Microbiology final exam – Flashcards

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question

What are the six characteristics of living systems?

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Required:

Metabolism

Reproduction

Differentiation

Optional:

Communication

Movement

Evolution

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What is the maximum resolution of a light microscope?
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0.2 µm
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What are the three domains of comparitive rRNA sequencing?
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Bacteria (prokaryotic)
Archaea (prokaryotic)
Eukarya (eukaryotic)
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What are the two functions of cytoplasmic membranes?
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Highly selective Permeability Barrier
Carrier-Mediated Transport Systems
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What is metabolism?
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The sum of all chemical reactions (anabolism and catabolism)
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What are the two reaction serieses linked to energy conservation in chemoorganotrophs?
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Fermentation

Respiration

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What is the electron transport system within the cytoplasmic membrane that separates protons as electrons are transported?
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Proton motive force
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In aerobic respiration, what is the final electron acceptor?
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Oxygen
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The electrochemical potential across the cytoplasmic membrane results in a pH gradient due to the acumulation of what molecules on either side of the barrier?
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H+ outside

OH- inside

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Through what metabolic pathway is pyruvate completely oxidized into CO2?
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Citric acid cycle

Tricarboxylic acid cycle

Krebbs cycle

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What process converts glucose to pyruvate?
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glycolysis
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Per glucose molecule, how many ATP are generated through aerobic respiration?
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38

2 from glycolysis, 6 from NAD generated in glycolysis in the electron transport chain and 15 through the CAC twice (one for each pyruvate)

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How many CO2 are released per molecule of glucose aerobically respirated?
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6
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What is the killing, or removal, of all viable organisms within a growth medium?
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Sterilization
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What is the ammount of time required to reduce the viability of an organism tenfold at a given temperature?
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Decimal reduction time
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What are the most successful and commonly use antivirals?
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Nucleoside analogs
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What are the to types of lymphocytes?
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B cells

T cells

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Where do B cells mature?
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Bone marrow
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Where do T cells mature?
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Thymus
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What do microorganisms display that immune reactions use to identify them?
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Pathogen associated molecular patterns
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What are used to identify pathogen PAMPs?
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Pathogen recognition molecules

Pathogen recognition receptors

Toll-like receptors

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Which helper subset activates macrophages by secreting cytokines? (cell mediated)
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TH1
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Which helper subset plays a crucial role in B cell activation and antibody production? (antibody mediated)
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TH2

 

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What are the five classes of immunoglobulins?
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IgG

IgA

IgM

IgE

IgD

 

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Which immunoglobulin is the most common circulating antibody, has a molecular weight of around 150,000 and is made up of four polypeptide chains?
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IgG
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What is formed by the cooperative interaction between variable domains of both light and heavy chaines in antibodies?
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The antigen-binding site
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Which immunoglobulin forms an aggregate of five immunoglobulin molecules with at least one J-chain?
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IgM
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Which immunoglobulin is generally the first produced in response to a pathogen?
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IgM
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Which immunoglobulin is found in bodily fluids such as saliva, tears, breast milk and mucosal secretion from the genital and digestive systems?
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IgA
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Which immunoglobulin tends to form dimers of two anitbodies?
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IgA
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What is a J chain?
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Protein component of combined antibody structure
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Which cell recognizes the antigen presented by MHCI?
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TC
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Which cells interact with the peptide MHCII?
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TH1 and TH2

 

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Which interaction causes the TH1 cells to produce cytokines that activate the macrophages?

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Cell-mediated immunity
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Which interaction uses cytokines to stimulate antigen-reactive B cells to produce antibodies?
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Antibody mediated response
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What are the general antibody receptors called on phagocytes?

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Fc receptors
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What bind to any antibody attached to an antigen and their interaction results in enhanced phagocytosis of the antibody-sensitized cells?

 

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Fc receptors
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What process results in enhanced phagocytosis?

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Opsonization
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When is energy from light is used in the reduction of CO2 to organic compounds ?

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Photoautotrophy
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When is phototrophs use organic compound as their carbon source?

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Photoheterotrophy
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What process converts light energy into chemical energy?
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Photosynthesis
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What is the first step of the Calvin cycle catalyzed by?
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ribulose biphosphate carboxylase (RubisCO)
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What molecule catalyzes the formation of two molecules of 3-phosphoglyceric acid (PGA) from ribulose biphosphate and CO2?
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RubisCO
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What word describes DNA replication?
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Semiconservative
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In what direction does DNA replication proceed?
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From 5' to 3'

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In which direction does RNA transcription proceed?
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From 5' to 3'
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What enzyme is used to replicate chromosomal DNA?
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DNA polymerase III
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To replicate DNA, DNA polymerase requires what?
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A primer
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What is a primer made of?
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RNA
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In prokaryotes, what enzyme is used in transcription?
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RNA polymerase
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What doesRNA polymerase use as a template?
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DNA
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How many strands of DNA are used during the transcription of a given gene?
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1
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What does RNA polymerase recognize during transcription?
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Promoters
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What is the site of the initiation of transcription?
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Promoter
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What recognizes promoters during transcription?
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Sigma factor of RNA polymerase
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Where does transcription terminate?
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transcription terminators
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What is located 10 bases before the start of transcription?

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-10 region

Pribnow box

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What is located 35 bases before the start of transcription?
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-35 region
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In prokaryotes, what two regnions within promoters are highly conserved?
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Pribnow box (-10) and -35
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What base sequence is associated with the -35 region?
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TTGACA
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What is a grop of related genes that are cotranscribed on a polycystronic mRNA?
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Operon
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This type of code transribes for a single amino acid, but can consist of different codons.
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Degenerate code
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This is found on tRNA and recognizes a codon.
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Anticodon
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In prokaryotes, this ensures proper reading-frame.
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Shine-delgarno sequence
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What sequence makes up the start codon?
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AUG
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What codons make up stop codons?
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UAA, UAG and UGA
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Tese consist of three bases of tRNA.
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Anticodon
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What are the three stages of RNA processing?
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Splicing, capping and tail
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What is RNA splicing?
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The removal of introns from RNA transcripts
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What performs RNA splicing
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Splicosome
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In eukaryotes, what enzyme transcribes protein encoding genes?
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RNA polymerase II
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What enzyme distinguishes retroviruses (Types VI and VII) from other virues?
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Reverse transriptase
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What is a heritable change in DNA sequence that can change phenotype of an organism?
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Mutation
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What is a strain of any cell or virus that differes from its parental strain in genotype?
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Mutant
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What is a mutation that changes only one base pair? (This can lead to a single amino acid change in a protein or even no change.)
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Point mutation
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A mutation that does not affect the amino acid sequence.
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Silent mutation
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A mutation that changes an amino acid, and thus a polypeptide.
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Missense mutation
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A mutation that changes a codon to a stop codon, thus encoding for an incomplete polypeptide.
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Nonsense mutation
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A mutation where the deletion or insertion cause a shift in reading frame. (This often results in a complete loss of gene function.)
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Frameshift mutation
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What are the six basic genetic engineering techniques?
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Restriction enzymes

Gel electrophoresis

Nucleic acid hybridization

Nucleic acid probes

Molecular cloning

Cloning vectors

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These DNA ends form bonds with complementary pairs, then are removed by DNA lisage.
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Sticky ends
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An end to DNA where there are no unpaired bases.
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Blunt end
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These can be stained with ethidium bromide so that DNA can be visualized under UV light.
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Gels
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This genetic engineering technique takes the base pairing of a single strande of DNA or RNA from two different sources to get a hybrid double helix.
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Nucleic acid hybridization
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This single-stranded DNA segment is used in nucleic acid hybridization has a predetermined identity.
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Nucleic acid probe
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This hybridization proceedure uses DNA in gel and uses DNA or RNA as a probe.
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Southern blot
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This hybridiation proceedure uses RNA in a gel.
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Northern blot

 

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Most cloning vectors are derived from what?
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plasmids or viruses
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When inserting a DNA fragment into a cloning vector, how is it generally inserted?
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in vitro
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What enzyme is used to combine two DNA molecules? (works on both sticky or blunt ends.)
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DNA lingase
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This form of mutenogenisis is performed in vitro and introduces a mutation at a precise location.
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Site-directed mutenogenisis
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These promoters or coding sequences of genes of interest can be swapped with those of reporter genes to elucidate gene regulation under various conditions.
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Gene fusions
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What common cloning vector contains ampicillin resistance and IacZ gene (with polylinker (multiple cloning site) inside the gene)?
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pUC19
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Which category of bacteria carries out anoxyogenic photosynthesis and contains bacteriochlorophylls and cartenoid pigments?

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Purple phototrophic bacteria

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 What category is purple nonsulfur bachteria?

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Purple phototrophic bacteria

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Autotrophic reaction that uses H2 as the sole electron donor and O2 as the electron acceptor.

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Knallgas reaction

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Which type of bacteria uses a knallgas reaction?

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Hydrogen-oxidizing bacteria

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What does a blue color indicate in screening?
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Absence of the vector with the foreign DNA inserted
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What does a white color indicate in screening?
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Presence of the vector with the foreign DNA inserted
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Which bacteria are straight or curved rods with polar flagella, chemoorganotrophs and obligate aerobes?
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Pseudomonas
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What class of energy users are most gram-positive bacteria?
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Chemoorganotropes
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What tyoe of bacteria plays an important role in the production of buttermilk, silage and other products?
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Streptococcus
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Which bacteria is of dairy significance?
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Lactococcus
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Which metabolic reaction uses a dipeptide?
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Strickland reaction
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Which bacteria perform Strickland reactions?
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Clostridia
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Which bacteria was first discovered in Swiss cheese?
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Propionic acid bacteria
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Which bacteria is primarily found in soil. filamentous and gram-positive?
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Streptomyces
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What is the earthy smell bacterial metabolism can cause called?
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Geosmins
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Which bacteria has 50% of its species produce antibiotics? (Over 500 different antibiotics produced.)
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Strptomyces
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What genus of bacteria are Oscillatoria and Nostoc?
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Cynobacteria
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Which bacteria is a facutative aerobic chemoorganotroph, stalked, budding, primarily aquatic organism with an extensive cell compartementalization including a membrane-enclosed nuclear structure?
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Planctomyces

 

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What bacteria is responsible for lyme disease?
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Borrelia burgdorferi
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What are the two major groups of Archaea?
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Crenarchaeota

Euryarchaeota

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This phylogenetic group has traits of bacteria and eukarya, but most resembles eukayra despite being prokaryotic.
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Archaea
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This euryarchaeota is one of the smallest cellular organisms at .4 ?m.
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Nanoarchaeum
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This group of archaea inhabit temperature extremes, many are hyperthermophiles, while others are found in the extreme cold.
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Crenarchaeota
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Which group of organisms has a membrane-enclosed nucleus and several other organelles?
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Eukaryotes
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Respiration (CAC) and oxydative phosphorylation occur here.
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Mitochondrion
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Similar to mitochondria, these lack TCA cycle enzymes and cristae. Through the oxidation of pyruvate, they release H2, CO2 and acetate.

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Hydrogenosome
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Chlorophyll-containing organelle found in phototrophic eukaryotes. The lumen is called a stroma, which contains lots of RubisCO for the Calvin cycle.
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Chloroplast
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This organelle stacks separately from the ER, but in concert with it to modify the products of the ER for secretion.
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Golgi apparatus
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Membrane-enclosed compartments full of digestive enzymes used for hydrolysis.
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Lysosome
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Compartments that oxidize various compounds and also function in the synthesis of bile salts.
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Peroxisome
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Fungi form multicellular networks called...
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hyphae
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Hyphae grow together to form compact tufts called...
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mycelia
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Hyphae that extend above the surface can produce asexual spores called...
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conidia
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