Negotiation All Chapters with T/F - Flashcards

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Which perspective can be used to understand different aspects of negotiation? A) economics B) psychology C) anthropology D) law E) All of the above perspectives can be used to understand different aspects of negotiation.

answer

E

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42. To most people the words "bargaining" and "negotiation" are A) mutually exclusive. B) interchangeable. C) not related. D) interdependent. E) None of the above.

answer

B

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A situation in which solutions exist so that both parties are trying to find a mutually acceptable solution to a complex conflict is known as which of the following? A) mutual gains B) win-lose C) zero-sum D) win-win E) None of the above.

answer

D

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44. Which is not a characteristic of a negotiation or bargaining situation? A) conflict between parties B) two or more parties involved C) an established set of rules D) a voluntary process E) None of the above is a characteristic of a negotiation.

answer

C

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45. Tangible factors A) include the price and terms of agreement. B) are psychological motivations that influence the negotiations. C) include the need to look good in negotiations. D) cannot be measured in quantifiable terms. E) None of the above statements describe tangible factors.

answer

A

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46. Which of the following is not an intangible factor in a negotiation? A) the need to look good B) final agreed price on a contract C) the desire to book more business D) fear of setting a precedent E) All of the above are intangible factors.

answer

B

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47. Interdependent parties' relationships are characterized by A) interlocking goals. B) solitary decision making. C) established procedures. D) rigid structures. E) Interdependent relationships are characterized by all of the above.

answer

A

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48. A zero-sum situation is also known by another name of a situation. Which of the following is that? A) integrative B) distributive C) win-lose D) negotiative E) None of the above.

answer

B

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49. BATNA stands for A) best alternative to a negotiated agreement. B) best assignment to a negotiated agreement. C) best alternative to a negative agreement. D) best alternative to a negative assignment. E) BATNA stands for none of the above.

answer

A

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50. What are the two dilemmas of negotiation? A) the dilemma of cost and the dilemma of profit margin B) the dilemma of honesty and the dilemma of profit margin C) the dilemma of trust and the dilemma of cost D) the dilemma of honesty and the dilemma of trust E) None of the above.

answer

D

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51. How much to believe of what the other party tells you A) depends on the reputation of the other party. B) is affected by the circumstances of the negotiation. C) is related to how he or she treated you in the past. D) is the dilemma of trust. E) All of the above.

answer

E

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52. Satisfaction with a negotiation is determined by A) the process through which an agreement is reached and the dollar value of concessions made by each party. B) the actual outcome obtained by the negotiation as compared to the initial bargaining positions of the negotiators. C) the process through which an agreement is reached and by the actual outcome obtained by the negotiation. D) the total dollar value of concessions made by each party. E) Satisfaction with a negotiation is determined by none of the above.

answer

C

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53. Which of the following statements about conflict is true? A) Conflict is the result of tangible factors. B) Conflict can occur when two parties are working toward the same goal and generally want the same outcome. C) Conflict only occurs when both parties want a very different settlement. D) Conflict has a minimal effect on interdependent relationships. E) All of the above statements about conflict are true.

answer

B

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54. In intragroup conflict, A) sources of conflict can include ideas, thoughts, emotions, values, predispositions, or drives that are in conflict with each other. B) conflict occurs between individual people. C) conflict affects the ability of the group to resolve differences and continue to achieve its goals effectively. D) conflict is quite intricate because of the large number of people involved and possible interactions between them. E) None of the above describes intragroup conflict.

answer

C

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55. Which of the following contribute to conflict's destructive image? A) increased communication B) misperception and bias C) clarifying issues D) minimized differences; magnified similarities E) All of the above contribute to conflict's destructive image.

answer

B

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56. In the Dual Concerns Model, the level of concern for the individual's own outcomes and the level of concern for the other's outcomes are referred to as the A) cooperativeness dimension and the competitiveness dimension. B) the assertiveness dimension and the competitiveness dimension. C) the competitiveness dimension and the aggressiveness dimension. D) the cooperativeness dimension and the assertiveness dimension. E) None of the above.

answer

D

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57. An individual who pursues his or her own outcomes strongly and shows little concern for whether the other party obtains his or her desired outcomes is using another of the following strategies. Which one? A) yielding B) compromising C) contending D) problem solving E) None of the above.

answer

C

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58. Negotiators pursuing the yielding strategy A) show little interest or concern in whether they attain their own outcomes, but are quite interested in whether the other party attains his or her outcomes. B) pursue their own outcome strongly and shows little concern for whether the other party obtains his or her desired outcome. C) shows little interest or concern in whether they attain their own outcomes, and does not show much concern about whether the other party obtains his or her outcomes. D) show high concern for attaining their own outcomes and high concern for whether the other attains his or her outcomes. E) Negotiators pursuing the yielding strategy demonstrate none of the above behaviors.

answer

A

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59. Parties pursuing one of the following strategies show little interest or concern in whether they attain their own outcomes, and do not show much concern about whether the other party obtains his or her outcomes. Which of the ones listed below? A) contending B) compromising C) problem solving D) yielding E) None of the above.

answer

E

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60. Whereas distributive bargaining is often characterized by mistrust and suspicion, integrative negotiation is characterized by which of the following? A) obligation and perseverance B) avoidance and compromise C) influence and persuasiveness D) trust and openness E) cognition and emotion

answer

D

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Negotiation is a process reserved only for the skilled diplomat, top salesperson, or ardent advocate for an organized lobby

answer

F

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Many of the most important factors that shape a negotiation result do not occur during the negotiation, but occur after the parties have negotiated.

answer

F

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Negotiation situations have fundamentally the same characteristics,

answer

T

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A creative negotiation that meets the objectives of all sides may not require compromise.

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T

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The parties prefer to negotiate and search for agreement rather than to fight openly, have one side dominate and the other capitulate, permanently break off contact, or take their dispute to a higher authority to resolve it

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T

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It is possible to ignore intangibles, because they affect our judgment about what is fair, or right, or appropriate in the resolution of the tangibles.

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F

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In any industry in which repeat business is done with the same parties, there is always a balance between pushing the limit on any particular negotiation and making sure the other party—and your relationship with him—survives intact.

answer

T

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When the goals of two or more people are interconnected so that only one can achieve the goal—such as running a race in which there will be only one winner—this is a competitive situation, also known as a non-zero-sum or distributive situation

answer

F

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Remember that every possible interdependency has an alternative; negotiators can always say "no" and walk away.

answer

T

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A zero-sum situation is a situation in which individuals are so linked together that there is a positive correlation between their goal attainments.

answer

F

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The value of a person's BATNA is always relative to the possible settlements available in the current negotiation, and the possibilities within a given negotiation are heavily influenced by the nature of the interdependence between the parties.

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T

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The effective negotiator needs to understand how people will adjust and readjust, and how the negotiations might twist and turn, based on one's own moves and the others' responses.

answer

T

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The pattern of give-and-take in negotiation is a characteristic exclusive to formal negotiations.

answer

F

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In contrast, non-zero-sum or integrative or mutual gains situations are ones where many people can achieve their goals and objectives.

answer

T

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Negotiators do not have to be versatile in their comfort and use of both major strategic approaches to be successful.

answer

F

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Differences in time preferences have the potential to create value in a negotiation.

answer

T

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Conflict doesn't usually occur when the two parties are working toward the same goal and generally want the same outcome.

answer

F

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Intragroup conflict occurs between groups.

answer

F

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Negotiation is a strategy for productively managing conflict.

answer

T

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The dual concerns model has two dimensions: the vertical dimension is often referred to as the cooperativeness dimension, and the horizontal dimension as the assertiveness dimension.

answer

T

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51. Distributive bargaining strategies A) are the most efficient negotiating strategies to use. B) are used in all interdependent relationships. C) are useful in maintaining long term relationships. D) can cause negotiators to ignore what the parties have in common. E) None of the above describes distributive bargaining strategies.

answer

D

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52. The target point is the A) point at which a negotiator would like to conclude negotiations. B) negotiator's bottom line. C) first offer a negotiator quotes to his opponent. D) initial price set by the seller. E) None of the above describes the target point.

answer

A

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53. Starting points A) are usually contained in the opening statements each negotiator makes. B) are usually learned or inferred as negotiations get under way. C) are not known to the other party. D) are given up as concessions are made. E) None of the above describes starting points.

answer

A

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54. The objective of both parties in distributive bargaining is to obtain as much of which of the following as possible? A) bargaining range B) resistance point C) target point D) bargaining mix E) None of the above.

answer

A

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55. The resistance point is established by the ____________ expected from a particular outcome, which is in turn the product of the ____________ and ____________ of an outcome. A) cost, value, worth B) value, worth, cost C) value, cost and timeliness D) cost, importance, value E) None of the above.

answer

B

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56. The more you can convince the other party that your costs of delay or aborting negotiations are ____________, the more modest will be the other's resistance point. A) high B) modest C) extreme D) low E) None of the above.

answer

D

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57. The more you can convince the other that you value a particular outcome outside the other's bargaining range, the more pressure you put on the other party to set by one of the following resistance points. A) high B) low C) modest D) extreme E) None of the above.

answer

C

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58. A large majority of agreements in distributive bargaining are reached when the deadline is A) near. B) flexible. C) past. D) undefined. E) None of the above.

answer

A

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59. Disruptive action tactics can cause A) embarrassment. B) increased costs. C) anger. D) escalation of conflict. E) Disruptive action tactics can cause all of the above.

answer

E

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60. The opening stance is A) another name for the first round of concessions. B) the first price that a buyer quotes to a seller. C) the attitude to adopt during the negotiation. D) a package of concessions. E) All of the above describe the opening stance.

answer

C

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61. The bargaining range is defined by A) the opening stance and the initial concession. B) the initial round of concessions. C) the bargaining mix and the opening stance. D) the opening offer and the counteroffer. E) The bargaining range is defined by all of the above.

answer

D

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62. What action can be taken after the first round of offers? A) hold firm B) insist on the original position C) make some concessions D) make no concessions E) All of the above.

answer

E

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63. Good distributive bargainers will A) begin negotiations with the other party with an opening offer close to their own resistance point. B) ensure that there is enough room in the bargaining range to make some concessions. C) accept an offer that is presented as a fait accompli. D) immediately identify the other party's target point. E) All of the above are actions that good distributive bargainers will take.

answer

B

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64. Parties feel better about a settlement when negotiations involve a(n) A) immediate settlement. B) single round of concessions. C) progression of concessions. D) fait accompli. E) All of the above.

answer

C

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65. What statement about concessions is false? A) Concessions are central to negotiations. B) Concessions is another word for adjustments in position. C) Concession making exposes the concession maker to some risk. D) Reciprocating concessions is a haphazard process. E) All of the above statements are true.

answer

D

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66. Concession making A) indicates an acknowledgment of the other party. B) shows a movement toward the other's position. C) implies a recognition of the legitimacy of the other party's position. D) recognizes the other party's position. E) All of the above are characteristics of concession making.

answer

E

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67. When successive concessions get smaller, the most obvious message is that A) the negotiator is reaching the fatigue point. B) the resistance point is being reached. C) the concession maker's position is weakening. D) the negotiator has passed the resistance point. E) None of the above.

answer

B

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68. Skilled negotiators may A) suggest different forms of a potential settlement that are worth about the same to them. B) recognize that not all issues are worth the same amount to both parties. C) frequently save a final small concession for near the end of the negotiation to "sweeten" the deal. D) make the last concession substantial to indicate that "this is the last offer". E) Skilled negotiators may take all of the above actions.

answer

E

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69. A commitment A) should not be interpreted as a threat. B) postpones the threat of future action. C) is designed to increase both parties' choices to a portfolio of options. D) removes ambiguity about the actor's intended course of action. E) All of the above.

answer

D

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70. A commitment statement should have a A) low degree of finality. B) high degree of specificity. C) an indefinite statement of consequences. D) a high degree of emotionality. E) None of the above should be included in a commitment statement.

answer

B

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71. Negotiators who make threats A) are perceived as more powerful than negotiators who do not use threats. B) receive higher outcomes than negotiators who do not use threats. C) are perceived as more cooperative in distributive negotiations. D) should use detailed, complex statements of demands, conditions and consequences. E) All of the above describe negotiators who make threats.

answer

A

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72. To prevent the other party from establishing a committed position, a negotiator could A) give them the opportunity to evaluate the matter fully. B) acknowledge the other's commitment. C) reiterate the commitment. D) make a joke about the commitment. E) None of the above should be used to prevent the other party from establishing a committed position.

answer

D

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73. Hardball tactics are designed to A) be used primarily against powerful negotiators. B) clarify the user's adherence to a distributive bargaining approach. C) pressure targeted parties to do things they would not otherwise do. D) eliminate risk for the person using the tactic. E) Hardball tactics are designed to accomplish all of the above.

answer

C

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74. Aggressive behavior tactics include A) the relentless push for further concessions. B) asking for the best offer early in negotiations. C) asking the other party to explain and justify their proposals item by item. D) forcing the other side to make many concessions to reach an agreement. E) Aggressive behavior tactics include all of the above.

answer

E

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75. The negotiator's basic strategy is to A) get information about the opposition and its positions. B) reach the final settlement as close to the other's resistance point as possible. C) convince members of the other party to change their minds about their ability to achieve their own goals. D) promote his or her own objectives as desirable, necessary, and inevitable. E) All of the above.

answer

B

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Distributive bargaining strategies are the only strategies that are effective in interdependent situations.

answer

F

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Distributive bargaining strategies and tactics are useful when a negotiator wants to maximize the value obtained in a single deal.

answer

T

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The resistance point is the point at which a negotiator would like to conclude negotiations.

answer

F

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Each party's resistance point is openly stated at the conclusion of negotiations.

answer

F

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Anything outside the bargaining range will be summarily rejected by one of the negotiators.

answer

T

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A negative bargaining range occurs when the buyer's resistance point is above the seller's.

answer

F

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Negotiations with a positive settlement range are obvious from the beginning.

answer

F

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A resistance point will be influenced by the cost an individual attaches to delay or difficulty in negotiation.

answer

T

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The more you can do to convince the other party that his or her costs of delay or aborting negotiations will be costly, the more likely he or she will be to establish a modest resistance point.

answer

T

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The first step for a negotiator completing a distributive bargaining negotiation is to obtain information about the other party's outcome values and resistance points.

answer

F

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In "calculated incompetence," the negotiator is intentionally given false or misleading information to reveal to the other party.

answer

F

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Selective presentation can be used to lead the other party to form the desired impression of your resistance point or to open up new possibilities for agreement that are more favorable to the presenter than those that currently exist.

answer

T

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Studies indicate that negotiators who make low or modest opening offers get higher settlements than do those who make extreme opening offers.

answer

F

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Parties feel better about a settlement when negotiations involve a progression of concessions.

answer

T

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If a major concession has been made on a significant point, it is expected that the return offer will be on the same item or one of similar weight and comparable magnitude.

answer

T

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A small concession late in negotiations may indicate that there is little room left to move.

answer

T

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It is important to signal to the other party with either behavior or words that the concessions are almost over.

answer

F

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One way negotiators may convey the message that "this is the last offer" is by making the last concession substantial.

answer

T

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A public commitment statement means that the wider the audience, the less likely the commitment will be changed.

answer

T

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All the advantages of a committed position work against a negotiator when the other party becomes committed, so it is important to try to prevent the other negotiator from becoming committed.

answer

T

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Hardball tactics work most effectively against powerful, well-prepared negotiators.

answer

F

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Hardball tactics are infallible if used properly.

answer

F

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To respond to hardball tactics, a negotiator must identify the tactic quickly and understand what it is and how it works.

answer

T

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The best response to the chicken tactic is to challenge the other party by responding with one's own chicken tactic, thereby calling the other's bluff.

answer

F

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An effective means of countering the intimidation tactic is to ignore it.

answer

T

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51. Which of the following is not an element of integrative negotiations? A) a focus on commonalties B) an attempt to address positions C) a required exchange of information and ideas D) the use of objective criteria for standards of performance E) All of the above are elements of integrative negotiations.

answer

B

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55. Which of the following processes is central to achieving almost all integrative agreements? A) moderating the free flow of information to ensure that each party's position is accurately stated B) exchanging information about each party's position on key issues C) emphasizing the commonalties between the parties D) searching for solutions that maximize the substantive outcome for both parties E) All of the above processes are central to achieving integrative agreements.

answer

C

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53. Which of the following is a major step in the integrative negotiation process? A) identifying and defining the problem B) understanding the problem and bringing interests and needs to the surface C) generating alternative solutions to the problem D) choosing a specific solution E) All of the above are major steps in the integrative negotiation process.

answer

E

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54. In which major step of the integrative negotiation process of identifying and defining the problem would you likely find that if the problem is complex and multifaceted the parties may not even be able to agree on a statement of the problem? A) define the problem in a way that is mutually acceptable to both sides. B) state the problem with an eye toward practicality and comprehensiveness. C) state the problem as a goal and identify the obstacles to attaining this goal. D) depersonalizing the problem. E) separate the problem definition from the search for solutions.

answer

B

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56. An interest is instrumental if A) the parties value it because it helps them derive other outcomes in the future. B) the parties value the interest in and of itself. C) it relates to "tangible issues" or the focal issues under negotiation. D) the relationship is valued for both its existence and for the pleasure that sustaining the relationship creates. E) All of the above relate to instrumental interests.

answer

B

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56. Substantive interests A) are the interests that relate to the focal issues under negotiation. B) are related to the way we settle the dispute. C) mean that one or both parties value their relationship with each other and do not want to take actions that will damage the relationship. D) regard what is fair, what is right, what is acceptable, what is ethical, or what has been done in the past and should be done in the future. E) All of the above relate to substantive interests.

answer

A

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57. Which of the following statements about interests is true? A) There is only one type of interest in a dispute. B) Parties are always in agreement about the type of interests at stake. C) Interests are often based in more deeply rooted human needs or values. D) Interests do not change during the course of an integrative negotiation. E) All of the above statements about interests are true.

answer

C

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58. Successful logrolling requires A) that the parties establish more than one issue in conflict and then agree to trade off among these issues so one party achieves a highly preferred outcome on the first issue and the other person achieves a highly preferred outcome on the second issue. B) no additional information about the other party than his/her interests, and assumes that simply enlarging the resources will solve the problem. C) that one party is allowed to obtain his/her objectives and he/she then "pays off" the other party for accommodating his/her interests. D) a fundamental reformulation of the problem such that the parties are disclosing sufficient information to discover their interests and needs and then inventing options that will satisfy both parties' needs. E) Successful logrolling requires all of the above.

answer

A

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59. What approach can parties use to generate alternative solutions by redefining the problem or problem set? A) brainstorming B) logrolling C) surveys D) nonspecific compensation E) None of the above approaches can be used to redefine the problem.

answer

D

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60. In nonspecific compensation A) resources are added in such a way that both sides can achieve their objectives. B) one party achieves his/her objectives and the other's costs are minimized if he/she agrees to go along. C) the parties are able to invent new options that meet each sides' needs. D) one person is allowed to obtain his/her objectives and "pay off" the other person for accommodating his interests. E) All of the above are related to nonspecific compensation.

answer

D

question

61. What questions can be asked to facilitate nonspecific compensation? A) What are the other party's goals and values? B) How can both parties get what they are demanding? C) What issues are of higher and lower priority to me? D) What risks and costs does my proposal create for the other? E) None of the above can be used to facilitate nonspecific compensation.

answer

A

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62. "What are the other's real underlying interests and needs?" is a question that can facilitate the _____________ process. A) expanding the pie B) logrolling C) nonspecific compensation D) bridging E) The question should not be used with any of the above processes.

answer

D

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63. In brainstorming A) individuals work in a large group to select a single optimal solution. B) all solutions are judged and critiqued as they are recorded, and a weighted-average percentage is assigned to each solution. C) parties are urged to be spontaneous and even impractical. D) the success of the approach depends on the item-by-item evaluation and critique of the solutions as presented. E) None of the above is a part of the brainstorming process.

answer

C

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64. When identifying options in an integrative negotiation, solutions are usually attained through: A) hard work B) information exchange C) focusing on interests rather than positions D) firm flexibility E) Solutions are attained by using all of the above.

answer

E

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65. When confronted with complex problems, or a large number of alternative options, which of the following steps is necessary? A) broaden the range of solution options B) evaluate solutions on the basis of quality, standards, and acceptability C) decide on criteria while evaluating options D) maintain a focus on the influence of tangibles in selecting options E) All of the above steps should be used when confronted with complex problems.

answer

B

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66. Which guideline should be used in evaluating options and reaching a consensus? A) keep the range of solution options as wide as possible B) evaluate the solutions on the basis of speed and expediency C) keep detailed records throughout the discussion and evaluation process D) be alert to the influence of intangibles in selecting options E) None of the above should be used in the evaluation process.

answer

D

question

67. A common goal is one in which A) all parties share the result equally B) the parties work toward a common end but benefit differently C) all parties work together to achieve some output that will be shared D) individuals with different personal goals agree to combine them in a collective effort. E) All of the above are characteristics of a common goal.

answer

B

question

68. A joint goal is one in which A) all parties share the result equally. B) the parties work toward a common end but benefit differently. C) individuals with different personal goals agree to combine them in a collective effort. D) all parties work together to achieve some output that will be shared. E) All of the above are characteristics of a common goal.

answer

C

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69. Which of the following is not necessary for integrative negotiation to succeed? A) Each party should be as interested in the objectives and problems of the other as each is in his/her own—each must assume responsibility for the other's needs and outcomes as well as for his/her own. B) The parties must be committed to a goal that benefits both of them rather than to pursuing only their own ends. C) The parties must be willing to adopt interpersonal styles that are more congenial than combative, more open and trusting than evasive and defensive, more flexible (but firm) than stubborn (but yielding). D) Needs have to be made explicit, similarities have to be identified, and differences have to be recognized and accepted. E) All of the above are essential for integrative negotiation to succeed.

answer

A

question

70. Which of the following is a major characteristic of a pre-settlement settlement? A) The settlement results in a firm, legally binding written agreement between the parties. B) It occurs in advance of the parties undertaking a full-scale negotiation. C) The parties intend that the agreement will be replaced by a more clearly delineated long-term agreement which is to be negotiated. D) It resolves only a subset of the issues on which the parties disagree, and may simply establish a framework within which the more comprehensive agreement can be defined and delineated. E) All of the above are characteristics of a pre-settlement settlement.

answer

E

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71. Which of the following factors does not contribute to the development of trust between negotiators? A) We are more likely to trust someone we perceive as similar to us or as holding a positive attitude toward us. B) We often mistrust people who are dependent upon us because we are in a position to help or hurt them. C) We are more likely to trust people who initiate cooperative, trusting behavior. D) We are more likely to trust negotiators who make concessions. E) All of the above contribute to the development of trust between negotiators.

answer

B

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72. When people do not trust each other they are more than likely to engage in which of the following behaviors? A) promoting collaboration B) communicating accurately C) positional bargaining D) committing to a joint solution E) none of the above

answer

C

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73. When formal channels of communication break down, negotiators are permitted to finding alternatives and can use which of the following? A) conversations over coffee breaks B) separate meetings between chief negotiators outside of the formal sessions C) off-the-record contacts between key subordinates D) all of the above E) none of the above

answer

D

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74. Integrative negotiation fails because A) negotiators fail to perceive the integrative potential of the negotiating problem. B) of distributive assumptions about the negotiation problem. C) of the mixed-motive nature of the issues. D) of the negotiator's previous relationship with one another. E) All of the above are reasons why integrative negotiations fail.

answer

E

question

75. Which of the following 5-step processes has been used successfully in a collective bargaining situation? A) commitment, explanation, validation, prioritization, negotiation B) commitment, exploration, verification, prioritization, negotiation C) collaboration, explanation, validation, prioritization, negotiation D) collaboration, exploration, verification, prioritization, negotiation E) None of the above processes have been used in collective bargaining.

answer

A

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In integrative negotiation, the goals of the parties are mutually exclusive.

answer

F

question

The failure to reach integrative agreements is often linked to the failure to exchange sufficient information that will allow the parties to identify integrative options.

answer

T

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Integrative agreements have been shown to be facilitated when parties exchanged information about their positions on particular issues, but not necessarily about their priorities on those issues.

answer

F

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Parties should enter the integrative negotiation process with few preconceptions about the solution.

answer

T

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For positive problem solving to occur, both parties must be committed to stating the problem in neutral terms.

answer

T

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An integrative negotiation problem should be defined as a solution process rather than as a specific goal to be attained.

answer

F

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In integrative negotiations, negotiators are encouraged to state the problem in terms of their preferred solution and to make concessions from these most desired alternatives.

answer

F

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If both parties understand the motivating factors for the other, they may recognize possible compatibilities in interests that permit them to invent positions which both will endorse as an acceptable settlement.

answer

T

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Intrinsic relationship interests exist when the parties derive positive benefits from the relationship and do not wish to endanger future benefits by souring it.

answer

F

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Focusing on interests allows parties to move beyond opening positions and demands to determine what the parties really want—what needs truly must be satisfied.

answer

T

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In logrolling, if the parties do in fact have different preferences on different issues, each party gets their most preferred outcome on their high priority issue and should be happy with the overall agreement.

answer

T

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"Expanding the pie" as a method of generating alternative solutions is a complex process, as it requires much more detailed information about the other party than do other methods.

answer

F

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Successful bridging requires a fundamental reformulation of the problem such that the parties are no longer squabbling over their positions; instead, they are disclosing sufficient information to discover their interests and needs and then inventing options that will satisfy both parties' needs.

answer

T

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In generating alternative solutions to the problem, groups should also adopt procedures for defining the problem, defining the interests, and generating options, however, to prevent the group process from degenerating into a win-lose competition or a debating event.

answer

T

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In brainstorming, participants are urged to be spontaneous, even impractical, and to censor anyone's ideas (including their own).

answer

F

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Whether the integrative negotiation is simple or complex, the evaluation and selection steps must always be kept separate, or a contamination of the negotiation effort may occur after an informal decision has already been made.

answer

F

question

When a specific solution must meet the criteria of both quality and acceptability, those evaluating the solution options may have to be prepared to make trade-offs between the two to insure that both criteria are met.

answer

T

question

Intangibles can lead the negotiator to fight harder to attain a particular solution option if that option satisfies both tangibles and intangibles.

answer

T

question

In integrative negotiation, decisions must be finalized in each step of the negotiation process.

answer

F

question

A common goal is one in which all parties share the result equally.

answer

T

question

Negotiators who are firmer about insisting that their own point of view become incorporated into the group solution achieve less integrative agreements than those who are less firm.

answer

F

question

For successful integrative negotiation to occur, each party should be as interested in the objectives and problems of the other side as each is in his own.

answer

F

question

Although there is no guarantee that trust will lead to collaboration, there is plenty of evidence to suggest that mistrust inhibits collaboration.

answer

T

question

Multiple communication channels should not be used as they inevitably pass along inaccurate and confusing information.

answer

F

question

Most situations are mixed-motive negotiations, containing some elements that require distributive bargaining processes, and others that require integrative negotiation.

answer

T

question

Negotiators usually set clear objectives that can serve as standards for evaluating offers and packages.

answer

F

question

If what we want exceeds what the other party is capable of or willing to give, we must either change our goals or end the negotiation.

answer

T

question

The pursuit of only a singular, substantive goal often tends to support the choice of a competitive strategy.

answer

T

question

If both substance and relationship outcomes are important, the negotiator should pursue a competitive strategy.

answer

F

question

A competitive strategy would be appropriate when the relationship outcome is relatively more important to the strategizer than the substantive outcome.

answer

F

question

Distributive strategies may generate a pattern of constantly giving in to keep the other happy or to avoid a fight.

answer

F

question

The objective of "closing the deal" is to build commitment to the agreement.

answer

T

question

The dominant force for success in negotiation is in the dialogue that takes place prior to the planning.

answer

F

question

A single planning process can be followed for both a distributive and an integrative process.

answer

T

question

All negotiations consist of multiple issues.

answer

F

question

Single-issue negotiations can often be made integrative by working to decrease the number of issues.

answer

F

question

Single-issue negotiations and the absence of a long-term relationship with the other party are the strongest drivers of claiming value strategies.

answer

T

question

Large bargaining mixes allow many possible components and arrangements for settlement.

answer

T

question

It is important to set priorities and possibly assign points for both tangible and intangible issues.

answer

T

question

Interests may be process-based and relationship-based.

answer

T

question

Interests are what a negotiator wants.

answer

F

question

Alternatives are very important in both distributive and integrative processes because they define whether the current outcome is better than any other possibility.

answer

T

question

It is not possible to evaluate packages the same way as evaluating individual issues.

answer

F

question

If intangibles are a key point of the bargaining mix, negotiators must know the point at which they are willing to abandon the pursuit of an intangible in favor of substantial gains on tangibles.

answer

T

question

Context issues (e.g., history of the relationship) can affect negotiation.

answer

T

question

Gathering information about the other party is a critical step in preparing for negotiation.

answer

T

question

It is sufficient to learn about the other party's interests and resources.

answer

F

question

In a distributive negotiation, the other party may be less likely to disclose information about their limits and alternatives.

answer

T

question

Drawing up a firm list of issues before the initial negotiation meeting is a valuable process because it forces negotiators to think through their positions and decide on objectives.

answer

T

question

In new bargaining relationships, discussions about procedural issues should occur after the major substantive issues are raised.

answer

F

question

51. What are the most critical precursors for achieving negotiation objectives? A) Effective strategizing, planning and preparation B) goal setting and target planning C) defining frames and setting goals D) framing and strategizing E) none of the above

answer

A

question

52. Which of the following is not a reason that negotiations fail? A) Allowing insufficient time for planning B) Failing to set clear objectives C) Understanding the strengths and weaknesses of their and the other party's positions D) Depending on being quick and clever during negotiations

answer

C

question

53. A negotiator's goals: A) are intrinsically in conflict with his opponent's goals B) have no boundaries or limits C) are explicitly stated wishes D) must be reasonably attainable E) all of the above

answer

D

question

54. The less concrete and measurable goals are: A) the harder it is to communicate to the other party what we want B) the easier it is to understand what your opponent wants C) the easier it is to determine whether a particular outcome satisfies our goals D) the harder it is to restate what the initial goal was E) all of the above

answer

A

question

55. Which is not a difference between strategy and tactics? A) Scale B) Goals C) Perspective D) Immediacy

answer

B

question

56. A strong interest in achieving only substantive outcomes tends to support which of the following strategies? A) collaborative B) accommodating C) competitive D) avoidance E) none of the above

answer

C

question

57. A strong interest in achieving only the relationship outcomes suggests one, if any, of the following strategies. Which one? A) competitive B) accommodation C) collaborative D) avoidance E) none of the above

answer

B

question

58. Avoidance could best be used when: A) negotiation is necessary to meet your needs B) the time and effort to negotiate are negligible C) the available alternatives are very strong D) the only available negotiator is a senior manager. E) all of the above

answer

C

question

59. Which one of the following is as much a win-lose strategy as competition, although it has a decidedly different image? A) collaboration B) avoidance C) engagement D) accommodation

answer

D

question

60. Characteristics of collaborative strategies include: A) long-term focus B) trust and openness C) efforts to find mutually satisfying solutions D) pursuit of goals held jointly with others E) all of the above

answer

E

question

61. In an accommodative negotiation, the relationships have: A) a short-term focus B) a long-term focus C) may be either short term or long term D) none of the above

answer

C

question

62. Accommodative strategies emphasize: A) Subordinating one's own goals in favor of those of others. B) Secrecy and defensiveness C) Abandonment of bad images and consideration of ideas based on merit D) A key attitude of "I win; you lose" E) All of the above

answer

A

question

63. Getting to know the other party and understanding similarities and differences represents what key step in the negotiation process: A) preparation B) information gathering C) relationship building D) information using E) None of the above

answer

C

question

64. The general structure of a phase model of negotiations involves: A) Three phases: initiation; problem-solving; resolution B) Four phases: pre-initiation; initiation; problem-solving; resolution C) Two phases: problem-solving and resolution D) None of the above

answer

A

question

65. Which is not a key step to an ideal negotiation process? A) Preparation B) Relationship Building C) Information Gathering D) Bidding E) All of the above are key steps

answer

E

question

66. What is the dominant force for success in negotiation? A) a distributive vs. integrative strategy B) the planning that takes place prior to the dialogue C) the discussions that precede planning sessions D) the tactics selected in support of strategic goals E) all of the above

answer

B

question

67. Effective planning requires hard work on the following points: A) Defining the issues B) Defining the bargaining limit C) Defining interests D) Defining limits and alternatives E) All of the above

answer

E

question

68. Interests can be: A) substantive, directly related to the focal issues under negotiation B) process based, related to the manner in which we settle this dispute C) relationship based, tied to the current or desired future relationship between the parties D) based in the intangibles of the negotiation E) all of the above

answer

E

question

69. Which is not true of limits? A) Are the point where you should stop the negotiation B) Are also called resistance point C) Establishing them is a critical part of planning D) They should be ignored in a bidding war E) All of the above

answer

D

question

70. Does any of the following represent the point at which we realistically expect to achieve a settlement? A) specific target point B) resistance point C) alternative D) asking price E) none of the above

answer

A

question

71. Which represents the best deal we can possibly hope to achieve? A) specific target point B) resistance point C) alternative D) asking price E) none of the above

answer

D

question

72. Reactive strategies: A) encourage negotiators to be more flexible and creative B) can efficiently clear up confusion about issues C) will lessen a negotiator's defensive posture D) can make negotiators feel threatened and defensive E) none of the above

answer

D

question

73. If the other party has a strong and viable alternative, he/she will A) be dependent on achieving a satisfactory agreement B) appear aggressive and hostile in negotiations C) set and push for high objectives D) have unlimited negotiating authority E) all of the above

answer

C

question

74. A negotiator should ask which of the following questions when presenting issues to the other party to assemble information. A) What facts support my point of view? B) Whom may I consult or take with to help me elaborate or clarify the facts? C) What is the other party's point of view likely to be? D) How can I develop and present the facts so they are most convincing? E) All of the above questions should be asked.

answer

E

question

75. Under which of the following questions of protocol would you find a bargaining relationship discussion about procedural issues that should occur before the major substantive ones have been raised? A) What agenda should we follow? B) Where should we negotiate? C) What is the time period of the negotiation? D) What might be done if negotiation fails? E) How will we keep track of what is agreed to?

answer

E

question

Perception is the process by which individuals "connect" to their environment.

answer

T

question

Stereotyping and halo effects are examples of perceptual distortion by the anticipation of encountering certain attributes and qualities in another person.

answer

F

question

Halo effects can be positive or negative.

answer

T

question

If perceptual distortions and initial assumptions are correct, then negotiators may not be able to reverse their effects.

answer

F

question

A perceptual bias is the subjective mechanism through which people evaluate and make sense out of situations.

answer

F

question

Framing is about focusing, shaping, and organizing the world around us but does not define persons, events or processes.

answer

F

question

Frames are important in negotiation because disputes are often nebulous and open to different interpretations.

answer

T

question

A characterization frame can clearly be shaped by experience with the other party but identity frames (of self) tend to be negative while the characterization frames tend to be positive.

answer

F

question

The frames of those who hear or interpret communication may create biases of their own.

answer

T

question

Parties are likely to assume a particular frame because of one factor.

answer

F

question

Disputes over rights are sometimes referred to formal or informal arbitrators to decide whose standards or rights are more appropriate.

answer

T

question

The definition of issues at stake in a negotiation may not change as the discussion evolves.

answer

F

question

Early in a negotiation, it is common for the parties to "talk past each other."

answer

F

question

When brought into the conversation, these secondary concerns often transform the conversation about the primary issues.

answer

T

question

The way an issue is framed will not influence how negotiators perceive risk and behave in relation to it.

answer

F

question

Negotiators always ask about the other party's perceptions and thoughts.

answer

F

question

The question of how best to manage perceptual and cognitive bias is not a difficult one.

answer

F

question

Reframing does not require negotiators to be flexible during a negotiation but they should anticipate that multiple contingencies may arise during negotiations...

answer

F

question

Telling people about a perceptual or cognitive bias, or having them discuss things in a group meeting, will make the bias go away.

answer

F

question

Negotiators who feel positive emotions are more likely to be inflexible in how they arrive at a solution to a problem.

answer

F

question

41. Perception is A) the process by which individuals connect to their environment. B) strongly influenced by the receiver's current state of mind, role and understanding or comprehension of earlier communications. C) a factor that can affect how meanings are ascribed. D) a complex physical and psychological process. E) All of the above describe perception.

answer

E

question

42. Which of the following lists the stages of the perceptual process in the correct order? A) stimulus, translation, attention, recognition, behavior B) stimulus, behavior, translation, attention, recognition C) stimulus, attention, recognition, translation, behavior D) behavior, stimulus, recognition, attention, translation E) None of the above lists the stages of the perceptual process in the correct order.

answer

C

question

43. Halo effects occur when A) attributes are assigned to an individual solely on the basis of his or her membership in a particular social or demographic group. B) people generalize about a variety of attributes based on the knowledge of one attribute of an individual. C) the perceiver singles out certain information that supports or reinforces a prior belief, and filters out information that does not confirm that belief. D) people ascribe to others the characteristics or feelings that they possess themselves. E) All of the above describe halo effects.

answer

B

question

44. Projection occurs when A) attributes are assigned to an individual solely on the basis of his or her membership in a particular social or demographic group. B) people generalize about a variety of attributes based on the knowledge of one attribute of an individual. C) the perceiver singles out certain information that supports or reinforces a prior belief, and filters out information that does not confirm that belief. D) people ascribe to others the characteristics or feelings that they possess themselves. E) All of the above describe projection.

answer

D

question

45. Frames are important in negotiation because A) they allow parties to develop separate definitions of the issues B) they can be avoided C) disputes are often nebulous and open to different interpretations D) do not allow negotiators to articulate an aspect of a complex social situation E) all of the above

answer

C

question

46. In which type of frame would parties be more likely to engage primarily in distributive (win-lose or lose-lose) negotiations than in other types? A) Identity B) Loss-gain C) Outcome D) Process E) Substantive

answer

C

question

47. An insight drawn from research of the frames negotiators use in disputes would suggest that parties discussing salary may be likely to use outcome frames and may be related to which of the following. A) Negotiators can use more than one frame. B) Mismatches in frames between parties are sources of conflict. C) Particular types of frames may led to particular types of agreements. D) Specific frames may be likely to be used with certain types of issues. E) Parties are likely to assume a particular frame because of various factors.

answer

D

question

48. Those attempting to negotiate in China recognize the value the Chinese place in saving "face." Which of the following cultural elements should also be examined in approaching discussions with the Chinese? A) Social linkage B) Harmony C) Roles D) Reciprocal obligations E) All of the above should be considered

answer

D

question

49. Frames are shaped by conversations that the parties have with each other about the issues in the bargaining mix. Which of the following factors can affect how the conversation is shaped? A) Negotiators tend to argue for stock issues, or concerns that are raised every time the parties negotiate. B) Each party attempts to make the best possible case for his or her preferred position or perspective. C) Frames may define major shifts and transitions in a complex overall negotiation. D) Multiple agenda items operate to shape issue development. E) All of the above contribute to the shaping of the conversation.

answer

E

question

50. One of the most important aspects of framing as issue development is the process of reframing, or the manner in which the thrust, tone, and focus of a conversation change as the parties engage in it. Reframing is or occurs: A) the way parties challenge each other, as they present their own case or refute the other's. B) a dynamic process that may occur many times in a conversation. C) when using metaphors, analogies, or specific cases to illustrate a point. D) and may be used intentionally by one side or the other. E) all of the above apply to reframing as parties often propose new ways to approach a problem.

answer

E

question

51. The irrational escalation of commitment bias refers to A) the standard against which subsequent adjustments are measured during negotiation. B) the perspective or point of view that people use when they gather information and solve problems. C) how easily information can be recalled and used to inform or evaluate a process of a decision. D) a negotiator's commitment to a course of action, even when that commitment constitutes irrational behavior on his/her part. E) None of the above refer to irrational escalation of commitment.

answer

D

question

52. Which of the following is not a cognitive bias? A) the irrational escalation of commitment B) the belief that the issues under negotiation are all "fixed pie" C) the process of anchoring and adjustment in decision making D) the winner's curse E) All of the above are cognitive biases.

answer

E

question

53. The availability of information bias operates with which of the following statements? A) when negotiators sometimes maintain commitment to a course of action even when that commitment constitutes irrational behavior on their part. B) when thorough preparation, along with the use of a devil's advocate or reality check, can help prevent errors. C) when information that is presented in vivid, colorful, or attention-getting ways becomes easy to recall, and thus also becomes central and critical in evaluating events and options. D) when the tendency of negotiators to believe that their ability to be correct or accurate is greater than is actually true E) when the tendency will often lead to a self-fulfilling prophecy, as follows: People who expect to be treated in a distributive manner will (1) be more likely to perceive the other party's behavior as distributive, and (2) treat the other party in a more distributive manner

answer

C

question

54. Which of the following cognitive biases can lead negotiators to discount the worth or validity of the judgment of others? A) Irrational escalation of commitment B) Mythical fixed-pie beliefs C) Anchoring and adjustment D) Availability of information E) Overconfidence

answer

E

question

55. The Endowment Effect A) is making attributions to the person or the situation B) is drawing conclusions from small sample sizes C) is negotiators believing that their ability to be correct or accurate is greater than actually true D) is the tendency to overvalue something you own or believe you possess

answer

D

question

56. Reactive devaluation A) leads negotiators to minimize the magnitude of a concession made by a disliked other. B) leads to reduced willingness to respond with a concession of equal size. C) may be minimized by maintaining a more objective view of the process. D) can lead to motivation to seek even more once a concession has been made. E) All of the above are elements of reactive devaluation.

answer

E

question

57. The best way to manage perceptual and cognitive biases is: A) to be aware that they exist. B) to participate in group discussions. C) to tell people about the bias. D) complete a questionnaire. E) All of the above help manage biases but may not be enough in and of themselves.

answer

E

question

58. The distinction between mood and emotion is based on which of the following characteristics? A) specificity B) intensity C) duration D) all of the above E) none of the above

answer

D

question

59. Negative emotions may lead parties to A) more integrative processes B) escalate the conflict C) promote persistence D) define the situation as integrative E) more integrative outcomes

answer

B

question

60. Which of the following statements about how emotion plays a part in negotiation is accurate? A) Negotiations only create negative emotions. B) Positive feelings do not promote persistence. C) Negative feelings may create positive outcomes. D) Positive emotion may result from impasse. E) Negative emotions do not undermine a negotiator's ability to analyze a situation accurately.

answer

C

question

Most communication, particularly in negotiation, involves give-and-take dialogue and discussion between at least two parties.

answer

T

question

Communication "works" to the degree that a wide variety of information is completely and thoroughly shared among the parties, and mutual understanding is reached.

answer

T

question

The elements of the communication model and the linkages among them are invulnerable to external factors.

answer

F

question

The more diverse the goals of the two parties, or the more antagonistic they are in their relationship, the lesser the likelihood that distortions and errors in communication will occur.

answer

F

question

The more prone we are to use symbolic communication, the more likely it is that the symbols we choose may not accurately communicate the meaning we intend.

answer

T

question

Decoding can be defined as the process by which messages are put into symbolic form.

answer

F

question

One-way communication is the only instance in which feedback is not essential to the communication process.

answer

F

question

While the blend of integrative versus distributive communication content varies as a function of the issues being discussed, it is also clear that the content of communication is only partly responsible for negotiation outcomes.

answer

T

question

Thompson et al. found that winners and losers evaluated their own outcomes equally when they did not know how well the other party had done, but if they found out that the other negotiator had done better, or was even pleased with his or her outcome, then negotiators felt less positive about their own outcome.

answer

T

question

Mitigating circumstances occur where negotiators explain their positions from a broader perspective, suggesting that while their current position may appear negative it derives from positive motives.

answer

F

question

Sitkin and Bies suggest that negotiators who use multiple explanations are more likely to have better outcomes and that the negative effects of poor outcomes can be mitigated by communicating explanations for them.

answer

T

question

Low verbal immediacy is intended to engage or compel the other party, while high verbal immediacy is intended to create a sense of distance or aloofness.

answer

F

question

High levels of language intensity are used to convey strong feelings in the recipient, while low intensity conveys weak feelings.

answer

T

question

A negotiator's choice of words may only signal a position; it may never shape or predict it.

answer

F

question

Manageable questions cause difficulty, give information, and bring the discussion to a false conclusion.

answer

F

question

31. In which of the following examples is the communication model listed in the correct order? A) sender encodes the message, message is transmitted, receiver decodes the message, receiver provides feedback to the sender B) message is transmitted, sender encodes the message, receiver decodes the message, receiver provides feedback to the sender C) sender encodes the message, receiver decodes the message, message is transmitted, receiver provides feedback to the sender D) sender encodes the message, message is transmitted, receiver provides feedback to the sender, receiver decodes the message E) None of the above list the communication process in the correct order.

answer

A

question

32. Encoding can be defined as A) the facts, ideas, feelings, reactions, or thoughts that exist within individuals and act as a set of filters for interpreting the decoded messages. B) the process by which messages are put into symbolic form. C) the process of translating messages from their symbolic form into a form that makes sense. D) the process by which the receiver reacts to the sender's message. E) Decoding can be defined as all of the above.

answer

C

question

33. Which of the following would be likely to distort messages and their meaning, preventing them from being understood completely? A) shared or common goals between the sender and receiver B) the elimination of distraction and confusion in the communication environment C) the avoidance of symbolic communication D) the congruence or incongruence between multiple transmission channels E) All of the above would be likely to distort messages and their meaning.

answer

D

question

34. "Interpretation" can be defined as A) the process by which the receiver reacts to the sender's message. B) the process of screening, selecting, and interpreting stimuli so that they have meaning to the individual. C) the facts, ideas, feelings, reactions, or thoughts that exist within individuals and act as a set of filters for interpreting the decoded messages. D) small amounts of perceptual information that are used to draw large conclusions about individuals. E) None of the above define "interpretation."

answer

C

question

35. The presence of feedback can A) distort communication in negotiation. B) lead negotiators to change the way that they negotiate or evaluate negotiation outcomes. C) influence the offers that negotiators make. D) motivate the sender to change his or her behavior, either in a positive or negative direction. E) The presence of feedback can cause all of the above to occur.

answer

E

question

36. Define exonerating circumstances. A) Negotiators suggest that they had no choice in taking the positions they did. B) Negotiators explain their positions from a broader perspective, suggesting that while their current position may appear negative it derives from positive motives. C) Outcomes can be explained by changing the context. D) Negotiators who use multiple explanations are more likely to have better outcomes. E) None of the above can define exonerating circumstances.

answer

B

question

37. Which of the following is not one of the five linguistic dimensions of making threats? A) the use of polarized language B) the conveyance of verbal immediacy C) the degree of lexical diversity D) the extent of low-power language style E) All of the above are elements of the five linguistic dimensions of making threats.

answer

D

question

38. Gibbons, Bradac, and Busch suggest that threats can be made more credible and more compelling by using A) positively polarized descriptions of the other party. B) low immediacy. C) high intensity. D) low verbal diversity. E) None of the above can make threats more credible and compelling.

answer

C

question

39. Which of the following is not one of the four biases that threaten e-mail negotiations? A) Temporal synchrony bias is the tendency for e-mail negotiators to behave as if they are in a synchronous situation when they are not (parties are not working on the same time frame). B) Sinister attribution bias occurs when one mistakenly assumes that another's behavior is caused by personality flaws, while overlooking the role of situational factors (dissimilarity between parties and shortage of rapport may exist among e-mail lead individuals to project sinister and deceitful motives onto the other party). C) Impasse in e-mail negotiations bias is the tendency for the negotiators to disclose personal information through e-mail about themselves and the issues with the other party (no mutual self-disclosure on the part of the out-group party). D) Burned bridge bias is the tendency for individuals to employ risky behavior during e-mail negotiations that they would not use during a face-to-face encounter (negotiators may be more willing to challenge the other party). E) Squeaky wheel bias is the tendency for e-mail negotiators to use a negative emotional style to achieve their goals (resort to intimidation, rude behavior, poor etiquette to achieve outcomes).

answer

C

question

40. What are the most dominant contributors to breakdowns and failures in negotiation? A) failures and distortions in perception, meaning, and feedback B) failures and distortions in perception, feedback, and behaviors C) failures and distortions in perception, communication, and framing D) failures and distortions in perception, cognition, and communication. E) None of the above contribute to breakdowns and failures in negotiation.

answer

D

question

41. Which of the following are types of manageable questions? A) close-out questions that force the other party into seeing things your way B) leading questions that point toward an answer C) impulse questions that occur "on the spur of the moment," without planning D) loaded questions that put the other party on the spot regardless of his/her answer E) None of the above are types of manageable questions.

answer

B

question

42. Questions can be used to A) manage difficult or stalled negotiations. B) pry or lever a negotiation out of a breakdown or an apparent dead end. C) assist or force the other party to face up to the effects or consequences of their behaviors. D) collect and diagnose information. E) Questions can be used for all of the above.

answer

E

question

43. In passive listening A) the receivers restate or paraphrase the sender's message in their own language. B) the receivers interject responses to keep communicators sending messages. C) the receiver provides no feedback to the sender about the accuracy or completeness of reception. D) senders may misinterpret acknowledgments as the receiver's agreement with their position, rather than that they are simply receiving the message. E) None of the above occurs in passive listening.

answer

C

question

44. Successful reflective responding can be characterized by A) a greater emphasis on speaking than listening. B) responding to abstract rather than personal points. C) following the other rather than leading him or her into areas that the listener thinks should be explored. D) suggesting or questioning what the speaker should be thinking or feeling. E) All of the above are characteristics of reflective responding.

answer

C

question

45. Research supports which conclusion about role reversal? A) Role reversal is effective in producing cognitive changes but not attitude changes. B) When parties' positions are fundamentally compatible with one another, role reversal is likely to produce better results. C) When parties' positions are fundamentally incompatible; role reversal may dull the perceptions of incompatibility. D) Role reversal leads to easier resolutions of conflict, particularly when accurate communication reveals a fundamental incompatibility in the positions of the two sides. E) All of the above conclusions are supported by research.

answer

B

question

31. Tactics designed to create power equalization are often employed as a way to A) gain advantage in a distributive bargaining situation. B) block the other's power moves. C) level the playing field. D) diminish the expert power of the other party. E) Tactics designed to create power equalization are often employed to accomplish all of the above.

answer

C

question

32. Lytle and her colleagues found that most negotiators cycled through three strategies during the same encounters. Which are the three strategies? A) interests, information, effectiveness. B) effectiveness, coercion, deception. C) interests, rights, power. D) deception, reward, position. E) information, position, rights.

answer

C

question

33. Nearly 50 years ago there were five major types of sources of power that could be exercised. All but one of the following is part of that group. Which one is not? A) Personal power. B) Reward power. C) Coercive power. D) Legitimate power. E) Referent power.

answer

A

question

34. Which of the following is not a major source of power from one of the five different groupings? A) Informational sources of power. B) Personal sources of power. C) Organizational sources of power. D) Relationship-based sources of power. E) Contextual sources of power.

answer

C

question

35. Information as a source of power is A) the accumulation and presentation of data to change the other person's point of view or position on an issue. B) an acknowledged accumulation of information, or mastery of a body of information, on a particular problem or issue. C) the accumulation of money, raw material, manpower, time or equipment which can by used to create incentives for other people to comply, or as threats and punishments if they do not comply. D) power derived from being located in a particular position in an organizational or communication structure. E) Information as a source of power is all of the above.

answer

A

question

36. Expert power is A) accorded to those who are seen as having achieved some level of command and mastery of specific information. B) derived from the ability to allocate, dispense, or withhold resources. C) derived from occupying a particular job, office, or position in an organizational hierarchy. D) derived from the ability to assemble and organize information to support the desired position, arguments, or outcomes. E) All of the above are characteristics of expert power.

answer

A

question

37. In which of the following types of power based on personality and individual differences would you find a person characterized by beliefs that power is distributed relatively equally across various groups, which compete and bargain for a share of the continually evolving balance of power? A) the unitarian. B) the radical. C) the pluralist. D) the idealist. E) the conformist.

answer

C

question

38. Legitimate power and its effectiveness of formal authority that are derived from the willingness of the followers to: A) create a group structure that gives one person a power base, group members generate a willingness within themselves to obey that person's directives. B) willingly give up their right to participate in every decision by vesting authority in someone who can act on their behalf. C) acknowledge the legitimacy of the organizational structure and the system of rules and regulations that empowers its leaders. D) simply show respect for a person's position or organization. E) All of the above contribute to the effectiveness of legitimate power.

answer

E

question

39. Which of the following statements about legitimate power is false? A) Legitimate power is at the foundation of our social structure. B) Social structures are inherently inefficient, and this realization creates the basis for legitimate power. C) Legitimate power cannot function without obedience. D) Legitimate power is often derived from manipulating other sources of power. E) All of the above statements about legitimate power are true.

answer

B

question

40. Resources are more useful as instruments of power to the extent they are highly valued be participants in the negotiation. Which of the following is not a resource of organizational context? A) Money, in its various forms. B) Supplies, in form of materials, components, parts. C) Human capital in available labor supply, staff, temporary help. D) Critical services, in repairs, upkeep, technical support. E) Stress, in imposing deadlines, increasing workloads,

answer

E

question

81. Cooperative goals tend to shape the "power with" orientation, even between superiors and subordinates. These goals induce higher expectations of all but one of the following. Which one? A) To perform effectively and achieve common objectives. B) To reinforce or enhance existing power differences. C) For more assistance and greater support. D) For more trusting and friendly attitudes. E) For more persuasion and less coercion.

answer

B

question

42. The story about the new faculty member who might decide to volunteer to head up the "speakers" program for faculty seminars because it would put him in the center of many communications about the weekly presentations is illustrative of network structure through A) flexibility. B) visibility. C) centrality. D) coalition. E) criticality.

answer

B

question

43. The concept of criticality in a communication network involves A) the degree to which the key individual can exercise discretion in how certain decisions are made or who gains access. B) how visible the task performance is to others in the organization. C) the amount of information that passes through a node, the number of transactions that occur through the node, or the degree to which the node is central to managing information. D) the essentiality of the information that flows through the node to the organization's mission, major task, or key product. E) None of the above describes criticality in a communication network.

answer

D

question

44. In which of the following five aspects of network structure would you find the role of a gatekeeper? A) Centrality. B) Criticality. C) Flexibility. D) Visibility. E) Coalitions.

answer

C

question

45. One way that lower power parties can deal with the big players in business deals and partnerships is by limiting the ways you can do business or who you can do business with and it is an example of one of the following dealings. Which one? A) Never do an all-or-nothing deal. B) Make yourself bigger. C) Build momentum by doing deals in sequence. D) Constrain yourself. E) Do what you can to manage the process.

answer

D

question

Tactics designed to create power equalization are often employed as a way to gain advantage or to block the other's power moves.

answer

F

question

Negotiators who don't care about their power or who have matched power - equally high or low - will find that their deliberations proceed with greater ease and simplicity toward a mutually satisfying and acceptable outcome.

answer

T

question

During economic downsizings, labor unions can find themselves negotiating new contracts that delay wage increases or even reduce wages, which means giving hard-won concessions back to management—something union officials want to do.

answer

F

question

According to Deutsch, an actor does not have power in a given situation and cannot satisfy the purposes that he is attempting to fulfill in that situation.

answer

F

question

The effective use of power requires a sensitive and deft touch, and its consequences may not vary greatly from one person to the next.

answer

F

question

Expert power is derived from the ability to assemble and organize information to support the desired position, arguments, or outcomes.

answer

F

question

Organization and national culture are both descriptors of contextual power.

answer

T

question

If power is based on personality and individual differences, the personality traits will affect how individuals acquire and use power.

answer

T

question

Social structures are inherently inefficient, and this realization creates the basis for legitimate power.

answer

F

question

If enough people begin to distrust the authority or discredit its legitimacy, they will begin to defy it and thereby undermine its potential as a source of power.

answer

T

question

The effectiveness of formal authority is derived from the willingness of followers to acknowledge the legitimacy of the organizational structure and the system of rules and regulations that empowers its leaders.

answer

T

question

Personal reward power cannot be derived from the target being influenced because the agent liked them or showed them some form of social acceptance.

answer

F

question

In an organizational network the "star" is in the center position between a "gatekeeper" and a "linking pin."

answer

F

question

Visibility is the same as centrality or criticality in network structure.

answer

F

question

When agents, constituencies and external audiences are present in a negotiation, they can become actively involved to formally or informally pressure others as part of the negotiation process.

answer

T

question

The concept of "duty ethics" states that A) the rightness of an action is determined by evaluating the pros and cons of its consequences. B) the rightness of an action is determined by existing laws and contemporary social standards that define what is right and wrong and where the line is. C) the rightness of an action is based on the customs and norms of a particular society or community. D) the rightness of an action is based on one's conscience and moral standards. E) None of the above defines "duty ethics."

answer

b

question

Ethical criteria for judging appropriate conduct define A) what is wise based on trying to understand the efficacy of the tactic and the consequences it might have on the relationship with the other. B) what a negotiator can actually make happen in a given situation. C) what is appropriate as determined by some standard of moral conduct. D) what the law defines as acceptable practice. E) All of the above are defined by ethical criteria for judging appropriate conduct.

answer

c

question

Only one of the approaches to ethical reasoning has as its central tenet that actions are more right if they promote more happiness, more wrong as they produce unhappiness. Which approach applies? A) End-result ethics. B) Duty ethics. C) Social context ethics. D) Personalistic ethics. E) Reasoning ethics

answer

a

question

A doctor facing the moral dilemma between a mandate to save lives and the mandate to relieve undue suffering for those whose lives cannot be saved is an example of: A) end-result ethics. B) duty ethics. C) social contract ethics. D) personalistic ethics. E) utilitarian ethics.

answer

b

question

Proponents of personalistic ethics argue that A) the best way to achieve the greatest good is to closely follow a set of rules and principles. B) the worth of a particular action is judged on the basis of the consequences it produces. C) societies, organizations and cultures determine what is ethically appropriate and acceptable within that group. 98 Test Bank, Chapter 1 D) everyone ought to decide for themselves what is right based on their conscience. E) Rule utilitarians argue all of the abov

answer

d

question

Which of the following arguments refutes Carr's claim that business strategy is analogous to poker strategy? A) Because good poker playing often involves concealing information and bluffing or deception, these rules ought to apply to business transactions. B) If an executive refuses to bluff periodically he or she is probably ignoring opportunities permitted under the "rules" of business C) Most games do not legitimize deception, and therefore business should not be analogous to a game that does legitimize deception D) Bluffing, exaggeration and concealment are legitimate ways for corporations to maximize their self interest E) None of the above arguments refute Carr's claim

answer

c

question

What is the implication of the dilemma of trust? A) We believe everything the other says and can be manipulated by their dishonesty. B) We do not believe anything the other says and therefore are immune to their dishonesty. C) We tell the other party our exact requirements and limits in negotiation, and therefore we will never do better than this minimum level. D) We never reveal our requirements and limits in negotiation, and therefore are able to far exceed that minimum level. E) None of the above describes the implication of the dilemma of trust.

answer

a

question

Which is a Category of Marginally Ethical Negotiating Tactics? A) Traditional Competitive Bargaining B) Emotional Manipulation C) Misrepresentation to Opponent's Networks D) Bluffing E) All of the above

answer

e

question

Which tactic is seen as inappropriate and unethical in negotiation? A) misrepresentation B) bluffing C) misrepresentation to opponent's network D) inappropriate information collection E) All of the above are seen as inappropriate and unethical tactics.

answer

e

question

Per a study of ethically ambiguous tactics which of the following is true? A) There is a significant negative relationship between an attitude toward the use of each specific tactic and the intention to use it Lewicki/Barry/Saunders, Negotiation, 6/e 99 B) There is no significant positive relationship between an attitude toward the use of a specific tactic and actually using that tactic, for four of the five tactics studies C) Hiding the bottom line was the tactic least frequently used, exaggerating an opening offer was the most commonly used, followed by stalling for time and misrepresenting information. D) Hiding the bottom line improved negotiator performance in the role-play. Negotiators also believed that making empty promises, misrepresenting information, and exaggerating their opening offer improved their performance. E) All of the above

answer

d

question

Research has shown that negotiators use what two forms of deception in misrepresenting the common value issue? A) misrepresentation by omission and misrepresentation by commission B) misrepresentation by permission and misrepresentation by omission C) misrepresentation by admission and misrepresentation by permission D) misrepresentation by admission and misrepresentation by commission E) None of the above forms of deception are used in misrepresenting the common value issue.

answer

a

question

Incidences in cheating in the Boston Marathon included all but one motive. Which one was not identified as a motive for cheating in the race? A) Some cheaters were angry or disturbed. B) Some cheaters were seeking family approval. C) Some cheaters were middle-aged males. D) Some cheaters were after recognition. E) Some cheaters were simply "caught up in the moment."

answer

b

question

McCornack and Levine found that victims had stronger emotional reactions to deception when A) they had a distant relationship with the subject. B) the information at stake was unimportant. C) lying was seen as an unacceptable type of behavior for that relationship. D) the victim had used deceptive tactics as well. E) Research found that victims did not have strong emotional reactions in any of the above cases.

answer

c

question

When using the justification that "the tactic was unavoidable," the negotiator is saying that A) the negotiator was not in full control of his or her actions and hence should not be held responsible. B) what the negotiator did was really trivial and not very significant. C) the tactic helped to avoid greater harm. D) the quality of the tactic should be judged by its consequences. E) The justification that "the tactic was unavoidable" implies all of the above.

answer

a

question

Studies have shown that with the exception of "traditional competitive bargaining," men were: A) significantly less likely to use unethical tactics than women. B) somewhat less likely to use unethical tactics than women. C) somewhat more likely to use unethical tactics than women. D) significantly more likely to use unethical tactics than women. E) Studies have shown that there is no gender bias in the use of unethical tactics.

answer

d

question

Which of the following personality traits can most strongly predict the predisposition to behave unethically? A) cooperativeness B) Machiavellianism C) locus of control D) moral development E) None of the above can predict the predisposition to behave unethically.

answer

b

question

Research studies have shown that individuals who are strongly Machiavellian are A) more willing and able con artists. B) more likely to lie when they need to. C) better able to tell bigger lies with out feeling anxious about it. D) more persuasive and effective in their lies. E) Individuals who are strongly Machiavellian have all of the above traits.

answer

e

question

Research results have generally indicated that higher levels of moral development are associated with A) less ethical decisions. B) more cheating behavior. C) less helping behavior. D) more resistance to authority figures who are attempting to dictate unethical conduct. E) Higher levels of moral development are associated with all of the above.

answer

d

question

Which was not one of the findings of a recent study? A) If told to "do your best," partied reported less honestly than if they had a specific goal to meet B) Participants who had to meet specific goals were more likely to overstate their productivity than those without C) Participants who had to meet specific goals were more likely to overstate their success when their actual performance was closer to the goal D) Participants who had to meet specific goals were more likely to overstate in those situations where they thought they "deserved" the reward based on overall productivity.

answer

b

question

Which of the following statements about situational influences on unethical conduct is true? A) The negotiator's past relationship will affect current behavior if the parties have been Lewicki/Barry/Saunders, Negotiation, 6/e 101 previously competitive or cooperative. B) Negotiators were more likely to make more deceptive arguments, negotiate for a longer period of time, and make fewer concessions to the counterpart they previously experienced as cooperative compared to one who had been exploitative. C) Negotiators with less power are more likely to abuse what power they have by using less ethical tactics. D) An individual who confuses private ethics with business morality makes an effective negotiator. E) None of the above statements about situational influences on unethical conduct is True.

answer

a

question

. The negotiators' past relationship will affect current behavior if the parties A) have been previously competitive. B) have been previously cooperative. C) feel indebted to one another. D) hold grudges toward one another. E) The negotiators' past relationship will affect current behavior under all of the above conditions.

answer

e

question

Which of the following statements about group and organizational norms is false? A) Job related pressures within particular work groups, departments, or divisions may be such that marginally ethical behavior is not only tolerated, but even condoned. B) The more loyalty and commitment people feel toward an organization, the less that loyalty may be abused. C) Organizations may exert direct pressures on an individual to breach ethics or even break the law in the service of achieving some corporate or organizational goal. D) The pressures of escalating commitment may predispose parties to commit more unethical actions. E) All of the above statements about group and organizational norms are True.

answer

b

question

When using the "intimidation" tactic to detect deception, one should A) emphasize the futility and impending danger associated with continued deceit. B) lie to the other to make them believe you have uncovered their deception. C) play down the significance of any deceptive act. D) make a "no-nonsense" accusation of the other. E) None of the above actions would be used as part of the intimidation tactic.

answer

d

question

When using the "altered information" tactic to detect deception, one should A) try to get the other to admit a small or partial lie about some information and use this to push for admission of a larger lie. B) exaggerate what you believe is the deception and state it, hoping that the other will jump in to "correct" the statement. C) point out behaviors you detect in the other which might be an indication they are lying. D) indicate one's true concern for the other's welfare. E) None of the above actions would be used as part of the altered information tactic.

answer

b

question

Which of the following tactics is the least preferable method of responding to another party's distributive tactics or "dirty tricks"? A) ignoring the tactic B) "calling" the tactic C) responding in kind D) discussing what you see and offer to help them change to more honest behaviors E) None of the above tactics should be used to respond to another party's dirty tricks.

answer

c

question

Laboratory controlled research is much easier to conduct than field research because studying live negotiators in the middle of an often complex negotiation causes them to object to all but one of the following? A) to conduct interviews. B) to ask questions. C) to publicly report actual successes. D) to publicly report actual failures. E) they object to all the above.

answer

B

question

In a transactional negotiation, the most important issue is usually the A) enhancing the relationship. B) better deal. C) dependence dynamics. D) inventory questions. E) all of the above.

answer

B

question

Which of the following parameters shapes our understanding of relationship negotiation strategy and tactics? A) Negotiating within relationships takes place at a single point in time. B) Negotiation in relationships is only about the issue. C) Negotiating within relationships may never end. D) Parties never make concessions on substantive issues. E) All of the above parameters shape our understanding of relationship negotiation strategy and tactics.

answer

C

question

Because relationship negotiations are never over, A) parties generally tackle negotiations over tough issues first in order to "get off on the right foot." B) it is often impossible to anticipate the future and negotiate everything "up front." C) issues on which parties truly disagree will go away with the conclusion of the negotiation. D) parties should never make concessions on substantive issues. E) All of the above are consequences of relationship negotiations

answer

B

question

Jeswald Salacuse suggests which rule for negotiating a relationship? A) minimize the prenegotiation stage of the relationship B) recognize a long-term business deal as a continuing negotiation C) eliminate the need for mediation or conciliation D) end all discussions when the contract is signed E) Salacuse suggests all of the above rules for negotiating a relationship.

answer

B

question

Communal sharing is a relationship of A) unity, community, collective identity, and kindness. B) asymmetric differences. C) one-to-one correspondence. D) balanced reciprocity. E) None of the above describes a relationship of communal sharing.

answer

A

question

An example of authority ranking as a form of relationship would include A) college roommates B) fraternal organizations C) auto salesperson and buyer D) soldiers and their commander E) church congregates

answer

D

question

Higher ranks dominate lower ranks is an example of "authority ranking" as a fundamental relationship form. Under what other form would you find the concept of "tit-for-tat" revenge? A) communal sharing B) authority ranking C) equality matching D) market pricing E) none of the above

answer

C

question

The values that govern a market pricing relationship are determined by a market system and include all but which of the following? A) utility points B) the relationship with the negotiator C) ratio of price to goods D) fair pricing E) the dollar

answer

B

question

Which of the statements is supported by research in communal-sharing relationships? A) Parties in a communal-sharing relationship are more cooperative and empathetic. B) Parties in a communal-sharing relationship craft better quality agreements. C) Parties in a communal-sharing relationship focus more attention on the norms that develop about their working together. D) Parties in a communal-sharing relationship are more likely to share information with the other and less likely to use coercive tactics. E) All of the above statements are supported by research in communal sharing relationships

answer

E

question

What key elements become more critical and pronounced when they occur within a negotiation? A) the agency relationship, the number of negotiation parties, and the role of emotion B) the agency relationship and the role of trust and fairness C) the roles of reputation, trust and justice D) the structure of the constituency and the agency relationship E) none of the above is key elements in managing negotiations within relationships

answer

C

question

Reputation is: A) a perceptual identity. B) reflective of the combination of personal characteristics. C) demonstrated behavior. D) intended images preserved over time. E) all of the above statements define reputation.

answer

E

question

In calculus-based trust A) the trustor calculates the value of creating and sustaining trust in the relationship relative to the costs of severing it. B) the relationship develops over time, largely because the parties develop a history of experience with each other which allows them to predict the other's behavior. C) regular communication and courtship are key processes. D) the parties effectively understand and appreciate the other's wants. E) All of the above statements are inherent in calculus based trust.

answer

A

question

All but one of the following actions contributes to increase identification-based trust. Which one does not contribute? A) Stand for the same principles. B) Monitor the other party's actions. C) Develop similar interests. D) Try to develop similar goals, objectives and scenarios. E) Try to be interested in the same things.

answer

B

question

Which type of justice is about the process of determining outcomes? A) Distributive B) Interactive C) Procedural D) Systemic E) None of the above

answer

C

question

How parties treat each other in one-to-one relationships is the process of which of the following justices? A) Procedural B) Interactional C) Systemic D) Distributive E) None of the above

answer

B

question

Which of the following conclusions about the issue of fairness is not a true statement? A) Involvement in the process of helping to shape a negotiation strategy increases commitment to that strategy and willingness to pursue it. B) Negotiators (buyers in a market transaction) who are encouraged ("primed") to think about fairness are more cooperative in distributive negotiations. C) Parties who are made offers they perceive as unfair may reject them out of hand, even though the amount offered may be better than the alternative settlement, which is to receive nothing at all. D) Establishment of some "objective standard" of fairness has a positive impact on the negotiations and satisfaction with the outcome. E) All of the above are true statements

answer

E

question

Denise Rousseau has researched and defined the "idiosyncratic deal" as the unique ways that employers may come to treat certain employees compared to others in the same office or environment. Which observation stated below is inaccurate? A) Deals are more common when workers are willing to negotiate. B) Deals are more likely to work effectively when performance criteria are clear and well specified. C) Deals are more common in certain countries, such as the United States, the United Kingdom and New Zealand. D) Deals are more common when workers are located in large organizations. E) Deals are more likely to work when workers trust the performance appraisal process

answer

D

question

Which question that should be asked about working on the improvement of a relationship is false? A) If the relationship is in difficulty, what might have caused it, and how can I gather information or perspective to improve the situation? B) How can we take the pressure off each other so that we can give each other the freedom of choice to talk about what has happened, and what is necessary to fix it? C) Trust repair is a long and slow process. It requires adequate explanations for past behavior, apologies, and perhaps even reparations. Interestingly, cultures differ in the way they manage this process D) Must we surface the deeply felt emotions that have produced anger, frustration, rejection and disappointment? Should we effectively vent these emotions, or understand their causes, so that we can move beyond them? E) How can we begin to appreciate each other's contributions, and the positive things that we have done together in the past? How can we restore that respect and value each other's contributions?

answer

D

question

Within relationships, we see that parties shift their focus considerably, away from a sole focus on price and exchange, to also attend to A) the future of the relationship. B) the level of trust between the parties. C) the emotions and evaluations of the other negotiator. D) questions of fairness. E) Within relationships, parties shift their focus to attend to all of the above.

answer

E

question

Multiparty negotiations differ from two-party deliberations in which of the following ways? A) Multiparty negotiations have more negotiators at the table. B) More issues and more information are introduced than when two parties negotiate. C) The environment changes from a one-on-one dialogue to small group discussion. D) The process for multiparty negotiators is more complex than two-party ones. E) All of the above statements about multiparty negotiations are true.

answer

e

question

One of the most fundamental consequences of increasing the number of parties in a negotiation is that A) the negotiation situation tends to become less lucid. B) the negotiation situation tends to become more complex. C) the negotiation situation tends to become more demanding. D) there will be more values, interests, and perceptions to be integrated or accommodated. E) All of the above are fundamental consequences of increasing the number of parties in a negotiation.

answer

e

question

What is the result of procedural complexity in multiparty negotiations? A) The fewer the number of parties, the more complex the decision making process becomes. B) The increased number of negotiators will streamline the decision making process. C) Negotiators can ignore the problem of multiple related issues. D) Negotiators will probably have to devote discussion time to how they will manage the process to arrive at the type of solution or agreement they want. E) All of the above are the result of procedural complexity in multiparty negotiations.

answer

d

question

In multiparty negotiations, research shows that parties who approached multiple issues simultaneously: A) achieved lower quality agreements. B) increased the likelihood of achieving agreement. C) exchanged less information. D) have less insight into the preferences and priorities of the other parties at the table. E) Research shows that parties who approached multiple issues simultaneously achieved all of the above.

answer

b

question

One-on-one negotiations in full view of all group members would have all but one of the following consequences on negotiators. Which one would not be a consequence? A) Negotiators who have some way to control the number of parties at the table (or even in the room) may begin to act strategically. B) Since the exchanges are under surveillance negotiators will be sensitive to being observed and may feel the need to be tough. C) Negotiators can simply choose to ignore the complexity of the three or more parties and proceed strategically as a two-party negotiation. D) Negotiators can explicitly engage in coalition building as a way to marshal support. E) Negotiators will have to find satisfactory ways to explain modification of their positions.

answer

c

question

There are five ways in which the complexity increases as three or more parties simultaneously engage in negotiation. One of those listed below is not a correct statement. Which one? A) There are simply more parties involved in the negotiation. B) More parties bring more issues and positions to the table, and thus more perspectives must be presented and discussed. C) When negotiations become socially more complex, the social norms emerge that affect member participation, which reduces the stronger pressures to conform and suppress disagreement. D) As the negotiations become procedurally more complex, the parties may have to negotiate a new process that allows them to coordinate their actions more effectively. E) As the negotiations become more strategically complex, the parties must monitor the moves and actions of several other parties in determining what each will do next.

answer

c

question

Considering the many attributes of an effective group, under which one of the following would you find a need to fully explain or define key words or language that may be part of the agreement? A) Test assumptions and inferences. B) Focus on interests, not positions. C) Disagree openly with any member of the group. D) Agree on the meaning of important words. E) Keep the discussion focused.

answer

d

question

What are the three key stages and phases that characterize multilateral negotiations? A) the prenegotiation stage, managing the actual negotiations, and managing the agreement stage. B) the coalition building stage, the relationship development stage, the networking stage. C) the coalition building stage, the networking stage, and the actual negotiation stage. D) the prenegotiation stage, the networking stage, and the managing the agreement stage. E) None of the above lists the three key stages and phases that characterize multilateral negotiations.

answer

a

question

Many complex international negotiations devote a great deal of time to the question of just who will be recognized and who can speak for others. The issue about participants can be decided by asking which of the following questions? A) Whose presence is likely to keep other parties from achieving their objectives? B) Whose presence is likely to help other parties achieve their objectives? C) Who could spoil the deal if they were excluded? D) All of the above questions can help decide who to recognize. E) None of the above questions will help determine inclusion/exclusion.

answer

d

question

The prenegotiation phase of multilateral negotiations A) is when the parties are employing decision rules and criteria. B) manages the group process and outcome. C) is when the chair is appointed. D) is characterized by lots of informal contact among the parties. E) All of the above characterize the prenegotiation phase of multilateral negotiations.

answer

d

question

In the Connect Model and the Requirements for Building a Relationship, what does the "t" stand for? A) Toss it! B) Try it! C) Time it! D) Track it! E) Trash it!

answer

d

question

Which of the following questions should not be asked as part of the requirements for building a relationship in the connect model? A) Can we agree to have a constructive conversation? B) Can our conversation be productive enough to make a difference? C) Can we restructure the agreement to include the original issue? D) Can we all commit to making improvements? E) Can we understand and appreciate each other's perspective?

answer

c

question

When a group wants to achieve a consensus or unanimous decision, the responsibility of the chair is to be constantly attentive to the group process. Identify which of the pointers below for how to chair a multiparty negotiation effectively is not correct. A) Explicitly describe the role you will take as chair. Assure individual members that they will have an opportunity to make opening statements or other ways of placing their individual concerns and issues on the table. B) Introduce the agenda or build one based on the group's issues, concerns, and priorities. Be an active gatekeeper. Lewicki/Barry/Saunders, Negotiation, 6/e 143 C) Make logistical arrangements that will help the negotiation process. Listen for interests and commonalities. D) Introduce unnecessary ground rules or let the parties suggest them to distract. Introduce internal information that will help illuminate the issues and interests. E) Create or review decision standards and rules. Summarize frequently, particularly when conversation becomes stalled, confused, or tense

answer

d

question

During the information management phase, coordinators A) "patrol" the environment and bring in relevant external information that may be useful to the group. B) represent a formal link to some important constituency and help to acquire resources the group needs to continue to operate. C) provide a more formal link between the group members and the constituencies they represent. D) are specifically designated to keep some information inside the group and assure that there are no leaks or premature disclosures of key information or discussions. E) Coordinators accomplish all of the above.

answer

c

question

A moderator who sends out a questionnaire to all parties asking for input is one strategy used to avoid destructive conflict and emotion. That strategy is known as A) nominal group technique. B) the Delphi technique. C) brainstorming. D) the consensus technique. E) the compromise technique.

answer

b

question

We use the term "culture" to refer to the A) religious beliefs of a group of people. B) ethnicity of a group of people. C) geographic nationality of a group of people. D) shared values and beliefs of a group of people. E) Culture refers to none of the above

answer

D

question

According to Salacuse, which of the following is not a factor in the environmental context of negotiations? A) political and legal pluralism B) foreign governments and bureaucracies C) relative bargaining power D) international economic factors E) All of the above are factors in the environmental context of negotiations

answer

C

question

Which of the following is an immediate context factor in cross-cultural negotiations? A) external stakeholders B) instability C) international economic factors D) relationship between negotiators E) All of the above are immediate context factors in cross-cultural negotiations.

answer

D

question

Political and legal pluralism can make cross cultural negotiations more complex because A) there may be implications for the taxes that the organization pays. B) there may be implications for the labor codes or standards that the organization must meet. C) there may be different codes of contract law and standards of enforcement. D) political considerations may enhance or detract from the conduct of business negotiations in various countries at different times. E) Political and legal pluralism can make cross cultural negotiations more complex because of all of the above.

answer

E

question

Which of the following factors most influences relative bargaining power? A) the extent to which negotiators frame the negotiation differently B) tangible and intangible factors C) management control D) personal motivations of external stakeholders E) None of the above factors influence relative bargaining power

answer

C

question

Which of the following is not one of Janosik's four ways that culture is used in international negotiation? A) culture as learned behavior B) culture as economic indicator C) culture as shared values D) culture as dialectic E) Each of the above is one of Janosik's four ways that culture is used in international negotiation.

answer

B

question

The "culture-as-shared-value" approach A) concentrates on documenting the systematic negotiation behavior of people in different cultures. B) concentrates on understanding the central values and norms of a culture and then building a model for how these norms and values influence negotiations within that culture. C) recognizes that all cultures contain dimensions or tensions among their different values. D) recognizes that no human behavior is determined by a single cause. E) All of the above are elements of the "culture as shared" value approach.

answer

B

question

The individualism/collectivism dimension describes A) the extent to which the less powerful members of organizations and institutions accept and expect that power is distributed unequally. B) the extent to which the society is organized around individuals or the group. C) the extent to which cultures hold values that were traditionally perceived as masculine or feminine. D) the extent to which a culture programs its members to feel either uncomfortable or comfortable in unstructured situations. E) None of the above describes the individualism/collectivism dimension

answer

B

question

Power distance describes A) the extent to which the less powerful members of organizations and institutions accept and expect that power is distributed unequally. B) the extent to which the society is organized around individuals or the group. C) the extent to which cultures hold values that were traditionally perceived as masculine or feminine. D) the extent to which a culture programs its members to feel either uncomfortable or comfortable in unstructured situations. E) None of the above describes power distance.

answer

A

question

What consequences do negotiators from high uncertainty-avoidance cultures bring to negotiations? A) Negotiators will strongly depend on cultivating and sustaining a long-term relationship. B) Negotiators may be more likely to "swap" negotiators, using whatever short-term criteria seem appropriate. C) Negotiators may need to seek approval from their supervisors more frequently. D) Negotiators may not be comfortable with ambiguous situations and may be more likely to seek stable rules and procedures when they negotiate. E) All of the above are consequences of high uncertainty avoidance cultures

answer

D

question

Risk-avoiding cultures will A) be willing to move early on a deal. B) generally take more chances. C) seek further information. D) be less likely to take a wait-and-see stance. E) Risk avoiding cultures will generally take all of the above actions

answer

C

question

In group-oriented cultures A) the individual comes before the group's needs. B) decisions are primarily made by senior executives. C) decision making is an efficient, streamlined process. D) negotiators may be faced with a series of discussions over the same issues and materials with many different people. E) All of the above occur in group-oriented cultures

answer

D

question

According to Graham, which of the following statements would be characteristic of a Japanese negotiator? A) Higher profits are associated with making opponents feel uncomfortable. B) Higher profits are achieved by making opponents feel comfortable. C) The use of powerful and deceptive strategies is more likely to receive higher outcomes. D) Representational strategies are negatively related to profits. E) None of the above is characteristics of a Japanese negotiator.

answer

B

question

According to Weiss, when choosing a strategy, negotiators should A) choose one strategy and stick with it throughout the entire negotiation. B) be aware of their own culture, but minimize the other culture's norms. C) not try to predict or influence the other party's approach. D) understand the specific factors in the current relationship. E) Weiss states that negotiators should do all of the above when preparing for negotiations

answer

D

question

Which of the following strategies should negotiators with a low familiarity with the other culture choose? A) employ agents or advisers B) adapt to the other party's approach C) coordinate adjustment D) embrace the other party's approach E) Negotiators with a low familiarity with the other culture should not choose any of the above strategies.

answer

A

question

Which of the following lists only joint strategies for cross-cultural negotiations? A) employ agents or advisors, bring in a mediator, adapt to the other party's approach, improvise an approach B) employ agents or advisors, adapt to the other party's approach, embrace the other party's approach, effect symphony C) bring in a mediator, coordinate adjustment, improvise an approach, effect symphony D) coordinate adjustment, improvise an approach, adapt to the other party's approach, embrace the other party's approach E) None of the above list only joint strategies for cross cultural negotiations

answer

C

question

Adapting to the other party's approach" is best used by parties with A) no familiarity. B) low familiarity. C) moderate familiarity. D) high familiarity. E) Adapting to the other party's approach is equally effective for all parties

answer

C

question

"Coordinating adjustment" involves A) adopting completely the approach of the other party. B) making conscious changes to your approach so that it is more appealing to the other party. C) both parties making mutual adjustments to find a common process for negotiation. D) crafting an approach that is specifically tailored to the negotiation situation. E) "Coordinating adjustment" involves all of the above

answer

C

question

The "embrace the other party's approach" strategy involves A) adopting completely the approach of the other party. B) both parties making mutual adjustments to find a common process for negotiation. C) creating a new approach that may include aspects of either home culture or practices from a third culture. D) persuading the other party to use your approach. E) The "embrace the other party's approach" strategy involves all of the above

answer

A

question

When working to create a new approach that may include aspects of either home culture or adopt practices from a third culture, negotiators are using what approach? A) effect symphony B) improvise an approach C) embrace the other party's approach D) employ agents or advisors E) Negotiators are using all of the above approaches

answer

A

question

Negotiation is fundamentally a skill involving analysis and _____________ that everyone can learn. A) preparation B) cooperation C) communication D) process E) innovation

answer

c

question

At the top of the best practice list for every negotiator is A) managing coalitions. B) diagnosing the structure of the negotiation. C) remembering the intangibles. D) preparation. E) protecting your reputation.

answer

d

question

Negotiators should make a conscious decision about whether they are facing a fundamentally distributive negotiation, an integrative negotiation, or a A) combative negotiation. B) group negotiation. C) cooperative negotiation. D) creative negotiation. E) a blend of both distributive and integrative negotiation.

answer

e

question

The goal of most negotiations is achieving which of the following? A) A final settlement B) A valued outcome C) An agreement per se D) A value claiming goal E) A value creating goal

answer

b

question

Excellent negotiators understand that negotiation embodies a set of A) values. B) alternatives. C) paradoxes. D) BATNAs. E) principles.

answer

c

question

Research suggests that too much knowledge about the other party's needs can lead to a A) quick and positive outcome. B) dilemma of honesty. C) negative effect on your reputation. D) groundwork for agreement. E) suboptimal negotiation outcome.

answer

e

question

Negotiators need to be reminded that certain factors influence their own behavior. What are those factors? A) strengths B) tangibles C) weaknesses Lewicki/Barry/Saunders, Negotiation, 6/e 199 D) intangibles E) negotiables

answer

d

question

Getting the other party to reveal why he or she is sticking so strongly to a given point is an example of which of the following practices? A) Remember the intangibles B) Actively manage coalitions C) Savor and protect your reputation D) Remember that rationality and fairness is relative E) Master the key paradoxes

answer

a

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