question

Medical Direction

answer

Oversight of the patient-care aspects of an EMS system by the Medical Director.

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Protocols

answer

lists of steps, such as assessments and interventions, to be taken in different situations. Protocols are developed by the Medical Director of an EMS system

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Offline Direction

answer

consists of standing orders issued by the medical director that allows EMTs to give certain medications or perform certain procedures without speaking to the medical director or another physician.

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Online Direction

answer

consists of orders from the on-duty physician given directly to an EMT-B in the field by radio or telephone.

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Standing Orders

answer

A policy or protocol issued by a Medical Director that authorizes EMT-Bs and others to perform particular skills in certain situations.

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HEPA Mask

answer

High Efficiency Particulate Air respirator; used for patients with suspected TB; worn by the EMT provider to prevent airborne transmission

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Hepatitis B

answer

infectious inflammation of the liver caused by the hepatitis B virus (HBV) that is transmitted sexually or by exposure to contaminated blood or body fluid

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Hepatitis C

answer

inflammation of the liver caused by the hepatitis C virus, transmitted by exposure to infected blood (rarely contracted sexually)

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Tuberculosis

answer

Infectious disease caused by the tubercle bacillus, Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Most commonly affects the respiratory system and causes inflammation and calcification of the system.

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Acute Stress

answer

short term ; fight or flight response ; effects disappear quickly after it is over

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Scope of Practice

answer

What we are allowed to do or trained to do

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Standard Care

answer

the degree of care that a reasonably prudent person should exercise under the same or similar circumstances

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Duty to Act

answer

an obligation to provide care to a patient

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Good Samaritan

answer

a person who voluntarily offers help or sympathy in times of trouble

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Expressed Consent

answer

Permission that must be obtained from every conscious, mentally competent adult before emergency treatment may be provided

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Implied Consent

answer

The consent it is presumed a patient or patient's parent or gaurdian would give if they could, such as for an unconscious patient or a parent who cannot be contacted when care is needed.

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Treatment of a Minor

answer

Must be given by legal guardian

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Involuntary

answer

Mentally incompetent person

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Advanced Directive

answer

a legal document prepared by a living, competent adult to provide guidance to the health care team if the individual should become unable to make decisions regarding his or her medical care; may also be called a living will or durable power of attorney for health care

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Polst

answer

Physicians orders for life sustaining treatment. May include order for DO NOT RESUSCITATE

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PCR

answer

Prehospital care report

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Emergency Move

answer

a move made when there is an immediate danger to the patient.

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Urgent Move

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Move used if a scne factor causes a decline in patient's condition, or if the treatment of a patient requires a move.

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Non urgent move

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No immediate threat to life, are carried out in such a way as to prevent injury and to avoid discomfort and pain.

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bariatric stretcher

answer

Stretcher for obese patients

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scoop stretcher

answer

this cot splits in tow or four sections, so it can be used where larger stretchers cannot fit.

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basket stretcher

answer

designed to surround and protect the patient, this stretcher is used to move a patient from one level to another to over rough terrain.

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flexible stretcher

answer

made of canvas or rubberized or other flexible material, often with wooden slats sewn into pockets and three carrying handles on each side. can be useful in restricted areas or narrow hallways

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anatomical planes

answer

1. coronal (vertical cut into front and back halves) 2. transverse (horizontal cut into upper and lower) 3. sagittal (vertical cut into left and right halves)

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fowler position

answer

a bed sitting position with the head of the bed raised to 45 degrees

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semi fowler position

answer

the head of the bed is raised 30 degrees; or the head of the bed is raised 30 degrees and the knee portion is raised 15 degrees

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shock position

answer

feet elevated 12 inches higher than head

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Toward the Front

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posterior

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Toward the back

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superior

answer

toward the head or above point of reference

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inferior

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away from the head or below point of reference

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dorsal

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Toward the back/spine

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ventral

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Toward the front/ belly

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medial

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Toward center of body

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lateral

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Away from center of body

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bilateral

answer

Both sides

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unilateral

answer

One side

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ipsilateral

answer

Same side

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contralateral

answer

opposite side

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proximal

answer

Near the point of reference

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distal

answer

Far from point of reference

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mid clavicular

answer

the line through the center of the clavical

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mid axillary

answer

line drawn veritcally from the middle of the armpit to the ankle

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plantar

answer

Sole of foot

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palmar

answer

Palm of hand

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quadrants of the abdomen

answer

Describing where an abdominal organ or pain is located is made easier by dividing the abdomen into four imaginary quadrants. *Right upper quadrant (RUQ) *Left upper quadrant (LUQ) *Right lower quadrant (RLQ) *Left lower quadrant (LLQ)

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vertebrae

answer

the 33 bones of the spinal column

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Ribs

answer

Vertebrosternal = 'True ribs" -ribs 1-7 attach directly to the sternum through their costal cartilage. Vertebrochondral = "False ribs" =ribs 8-10 costal cartilage articulate indirectly with the sternumb by joing the costal cartilages of ribs above. Vertebral Ribs = "Floating ribs" ribs 11 and 12 no anterior attachment.

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upper airway

answer

(Nose, mouth, pharynx, larynx)FUNCTION:*Conducts air to lower airway *Protects lower airways *Warms, filters & humidifies air

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lower airway

answer

trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and aveoli (gasses travel through the structers to and from the blood)

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cricoid cartilage

answer

the ring-shaped structure that forms the lower portion of the larynx

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diaphragm

answer

muscular partition that separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity and aids in respiration by moving up and down

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phrenic nerve

answer

stimulates the diaphragm

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edema

answer

swelling

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perfusion

answer

The supply of oxygen to and removal of wastes from the cells and tissues of the body as a result of the flow of blood through the capillaries.

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hypo perfusion

answer

Also known as shock (decreased blood flow through an organ, as in hypovolemic shock; if prolonged, it may result in permanent cellular dysfunction and death.)

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cerebrum

answer

large part of the brain that controls the senses and thinking

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cerebellum

answer

the "little brain" attached to the rear of the brainstem; its functions include processing sensory input and coordinating movement output and balance

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brain stem

answer

the part of the brain continuous with the spinal cord and comprising the medulla oblongata and pons and midbrain and parts of the hypothalamus

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epinephrine

answer

adrenaline; activates a sympathetic nervous system by making the heart beat faster, stopping digestion, enlarging pupils, sending sugar into the bloodstream, preparing a blood clot faster

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noepinephrine

answer

A neurotransmitter from nerve endings and a hormone from the adrenal gland. It is release in times of stress and is involved in hunger regulation, blood glucose regulation and other body processes.

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alpha1 and Alpha2

answer

Alpha1 vessels constrict and release sweat Alpha2 try's to regulate alpha1

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beta 1

answer

increases HR, inotrophy (forced contraction of heart) increases electrical impulse in heart

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beta 2

answer

relaxes smooth muscle such as bronchioles and some vessels

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pulse pressure

answer

difference between systolic and diastolic pressure no more than 25%

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respiration

answer

..., the bodily process of inhalation and exhalation

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pulmonary ventilation

answer

..., Movement of air into and out of the lungs

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internal respiration

answer

..., exchange of gases between the blood and the cells of the body

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external respiration

answer

..., exchange of gases between the lungs and the blood

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cellular respiration

answer

..., process that releases energy by breaking down glucose and other food molecules in the presence of oxygen

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carina

answer

..., the fork at the lower end of the trachea where the two mainstem bronchi branch.

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bronchioles

answer

..., smallest branches of the bronchi

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pleura

answer

..., membrane surrounding the lungs

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visceral pleura

answer

..., inner layer of pleura that surrounds each lung

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parietal pleura

answer

..., pleura that lines the inner chest walls and covers the diaphragm

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pleural space

answer

..., the small potential space between the parietal and visceral layers of the pleura

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intercostal muscles

answer

..., Muscles which move the rib cage during breathing

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signs of mild hypoxia

answer

Tachypnea Dyspnea Pale cool clammy skin ( early) Elevation of blood pressure Agitation Disorientation and confusion ( from high carbon dioxide levels) Headache

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signs of severe hypoxia

answer

Tachypnea Dyspnea Cyanosis Tachycardia may lead to dysrhythmias and eventually bradycardia Confusion Loss of coordination sleepy appearance Head bobbing Slow reaction time Altered mental status

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dyspnea

answer

..., difficult or labored respiration

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cyanosis

answer

..., A bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes

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patent airway

answer

..., An airway that is open and clear of obstructions.

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snoring sounds

answer

..., airway blocked, open patients airway promt transport

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crowing

answer

..., A breathing sound similarto the cawing of a crow; may indicate that muscles around the larynx are in spasm.

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gurgling

answer

..., indicates presence of fluid in the upper airway, need for suctioning

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stridor

answer

..., a whistling sound when breathing (usually heard on inspiration) upper airway

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n-95

answer

..., Mask used for a patient with TB

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tonsil tip

answer

... Rigid suction

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french tip

answer

...Soft suction

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oropharyngeal

answer

..., -curved plastic device used to establish an airway in a patient by displacing the tongue from the posterior wall of the oropharynx -used in unconscious patients who do not have a gag reflex

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nasopharyngeal

answer

..., flexible airway inserted through the patients nose

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retractions

answer

..., Movements in which the skin pulls in around the ribs during inspiration.

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respiratory failure

answer

..., a condition in which the level of oxygen in the blood becomes dangerously low or the level of carbon dioxide becomes dangerously high

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respiratory arrest

answer

..., When breathing completely stops.

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agonal respiration

answer

..., Shallow, slow or infrequent breathing

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tachypnea

answer

..., fast breathing, an abnormally rapid rate of respiration, usually >20 breaths per minute

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bradypnea

answer

..., slow respiratory rate, usually below 10 respirations per minute

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methods of artifical ventilation

answer

...Mouth to mask Two person bag valve Fropvd One person bag valve

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cricoid pressure

answer

..., Pressure on the trachea, prevents air from entering the esophagus/stomach and vomiting

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FROPVD

answer

..., flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device: a device that uses oxygen under pressure to deliver artifical ventilations. Its trigger is placed so that the rescuer can operate it while still using both hands to maintain a seal on the face mask. Has automatic flow restriction to prevent overdelivery of oxygen to the patient.

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rales

answer

..., abnormal crackling sound made during inspiration

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rhonchi

answer

..., lower-pitched sounds like snoring or rattling, secretions in larger airways (pneumonia, bronchitis, aspiration)

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paradoxus pulsus

answer

blood pressure declines as one inhales and increases as one exhales

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capillary refill

answer

..., tested by pressing the nail tip briefly and watching for color change. A normal finding is the pink tone returns immediately when pressure is released. An abnormal finding is slow (greater than 2 seconds) return of pink tonewith respiratory or cardiovascular diseases that cause hypoxia.

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Penetrating truma

answer

Made a cut through

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Blunt force trauma

answer

No cut but internal problem

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Hypercapnia

answer

Too much carbon dioxide

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Flexion posturing

answer

(Formerly known as decorticate posturing). Client flexes one or both arms on the chest and may extend the legs stiffly. Indicates nonfunctioning cortex. Lesions of cerebral hemispheres or internal structures of brain cause this posturing.

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Extension posturing

answer

A posture in which the pt arches the back and extends the arms straight out parallel to the body. A sign of serious head injury

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Occluded

answer

closed off

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Dyspnea

answer

difficult or labored respiration

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Hypoperfusion

answer

inadequate perfusion also known as shock

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Secondary assessment

answer

after immediate life- or limb-threatening injuries/illnesses have been identified, this more thorough evaluation is performed to identify more subtle, yet still important, injuries

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Physical exam, Baseline vitals, History

answer

Three major steps in secondary assessments

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Cerebrospinal fluid

answer

clear liquid produced in the ventricles of the brain

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Jugular vein distention

answer

the visible bulging of the jugular vein when the Pt is in semi-fowlers position or full fowlers position. this is indicative of inadaquate blood movement through the heart and/or lungs

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Tension pneumothorax

answer

a pneumothorax with rapid accumulation of air in the pleural space causing severely high intrapleural pressures with resultant tension on the heart and great vessels

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Pericardial tamponade

answer

filling of the pericardial sac with fluid, which in turn limits the filling and function of the heart.

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Sputum

answer

material expelled from the lungs by coughing

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What is PMS

answer

Pulses motor function Sensation

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MOI falls

answer

Adults 20 feet children/infants more than 10 feet or 2or3 times their height

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Glasgow coma scale

answer

Used for head trauma- Score 3-15, based on Eye opening, Verbal response and Motor response.

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less than 13

answer

Rapid transport (what's the number on the GCS)

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Brain herniation

answer

Increasing intracranial pressure related to the presence of lg pocket of blood (hematoma)

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Ruq

answer

contains majority of liver, gallbladder, small portion of pancreas, right kidney, small intestines, and colon.

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Luq

answer

stomach spleen left lobe of liver body of pancreas L kidney and

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Llq

answer

contains parts of the small and large intestines, left ovary, left fallopian tube, left ureter

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Rlq

answer

contains parts of the small and large intestines, right ovary, right fallopian tube, appendix, right ureter

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Sublingual

answer

beneath the tongue

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Oral

answer

Swallowed

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Inhalation

answer

breathing in

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Intramuscular

answer

into the muscle

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Right date, right patient, right drug, right dose, right route

answer

the 5 rights

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Shock

answer

Inadequate tissue perfusion Also know as hypoperfusion

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Types of shock

answer

Hypovolemic Distributive Cardiogenic Obstructive

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Hypovolemic shock

answer

shock caused by severe blood or fluid loss

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Distributive shock

answer

less distribution of blood to areas = venous pooling, most common in general anesthesia and spinal cord injuries and septic shock (bacterial infection where toxins in blood). cause: general anesthesia and spinal cord injuries and septic shock

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Cardiogenic shock

answer

shock that results from failure of the heart in its pumping action.

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Obstructive shock

answer

mechanical obstruction or compressing that prevents blood from reaching the heart

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Tension pneumonthorax

answer

A type of pneumothorax in which air can enter the pleural space but cannot escape via the route of entry. This leads to increased pressure in the pleural space, resulting in lung collapse. The increase in pressure also compresses the heart and vena cavae, which impairs circulation.

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Pericardial tamponade

answer

filling of the pericardial sac with fluid, which in turn limits the filling and function of the heart.

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Stages of shock

answer

1. Compensatory Shock 2. Decompensatory Shock 3. Irreversible Stage

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If patient been in cardiac arrest for more than 5 min and no CPR has been done what do you do

answer

Provide 2 min of CPR before ard

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aed shock then pulse check?

answer

No aed shock then 2min CPR then pulse check

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V-fib

answer

completely erratic rhythm with no identifiable waves; fatal

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V-tach

answer

Ventricular tachycardia (an increased ventricular heart rate).

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Asystole

answer

the absence of a heartbeat

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Pea

answer

pulseless electrical activity. Heart is doing something but not pumping

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Stop ambulance when using aed

answer

True and shut off engine

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Can I aed on 1-8 year olds

answer

Yes but prefer to use less electrical dose If u can't it is ok

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How many shocks can I give

answer

2-3 with CPR in-between

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Common diseases from wheezing

answer

Asthma Emphysema Chronic bronchitis

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Common diseases from rhonchi

answer

Aspiration Pneumonia Emphysema Chronic bronchitis

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Common diseases from crackles

answer

Pneumonia Pulmonary edema

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Dyspnea

answer

difficult or labored respiration

question

Apnea

answer

absence of breathing

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Hypoxia

answer

deficient amount of oxygen in tissue cells

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Respiratory Distress

answer

Indicates that a patient is breathing but is having trouble doing so. May lead to respiratory arrest.

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Respiratory Failure

answer

The reduction of breathing to the point where oxygen intake is not sufficient to support life

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Respiratory arrest

answer

When breathing completely stops.

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COPD

answer

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; chronic bronchitis - bronchiole lining inflamed, excess mucus formed; emphysema - walls of alveoli break down; HYPOXIC DRIVE (not in asthma)

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Emphysema

answer

obstructive pulmonary disease characterized by overexpansion of the alveoli with air, with destructive changes in their walls resulting in loss of lung elasticity and gas exchange

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Chronic bronchitis

answer

obstructive pulmonary disease characterized by excessive production of mucus and chronic inflammatory changes in the bronchi, resulting in a cough with expectoration for at least 3 months of the year for more than 2 consecutive years.

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Pneumonia

answer

acute inflammation and infection of alveoli, which fill with pus or products of the inflammatory reaction

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Pulmonary embolism

answer

blockage of the pulmonary artery by foreign matter or by a blood clot

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Acute pulmonary edema

answer

occurs when an excessive amount of fluid collects in the spaces between the alveoli and capillaries, disturbs normal gas exchange

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Pertussis

answer

Acute infectious disease characterized by a cough that has a "whoop" sound; also called whooping cough

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Sinoartrial node

answer

located in the upper portion of the "R" atrium. Has its own rhythm. Sets the basic pace for the cardiac rate.

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Atrioventricular node

answer

located in the lower wall of the right atrium; delays impulses from the SA node to allow the atria to completely empty before the ventricles contract

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Pulmonary arteries

answer

carry deoxygenated blood out of the right ventricle and into the lungs

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Pulmonary veins

answer

deliver oxygen rich blood from the lungs to the left atrium

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Coronary arteries

answer

the two arteries that supply blood to the heart muscle

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Thrombus

answer

a blood clot formed within a blood vessel and remaining attached to its place of origin

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Atherosclerosis

answer

the most common form of CVD; a disease characterized by plaques along the inner walls of the arteries.

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Acute coronary syndrome

answer

sudden symptoms of insufficient blood supply to the heart, sudden symptoms of insufficient blood supply to the heart indicating unstable angina or myocardial infarction

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Angina pectoris

answer

chest pain caused by a temporary loss of oxygenated blood to heart muscle often caused by narrowing of the coronary arteries

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How long does angina pain last

answer

2-15 min

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AMI

answer

acute myocardial infarction (heart attack)

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Aortic aneurysm

answer

congenital or developed weakness in wall of lower lumbar region (aorta), balloons out, anterior abdominal wall pulses, untreatable if ruptures

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Aortic Dissection

answer

damage may result in fatal bleeding, dissection is a condition where the inner layer of the wall of the aorta begins to tear; patient may complain of pain in the chest, abdomen or back will exhibit signs of shock

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CHF

answer

Congestive Heart Failure failure of the heart to pump blood away from the heart causing accumulation of fluid in the tissues and lungs

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Cardiac arrest

answer

The heart and breathing stop suddenly and without warning

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Neurological deficit

answer

any deficiency in the nervous system's functioning, typically exhibited as a motor, sensory, or cognitive deficit

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Stroke

answer

A medical injury to brain that is not related to truma

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Ischemic stroke

answer

the most common kind of stroke

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Hemorrhagic stroke

answer

stroke caused by the rupture of a blood vessel in the brain

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Thrombotic stroke

answer

type of stroke caused by a blood clot blocking an artery in the brain

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Embolic stroke

answer

a type of ischemic stroke that causes a clot to travel to the brain, mostly from the left side of the heart

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TIA

answer

transient ischemic attack; temporary interference with the blood supply to the brain

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Seizure

answer

sudden, transient disturbances in brain function resulting from abnormal firing of nerve impulses (may or may not be associated with convulsion)

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Epilepsy

answer

chronic brain disorder characterized by recurrent seizure activity

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Status epilepticus

answer

a condition in which there are continuing attacks of epilepsy without intervals of consciousness

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Grand mal

answer

generalized tonic-clonic (it is sudden cry, fall, rigidity, followed by muscle jerking; shallow, irregular breathing; possible loss of bladder or bowel control; usually lasts seconds to minutes, followed by some confusion, a period of sleep (postical lethargy), and then return to full consciousness.

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Simple partial seizures

answer

begins in one area can move, patient aware and conscious, expreience change in taste/smell cause nausea

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Complex partial seizure

answer

impairment of consciousness for a few min or less; usually has rhythmic movements of face or extremities

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Petit mal

answer

milder form with loss of consciousness for a few seconds. Common in children. May disappear by late adolescence

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Febrile seizure

answer

convulsions brought on by a fever in infants or small children. During a febrile seizure, a child often loses consciousness and shakes, moving limbs on both sides of the body.

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Syncope

answer

a sudden, and generally temporary, loss of consciousness and postural tone, due to inadequate flow of oxygenated blood to the brain (fainting)

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Glucose and sodium bring what with them?

answer

Water

question

Glycogen

answer

Storage form of glucose

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Glucagon

answer

a hormone secreted by the pancreas

question

Normal glucose

answer

80-120

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Glucose after meal

answer

120-140

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Glucose after 8-10hr of no food

answer

80-90

question

Hypoglycemia symptoms

answer

hunger, fatigue, weakness, sweating, headache, dizziness, low bp, cold or clammy skin

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Hyperglycemia symptoms

answer

lots of eating, peeing, drinking. blurred vision, fatigue, weight loss

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Type 1

answer

this type of diabetes mellitus is an autoimmune situation. The pancreas produces and releases NO insulin, so no glucose transport.

question

Type 2

answer

Diabetes mellitus initially begins with INSULIN RESISTANCE, where the cells are not able to use the insulin properly and pancreas loses its ability to produce adequate quantities of insulin.

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Where do I put epipen when done

answer

Sharp object container

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Acute abdomen

answer

sudden, sever abdominal pain that is less than 24 hours in duration

question

Peritoneum

answer

Double-layered membrane surrounding the abdominal organs

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Soild organs

answer

Spleen liver pacreas kidneys

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Hollow organs

answer

-stomach, small intestine, colon, bladder, gallbladder

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Distention

answer

swelling

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Visceral pain

answer

Pain is less severe and poorly localized because of lack of pain receptors on the organ pain is generalized

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Parietal pain

answer

More severe pain and more localized

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Hypothalamus

answer

a neural structure lying below the thalamus; directs eating, drinking, body temperature; helps govern the endocrine system via the pituitary gland, and is linked to emotion

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Convection

answer

Body heat lost to surrounding air, which becomes warmer then rises and is then replaced by cool air and then repeat the cycle

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Radiation

answer

Body heat is lost to the atmosphere or nearby objects without physically touching them

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Conduction

answer

Body heat is lost through direct physical touch of other objects

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5 Stages of hypothermia

answer

Shivering Apathy and decreased muscle function Decreased level of responsiveness Decreased vital signs Death

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Heat cramp

answer

muscle pain or spasm due largely to the loss of salt from the body from sweating, or inadequate intake of salt

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Heat exhaustion

answer

Occurs when the body's cooling mechanism have been expended Skin is normal to cool in temp Pale or Gregory in color And sweaty

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Heat stroke

answer

The failure of the heat-regulating ability of an individual under heat stress. Skin will be hot and red possibly not sweating

question

What temp and humidity are bad for the body to regulate temp

answer

90 degrees and 75 humidity

question

Low velocity injuries

answer

A knife or other impailed object in the body exerts damage to the immediate area of impact and it's underlying structures. The length of the object used is important

question

Medium and high velocity injuries

answer

Med/High velocity projectiles are from pellets or bullets. The damage caused, depends on the Trajectory and the dissipation of energy. Dissipation of energy is affected by Drag,Profile,Cavitation, & Fragmentation.

question

Primary phase injuries

answer

Are due to the pressure wave of the blast. Injuries primarly effect the gas-containing organs, such as the lungs, stomach, intestines, inner ears and sinuses. Death may occur from this stage w/o any sign of external injury

question

Cavacation

answer

Is the cavity that is formed by a pressure way

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Secondary phase injuires

answer

Are due to flying debris propelled by the blast They are usually lacerations fracture burns

question

Tertiary phase injuries

answer

Are due to being throw and then landing on the ground similar to being ejected out of a car

question

A loss of 15% of blood volume is

answer

Significant and can lead to shock

question

When can I apply a splint on scene

answer

To extremity fractures only if the patient is stable and there is no life threat

question

Epistaxis

answer

bleeding from the nose

question

Good indicator of internal blood loss

answer

Weak pulse the into fast pulse Also no radial pulse body brings blood to core

question

Narrow pulse pressure indicates

answer

Significant loss of blood

question

Factors that may increase bleeding

answer

Movement Low body temp clotting less effective Medication anticlotting like aspirin Intravenous fluids Removal of bandages

question

Epidermis

answer

an outer layer of cells designed to provide protection

question

Dermis

answer

second layer of skin, holding blood vessels, nerve endings, sweat glands, and hair follicles

question

Hypodermis

answer

tissue layer beneath the dermis; contains adipose tissue, a connective tissue that includes fat-storing cells and blood vessels

question

Superficial burn

answer

a burn that involves only the epidermis, the outer layer of the skin. It is characterized by reddening of the skin and perhaps some swelling. An example is a sunburn. Also called a first-degree burn.

question

Partial thickness burn

answer

a burn in which the first layer of skin (epidermis) is burned through and the dermis (second layer) is damaged. Burns of this type cause reddening, blistering, and a mottled appearence. (Also called second-degree burn).

question

Full thickness burn

answer

a burn in which all the layers of the skin are damaged. There are usually areas that are charred black or areas that are dry and white. Also called a third-degree burn.

question

Rule of nines

answer

A system that assigns percentages to sections of the body, allowing calculation of the amount of skin surface involved in the burn are, a method of estimating the extent of a burn. For an adult, each of the following surfaces represents 9% of the body surface: the head and neck, each upper extremity, the chest, the abdomen, the upper back, the lower back and buttocks, the front of each lower extremity, and the back of each lower extremity. The remaining 1% is assigned to the genital region. For an infant or child the percentages are modified so that 18% is assigned to the head, 14% to each lower extremity.

question

Acetabulum

answer

the cup-shaped hollow in the hipbone into which the head of the femur fits to form a ball-and-socket joint

question

What are two critical fractures

answer

Femur and pelvis

question

Subdural hematoma

answer

pertaining to below the dura mater, tumor of blood

question

Epidural hematoma

answer

temporoparietal skull fracture; tear middle meningeal artery

question

Secondary assessment for trauma major injury

answer

Rapid trauma assessment Vitals Sample

question

Secondary assessment for trauma minor injury

answer

Focused on injury Vitals Sample Then detailed exam in the back of truck

question

Secondary assessment for medical unresponsive

answer

Rapid trauma assessment Vitals Sample

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Secondary assessment for medical responsive

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Sample Focused on injury Vitals

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Glasgow scale

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This is an assessment tool used to determine consciousness in clients. The Score of 15 reveals a fully oriented person. 3 is deep coma., Used for head trauma- Score 3-15, based on Eye opening, Verbal response and Motor response.

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Rhyme for glasgow

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Evm 456 Eye 4 Verbal 5 Motor 6

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Hollow organ in abdominal

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Stomach Gallbladder Urinary bladder Ureters Internal urethra Fallopian tubes Intestines

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Solid organs in abdominal

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Liver Spleen Kidneys Pancreas

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Examples of hypovelemic shock

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Hemorrhagic loos whole blood Non hemmorrhgagic Fluid loss and burns

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Peritoneum

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a transparent membrane that lines the abdominal cavity in mammals and covers most of the viscera

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Abruptio placentae

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a disorder of pregnancy in which the placenta prematurely separates from the wall of the uterus

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Examples if distributive shock

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Septic Infection that causes the vessels to dilate Neurogenic Spinal cord injury cause vessels to dilate Anaphylactic Body wide vessel dilation

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Example of obstructive shock

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Pulmonary edema Blood can't move forward Pericardial tamponade Tension pneumothorax Both put pressure on Herat and can't fill appropriately

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Example of cardiogenic shock

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Heart attack Congenital heart failure Abnormal rhythm Beta blockers

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Bloody show

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the pink-tinged secretions that follow the loss of the mucous plug b/c of exposed cervical capillaries. this is a sign that labor will begin within 24-48 hours.

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Umbilical cord blood vessels

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Unique cause they do opposite Veins bring oxygen blood Arteries bring deoxygenated blood

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Red blood cell

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erythrocyte

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White blood cell

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blood cell that functions in defending the body against infections and cancer cells; also called a leukocyte

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Antepartum

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occurring or existing before birth

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What should I do with someone had a spontaneous abortio.

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Transport because there is lots of blood that may be lost

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Placenta previa

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pregnancy in which the placenta is implanted in the lower part of the uterus (instead of the upper part)

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What is a sign of placenta previa

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Bleeding but no pain

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Ruptured uterus sign

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Searing or tearing feeling in abdomen

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Ectopic pregnancy

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pregnancy resulting from gestation elsewhere than in the uterus

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Eclampsia

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a toxic condition characterized by convulsions and possibly coma during or immediately after pregnancy

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Preeclampsia

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abnormal state of pregnancy characterized by hypertension and fluid retention and albuminuria

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Supine hypertensive syndrome

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Pressure on the vena cava by baby when mother is in supine position

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Gravida

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the number of the pregnancy that a woman is in

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Para

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(obstetrics) the number of live-born children a woman has delivered

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Three stages of labor

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1) dilation 2) expulsion 3) placenta

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Dilation stage

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first stage of labor; the uterine muscle contracts strongly to expel the fetus; the fetus presses on the cervix and causes it to dilate or expand

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Expulsion stage

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When the baby is expelled from its mother's body

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Placenta stage

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placenta is expelled-afterbirth

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Perineum

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the general region between the anus and the genital organs

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Nuchal cord

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Umbilical cord around the neck; assess by as soon s the head is out of the vagina, run index finger around the neck; if unable to stretch over the babies head, clamp cord 2" apart and cut, then deliver as normal.

NREMT – Everything you need to know. – Flashcards

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