Nutrition-ch. Wrote This Chapter 5- Nutrition Understanding Nutrition – Flashcards
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what percentage of the lipids in foods are triglycerides
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95
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which form are most dietary lipids found
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triglycerides
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what percentage of stored body fat is in the form of triglycerides
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99
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lipids that are solid at room temp are known as:
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fats
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lipids that are liquid at room temp are known as:
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oils
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what is the chemical composition of fats
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fatty acids and glycerol
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a compound composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen with 3 fatty acids attached to a molecule of glycerol would be known as:
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triglyceride
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what compound is composed of 3 fatty acids and glycerol
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triglyceride
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what is a property of dietary lipids
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omega 3 fatty acids are always unsaturated
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what is the simplest 18 carbon fatty acid
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stearic acid
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what food represents a chief source of short chain and medium chain fatty acids
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dairy
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how many hydrogen atoms are attached to each carbon adjacent to a double bond
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1
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what is the simplest fatty acid found in the diet
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acetic acid
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lipids differ in their degree of saturation or unsaturation due to their number of what
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double bonds
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what is a common dietary saturated fatty acid
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stearic acid
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how many carbons are contained in a medium chain fatty acid
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6-10
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what food is a common source of medium chain fatty acids
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dairy products
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what describes a fatty acid that has one double bond
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monounsaturated
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what type of fatty acid is found in high amounts in olive oil
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monounsaturated
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what compound is missing 4 or more hydrogen atoms
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polyunsaturated fatty acid
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what is a polyunsaturated fatty acid in foods
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linoleic acid
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a person wishing to increase consumption of polyunsaturated fats should choose what
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vegetable oils
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an omega 3 fatty acid has its first double bond on:
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third carbon from the methyl end
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what is a triacylglyceride
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a triglyceride
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what is the easiest way to increase intake of oleic acid
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consume more olive oil
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a triglyceride always contains:
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3 fatty acids
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what is a feature of polyunsaturated fats
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low melting point
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what is known as a tropical oil
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cocoa butter
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what is a factor that determines the hardness of a fat at a given temp
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degree of saturation
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what food source would yield the softest lipids at room temp
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safflower
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a major cause of rancidity of lipids in foods is exposure to
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heat and oxygen
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what is a structural feature of fatty acids that determines their susceptibility to spoilage by oxygen
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number of double bonds
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what is a characteristic of lipids
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corn oil and sunflower are more prone to spoilage than palm kernel oil
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what dietary lipid would turn rancid in the shortest time when stored at room temp in loosely capped containers
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soybean oil
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what would be least effective at preventing oxidation of the polyunsaturated fatty acids in processed foods
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addition of phosphorus
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what has the highest percentage of its fat in saturated form
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coconut oil
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what has the highest percentage of its fat in polyunsaturated form
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corn oil
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what is a characteristic that is shared by olive and canola oil
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both contain high levels of monounsaturated fatty acids
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what type of oil provides abundant amounts of omega 3 fatty acids
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flaxseed oil
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the food industry caries out the process of hydrogenation on what lipid
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corn oil
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what is considered a major source of polyunsaturated fat
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corn oil
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what lipids contain saturated fat
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butter, cottonseed oil, soybean oil
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in the process of fat hydrogenation, hydrogen atoms are added to which part of the molecule
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carbon
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what is a conjugated linoleic acid
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a fatty acid with the chemical makeup of linoleic acid but with a different configuration
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oil that is partially hydrogenated sometimes changes one or more of its double bond configurations from
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cis to trans
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what is descriptive of fatty acid configuration
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naturally occurring trans fatty acids are found in dairy products
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what describes a feature of cis fatty acids and trans fatty acids
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in the body, trans fatty acids are metabolized more like saturated fats than like unsaturated fats
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what is a feature of phospholipids
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soluble in both water and fat
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what type of compound is lecithin
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phospholipid
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what is the usual fate of dietary lecithin
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hydrolyzed by the intestinal enzyme lecithinase
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what is a feature of choline
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it is a part of lecithin
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what is a characteristic of lecithin supplements
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they are mostly hydrolyzed in the intestine
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how much energy is contributed by one gram of lecithin in a dietary supplement
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9 kcal
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what is the approximate energy value of one teaspoon of liquid lecithin supplement
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45 kcal
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what is a characteristic shared by cholesterol and lecithin
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both are synthesized in the body
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what is the major sterol in the diet
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cholesterol
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how much cholesterol is synthesized by the liver every day
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less than 300 mg
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what food contains cholesterol
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roasted turkey
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what is the major source of "good" cholesterol
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endogenous synthesis
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what is a common feature of the plant sterols
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they inhibit absorption of dietary cholesterol
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what is a feature of cholesterol (3)
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synthesized by the body and only about 10% of the body's total cholesterol is extracellular and its daily value is 300 mg
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what is a characteristic of cholesterol
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it is a precursor for bile and vitamin D synthesis
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what term describes a substance that is hydrophobic
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lipophilic
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what is a characteristic of the lipase enzymes
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salivary gland lipase plays and active role in fat digestion in infants
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emulsifiers function as what in digestion of fats
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detergents
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what part of the gastrointestinal tract is the predominant site of dietary fat hydrolysis
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small intestine
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chylomicrons are synthesized within the what
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intestinal cells
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how is soluble fiber in the diet thought to help lower blood cholesterol level
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it enhances excretion of bile leading to increased cholesterol turnover
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what does bile assist in the absorption of
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fat only
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what is the storage site of bile
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gallbladder
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spherical complexes of emulsified fats are known as what
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micelles
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after a meal, most of the fat that eventually empties into the blood is in the form of particles known as
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chylomicrons
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what is an example of enterohepatic circulation
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recycling bile from the intestine to the liver
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what lipoprotein is largest in size
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chylomicron
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in comparison to a low density lipoprotein, a high density lipoprotein contains what
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less lipid
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what lipoprotein contains the highest percentage of cholesterol
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low density lipoprotein
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what is the least effective method to control blood cholesterol levels
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eat more insoluble fiber
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what tissue contains special receptors for removing low density lipoproteins from the circulation
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liver
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a high risk of heart attack correlates with high blood levels of what
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low density lipoproteins
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what lipoprotein is responsible for transporting cholesterol back to the liver from the periphery
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high density lipoprotein
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a low risk of cardiovascular disease correlates with high blood levels of what
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high density lipoproteins
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an important function of fat in the body is to
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protect vital organs against shock
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what lipid is an essential nutrient
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linoleic acid
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what acid is used by the body to synthesize arachidonic acid
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linoleic acid
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what acid is an omega 3 fat
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docosahexaenoic acid
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what are the building blocks in the body's synthesis and elongation of fatty acids
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2 carbon fragments
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what is the immediate precursor for the eicosanoids
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fatty acids
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aspirin works to reduce the symptoms of infection or pain by retarding the synthesis of
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certain eicosanoids
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what food provides essential fatty acids
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fish, beef, plants
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what are the precursors for synthesis of the eicosanoids
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long chain polyunsaturated fatty acids
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what is a feature of adipose cell lipoprotein lipase
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the enzyme works to promote uptake of circulating triglycerides into storage triglycerides
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what is the function of lipoprotein lipase
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hydrolyzes blood triglycerides for uptake into cells
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what is a feature of fat metabolism
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triglycerides in the blood must first be broken down to monoglycerides, fatty acids, and glycerol prior to uptake by the adipose cells
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what nutrient is used to form ketones
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fat
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what is the function of adipose cell hormone sensitive lipase
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hydrolyzes triglycerides to provide fatty acids for other cells
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what percentage of the body's energy needs at rest is supplied by fat
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60
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what is the highest total blood cholesterol concentration that falls within the desirable range
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199
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which dietary fatty acid has been found to raise blood cholesterol level by the least amount
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stearic
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the results of blood tests that reveal a person's total cholesterol and triglycerides are called
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lipid profile
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what source of lipids should be substituted for saturated fats to help lower blood cholesterol levels
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canola oil
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what is a characteristic of egg nutrition
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although it is high in cholesterol, the egg is low in saturated fat
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what oil is a good source of omega 3 fats
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canola oil
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what is a feature of fat intake and health
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intake of saturated fat raises blood cholesterol more than intake of cholesterol
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what is a characteristic of the blood cholesterol level
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it can be lowered more effectively by reducing dietary intake of saturated fat than of cholesterol
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what is the daily trans fatty acid intake in the US
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6 g
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what food contains the least cholesterol per serving
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steamed corn
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when consumed regularly, which fatty acid helps prevent the formation of blood clots
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eicosapentaenoic acid
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how many milligrams of cholesterol are in an egg
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200
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what is a characteristic of eggs in nutrition
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consumption of one egg per day by most people is not considered detrimental
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what vegetable oil is a good source of omega 3 fatty acids
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canola
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what is a feature of butter and margarine
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butter contains more saturated fat and cholesterol than margarine does
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what food would be a good source of omega 3 fats
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salmon
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what percentage of the DV for saturated fats in the US diet is provided by one egg
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5
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what is a feature of the lipid content of foods
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omega 3 fats are found in fish
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a lacto-ovo vegetarian wishing to ensure a liberal intake of linolenic acid should consume
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canola oil and walnuts
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a person qho regularly consumes fish is at risk for ingesting potentially toxic amounts of
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mercury
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what is a characteristic of fish consumption
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fatty fish contain the highest amounts of omega 3 fatty acids
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what is a good source of eicosapentaenoic acid
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tuna
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to achieve a dietary balance of omega 3 and omega 6 fatty acids, what is the recommended intake of omega 3 fats for a person who consumes 30 g of omega 6 fats
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there is no specific recommendation based on omega 6 intake
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the oils found in walnuts, soybeans, flaxseed, and wheat germ represent a good source of preformed
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linolenic acid
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what is a likely explanation for the imbalance between omega 6 and omega 3 lipids in the US diet
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high intakes of meat and low intakes of fish
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what describes a recognized relationship between dietary fat and cancer
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fat from milk does not increase risk of cancer
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according to the DRI what is the upper limit of fat that may be consumed by a healthy person requiring 3000 kcalories per day
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117
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according to the dietary guidelines, what should be the max total fat intake as percentage of energy intake
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35
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what is the recommended min amount of fat that should be consumed as a percentage of total energy intake
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20
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what is the recommended range for the essential fatty acids as a percentage
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5.6-11.2
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what should be the max daily intake of cholesterol on a 2500 kcalorie diet
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300mg
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how many grams of fat would be contained in an 800 kcalorie meal that provides 50% of the energy from carb, 20% from protein, and the rest from fat
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27
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surveys show average intake of fat as a percentage of total energy intake is
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34
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the average daily cholesterol intake of US women is about
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235
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what is a feature of fat in the diet of athletes
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minimum of 20% fat energy in the diet is needed
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what is the most desirable quality that fat adds to food
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palatability
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what is a characteristic of the lipid content of livestock
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free range animals contain more omega 3 fats in the meat than grain fed animals
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what is the dietary advice for reducing fat intake
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limit intake of all fried foods because they contain abundant fat
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a food that represents a visible fat would be what food
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butter
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sucrose polyester is another name for
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olestra
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what is a drawback of olestra consumption
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it inhibits absorption of vitamin e
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what is a feature of olestra in foods
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it causes no net loss of fat soluble vitamins from the digestive tract
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in most nuts, what is the distribution of satruated and unsaturated fats, in order of highest to lowest amounts
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monounsaturated, polyunsaturated, saturated
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what is a feature of nut consumption and improved cardiovasuclar health
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the benefit may be related to the high content of monounsaturated fats and low content of saturated fats
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what is the percentage of monounsaturated fat of the most commonly eaten nuts
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60
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studies show that regular consumption of fatty fish leads to
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lower blood pressure
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what fish is generally highest in mercury
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shark
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why does the FDA advise against consumption of certain fish like swordfish and shark by women of childbearing age
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these fish are a major source of toxic mercury
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what is a characteristic of farm raised fish
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they are lower in omega 3 fats
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studies show that a 1% increase in dietary saturated fatty acids will raise the risk of heart disease by what percent
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2
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what is a good plant source of omega 3 lipids
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flax seeds
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a major feature of the mediterranean diet is liberal intake of
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olive oil
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d
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1. What element is found in proteins but NOT in carbohydrates and fats? a. Carbon b. Oxygen c. Calcium d. Nitrogen
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c
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2. In comparison to the composition of carbohydrates and fats, which element found in proteins makes them unique? a. Carbon b. Oxygen c. Nitrogen d. Hydrogen
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a
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3. Which of the following is the primary factor that differentiates one amino acid from another? a. The side group b. The central carbon atom c. The number of oxygen atoms d. The number of nitrogen atoms
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b
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4. Which of the following elements is found in certain amino acids? a. Iron b. Sulfur c. Calcium d. Potassium
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c
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5. Which of the following terms is NOT used to classify amino acids in the diet? a. Essential b. Nonessential c. Partially essential d. Conditionally essential
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d
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6. How many different kinds of amino acids make up proteins? a. 8 b. 10 c. 14 d. 20
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c
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7. Which of the following is NOT contained in an amino acid? a. An acid group b. An amino group c. An aldehyde group d. A central carbon atom
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c
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8. Approximately how many different amino acids are used in the synthesis of body proteins? a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 35
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b
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9. What is the simplest amino acid? a. Valine b. Glycine c. Alanine d. Methionine
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a
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10. Which of the following is NOT an essential amino acid in human nutrition? a. Proline b. Threonine c. Methionine d. Tryptophan
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b
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11. Any of the following can be used by the body for the synthesis of a nonessential amino acid EXCEPT a. a fragment of fat. b. an essential mineral. c. an essential amino acid. d. a fragment of carbohydrate.
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b
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12. What amino acid is classified as conditionally essential when dietary intake of phenylalanine is insufficient or the body cannot normally metabolize phenylalanine? a. Cysteine b. Tyrosine c. Glutamine d. Isoleucine
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b
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13. Which of the following is a feature of an essential amino acid? a. It is not necessary in the diet b. It must be supplied by the diet c. It can be made from fat in the body d. It can be made from glucose in the body
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d
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14. What type of reaction is required to bind two molecules of glycine together and release a molecule of water? a. Hydrolysis b. Deamination c. Denaturation d. Condensation
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a
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15. When two amino acids are chemically joined together, the resulting structure is called a a. dipeptide. b. diglyceride. c. polypeptide. d. disaccharide.
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b
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16. What is the composition of a tripeptide? a. One amino acid with three carbons b. Three amino acids bonded together c. One amino acid with three acid groups d. Three small protein chains bonded together
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c
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17. What is meant by the amino acid sequence of a protein? a. Number of side chains in the protein b. Folding arrangement of the peptide chain c. Order of amino acids in the peptide chain d. Order of only the essential amino acids in the protein
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b
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18. A dispensable amino acid is one that a. is not needed by the body. b. can be synthesized by the body. c. can be used to synthesize an indispensable amino acid. d. cannot be synthesized by the body because of a genetic defect.
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b
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19. In comparison to the well-defined structure of starch, which of the following is the most important factor that allows for the synthesis of thousands of different proteins? a. Number of cell ribosomes b. Number of different amino acids c. Availability of amino acids containing sulfur d. Availability of amino acids containing hydroxyl groups
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d
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20. Which of the following would be classified as a polypeptide? a. 1 amino acid b. 3 amino acids bonded together c. 9 fatty acids bonded together d. 20 amino acids bonded together
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b
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21. The following amino acids are linked together: glycine-lysine-valine. This compound is a a. dipeptide. b. tripeptide. c. polypeptide. d. oligopeptide.
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b
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22. The weak electrical attractions within polypeptide chains account for the protein's a. primary structure. b. secondary structure. c. tertiary structure. d. quaternary structure.
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c
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23. Which of the following is a feature of hemoglobin? a. It has no tertiary structure b. It holds the mineral calcium c. It is constructed of 4 polypeptide chains d. It has no primary or secondary structure
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c
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24. An example of a protein with quaternary polypeptide structures is a. insulin. b. tryptophan. c. hemoglobin. d. disulfide bridges.
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c
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25. What is the process by which heat or acidity disrupts the normal shape of a protein chain? a. Digestion b. Condensation c. Denaturation d. Hydrogenation
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c
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26. The application of heat or acid to a protein that causes its shape to change is known as a. stiffening. b. condensation. c. denaturation. d. destabilization.
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b
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27. What process results in the hardening of an egg when it is exposed to heat? a. Solidification b. Denaturation c. Condensation d. Protein interaction
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b
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28. After a hamburger is eaten, in what organ is the hydrolysis of its proteins initiated? a. Mouth b. Stomach c. Small intestine d. Large intestine
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c
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29. What is the name of the inactive form of the protein-splitting enzyme in the stomach? a. Peptidase b. Propepsin c. Pepsinogen d. Propeptidase
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a
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30. In what organ is pepsin active? a. Stomach b. Pancreas c. Small intestine d. Large intestine
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a
answer
31. What digestive enzyme would be most affected in people who are unable to produce hydrochloric acid? a. Pepsin b. Transaminase c. Pancreatic protease d. Intestinal peptidase
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a
answer
32. Protein-hydrolyzing enzymes are commonly known as a. proteases. b. hydrolyzers. c. prodigestins. d. denaturases.
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a
answer
33. The function of a protease is to a. hydrolyze proteins. b. synthesize proteins. c. hydrolyze ribosomes. d. synthesize ribosomes.
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d
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34. What is the chief function of pepsin? a. Emulsifies dietary proteins b. Activates hydrochloric acid c. Activates pancreatic proteases d. Cleaves proteins into smaller polypeptides
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a
answer
35. What percentage of dietary protein is hydrolyzed in the mouth? a. 0 b. 5-10 c. 15-20 d. 25-30
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d
answer
36. After digestion of proteins, what products are absorbed into the circulation? a. Free amino acids only b. Free amino acids and oligopeptides c. Free amino acids and dipeptides only d. Free amino acids, and a few dipeptides and tripeptides
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a
answer
37. What is the usual fate of orally ingested enzyme supplements? a. Digested by gastrointestinal proteases b. Rapidly degraded by salivary secretions c. Mostly absorbed in original form from the stomach d. Completely absorbed in original form from the jejunum
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d
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38. Which of the following statements is NOT characteristic of enzymes? a. They are all catalysts b. They have a protein structure c. They can be destroyed by heat d. They are involved in synthesis reactions only
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b
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39. Which of the following describes the structure of pepsin? a. Lipid b. Protein c. Nucleic acid d. Carbohydrate
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b
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40. All of the following are fates of amino acids within the small intestine EXCEPT a. some may be used for energy by the intestinal cells. b. some may be used for synthesis of gastric protease. c. some may be used for synthesis of proteins by the intestinal cells. d. they may be transported across the intestinal cell membrane to the capillaries.
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a
answer
41. Of the following sources of amino acids, which would be best absorbed in normal, healthy people? a. Whole proteins b. Predigested proteins c. Proteins from raw foods d. Mixture of free amino acids
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b
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42. Your cousin Wanda was born with a genetic defect affecting her digestion, namely, a lack of intestinal villus tripeptidases and dipeptidases. Which of the following digestive processes would NOT take place? a. Protein ? oligopeptides b. Peptides ? amino acids c. Amino acids ? peptides d. Polypeptides ? tripeptides
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a
answer
43. Which of the following describes a process in protein synthesis? a. The code to make a protein is carried by a strand of messenger RNA b. The final step in completing the protein is carried out in the mitochondria c. The function of transfer RNA is to assist in absorption of amino acids into the cell d. The DNA binds to ribosomes and directs uptake of specific amino acids to form the peptide chain
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b
answer
44. Which of the following is a characteristic of protein synthesis? a. Mitochondria are bound to DNA to initiate peptide bond synthesis b. Messenger RNA is constructed from a DNA template to carry instructions c. Hormones carry messages from RNA to DNA to direct peptide bond synthesis d. RNA transfers up to 6 amino acids simultaneously to the mitochondria for peptide elongation
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c
answer
45. The process whereby messenger RNA is made from a DNA template is a. expression. b. sequencing. c. transcription. d. ribosome assembly.
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c
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46. What is a ribosome? a. A template for protein synthesis b. A hard knot of subcutaneous protein mass c. A structure upon which proteins are assembled d. An antibody synthesized by specialized immune cells
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c
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47. Which of the following does NOT describe a feature of protein in nutrition? a. The study of the body's proteins in known as proteomics b. Protein synthesis requires messenger RNA and transfer RNA c. Most of the body's thousands of proteins have been studied thoroughly d. The synthesis of a protein by following the genetic code is known as gene expression
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a
answer
48. Your college dormitory roommate, James, told you that he's had anemia for quite some time and that it's from having abnormally-shaped hemoglobin. What type of anemia does James have? a. Sickle-cell anemia b. Macrocytic anemia c. Iron-deficiency anemia d. Low oxygen-carrying anemia
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d
answer
49. A common genetic variation which causes a change in the amino acid sequence in the structure of hemoglobin leads to the disease a. diabetes. b. marasmus. c. phenylketonuria. d. sickle-cell anemia.
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c
answer
50. Which of the following is characteristic of sickle-cell anemia? a. The disorder can be serious but not fatal b. The disorder leads to depression of energy expenditure c. The abnormal structure of the hemoglobin alters the shape of the red blood cell d. The hemoglobin amino acid sequence is abnormal in all four of the polypeptide chains
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b
answer
51. What is the structure of an enzyme? a. Lipid b. Protein c. Nucleic acid d. Carbohydrate
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c
answer
52. What protein is intimately involved in the formation of scar tissue in wound healing? a. Albumin b. Thrombin c. Collagen d. Hydroxyproline
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c
answer
53. What type of protein would the body make in order to heal a wound? a. Ferritin b. Albumin c. Collagen d. Hemoglobin
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b
answer
54. What term signifies when a cell makes a protein under the directions of a gene? a. Gene encoding b. Gene expression c. Protein secretion d. Protein amplification
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b
answer
55. Which of the following is a characteristic of hormones? a. Inactivate bacteria b. Act as messenger molecules c. Coordinate visual response d. Act as buffers in the bloodstream
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a
answer
56. Which of the following do(es) NOT function as a transport protein? a. Collagen b. Transferrin c. Hemoglobin d. Lipoproteins
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a
answer
57. What is the relationship between body proteins and water? a. Proteins attract water b. Water attracts proteins c. Water degrades proteins d. Proteins form polymers of water
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c
answer
58. Which of the following does NOT describe an association between protein nutrition and the body's water balance? a. Inadequate protein intake may lead to edema. b. Insufficient protein synthesis by the liver may lead to edema. c. Excessive protein losses by the kidney may lead to dehydration. d. Excessive protein intake burdens the kidneys to excrete unused nitrogen.
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a
answer
59. The conditions known as acidosis and alkalosis refer to a disruption of the body's a. pH balance. b. protein balance. c. nitrogen balance. d. endogenous metabolism.
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a
answer
60. Tissue swelling that results from water accumulating between cells is known as a. edema. b. acidosis. c. alkalosis. d. extravascularization.
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b
answer
61. Proteins, because they attract hydrogen ions, can act as a. acids. b. buffers. c. enzymes. d. antibodies.
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b
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62. What function does a buffer perform? a. Helps emulsify fats b. Helps maintain a constant pH c. Facilitates chemical reactions d. Helps protect against plaque buildup
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a
answer
63. Which of the following processes is regulated primarily by the buffering action of proteins? a. pH balance b. Fluid balance c. Blood clotting d. Synthesis of visual pigments
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d
answer
64. How do sodium and potassium travel into and out of cells? a. Antidiuretic hormone transports potassium and prodiuretic hormone carries sodium b. There are specific transport proteins in the blood that deliver the minerals to the cell cytoplasm c. The balance of insulin and glucagon determines the movement of these minerals into and out of cells d. There are transport proteins within the cell membrane that pick up and release the minerals across the membrane
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c
answer
65. What is opsin? a. An antigen b. An antibody c. A light-sensitive protein d. A blood transport protein
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d
answer
66. Which of the following proteins inactivates foreign bacteria and viruses? a. Enzymes b. Collagen c. Hormones d. Antibodies
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b
answer
67. The body's usual response to detection of antigens is to synthesize a. mutations. b. antibodies. c. erythrocytes. d. whey protein.
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c
answer
68. Which of the following describes the structure of an antibody? a. Tripeptide b. Small nucleic acid c. Huge protein molecule d. Large peptide molecule
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b
answer
69. Which of the following is involved in the clotting of blood? a. Opsin b. Fibrin c. Collagen d. Transferrin
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d
answer
70. Given that protein is 16% nitrogen, how many grams of nitrogen are contained in a 2500-kcalorie diet that provides 15% of the energy as protein? a. 2.5 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15
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b
answer
71. Which of the following may be used to determine protein utilization? a. Calorimetry b. Nitrogen balance c. Amino acid pool d. Supplementary value
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c
answer
72. When nitrogen taken into the body exceeds nitrogen losses, we say the person is in a. a healthy state. b. nitrogen equilibrium. c. positive nitrogen balance. d. negative nitrogen balance.
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b
answer
73. Which of the following defines protein turnover? a. The sum of protein in food and the body b. The sum of protein synthesis and degradation c. The amount of protein absorbed from the diet d. The amount of protein used to synthesize glucose
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d
answer
74. What is the amino acid pool? a. The total amino acid content derived from a 24-hour dietary intake b. A measure of the circulating essential amino acid levels available for protein synthesis c. The total amount of free amino acids in the circulation destined for deamination and excretion d. A mix of essential and nonessential amino acids derived from protein breakdown and dietary protein intake
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a
answer
75. Which of the following describes the state of nitrogen balance for a normal, healthy 35-year-old person who weighs 60 kg and consumes a diet that provides 75 g of protein and adequate energy? a. Equilibrium b. Positive balance c. Negative balance d. Endogenous balance
question
d
answer
76. The body's amino acid pool consists of a. essential amino acids only. b. endogenous amino acids only. c. nonessential amino acids only. d. both essential and nonessential amino acids.
question
d
answer
77. What is the nitrogen balance of a person who consumed a 3500-kcalorie diet containing 10% protein and excreted a total of 12 grams of nitrogen? (Protein is 16% nitrogen.) a. 0 g b. -3 g c. -1 g d. +2 g
question
c
answer
78. Which of the following would describe the state of nitrogen balance of a person who ingested 16 g of food nitrogen and lost 19 g of nitrogen? a. Equilibrium b. Positive balance c. Negative balance d. Exogenous balance
question
c
answer
79. What is the usual state of nitrogen balance for healthy infants, children, and pregnant women? a. Equilibrium b. Metabolic c. Positive d. Negative
question
d
answer
80. What amino acid is used to synthesize the neurotransmitter serotonin and the vitamin niacin? a. Glycine b. Tyrosine c. Methionine d. Tryptophan
question
c
answer
81. What is meant by protein turnover? a. Nitrogen equilibrium b. The antibody-antigen complex c. The synthesis and degradation of body proteins d. The secondary structure of proteins that initiates folding
question
b
answer
82. What is the fate of excess dietary protein? a. After absorption, the liver will store the extra amino acids b. After absorption, the extra amino acids will be rapidly degraded c. Digestion will be decreased by 30 to 60%, resulting in less absorption d. After absorption, extra proteins will be synthesized and stored for use when protein intake returns to normal
question
b
answer
83. When amino acids are deaminated, the immediate products are ammonia and often a a. uric acid. b. keto acid. c. folic acid. d. gluco acid.
question
c
answer
84. Protein sparing in the body is best achieved when a person ingests a. proteins of plant origin only. b. proteins of animal origin only. c. adequate levels of carbohydrate and fat. d. mixed protein sources on alternate days.
question
d
answer
85. A person who is starving is losing a. fat only. b. glycogen only. c. glycogen and fat only. d. glycogen, protein, and fat.
question
a
answer
86. Which of the following illustrates a deamination reaction? a. Removal of the amino group from an amino acid b. Separation of an amino acid from a peptide chain c. Addition of an amino group to form a new amino acid d. Addition of an amino acid to form a larger peptide chain
question
d
answer
87. Approximately how much urea (g) can be produced daily by the average adult? a. 5 g b. 50 g c. 100 g d. 250 g
question
b
answer
88. Which of the following is the most likely side effect of a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet? a. Diarrhea b. Increased thirst c. Nitrogen toxicity d. Increased water retention in the body
question
d
answer
89. Which of the following compounds does NOT contain nitrogen? a. Urea b. Enzymes c. Ammonia d. Cholesterol
question
c
answer
90. Which of the following is a consequence of excess protein intake? a. Decreased excretion of calcium b. Decreased size of the liver and kidneys c. Increased production and excretion of urea d. Increased protein storage by the liver and kidneys
question
a
answer
91. Which of the following are precursors of urea synthesis? a. All amino acids b. Animal proteins only c. Essential amino acids only d. Nonessential amino acids only
question
c
answer
92. What is the process whereby an amino group is combined with a keto acid to form an amino acid? a. Deamination b. Ureagenesis c. Transamination d. Ammoniogenesis
question
a
answer
93. In the metabolism of amino acids for energy, what is the fate of the amino group? a. Excreted as urea b. Burned for energy c. Stored in the liver d. Converted to glucose
question
a
answer
94. The body's need for water increases on a diet high in a. protein. b. carbohydrate. c. saturated fat. d. unsaturated fat.
question
a
answer
95. What is the most likely reason for a person to have abnormally high blood ammonia levels? a. Liver dysfunction b. Kidney dysfunction c. Protein intake twice the RDA d. Protein intake one-tenth the RDA
question
b
answer
96. Jason is 35 years old and was recently diagnosed with 2 failing kidneys. He was advised to decrease the amount of protein he consumes. If Jason cheats by eating an 8-ounce steak for dinner tonight, shortly thereafter there would most likely be an increase in the urea levels of his a. urine. b. blood. c. stools. d. sweat.
question
b
answer
97. What is the most likely reason for having an abnormally high blood urea level? a. Liver dysfunction b. Kidney dysfunction c. Protein intake twice the RDA d. Protein intake one-tenth the RDA
question
b
answer
98. A prominent result of transamination reactions is the synthesis of a. essential amino acids. b. nonessential amino acids. c. neurotransmitters and hormones. d. both nonessential and essential amino acids.
question
a
answer
99. Your father, who has a high blood ammonia concentration, most likely has a poorly functioning a. liver. b. spleen. c. kidney. d. intestinal tract.
question
c
answer
100. Your mother, who has a high blood urea content, most likely has a poorly functioning a. liver. b. spleen. c. kidney. d. intestinal tract.
question
a
answer
101. A reference protein equals or exceeds the essential amino acid requirements of all of the following population groups EXCEPT a. infants. b. preschool aged children. c. adolescents. d. elderly.
question
c
answer
102. What is the percent digestibility of most plant proteins? a. 25-45 b. 50-65 c. 70-90 d. 95-99
question
d
answer
103. What is the percent digestibility of most animal proteins? a. 50-65 b. 70-75 c. 80-85 d. 90-99
question
a
answer
104. Which of the following food proteins has the best assortment of essential amino acids for the human body? a. Egg b. Rice c. Corn d. Gelatin
question
a
answer
105. Which of the following is related to the quality of a food protein? a. Essential amino acid balance b. Nonessential amino acid balance c. Total amino acids per gram of food d. Quantity of nonessential amino acids that can be converted to glucose
question
b
answer
106. What primary factor governs the quality of a food protein? a. Fat content b. Essential amino acid content c. Complex carbohydrate content d. Nonessential amino acid content
question
a
answer
107. In the study of protein nutrition, what term describes the amount of amino acids absorbed from a given amount of protein consumed? a. Digestibility b. Completeness c. Complementary index d. Comparative equivalence
question
c
answer
108. Which of the following is NOT considered to be a source of high-quality protein in human nutrition? a. Soy b. Egg c. Corn d. Fish
question
c
answer
109. Which of the following animal-derived proteins is classified as a poor-quality protein? a. Fish b. Cheese c. Gelatin d. Turkey
question
b
answer
110. If the diet is lacking an essential amino acid, what will be the course of action? a. Body cells will synthesize it b. Protein synthesis will be limited c. Health will not be affected as long as other nutrients are adequate d. Proteins will be made but they will lack that particular amino acid
question
c
answer
111. What is a "limiting" amino acid in a protein? a. A nonessential amino acid present in high amounts, which inhibits protein synthesis b. An amino acid of the wrong structure to be utilized for protein synthesis efficiently c. An essential amino acid present in insufficient quantity for body protein synthesis to take place d. An amino acid that limits the absorption of other essential amino acids by competing with them for transport sites within the GI tract
question
b
answer
112. Which of the following could NOT be a limiting amino acid in the diet? a. Lysine b. Glycine c. Threonine d. Tryptophan
question
a
answer
113. Gelatin is a poor-quality protein because it a. lacks tryptophan. b. lacks methionine. c. is poorly digested. d. is poorly absorbed.
question
d
answer
114. Alberta is a 20 year old who has been a vegetarian for 3 years. She comes to you for advice after reading some material online by the Meat Promoters of America organization. One of their statements is: "...vegetarians are at risk for protein deficiency because they cannot consume all of the essential amino acids necessary for healthy individuals." How should Alberta be advised? a. She should consume dairy and egg products at every meal to protect herself against protein deficiency b. She should avoid the "limiting" amino acids because they are limiting her ability to maintain proper protein status c. Because the statement is basically true, she should consider eating small quantities of meat every day in order to avoid protein deficiency d. Although many foods don't provide all the essential amino acids individually, she could consume complementary proteins throughout the day, which would provide all the essential amino acids she needs
question
d
answer
115. Which of the following is characteristic of protein nutrition in vegetarians? a. Vegetarians in general must practice complementary protein nutrition b. Most vegetarians should consume gelatin to ensure adequate tryptophan intake c. Healthy vegetarians typically consume protein sources of very high digestibility d. Most vegetarians eating a variety of foods need not balance essential amino acid intake at each meal
question
b
answer
116. What is the Daily Value for protein based on a 2000-kcalorie intake? a. 25 g b. 50 g c. 75 g d. 100 g
question
b
answer
117. What is complementary protein nutrition? a. A dietary program that involves eating vegetable and animal proteins on alternating days b. A strategy that combines plant proteins in the same day to improve the balance of essential amino acids c. A technique developed specifically for the elderly that involves optimizing the ratio of protein intake to energy intake d. A body process that involves synthesis of crucial proteins from amino acids made available by the breakdown of storage proteins
question
a
answer
118. In general, the protein quality in grains would be most improved by the addition of a plant protein rich in a. lysine. b. tryptophan. c. phenylalanine. d. glutamic acid.
question
c
answer
119. In general, the protein quality of legumes would be most improved by the addition of a plant protein rich in a. lysine. b. tyrosine. c. methionine. d. glutamic acid.
question
c
answer
120. Relative to animal proteins, which of the following amino acids is present in lesser amounts in proteins of legumes? a. Alanine b. Isoleucine c. Tryptophan d. Glutamic acid
question
c
answer
121. Excessive amounts of homocysteine in the blood are thought to increase the risk for a. cancer. b. diabetes. c. heart disease. d. protein-energy malnutrition
question
a
answer
122. Which of the following amino acids has been reported to lower blood pressure and reduce homocysteine levels? a. Arginine b. Cysteine c. Tryptophan d. Phenylalanine
question
d
answer
123. Which of the following is NOT among factors known to raise homocysteine levels? a. High folate intake b. Smoking cessation c. Arginine consumption d. Excess alcohol intake
question
c
answer
124. Which of the following is a feature of homocysteine? a. It is found only in animal foods b. It is a risk factor for osteoporosis c. It is increased in the blood of coffee drinkers d. It is increased in the blood of vitamin C-deficient people
question
d
answer
125. Which of the following describes a relationship between protein/amino acids and heart disease? a. Substituting soy protein for animal protein raises blood cholesterol levels b. High blood levels of the amino acid arginine are a risk factor for atherosclerosis c. High levels of homocysteine in food promote elevation of blood low-density lipoproteins d. Elevated blood homocysteine levels are associated with smoking cigarettes and drinking alcohol
question
c
answer
126. What ratio (mg:g) of calcium to protein intake is believed to promote optimal bone health? a. 2:1 b. 9:1 c. 20:1 d. 45:1
question
b
answer
127. Which of the following describes an association between protein intake and kidney function? a. Low-protein diets increase the risk for kidney stone formation b. Restricting protein intake may slow the progression of kidney disease c. High protein intakes over the long term represent a risk factor for kidney disease d. Liberal protein intakes result in high urea production, which increases the long-term efficiency of the kidneys
question
d
answer
128. Based on the range of protein intake as a percentage of energy intake, what would be the highest safe level of protein intake for a 60-kg adult ingesting 2500 kcalories? a. 48 g b. 96 g c. 120 g d. 219 g
question
b
answer
129. Which of the following describes a relationship between protein intake and calcium metabolism? a. Calcium excretion falls with increasing intake of animal-derived proteins b. Calcium excretion rises with increasing intake of animal-derived proteins c. Calcium absorption declines with higher intakes of plant-derived proteins d. Calcium absorption increases with higher intakes of animal-derived proteins
question
c
answer
130. What is the RDA for protein for a 48-kg woman? a. 24 g b. 34 g c. 38 g d. 40 g
question
b
answer
131. What is the actual ratio of calcium to protein intake (mg to g) for most U.S. women? a. 3:1 b. 9:1 c. 15:1 d. 21:1
question
b
answer
132. What would be the primary principle of wise diet planning as related to protein nutrition? a. Variety b. Moderation c. Nutrient density d. kCalorie control
question
a
answer
133. Which of the following is a feature of the protein RDA? a. The recommendations are generous b. It is highest proportionately for adult males c. It is established at 8 grams per kilogram of ideal body weight d. An assumption is made that dietary protein is from animal sources only
question
c
answer
134. If protein needs are expressed per kilogram of body weight, which of the following describes the requirements of infants? a. Less than adults b. Similar to adults c. Greater than adults d. Less than adolescents
question
b
answer
135. What is the range of daily protein intake, in g/kg, recommended for athletes by fitness authorities? a. 0.8-1.1 b. 1.2-1.7 c. 1.8-2.4 d. 2.5-3.0
question
c
answer
136. Your friend Jill has just joined her community college soccer team. How much protein should she consume each day? a. 0.8 g/kg b. up to 1.0 g/kg c. 1.2-1.7 g/kg d. 2.5-2.9 g/kg
question
c
answer
137. Which of the following is an assumption made in the formulation of the RDA for protein? a. Dietary protein is of high quality only b. Dietary protein is of animal origin only c. Dietary carbohydrate and fat intakes are adequate d. Dietary protein should represent 12% of total energy
question
c
answer
138. All of the following assumptions are made by the committee in setting the RDA for protein EXCEPT a. adequate kcalories will be consumed. b. protein eaten will be of mixed quality. c. the fat content of the diet will be high. d. other nutrients in the diet will be adequate.
question
b
answer
139. Which of the following is a feature of protein nutrition? a. Protein in body tissues is preserved fairly well on low-energy diets b. The protein RDA assumes that dietary protein is from a mix of low- and high-quality sources c. Many people in the United States and Canada consume somewhat less protein than is needed d. Athletes in training benefit from increasing their protein energy intake to 45-50% of total daily energy
question
c
answer
140. What is the percentage of total energy derived from protein in a diet containing 50 grams of protein and 2000 kcalories? a. 2.5 b. 5 c. 10 d. 20
question
b
answer
141. If a person consumes 65 grams of protein and a total of 2700 kcalories per day, approximately what percentage of energy would be derived from protein? a. 7 b. 10 c. 14 d. 20
question
d
answer
142. Approximately how many grams of protein are found in one quart of milk? a. 5 b. 12 c. 25 d. 32
question
c
answer
143. Which of the following is a feature of whey protein? a. It is a high-priced protein supplement b. It is chemically extracted from gelatin c. It is a waste product of cheese production d. Regular consumption by athletes enhances performance
question
d
answer
144. Jim, a college baseball player, tells you that he has started to take glutamine supplements. How would you advise him? a. As long as he keeps the dose under 10 g/day, the benefits outweigh the costs b. Since he plays baseball, he should consider taking alanine supplements instead c. Since he plays baseball, he should consider taking tryptophan supplements instead d. Since single amino acids do not occur naturally in foods, they offer no benefit to the body and may even be harmful
question
d
answer
145. Which of the following is a feature of the branched-chain amino acids? a. They are all dispensable amino acids b. Large doses may suppress ammonia production c. They represent the major energy source for muscle tissue d. They may be helpful in treatment of advanced liver failure
question
c
answer
146. What amino acid has been linked to the development of the rare blood disorder eosinophilia-myalgia syndrome in people who took it as a supplement? a. Glycine b. Arginine c. Tryptophan d. Phenylalanine
question
a
answer
147. What amino acid supplement has been advertised in the popular media for treating herpes infections? a. Lysine b. Arginine c. Tryptophan d. Phenylalanine
question
d
answer
148. The disease phenylketonuria is related chiefly to abnormal metabolism of a. lactose. b. omega-3 fats. c. soy polysaccharides. d. a certain amino acid.
question
a
answer
149. The study of how food interacts with genes is known as a. nutritional genomics. b. chromosomals. c. nucleotide expression. d. mutagenic expression.
question
a
answer
150. The study of how environmental factors influence the expression of genes without altering the DNA is known as a. epigenetics. b. nucleotide sequencing. c. microarray technology. d. epidemiological consequences.
question
b
answer
151. The cell's proteome consists of a. all nucleotide bases. b. all the protein in the cell. c. the ratio of DNA to RNA. d. the protein metabolic apparatus.
question
a
answer
152. The cell process of silencing or activating genes is in part accomplished by a. DNA methylation. b. multigene genomics. c. translational sequencing. d. a transcription-translation cycle.
question
d
answer
153. Approximately what percentage of a person's genes are similar to those of an unrelated person? a. 20 b. 50 c. 75 d. 99.9
question
b
answer
154. What dispensable amino acid becomes essential in people with PKU? a. Glycine b. Tyrosine c. Arginine d. Glutamine
question
a
answer
155. The incidence of PKU in infants in the United States is one in every a. 15,000 births. b. 100,000 births. c. 500,000 births. d. 1,000,000 births.
question
c
answer
156. Which of the following is NOT among the characteristics of phenylketonuria? a. It is a single-gene disorder b. It leads to a dietary requirement for tyrosine c. It is treated by total elimination of dietary phenylalanine d. It results in mental retardation unless treatment is started in infancy
question
d
answer
157. Dietary restriction of phenylalanine combined with adequate tyrosine is the usual treatment for people born with the disorder a. DNA. b. ALC. c. NLM. d. PKU.
question
d
answer
158. A variation in a single nucleotide of a DNA strand is called a(n) a. RNA switch. b. thymine substitution. c. environmental mutation. d. single nucleotide polymorphism.
question
Which one of the following compounds is missing 4 or more hydrogen atoms? Monounsaturated fatty acid Polyunsaturated fatty acid Long-chain saturated fatty acid Short-chain saturated fatty acid
answer
B) Polyunsaturated fatty acid
question
1. Which of the following is a feature of polyunsaturated fats? Low melting point High melting point Solid at room temperature Solid at refrigerator temperature
answer
A) Low melting point
question
1. Characteristics of hydrogenated oils include all of the following EXCEPT they are stored in adipose tissue. they lower HDL and raise LDL cholesterol in the body. some of their fatty acids change shape from cis to trans. products containing them become rancid sooner, contributing to a shorter shelf life.
answer
D)products containing them become rancid sooner, contributing to a shorter shelf life.
question
1. Oil that is partially hydrogenated sometimes changes one or more of its double bond configurations from cis to trans. solid to liquid. covalent to ionic. saturated to unsaturated.
answer
A) cis to trans.
question
1. What is the major source of "good" cholesterol? Fatty fish Fatty meat Endogenous synthesis Monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fatty acids
answer
C) Endogenous synthesis
question
1. Your aunt Gladys has a family history of heart disease. She decides to begin eating a bowl of oatmeal every morning to help lower her blood cholesterol. After about a month of following this routine, her cholesterol declined about 5 points. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this effect? Oatmeal is a low-fat food and inhibits the body's synthesis of cholesterol Oatmeal is high in complex fibers that inhibit cholesterol-synthesizing enzymes Oatmeal consumed on a regular basis suppresses the craving for high-cholesterol foods Oatmeal is high in soluble fibers that trap bile, causing the body to use more cholesterol for bile replacement
answer
D) Oatmeal is high in soluble fibers that trap bile, causing the body to use more cholesterol for bile replacement
question
1. Important factors in the selection of a margarine product include all of the following EXCEPT it should be trans fat free. it should be soft instead of hard. it should contain primarily omega-3 fatty acids. it should list liquid vegetable oil as the first ingredient.
answer
C) it should contain primarily omega-3 fatty acids.
question
which is a good source of omega-3 fatty acid Corn oil Canola oil Safflower oil Liquefied lard
answer
B )Canola oil
question
1. You and your friend John are planning a college graduation party and you want to include healthy snack alternatives. You select fruit, veggies, low-fat dips, low-fat cheeses, whole-wheat crackers, and low-fat potato chips. John says he has heard about the fat replacer olestra in the potato chips and asks you how it works. You reply that olestra slows the pancreas's release of lipase enzyme. consists of tight protein-binding molecules that replace the fat molecules usually present in potato chips. contains a fat-like substance that the body's enzymes can't break down and therefore cannot be absorbed. is first subjected to radiation exposure to desaturate the bonds within the fat molecules, which reduces the kcalorie content.
answer
C) contains a fat-like substance that the body's enzymes can't break down and therefore cannot be absorbed
question
1. Why does the FDA advise against consumption of certain fish such as swordfish and tilefish by women of childbearing age? These fish are a major source of toxic mercury The omega-3 fatty acids may induce premature labor The omega-3 fatty acids prolong bleeding time during delivery These fish contain unusually high amounts of medium-chain triglycerides
answer
A) These fish are a major source of toxic mercury
question
1. About how much cholesterol is synthesized by the liver every day? None A few mg Less than 300 mg At least 800 mg
answer
D) At least 800 mg
question
1. Which of the following describes a feature of cis-fatty acids and trans-fatty acids? In nature, most double bonds are trans Hydrogenation converts trans-fatty acids to cis-fatty acids The conversion of cis-fatty acids to trans-fatty acids is inhibited by the presence of antioxidants In the body, trans-fatty acids are metabolized more like saturated fats than like unsaturated fats
answer
D) In the body, trans-fatty acids are metabolized more like saturated fats than like unsaturated fats
question
1. What compound is composed of 3 fatty acids and glycerol? Steroid Lecithin Triglyceride Monoglyceride
answer
C) Triglyceride
question
1. What is the chemical composition of fats? Hexose polymers Glycogen granules Fatty acids and glycerol Combinations of long-chain fatty acids
answer
C) Fatty acids and glycerol
question
1. Which of the following is a feature of fat intake and health? Intake of saturated fat raises blood cholesterol more than intake of cholesterol High intakes of fish oil lower bleeding time and improve diabetes and wound healing High intakes of short- and medium-chain fatty acids raise high-density lipoprotein levels Trans-fatty acids contained in polyunsaturated fats but not in monounsaturated fats alter blood cholesterol levels
answer
A) Intake of saturated fat raises blood cholesterol more than intake of cholesterol
question
1. Which of the following is characteristic of the lipase enzymes? Gastric lipase plays a significant role in fat digestion in adults Intestinal mucosal lipase is responsible for most dietary fat digestion Salivary gland lipase (lingual lipase) plays an active role in fat digestion in infants Pancreatic lipase hydrolyzes most dietary triglycerides completely to glycerol and free fatty acids
answer
C) Salivary gland lipase (lingual lipase) plays an active role in fat digestion in infants
question
1. A low risk of cardiovascular disease correlates with high blood levels of triglycerides. free fatty acids. high-density lipoproteins. very-low-density lipoproteins.
answer
C) high-density lipoproteins.
question
1. Which of the following is an omega-3 fat? Acetic acid Palmitic acid Linoleic acid Docosahexaenoic acid
answer
D) Docosahexaenoic acid
question
1. Approximately what percentage of the body's energy needs at rest is supplied by fat? 5 25 40 60
answer
D) 60
question
1. Which of the following fish is generally highest in mercury? Shark Catfish Salmon Canned light tuna
answer
A) Shark
question
1. Which of the following is a common dietary saturated fatty acid? Oleic acid Stearic acid Linolenic acid Arachidonic acid
answer
B) Stearic acid
question
1. Which of the following is a feature of butter and margarine? Butter is a major source of trans fatty acids Butter contains more saturated fat and cholesterol than margarine does Margarine contains approximately half as much cholesterol as butter does Stick margarine contains half as much trans-fatty acids as soft margarine does
answer
B) Butter contains more saturated fat and cholesterol than margarine does
question
1. All of the following compounds may be synthesized from cholesterol EXCEPT bile. glucose. vitamin D. sex hormones.
answer
B) Glucose
question
1. In which form are most dietary lipids found? Sterols Glycerols Triglycerides Monoglycerides
answer
C) Triglycerides
question
1. Surveys show that U.S. adults' average intake of fat as a percentage of total energy intake is 20. 27. 34. 55.
answer
C) 34
question
1. What part of the gastrointestinal tract is the predominant site of dietary fat hydrolysis? Mouth Stomach Small intestine Large intestine
answer
C) Small intestine
question
1. Lipids differ in their degree of saturation or unsaturation due to their number of amino acids. double bonds. saccharide units. peptide linkages.
answer
B) double bonds.
question
1. Which of the following is the most desirable quality that fat adds to foods? Color Sweetness Palatability Hydrogenation
answer
C) Palatability
question
1. An omega-3 fatty acid has its first double bond on the third carbon from the acid end. first 3 carbons from the acid end. third carbon from the methyl end. first 3 carbons from the methyl end.
answer
C) third carbon from the methyl end
question
1. Results of the Seven Countries Study found that the population groups with highest and lowest rates of heart disease both consumed at least 40% of their kcalories from fat but the healthier group was found to ingest more dairy. olive oil. fatty fish. grass-fed livestock.
answer
B) olive oil
question
A compound composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen with 3 fatty acids attached to a molecule of glycerol would be known as a
answer
triglyceride
question
A food that represents a visible fat would be
answer
butter
question
In which form are most dietary lipids found
answer
triglyceride
question
A common feature of the plant sterols is they
answer
inhibit absorption of dietary cholesterol
question
Bile is known to assist in the absorption of
answer
fat only
question
How is soluble fiber in the diet thought to help lower blood cholesterol level
answer
It enhances excretion of bile leading to increased cholesterol turnover
question
Lipids differ in their degree of saturation of unsaturation due to their number of
answer
double bonds
question
Lipids that are liquid at room temperature are known as
answer
oils
question
A high risk of heart attack correlates with high blood levels of
answer
low-density lipoproteins
question
A Low risk of cardiovascular disease correlates with high blood levels of
answer
high-density lipoproteins
question
Among the following dietary fatty acids, which has been found to raise blood cholesterol level by the least amount?
answer
Stearic
question
An important function of fat in the body is to
answer
protect vital organs against shock
question
Among the following, which would be the least effective method to control blood cholesterol levels?
answer
Eat more insoluble fiber
question
A meal providing 1200 kcalories contains 10g of saturated fats, 14g of monounsaturated fats, and 20g of polyunsaturated fats. What percentage of energy supplied by the lipids?
answer
33
question
A person who regularly consumes fish such as shark, king mackerel, and swordfish is at risk for ingesting potentially toxic amounts of
answer
mercury
question
A triglyceride always contains 3
answer
fatty acids
question
All of the following statements are characteristics of lipid intake of U.S. adults excepts..
answer
trans-fatty acid averages about 1 g per day
question
Approximately what percentage of the body's energy needs at rest is supplied by fat?
answer
60
question
Approximately what percentage of the lipids in foods are triglycerides?
answer
95
question
Which of the following contains the least cholesterol per serving?
answer
Steamed Corn
question
Which of the following describes a feature of cis-fatty acids and trans-fatty acids?
answer
In the body, trans-fatty acids are metabolized more like saturated fats than like unsaturated fats.
question
Which of the following is not a common dietary source of trans fats?
answer
Whole milk
question
Each of the following is known to be linked to excessive intake of fats except
answer
lactose intolerance
question
An omega-3 fatty acid has its first double bond on the..
answer
third carbon from the methyl en
question
Approximately how many grams of fat would be contained in an 800-kcalorie meal that provides 50% of the energy from carbohydrates, 20% from protein, and the remainder from fat?
answer
27
question
Approximately how many carbons are contained in a medium-chain fatty acid?
answer
6-10
question
Approximately how many milligrams of cholesterol are found in an egg?
answer
200
question
Lipids that are solid at room temperature are known as?
answer
fats.
question
Important factors in the selection of a margarine product includes all of the following except?
answer
it should contain primarily omega-3 fatty acids
question
In comparison to a low-density lipoprotein, a high density lipoprotein contains?
answer
less lipid
question
Which of the following is a feature of cholesterol?
answer
Only about 10% of the body's total cholesterol is extracellular
question
Which of the following is a feature of cholesterol?
answer
Its Daily Value is 300 mg
question
Which of the following is a feature of olestra in foods?
answer
It causes no net loss of fat-soluble vitamins from the digestive tract
question
Which of the following is a feature of phospholipids?
answer
Soluble in both water and fat
question
Which of the following is a feature of polyunsaturated fats?
answer
Low melting point
question
Which of the following lipids is an essential nutrient?
answer
Linoleic acid
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Information on a food label about the fat content per serving includes all of the following except?
answer
the percentage of total kcalories contributed by fat
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Jenny is trying to lose weight by decreasing the fat in her diet. At the grocery store she is overwhelmed by all the claims on the food product labels, and finally chooses an expensive fat-free frozen dessert. Which of the following would be an appropriate analysis of Jenny's decision?
answer
Fat-free products typically have so much added sugar that the kcalorie count can be as high as in the regular-fat product
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The results of blood test that reveal a person's total cholesterol and triglycerides are called a?
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lipid profile
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What compound is composed of 3 fatty acids and glycerol?
answer
Triglyceride
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What is the approximate daily trans-fatty acid intake in the United States?
answer
6 g
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What is the chemical composition of fats?
answer
Fatty acids and glycerol
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What is the major source of "good" cholesterol?
answer
Endogenous synthesis
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Major sources of cholesterol include all of the following except?
answer
Avocados
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What is the major sterol in the diet?
answer
Cholesterol
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Ronnie east a fairly balanced diet but wants to include a good source of omega-3 fats. Which of the following should be your recommendation?
answer
Salmon
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Studies show that regular consumption of fatty fish leads to?
answer
lower blood pressure
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What is the storage site of bile?
answer
Gallbladder
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Which of the following describes a fatty acid that has one double bond?
answer
Monounsaturated
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Which of the following characteristics is shared by olive oil and canola oil?
answer
Both contain high levels of monounsaturated fatty acids
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Which of the following cannot be found in plants?
answer
Cholesterol
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What type of fatty acid is found in high amounts in olive oil?
answer
Monoun
question
What percentage of stored body fat is in the form of triglycerides?
answer
99
question
What nutrient is used to form ketones?
answer
Fat
question
What lipoprotein is responsible for transporting cholesterol back to the liver from the periphery?
answer
High-density lipoprotein
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Which of the following fish is generally highest in mercury?
answer
Shark
question
Which of the following foods contains cholesterol?
answer
Roasted Turkey
question
Which of the following foods provides(s) essential fatty acids?
answer
Fish, beef, and plants
question
Which of the following has the highest percentage of its fats in polyunsaturated form?
answer
Corn oil
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Which of the following has the highest percentage of its fat in saturated form?
answer
Coconut oil
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Which of the following is a common source of medium-chain fatty acids?
answer
Dairy Products
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Which of the following is a factor that determines the hardness of a fat at a given temperature?
answer
Degree of saturation
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Which of the following is a drawback of olestra consumption?
answer
It inhibits absorption of vitamin E
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Which of the following does not describe a function of fat?
answer
Supplies up to 25% of the body's energy needs during rest
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Which of the following is a characteristic of egg nutrition?
answer
Although it is high in cholesterol, the egg is low in saturated fat
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Which of the following is a characteristic of eggs in nutrition?
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Consumption of one egg per day by most people is not considered detrimental
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Which of the following is a characteristic of the blood cholesterol level?
answer
It can be lowered more effectively by reducing dietary intake of saturated fat than of cholesterol
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Which of the following is a common dietary saturated fatty acid?
answer
Stearic acid
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Which of the following is a feature of butter and margarine?
answer
Butter contains more saturated fat and cholesterol than margarine does
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Which of the following is not a destination for cholesterol?
answer
Accumulates on walls of veins
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Which of the following is a characteristic of cholesterol?
answer
It is a precursor for bile and vitamin D synthesis
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Which of the following is feature of cholesterol?
answer
Synthesized by the body
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Which of the following is a feature of fat intake and health?
answer
Intake of saturated fat raises blood cholesterol more than intake of cholesterol
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Which of the following is a feature of metabolism?
answer
Triglycerides in the blood must first be broken down to monoglycerides, fatty acids, and glycerol prior to uptake by the adipose cells
question
Which of the following lipoproteins contains the highest percentage of cholesterol?
answer
Low-density lipoprotein
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Which of the following is a feature of the lipid content of foods?
answer
Omega-3 fats are found in fish
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Which of the following is appropriate dietary advice for reducing fat intake
answer
Limit intake of all fried foods because they contain abundant fat
question
Which of the following is a good plant source of omega-3 lipids?
answer
Flax seeds
question
Which of the following is a polyunsaturated fatty acids in foods?
answer
Linoleic acid
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Which of the following is an omega-3 fat?
answer
Docosahexaenoic acid
question
Which of the following lipids contain(s) saturated fat?
answer
Butter, cottonseed oil, and soybean oil
question
Your roommate Jeff wishes to switch from using corn oil to using one that is good source of omega 3 fats. Which of the following should be recommended?
answer
Canola oil
question
Which of the following substances cannot be absorbed directly into the blood?
answer
Long-chain fatty acids
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Your roommate Bob has just come back from the doctor where he was subjected to blood lipid profile analysis. The doctor provided him with dietary changes because the cholesterol results put him at increased risk for cardiovascular disease. Which of the following results is consistent with the diagnosis?
answer
Low HDL and high LDL
question
Which of the following is considered a major source of polyunsaturated fat?
answer
Corn oil
question
Which of the following is known as a tropical oil?
answer
Cocoa butter
question
Your Aunt Gladys has a family history of heart disease. She decides to begin eating a bowl of oatmeal every morning to help lower her blood cholesterol. After about a month of following this routine, her cholesterol declined about 5 points. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this effect?
answer
Oatmeal is high in soluble fibers that trap bile, causing the body to use more cholesterol for bile replacement
question
You and your friend John are planning a college graduation party and you want to include healthy snack alternatives. You select fruit, veggies, low fat dips, low fat cheeses, whole wheat crackers, and low fat potato chips. John says he had heard about the fat replacer olestra in the potato chips and asks you how it works. You reply that olestra....
answer
contains a fat-like substance that the body's enzymes cant break down and therefore cannot be absorbed
question
Which of the following vegetable oils is a good source of omega-3 fatty acids?
answer
Canola
question
Which of the following provides abundant amounts of omega-3 fatty acids?
answer
Flaxseed oil
question
Which of the following represents a chief source of short-chain and medium-chain fatty acids?
answer
Dairy
question
Which of the following sources would yield the softest lipids at room temperature?
answer
Safflower
question
Lactase and glucose
answer
The Cori cycle involves the interconversion of:
question
Glucose to pyruvate
answer
Glycolysis is the conversion of:
question
50%
answer
Of the total amount of carbohydrate energy consumed by the body, approximately what percentage is used by the brain and nerve cells?
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Carbohydrates only
answer
In photosynthesis, the plant uses energy from the sun, plus water and carbon dioxide, to synthesize:
question
Involve the release of energy
answer
A feature of catabolic reactions is that they:
question
Inner compartment of the mitochondria; matrix
answer
Where do the TCA cycle reactions take place?
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Glucose
answer
Which of the following CANNOT be formed from acetyl CoA molecules?
question
Within 3 weeks
answer
How soon would death occur from starvation if the body was unable to shift to a state of ketosis?
question
An organic molecule required for the functioning of an enzyme
answer
Which of the following defines a coenzyme?
question
Oxidation of amino acids
answer
Which of the following leads to the production of urea?
