MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS FOR PATHO EXAM 2 – Flashcards
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The _____ of developing a disease is expressed as the ratio of the disease rate among the exposed population to the disease rate in an unexposed population. A. attributable risk B. contingency risk C. causal risk D. relative risk
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D
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An autosomal dominant form of breast cancer accounts for _____ % of all cases. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20
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A
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The data reporting "Sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 American blacks" is an example of which concept? A. Incidence B. Prevalence C. Ratio D. Risk
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B
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What is the cause of familial hypercholesterolemia? A. A diet high in saturated fats B. An increased production of cholesterol by the liver C. A reduction in the number of LDL receptors on cell surfaces D. An abnormal function of lipoprotein receptors circulating in the blood E. A reduction in the co-enzyme HMG-CoA by the liver
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C
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Which risk factor for hypertension is influenced by both genetic factors and lifestyle? A. Sodium intake B. Physical inactivity C. Psychosocial stress D. Obesity
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D
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If a woman has one first-degree relative with breast cancer, her risk of developing breast cancer is _____ times what it would otherwise be. A. two B. three C. six D. ten
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A
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The two most important risk factors for type 2 diabetes are: A. autoantibodies and HLA associations. B. autoantibodies and obesity. C. obesity and positive family history. D. HLA associations and positive family history.
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C
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Cancers that cluster strongly in families include: A. breast, colon, and prostate. B. lung, ovarian, and breast. C. colon, brain, and lung. D. prostate, breast, and brain.
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A
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Which diseases are more strongly determined by environmental and lifestyle changes rather than genetics? A. Autism and spina bifida B. Diabetes mellitus and heart disease C. Measles and influenza D. Epilepsy and cystic fibrosis
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C
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Empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases are based on: A. chromosomal testing. B. direct observation. C. liability thresholds. D. relative risks.
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B
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Which genes are responsible for an autosomal dominant form of breast cancer? A. LCAT genes B. CHK1 and CHK2 genes C. BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 genes D. TP53 and TP54 genes
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C
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The BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 mutations increase the risk of which cancer in women? A. Ovarian B. Lung C. Uterine D. Pancreatic
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A
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What is the action of angiotensin II that increases blood pressure? A. It stimulates beta1-adrenergic receptors to increase heart rate. B. It stimulates the release of an antidiuretic hormone (ADH) that increases water reabsorption. C. It stimulates the release of aldosterone to increase sodium retention. D. It inactivates serum bradykinin causing vasodilation.
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C
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Which is a major characteristic of type 1 diabetes mellitus? A. There is partial insulin secretion. B. There is autoimmunity. C. There is insulin resistance. D. Obesity is a common risk factor.
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B
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How does obesity act as an important risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus? A. By reducing the amount of insulin the pancreas produces B. By increasing the resistance to insulin by cells C. By obstructing the outflow of insulin from the pancreas D. By stimulating the liver to increase glucose production
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B
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Studies have identified several genes that play what role in obesity? A. Regulating appetite B. Metabolizing fat C. Absorbing fat D. Altering satiety
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A
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Studies have shown that offspring of an alcoholic parent when raised by a nonalcoholic parents have _____ of developing the alcoholism. A. no increased risk B. a twofold increased risk C. a fourfold increased risk D. a tenfold increased risk
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C
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What is a purpose of the inflammatory process? A. To provide specific responses toward antigens B. To lyse cell membranes of microorganisms C. To prevent infection of the injured tissue D. To create immunity against subsequent tissue injury
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C
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How do surfactant proteins A & D provide innate resistance? A. They initiate the complement cascade. B. They promote phagocytosis C. They secrete mucus. D. They synthesize lysosomes.
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B
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Which secretion provides antibacterial and antifungal fatty acids and lactic acid to provide a first line of defense? A. Tears B. Saliva C. Perspiration D. Sebaceous glands
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D
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Which bacterium grows in the intestines after prolonged antibiotic therapy? A. Lactobacillus B. Candida albicans C. Clostridium difficile D. Helicobacter pylori
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C
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Which antimicrobial peptide is activated by tumor necrosis factor alpha and is found in alveolar macrophages and T-lymphocytes? A. -Defensins B. -Defensins C. Cathelicidin D. Interleukin 1
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A
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What process causes edema that occurs during the inflammatory process? A. Vasodilation B. Increased capillary permeability C. Endothelial cell contraction D. Emigration of neutrophils
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B
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What process causes heat and redness that occur during the inflammatory process? A. Vasodilation B. Platelet aggregation C. Increased capillary permeability D. Endothelial cell contraction
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A
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Which component of the plasma protein system tags pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages? A. Complement cascade B. Clotting system C. Kinin system D. Immune system
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A
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What is a vascular effect of histamine released from mast cells? A. Platelet adhesion B. Initiation of the clotting cascade C. Vasodilation D. Increased endothelial adhesiveness
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C
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What is an outcome of the complement cascade? A. Activates the clotting cascade B. Prevents the spread of infection to adjacent tissues C. Inactivates chemical mediators such as histamine D. Attacks bacterial cell membranes
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D
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What is function of the complement cascade called opsonization? A. It is the tagging of pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages. B. It is the processing of pathogenic microorganisms so that activated lymphocytes can be created for acquired immunity. C. It is the destruction of glycoprotein cell membranes of pathogenic microorganisms. D. It is the anaphylatoxic activity resulting in mast cell degranulation.
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A
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Which chemical interacts among all plasma protein systems by degrading blood clots, activating complement and activating the Hageman factor? A. Kallikrein B. Histamine C. Bradykinin D. Plasmin
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D
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Which chemical mediators induce pain during an inflammatory response? A. Prostaglandins and bradykinin B. Leukotrienes and serotonin C. Tryptase and histamine D. Phospholipase and prostacyclin
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A
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What effect does chemotactic factor have on the inflammatory process? A. It causes vasodilation around the inflamed area. B. It stimulates smooth muscle contraction in the inflamed area. C. It directs leukocytes to the inflamed area. D. It produces edema around the inflamed area.
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C
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Which chemical mediator derived from mast cells retracts endothelial cells to increase vascular permeability and causes leukocyte adhesion to endothelial cells? A. Leukotrienes B. Prostaglandin E C. Platelet-activating factor D. Bradykinin
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C
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What are the inflammatory effects of nitric oxide (NO)? A. It increases capillary permeability and causes pain. B. It increases neutrophil chemotaxis and platelet aggregation. C. It causes smooth muscle contraction and fever. D. It decreases mast cell function and decreases platelet aggregation.
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D
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When looking at white blood cell differentials, nurses know that patients have early, acute inflammatory reactions when they notice elevations of which leukocyte? A. Monocytes B. Eosinophils C. Neutrophils D. Basophils
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C
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The predominant phagocytic cells in the later stages of an inflammatory response are: A. neutrophils. B. monocytes. C. macrophages. D. eosinophils.
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B
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What is the role of eosinophils in regulating vascular mediators released from mast cells? A. Eosinophils release arylsulfatase B, which stimulates the formation of B lymphocytes. B. Eosinophils release histaminase, which limits the effects of histamine during acute inflammation. C. Eosinophils release lysosomal enzymes, which activate mast cell degranulation during acute inflammation. D. Eosinophils release immunoglobulin E, which defends the body against parasites.
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B
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Which cytokines are produced and released from virally infected host cells? A. Interleukin 1 (Il-1) B. Interleukin 10 (Il-10) C. Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF D. Interferons alpha and beta (IFN and IFN )
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D
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Where is tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF ) secreted? A. From virally infected cells B. From bacterial infected cells C. From macrophages D. From mast cells
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C
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Which manifestation of inflammation is systemic? A. Formation of exudates B. Fever and leukocytosis C. Redness and heat D. Pain and edema
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B
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One systemic manifestation of the acute inflammatory response is fever that is produced by: A. endogenous pyrogens acting on the hypothalamus. B. bacterial endotoxin acting on the hypothalamus. C. antigen-antibody complexes acting on the hypothalamus. D. exogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus.
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A
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What occurs during the process of repair after tissue damage? A. Destroyed tissue is replaced by non-functioning scar tissue. B. Regeneration occurs in which original tissue is replaced. C. Resolution occurs when tissue is regenerated. D. Destroyed tissue is replaced by epithelialization.
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A
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What is the role of fibroblasts during the reconstructive phase of wound healing? A. To generate new capillaries from vascular endothelial cells around the wound B. To establish connections between neighboring cells and contract their fibers C. To synthesize and secrete collagen and the connective tissue proteins D. To provide enzymes that debride the wound bed of dead cells
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C
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_____ may activate the complement system. A. Viruses B. Antigen-antibody complexes C. Mast cells D. Macrophages
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B
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The _____ system is a plasma protein system that forms a fibrinous network at an inflamed site to prevent spread of infection to adjacent tissues and keep microorganisms and foreign bodies at the site of greatest inflammatory activity. A. complement B. coagulation C. kinin D. fibrinolysis
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B
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In the clotting cascade, the intrinsic and the extrinsic pathways converge at: A. factor XII. B. Hageman factor. C. factor X. D. factor V.
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C
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When histamine binds the histamine 2 (H2) receptor, inflammation is: A. inhibited. B. activated. C. accelerated. D. not changed.
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A
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Frequently histamine 1 (H1) and histamine 2 (H2) receptors are located on the same cells and act in a/an _____ fashion. A. synergistic B. additive C. antagonistic D. agonistic
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C
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Which of the following indicates a correct sequence in phagocytosis? A. Engulfment, recognition, fusion, destruction B. Fusion, engulfment, recognition, destruction C. Recognition, engulfment, fusion, destruction D. Engulfment, fusion, recognition, destruction
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C
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Which solution is best to use when cleaning a wound that is healing by epithelialization? A. Normal saline B. Povidone-iodine C. Hydrogen peroxide D. Dakins solution
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A
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A keloid is the result of which dysfunctional wound healing response? A. Impaired epithelialization B. Impaired contraction C. Impaired collagen matrix assembly D. Impaired maturation
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C
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Many neonates have a transient depressed inflammatory response because: A. their circulatory system is too immature to adequately perfuse tissues. B. they are deficient in complement and chemotaxis. C. they have an insufficient number of mast cells. D. their lungs are too immature to deliver oxygen to tissues.
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B
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Why do many older adults have impaired inflammation and wound healing? A. Because their circulatory system cannot adequately perfuse tissues. B. Because they are deficient in complement and chemotaxis. C. Because they have underlying chronic illnesses. D. Because they have an insufficient number of mast cells.
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C
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What is a role of natural killer cells? A. To initiate the complement cascade B. To eliminate malignant cells C. To bind tightly to antigens D. To proliferate after immunization with antigen
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B
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What are primary characteristics that differentiate the immune response from other protective mechanisms such as inflammation? A. The immune system responds in the same way each time it is activated. B. The immune response is specific to the antigen that initiates it. C. The immune response is a short-term response to a specific pathogen. D. The immune response is an innate response, rather than acquired.
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B
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Where do B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells? A. In the thymus gland B. In regional lymph nodes C. In bone marrow D. In the spleen
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C
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What is the term for the process in which lymphoid stem cells migrate from the bone marrow to the central lymphoid organs (the thymus or bone marrow) where they undergo cellular changes into either immunocompetent T cells or immunocompetent B cells? A. Generation of clonal diversity B. Clonal differentiation C. Clonal selection D. Clonal competence
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A
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Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen? A. Passive acquired immunity B. Active acquired immunity C. Passive innate immunity D. Active innate immunity
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B
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What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta? A. Passive acquired immunity B. Active acquired immunity C. Passive innate immunity D. Active innate immunity
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A
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The portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is called an antigenic determinant or a(n): A. immunotope. B. paratope. C. epitope. D. antigenitope.
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C
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What is the most important determinant of immunogenicity? A. The antigen's size B. The antigen's foreignness C. The antigen's complexity D. The antigen's quantity
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B
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When antigens are administered to patients to produce immunity, why are different routes of administration used (e.g., some are given intravenously, whereas others are given subcutaneously or nasally)? A. Different routes allow the speed of onset of the antigen to be varied, with intravenous route being the fastest. B. Some individuals appear to be unable to respond to an antigen by a specific route, thus requiring the availability of different routes for the same antigen. C. Antigen-presenting cells are highly specialized and thus require stimulation by different routes. D. Each route stimulates a different lymphocyte-containing tissue resulting in different types of cellular and humoral immunity.
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D
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How are the functions of major histocompatibility molecules and CD1 molecules alike? A. They are both antigen-presenting molecules. B. They both bind antigens to antibodies. C. They both secrete interleukins during the immune process. D. They are both capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes.
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A
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Where are antibodies produced? A. In helper T lymphocytes B. In the thymus gland C. In plasma cells D. In the bone marrow
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C
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Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions? A. Immunoglobulin A (IgA) B. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) C. Immunoglobulin G (IgG) D. Immunoglobulin M (IgM)
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A
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Which antibody is detected in the circulation to indicate a typical primary immune response? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE
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B
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How is the function of the B-cell receptor (BCR) complex different from the function of circulating antibodies? A. The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex communicates information about the antigen to the helper T cell. B. The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex secretes chemical signals to communicate between cells. C. The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex recognizes the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte. D. The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex communicates information about the antigen to the cell nucleus.
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D
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If a person had very low levels of Ig__, he or she may be more susceptible to infections of mucous membranes. A. G B. M C. A D. E
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C
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During which phase of life does the generation of clonal diversity occur? A. In the fetus B. In the neonate C. In the infant after first immunizations D. In the first year of life
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A
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Which are characteristics of the generation of clonal diversity? A. The process involves antigens selecting those lymphocytes with compatible receptors. B. The process allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature T cells. C. The process takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs (i.e., thymus and bone marrow). D. The process causes antigens to expand and diversify their populations.
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C
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Which are characteristics of clonal selection? A. The process is driven by hormones and does not require foreign antigens. B. The process involves antigens selecting those lymphocytes with compatible receptors. C. The process takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs (i.e., thymus and bone marrow). D. The process generates immature, but immunocompetent T and B cells with receptors.
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B
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Which is an example of an exogenous antigen? A. Virus B. Cancer cells C. Bacteria
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C
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Which cytokine is needed for the maturation of a functional helper T cell? A. Interleukin-1 (Il-1) B. Interleukin-2 (Il-2) C. Interleukin-4 (Il-4) D. Interleukin-12 (Il-12)
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B
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Helper T 2 cells (Th2) produce interleukin 4 (Il-4) that suppresses which lymphocytes? A. B lymphocytes B. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes C. Helper T1 cells (Th1) D. Memory T lymphocytes
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C
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What are characteristics of helper T1 cells (Th1)? A. They are induced by antigens derived from allergens. B. They are induced by antigens derived from cancer cells. C. They produce interleukins 4, 5, 6, and 13. D. They assist in the development of humoral immunity.
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B
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What are characteristics of helper T2 cells (Th2)? A. They are induced by antigens derived from allergens. B. They are induced by antigens derived from cancer cells. C. They produce interleukin 1 (Il-2) tumor necrosis factor ß and interferon D. They assist in the development of cell-mediated immunity.
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A
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When a person is exposed to most antigens, how long does it take before an antibody can be detected in the circulation? A. 12 hours B. 24 hours C. 3 days D. 6 days
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D
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How are vaccinations able to provide protection against certain microorganisms? A. Because of the strong response from immunoglobulin M (IgM) B. Because of the level of protection provided by immunoglobulin G (IgG) C. Because of the memory cells for immunoglobulin E (IgE) D. Because of the rapid response from immunoglobulin A (IgA)
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B
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Why are some viruses, such as measles and herpes, inaccessible to antibodies after the initial infection? A. These viruses do not circulate in the blood, they are inside of infected cells. B. These viruses do not have antibody receptors on their cell surfaces. C. These viruses resist agglutination. D. These viruses are soluble antigens.
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A
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Which is an example of a bacterial toxin that has been inactivated, but still retains its immunogenicity to protect the person? A. Poliomyelitis B. Measles C. Tetanus D. Gonorrhea
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C
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How do antibodies protect the host from bacterial toxins? A. By lysing the cell membrane of the toxins B. By binding to the toxins to neutralize their biologic effects C. By inhibiting the synthesis of DNA proteins needed for growth D. By interfering with the DNA enzyme needed for replication
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B
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Which T cell controls or limits the immune response to protect the host's own tissues against an autoimmune response? A. Cytotoxic T cells B. Helper 1 (Th1) cells C. Helper 2 (Th2) cells D. Regulatory T (Treg) cells
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D
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At birth, samples of blood from the umbilical cord indicate which immunoglobulin levels, if any, are near adult levels? A. None of the immunoglobulins are near adult level. B. Immunoglobulin G (IgG) C. Immunoglobulin M (IgM) D. Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
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B
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Increased age may cause which of these changes in lymphocyte function? A. Increased production of antibodies against self-antigens B. Decreased number of circulating T cells C. Decreased production of autoantibodies D. Increased production of helper T cells.
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A
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What is the name of the hypersensitivity reaction that occurs after a person who is allergic to bee stings is stung by a bee? A. Hemolytic shock B. Anaphylaxis C. Necrotizing vasculitis D. Systemic erythematosus
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B
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Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(n): A. disturbance in the immunologic tolerance of self-antigens. B. immunologic reaction of one person to the tissue of another person. C. altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease. D. undetectable immune response in the presence of antigens.
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C
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Through which lymphocyte is the common allergy hay fever expressed? A. IgE-mediated reactions B. IgG-mediated reactions C. IgM-mediated reactions D. T cell-mediated reactions
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A
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During an immunoglobulin E-mediated (IgE) hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated? A. Neutrophils B. Monocytes C. Eosinophils D. T lymphocytes
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C
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During an immunoglobulin E-mediated (IgE) hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm? A. Bronchial edema caused by chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis B. Bronchial edema caused by binding of the cytotropic antibody C. Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H1 receptors D. Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H2 receptors
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C
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During an immunoglobulin E-mediated (IgE) hypersensitivity reaction, what stops the degranulation of mast cells? A. The action of histamine bound to H2 receptors B. The action of chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis bound to receptors C. The action of epinephrine bound to mast cell receptors D. The action of acetylcholine bound to mast cell receptors
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A
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During an anaphylactic reaction, what reverses the effects of histamine? A. Acetylcholine B. Antihistamine C. Epinephrine D. Corticosteroid
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C
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What is a characteristic of atopic individuals who are genetically predisposed to develop allergies? A. They produce greater quantities of histamine than other individuals. B. They have more histamine receptors than other individuals. C. They produce greater quantities of immunoglobulin E (IgE) than other individuals. D. They have a deficiency in epinephrine compared with other individuals.
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C
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What is the mechanism in type I hypersensitivity reactions? A. Antibodies bind to the antigen on the cell surface and cause lysis. B. Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation followed by discharge of preformed mediators. C. Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes are deposited in the tissues. D. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes or lymphokines-producing Th1 cells attack and destroy cellular targets directly.
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B
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What is the mechanism in type II hypersensitivity reactions? A. Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation followed by discharge of preformed mediators. B. Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes are deposited in the tissues. C. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes or lymphokines-producing Th1 cells attack and destroy cellular targets directly. D. Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.
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D
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In a Type II hypersensitivity reaction, when mismatched blood is administered causing an ABO incompatibility, what destroys the erythrocytes? A. Complement-mediated cell lysis B. Phagocytosis by macrophages C. Phagocytosis in the spleen D. Natural killer cells
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A
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In a Type II hypersensitivity reaction, when antibodies are formed against red blood cell antigens of the Rh system, how are the blood vessels destroyed? A. By complement-mediated cell lysis B. By phagocytosis by macrophages C. By phagocytosis in the spleen D. By neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products
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C
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In a Type II hypersensitivity reaction, when soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, what causes tissue damage? A. Complement-mediated cell lysis B. Phagocytosis by macrophages C. Phagocytosis in the spleen D. Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products
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D
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In a Type II hypersensitivity reaction, that is an antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC), what destroys the target cells? A. Complement-mediated cell lysis B. Phagocytosis by macrophages C. Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products D. Natural killer cells
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D
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In Graves' disease (hyperthyroidism), autoantibodies bind to and activate receptors for thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) so that excessive T4 (thyroxine) is secreted, causing clinical manifestations of an increased metabolism. This mechanism is an example of which Type II hypersensitivity reaction? A. Modulation B. Antibody-dependent cell-mediated (ADCC) C. Neutrophil-mediated damage D. Complement-mediated lysis
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A
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In myasthenia gravis, the acetylcholine receptor antibodies block acetylcholine from attaching to their receptors impairing the neuromuscular transmission and causing muscle weakness. This mechanism is an example of which Type II hypersensitivity reaction? A. Modulation B. Antibody-dependent cell-mediated (ADCC) C. Neutrophil-mediated damage D. Complement-mediated lysis
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A
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What is the mechanism in type III hypersensitivity reactions? A. Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation followed by discharge of preformed mediators. B. Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes are deposited in the tissues. C. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes or lymphokines-producing Th1 cells attack and destroy cellular targets directly. D. Antibodies bind to the antigen on the cell surface.
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B
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In a type III hypersensitivity reaction, what causes the harmful effects after the immune complexes are deposited in tissues? A. Cytotoxic T cells B. Natural killer cells C. Complement activation D. Degranulation of mast cells
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C
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What mechanism occurs in Raynaud phenomenon that classify it as a type III hypersensitivity reaction? A. Immune complexes are deposited in capillary beds blocking circulation. B. Mast cells bind to specific endothelial receptors that cause them to degranulate creating a localized inflammatory reaction that occludes capillary circulation. C. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes attack and destroy the capillaries so that they are unable to perfuse local tissues. D. Antibodies detect the capillaries as foreign protein and destroy them using lysosomal enzymes and toxic oxygen species.
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A
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What is the mechanism in type IV hypersensitivity reactions? A. Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation followed by discharge of preformed mediators. B. Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes are deposited in the tissues. C. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes or lymphokines-producing Th1 cells attack and destroy cellular targets directly. D. Antibodies bind to the antigen on the cell surface.
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C
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When a tuberculin skin test is positive, what forms the hard center and erythema surrounding the induration? A. Histamine B. T lymphocytes and macrophages C. Immune complexes D. Products of complement
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B
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What disease involves the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against host DNA, resulting in tissue damage? A. Hemolytic anemia B. Pernicious C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Myasthenia gravis
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C
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The class of antibody involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions is: A. IgA. B. IgE. C. IgG. D. IgM.
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B
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How does tissue damage occur in acute rejection after an organ transplant? A. Helper T cells (Th1) release cytokines that activate infiltrating macrophages and cytotoxic T cells directly attack the endothelial cells of the transplanted tissue. B. Circulating immune complexes are deposited in the endothelial cells of transplanted tissue where the complement cascade lyses tissue. C. Antigens on the cell surface of transplanted tissue are recognized by receptors on natural killer (NK) cells, which release lysosomal enzymes that destroy tissue. D. Antibodies coat the surface of transplanted tissue to which mast cells bind and liberate preformed chemical mediators that destroy tissue.
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A
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Which blood cell carries the carbohydrate antigens for blood type? A. Platelets B. Neutrophils C. Lymphocytes D. Erythrocytes
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D
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A person with type O blood is likely to have high titers of anti-___ antibodies. A. A B. B C. A and B D. O
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C
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Which class of immunoglobulins forms isohemagglutinins? A. Immunoglobulin A (IgA) B. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) C. Immunoglobulin G (IgG) D. Immunoglobulin M (IgM)
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D
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Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function? A. Iron B. Zinc C. Iodine D. Magnesium
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B
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Which component of the immune system is deficient in people with infections caused by viruses, fungi, or yeast? A. Natural killer cells B. Macrophages C. B cells D. T cells
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D
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By _____ months, the newborn is sufficiently protected by antibodies produced by its own B cells. A. 1 to 2 B. 4 to 5 C. 6 to 8 D. 10 to 12
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C
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Considering the effects of nutritional deficiencies on the immune system, severe deficits in calories and protein lead to deficiencies in the formation of which immune cells? A. B cells B. T cells C. Natural killer cells D. Neutrophils
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B
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When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, _____ disease is a result. A. allergic B. alloimmune C. fetalimmune D. autoimmune
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B
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Blood transfusion reactions are an example of: A. autoimmunity. B. alloimmunity. C. homoimmunity.
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B
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In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial to complete absence of T-cell immunity? A. Bruton disease B. DiGeorge syndrome C. Reticular dysgenesis D. Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency
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B
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Which of the following is a characteristic of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? A. It only infects T helper cells. B. The virus is retrovirus. C. It carries genetic information in DNA. D. Five strains have been identified.
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B
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What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection? A. It converts single DNA into double-stranded DNA. B. It is needed to produce integrase. C. It transports the RNA into the cell nucleus. D. It converts RNA into double-stranded DNA.
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D
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Which cells are primary targets for HIV? A. CD4-positive Th cells only B. CD4-positive Th cells, macrophages, and natural killer cells C. CD8-positive Tc cells and plasma cells D. CD8-positive Tc cells only
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B
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Which secretion transmits human immunodeficiency syndrome? A. Sweat B. Urine C. Saliva D. Breast milk
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D
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Cells in _____ may act as a reservoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs. A. the central nervous system B. bone marrow C. the thymus gland D. the lungs
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A
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A major immunologic finding in AIDS is the striking decrease in the number of which cells? A. Macrophages B. CD8+ T cells C. CD4+ Th cells D. Memory T cells
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C
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HIV antibodies appear within ______ weeks after infection through blood products. A. 1 to 2 B. 4 to 7 C. 10 to 12 D. 20 to 24
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B
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After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for _____ months. A. 1 to 2 B. 6 to 14 C. 18 to 20 D. 24 to 36
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B
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What is colonization? A. The ability of a pathogen to invade and multiply in the host B. The presence of pathogens on or in the body without tissue invasion C. An important factor in determining a pathogen's degree of virulence D. Direct damage to cells rendering them dysfunctional
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B
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For which microorganisms is the skin the site of reproduction? A. Viruses B. Bacteria and fungi C. Protozoa and rickettsiae D. Mycoplasma
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B
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Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do neutrophils actively attack, engulf and destroy by phagocytosis? A. Bacteria B. Fungi C. Viruses D. Mycoplasma
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A
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Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do natural killer cells actively attack? A. Bacteria B. Fungi C. Viruses D. Mycoplasma
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C
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In a bacterial infection, what activates helper T cells? A. Macrophage display of antigens B. Phagocytosis by neutrophils C. Activation of the complement cascade D. Cytokines engulf bacteria
answer
A
question
How do pathogens use antigenic shifts to escape recognition by host defenses? A. By creating mutations allowing for the emergence of new strains of pathogens B. By a recombination of genes from different pathogens C. By pathogens switching genes off and on to avoid host's immune response D. By changing the appearance of surface antigens to avoid detection
answer
B
question
Which element is necessary for bacteria to multiply? A. Iron B. Zinc C. Iodine D. Copper
answer
A
question
Which mechanism is used by bacteria such as Staphylococcus, Streptococcus and Mycobacterium tuberculosis to fight off or alter the human inflammatory response or resist immune defenses? A. They coat the surfaces to inhibit phagocytosis. B. They produce toxins that damage cells and alter function. C. They create surface receptors that bind to host cells. D. They produce proteases to digest immunoglobulins.
answer
B
question
Which are characteristics of exotoxins? A. They are contained in cell walls of gram-negative bacteria. B. They are released during the lysis of bacteria. C. They can initiate the complement and coagulation cascades. D. They are released during bacterial growth.
answer
D
question
How are vaccines against viruses made? A. Vaccines are made from killed organisms or extracts of antigens. B. Vaccines are made from live organisms weakened so that antigens, which limits controllable infection. C. Vaccines are made from purified toxins that have been chemically detoxified without loss of immunogenicity. D. Vaccines are made from recombinant pathogenic protein.
answer
B
question
Cytokines are thought to raise the thermoregulatory set point to cause fever by stimulating the synthesis of which chemical mediator? A. Leukotriene B. Histamine C. Prostaglandin D. Bradykinin
answer
C
question
One systemic manifestation of an acute inflammatory response is fever that is produced by: A. endogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus. B. exogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus. C. immune complexes acting indirectly on the hypothalamus. D. cytokines acting indirectly on the hypothalamus.
answer
A
question
What is the major cause of death worldwide? A. Starvation B. Traumatic injury C. Cardiovascular disease D. Infectious disease
answer
D
question
Which statement about vaccines is true? A. Most bacterial vaccines contain attenuated organisms. B. Most viral vaccines are made by using dead organisms. C. Vaccines with booster injections induce primary and secondary immune responses. D. Vaccines provide effective protection for all people against viruses, bacteria and fungal infections.
answer
C
question
Which statement is true about fungal infections? A. They occur only on skin, hair, and nails. B. They are controlled by phagocytes and T lymphocytes. C. They result in release of endotoxins. D. They are be prevented by vaccines.
answer
B
question
Which are cancers arising from connective tissue tissues? A. Osteogenic sarcoma B. Basal cell carcinoma C. Multiple myeloma D. Adenocarcinoma
answer
A
question
Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin? A. Blood vessels B. Epithelium cells C. Connective tissue D. Glandular tissue
answer
B
question
What are characteristics of cancer in situ? A. Cells have broken through the local basement membrane. B. Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue. C. Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells. D. Cellular and tissues changes indicate dysplasia.
answer
C
question
Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of: A. dysplasia. B. hyperplasia. C. myoplasia. D. anaplasia.
answer
D
question
What are tumor cell markers? A. Hormones, enzymes, antigens, and antibodies produced by cancer cells B. Receptor sites on tumor cells that can be identified and marked C. Cytokines produced against cancer cells D. Identification marks used in administering radiation therapy
answer
A
question
How are tumor cell markers used? A. To provide a definitive diagnosis of cancer B. To treat certain types of cancer C. To predict where cancers will develop D. To screen individuals at high risk for cancer
answer
D
question
Intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in development of colon cancer. These findings support the notion that: A. cancers of the colon are more easily diagnosed in the benign form because they can be visualized during colonoscopy. B. an accumulation of mutations in specific genes is required for the development of cancer. C. tumor invasion and metastasis progress more slowly in the gastrointestinal tract. D. apoptosis is triggered by diverse stimuli including excessive growth.
answer
B
question
What is autocrine stimulation? A. The ability of cancer cells to stimulate angiogenesis to create their own blood supply B. The ability of cancer cells to stimulate secretions that turn off normal growth inhibitors C. The ability of cancer cells to secrete growth factors that stimulate their own growth D. The ability of cancer cells to divert nutrients away from normal tissue for their own use
answer
C
question
What is apoptosis? A. A normal mechanism for cells to self-destruct when growth is excessive B. An antigrowth signal activated by tumor suppressor Rb C. A mutation of cell growth stimulated by the p53 gene D. The transformation of cells from dysplasia to anaplasia
answer
A
question
Many cancers create a mutation of ras. What is ras? A. A tumor suppressor gene B. A growth promoting gene C. An intracellular signaling protein that regulates cell growth D. A cell surface receptor that allows signaling to the nucleus about cell growth
answer
C
question
What are oncogenes? A. Genes that have undergone mutation that direct the synthesis of protein to accelerate the rate of tissue proliferation B. Genes that direct synthesis of proteins to regulate growth and provide necessary replacement of tissue C. Genes that encode proteins that negatively regulate the synthesis of proteins to show or halt replacement of tissue D. Genes that have undergone mutation to direct malignant tissue toward blood vessels and lymph nodes for metastasis
answer
A
question
Burkitt lymphomas designate a chromosome that has a piece of chromosome 8 fused to a piece of chromosome 14. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes? A. Point mutation B. Chromosome translocation C. Gene amplification D. Chromosome fusion
answer
B
question
In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes? A. Point mutation B. Chromosome fusion C. Gene amplification D. Chromosome translocation
answer
D
question
What aberrant change causes the abnormal growth in retinoblastoma? A. Proto-oncogenes are changed to oncogenes. B. The tumor suppressor gene is turned off. C. Genetic amplification causes the growth. D. Chromosomes 9 and 21 are fused.
answer
B
question
Why are two "hits" required to inactivate tumor suppressor genes? A. Because each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent B. Because the first "hit" stops tissue growth and the second "hit" is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth C. Because they are larger than proto-oncogenes requiring two "hits" to effect carcinogenesis D. Because the first "hit" is insufficient to cause sufficient damage to cause a mutation
answer
A
question
By what process does the ras gene convert from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene? A. By designating a chromosome that has a piece of one chromosome fused to a piece of another chromosome B. By duplicating a small piece of a chromosome repeatedly making numerous copies C. By alternating one or more nucleotide base pairs D. By promoting proliferation of growth signals by impairing tumor suppressor genes
answer
C
question
Normally, which cells, if any, are "immortal" (never die)? A. None, all cells eventually die B. Stems cells and germ cells C. Blood cells D. Epithelial cells
answer
B
question
How do cancer cells use the enzyme telomerase? A. They use it to repair the telomeres at the end of chromosome to restore somatic cell growth. B. They use it as an intracellular signaling chemical to stimulate cell division. C. They switch off the telomerase so that cells can divide indefinitely. D. They switch on the telomerase so that cells can divide indefinitely.
answer
C
question
What are characteristics of benign tumors? A. They invade local tissues. B. They spread through lymph. C. They cause systemic symptoms. D. They have a low mitotic index.
answer
D
question
Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively? A. Liposarcoma, lipoma B. Lipoma, liposarcoma C. Adisarcoma, adipoma D. Adipoma, adisarcoma
answer
B
question
Most human cancers appear to arise via: A. autosomal recessive gene inheritance. B. spontaneous gene mutations. C. X-linked recessive gene inheritance. D. autosomal dominant gene inheritance.
answer
B
question
Smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except: A. lung. B. skin. C. bladder. D. kidney. E. pancreas.
answer
B
question
Which of the following has been shown to increase the risk of cancer when used in combination with smoking? A. Alcohol B. Steroids C. Antihistamines D. Antidepressants
answer
A
question
The major virus involved in cervical cancer is: A. herpes simplex virus type 6. B. herpes simplex virus type 2. C. human papillomavirus. D. human immunodeficiency virus.
answer
C
question
The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer? A. Ovarian B. Uterine C. Cervical D. Vaginal
answer
C
question
Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses? A. Papovaviruses, adenoviruses, and herpesviruses B. Retroviruses, papovaviruses, and adenoviruses C. Adenoviruses, herpesviruses, and retroviruses D. Herpesviruses, retroviruses, and papovaviruses
answer
A
question
Which characteristic among women correlates with a high morbidity of cancer of the colon, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, breast, uterus, and kidney? A. Women over 45 years B. Women who never had children C. Women who had a high body mass index D. Woman who smoked for more than 10 years
answer
C
question
Which cancers are associated with chronic inflammation? A. Skin, lung, and pancreatic B. Colon, liver, and lung C. Bone, blood cells, and pancreatic D. Bladder, skin, and kidney
answer
B
question
How does chronic inflammation cause cancer? A. By vasodilation and increased permeability that alter cellular response to DNA damage B. By liberating lysosomal enzymes when cells are damaged, which initiates mutations C. By releasing compounds such as reactive oxygen species that promote mutations D. By increasing the abundance of leukotrienes that are associated with some cancers
answer
C
question
Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene? A. Proto-oncogenes B. Oncogenes C. Tumor suppressor genes D. Growth promoting genes
answer
C
question
What congenital malformation is commonly linked to acute leukemia in children? A. Down syndrome B. Wilms tumor C. Retinoblastoma D. Neuroblastoma
answer
A
question
When are childhood cancers are most often diagnosed? A. During infancy B. At peak times of physical growth C. After early warning signs D. After an acute illness
answer
B
question
Prenatal exposure to diethylstilbestrol can result in: A. breast cancer. B. leukemia. C. vaginal cancer. D. lymphoma.
answer
C
question
What percentage of children with cancer can be cured? A. 48% B. 58% C. 68% D. 78%
answer
D
question
Most childhood cancers arise from the: A. epithelium. B. mesodermal germ layer. C. embryologic ectodermal layer. D. viscera.
answer
B
question
Which cancers are more common in black children? A. Leukemia B. Retinoblastoma C. Lymphoma D. Osteosarcoma
answer
D
question
An example of an embryonic tumor is: A. osteosarcoma. B. neuroblastoma. C. leukemia. D. adenocarcinoma.
answer
B
question
Chronic myelogenous leukemia, retinoblastoma and osteosarcoma are associated with which genetic factors in childhood cancers? A. Chromosome aberrations or single gene defects B. Mutation of proto-oncogenes to oncogenes C. Tumor suppressor genes that have lost their suppressor function D. Congenital malformations
answer
A
question
Childhood exposure to all of the following risk factors increase susceptibility to cancer except: A. drugs. B. ionizing radiation. C. cigarette smoke D. viruses.
answer
C
question
There is a carcinogenic relationship between Hodgkin disease and the: A. herpes simplex virus. B. human immunodeficiency virus. C. varicella virus. D. Epstein-Barr virus.
answer
D
