Which of the following has the highest percentage of its fat in saturated form?
answer

Coconut oil
question

Which of the following is a common source of medium-chain fatty acids?
answer

Dairy Products
question

Which of the following is a factor that determines the hardness of a fat at a given temperature?
answer

Degree of saturation
question

Which of the following is a drawback of olestra consumption?
answer

It inhibits absorption of vitamin E
question

Which of the following does not describe a function of fat?
answer

Supplies up to 25% of the body’s energy needs during rest
question

Which of the following is a characteristic of egg nutrition?
answer

Although it is high in cholesterol, the egg is low in saturated fat
question

Which of the following is a characteristic of eggs in nutrition?
answer

Consumption of one egg per day by most people is not considered detrimental
question

Which of the following is a characteristic of the blood cholesterol level?
answer

It can be lowered more effectively by reducing dietary intake of saturated fat than of cholesterol
question

Which of the following is a common dietary saturated fatty acid?
answer

Stearic acid
question

Which of the following is a feature of butter and margarine?
answer

Butter contains more saturated fat and cholesterol than margarine does
question

Which of the following is not a destination for cholesterol?
answer

Accumulates on walls of veins
question

Which of the following is a characteristic of cholesterol?
answer

It is a precursor for bile and vitamin D synthesis
question

Which of the following is feature of cholesterol?
answer

Synthesized by the body
question

Which of the following is a feature of fat intake and health?
answer

Intake of saturated fat raises blood cholesterol more than intake of cholesterol
question

Which of the following is a feature of metabolism?
answer

Triglycerides in the blood must first be broken down to monoglycerides, fatty acids, and glycerol prior to uptake by the adipose cells
question

Which of the following lipoproteins contains the highest percentage of cholesterol?
answer

Low-density lipoprotein
question

Which of the following is a feature of the lipid content of foods?
answer

Omega-3 fats are found in fish
question

Which of the following is appropriate dietary advice for reducing fat intake
answer

Limit intake of all fried foods because they contain abundant fat
question

Which of the following is a good plant source of omega-3 lipids?
answer

Flax seeds
question

Which of the following is a polyunsaturated fatty acids in foods?
answer

Linoleic acid
question

Which of the following is an omega-3 fat?
answer

Docosahexaenoic acid
question

Which of the following lipids contain(s) saturated fat?
answer

Butter, cottonseed oil, and soybean oil
question

Your roommate Jeff wishes to switch from using corn oil to using one that is good source of omega 3 fats. Which of the following should be recommended?
answer

Canola oil
question

Which of the following substances cannot be absorbed directly into the blood?
answer

Long-chain fatty acids
question

Your roommate Bob has just come back from the doctor where he was subjected to blood lipid profile analysis. The doctor provided him with dietary changes because the cholesterol results put him at increased risk for cardiovascular disease. Which of the following results is consistent with the diagnosis?
answer

Low HDL and high LDL
question

Which of the following is considered a major source of polyunsaturated fat?
answer

Corn oil
question

Which of the following is known as a tropical oil?
answer

Cocoa butter
question

Your Aunt Gladys has a family history of heart disease. She decides to begin eating a bowl of oatmeal every morning to help lower her blood cholesterol. After about a month of following this routine, her cholesterol declined about 5 points. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this effect?
answer

Oatmeal is high in soluble fibers that trap bile, causing the body to use more cholesterol for bile replacement
question

You and your friend John are planning a college graduation party and you want to include healthy snack alternatives. You select fruit, veggies, low fat dips, low fat cheeses, whole wheat crackers, and low fat potato chips. John says he had heard about the fat replacer olestra in the potato chips and asks you how it works. You reply that olestra….
answer

contains a fat-like substance that the body’s enzymes cant break down and therefore cannot be absorbed
question

Which of the following vegetable oils is a good source of omega-3 fatty acids?
answer

Canola
question

Which of the following provides abundant amounts of omega-3 fatty acids?
answer

Flaxseed oil
question

Which of the following represents a chief source of short-chain and medium-chain fatty acids?
answer

Dairy
question

Which of the following sources would yield the softest lipids at room temperature?
answer

Safflower
question

Lactase and glucose
answer

The Cori cycle involves the interconversion of:
question

Glucose to pyruvate
answer

Glycolysis is the conversion of:
question

50%
answer

Of the total amount of carbohydrate energy consumed by the body, approximately what percentage is used by the brain and nerve cells?
question

Carbohydrates only
answer

In photosynthesis, the plant uses energy from the sun, plus water and carbon dioxide, to synthesize:
question

Involve the release of energy
answer

A feature of catabolic reactions is that they:
question

Inner compartment of the mitochondria; matrix
answer

Where do the TCA cycle reactions take place?
question

Glucose
answer

Which of the following CANNOT be formed from acetyl CoA molecules?
question

Within 3 weeks
answer

How soon would death occur from starvation if the body was unable to shift to a state of ketosis?
question

An organic molecule required for the functioning of an enzyme
answer

Which of the following defines a coenzyme?
question

Oxidation of amino acids
answer

Which of the following leads to the production of urea?

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