Micro Kaplan Review – Flashcards

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question
3 GPC
answer
staph
strep
entero
question
6 GPR
answer
listeria
bacillus
clostridium
corynebacterium
actinomyces
nocardia
question
1 GNC
answer
neisseria
question
most common neonatal meningitis
answer
S. aglactia
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Staph aureus: distinguishing lab markers 4
answer
catalase neg
coagulase pos
B-hemolytic
ferments mannatol
yellow on blood agar
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staph epidermidis: distinguishing lab markers 4
answer
catalase neg
coagulase neg
y-hemolytic
novobicin sensitive
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staph saphrophiticus: distinguishing lab markers 4
answer
catalase neg
coagulase neg
y-hemolytic
novobicin resistant
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strep pneumo: distinguishing lab markers 3
answer
catalase neg
a-hemolytic
optochin sensitive
encapsulated
lancet diplococci
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strep viridans: distinguishing lab markers 3
answer
catalase neg
a-hemolytic
optochin resistant
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GAS (S. pyogenes): distinguishing lab markers 5
answer
catalase neg
B-hemolytic
bacitracin sensitive
cAMP neg
PYR+
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GBS (S. agalacticae): distinguishing lab markers 5
answer
catalase neg
B-hemolytic
bacitracin resistant
cAMP pos
hydraulizes urate
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Enterococcus: distinguishing lab markers 4
answer
catalase neg
y-hemolytic
PYR+
bile and salt tolerance
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S. bovis: distinguishing lab markers 2
answer
catalase neg
y-hemolytic
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#1 cause meningitis, otitis media, and CA pneumonia
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S. pneumo
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how to read MacConkey agar
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only grows GNR
lactose fermentation is puruple
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lactose fermenters 3
answer
E. coli
klebsiella pneumonia
enterobacter cloacae
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how to read mannitol salt agar
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only grows GPC
mannitol fermentation in yellow
coag negative (non-aureus) staph is clear
coag positive staph (aureus) is yellow
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what is regan lowe agar, how do you read it
answer
charcoal blood agar
selective: charcoal, blood, antibiotic
only grows bordetella pertussis and bordetella parapertussis
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S. aureus: locations, transmission, risk factors
answer
flora in nares and hands
sneezing, surgery, food, hands

surgical packing, tampons, neutropenia, IV drug users, chronic granulomatous disease, CF
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4 virulence factors of S. aureus and their basic mechanism
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protein A: binds FC of IgG stopping phagocytosis

enterotoxins: heat stable, causes food poisoning

TSST1: superantigen, overstimulates immune response

SSS: bolus lesions

cytolytic / a toxin: pore forming
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7 diseases of S. aureus and the toxin that causes them
answer
gastroenteritis: enterotoxin

endocarditis: cytolytic toxin

abscess/mastitis

TSS: TSST1

impetigo: exfolatoxin, coagulase, bullase

pneumonia: cytolysins

osteomyelitis: non HIV
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what pneumonia has salmon colored sputum
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A. aureus
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TX of staph aureus
answer
naficillin/oxacillin
vancomycin if MRSA
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5 virulence factors of GAS and their basic MOA
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hyaluronic acid: non-immunogenic

M-protein: anti-phagocyte, associated with acute GN

streptolysin O: hemolysin/cytolysin, immunogenic

streptolysin S: non-immunogenic

exotoxins: rash and fever in scarlet fever
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what GPC can spread fast and why
answer
GAS
streptokinase, DNAase, hyluronase
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5 diseases of GAS
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pharyngitis

rheumatic fever: auto-Ab to heart, HSN II

scarlet fever: sandpaper rash, groin erythema, strawberry tongue

pyoderma/impetigo

acute GN: HSN III
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what glomerularnephritis causes smoky urine
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post-streo (GAS) GN
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how is GAS diagnosed
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streptolysin O
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TX GAS
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B lactams
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what microbes have capsules
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Streptococcus pneumo
Klebsiella pneumonia
Hemophalus influenza
Pseudomonas
Neisseria meningitidis
cryptococcus
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most common cause of meningitis in neonate, kid, young adult, adult, unvaccinated, AIDS, transplant pt
answer
neonate- GBS
kid- S. pneumo
young adult- neisseria
adult- S. pneumo
unvaccinated- H. influenzae
AIDS- cryptococcus
transplant- listeria
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treatment GBS
answer
ampicillin and aminoglycoside or cephalosporin
must prevent at birth
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S. pneumo: location, risk factors
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colonizes nasopharynx

asplenia, COPD, CHF
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4 strep pneumo virulence factors and their basic function
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capsule

IgA protease

pneumolysin O: damages respiratory epithelium, decrease respiratory burst

techichoic acid: chemoattractant for neutrophils
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what pneumonia has rust colored sputum
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S. pneumo - lobar
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most common cause of CA pneumonia
answer
S. pneumo - lobar
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how do we diagnose S. pneumo 2
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qualling reaction: see swelling of capsule

latex agglutination: test for antigen in CSF
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treatment of S. pneumo
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pneumonia - macrolide
meningitis - cephalosporin
otitis - B lactam
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types of S. pneumo vaccinations 2
answer
peds: conjugate
adult: just polysaccharides
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give a few examples of S. viridans
answer
sanginus
mutans
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S. viridans: location, 2 diseases, treatment
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oral flora
subacute endocarditis
cavities

prophylaxis needed for susceptible patients in dental procedures
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S. bovis: 2 diseases
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endocarditis
POSSIBLE SIGN OF COLON CANCER
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E. fecalis disease and tx
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endocarditis in damaged valves
often vancomycin resistant
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diseases of enterococci 3
answer
UTI
biliary
endocarditis
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B. cerus: appearance, location, disease
answer
spores, GPR, box like rods
chinese food
gastroenteritis
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B. anthryx: appearance, locations
answer
spores, box like rods, GPR
animals, skins, warfare
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B. anthryx: virulence factors
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anthryx toxin: increases cAMP causing edema and diarrhea
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B. anthryx: clinical signs 2
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CXR: mediastinal widening
cutaneous: black eschar, red border, edema
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B. anthryx: treatment
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careful with antibiotics because breaking up the bug releases the toxin

cipro or doxycycline
toxoid vaccine
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3 obligate anaerobes
answer
cant breathe air
clostridium
bacteroides
actinomyces
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clostridium tetani: stain type, appearance, location
answer
GPR, soil
spores
puncture wounds (killed by O2)
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clostridium tetani: virulence
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tetanus toxin: tetanospasm - blocks glycine and GABA causing muscle spasms
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clostridium tetani diseases 2
answer
risus sardenicus: lock jaw
tetnus: muscle spasms
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tx c. tetani
answer
TIG antitoxin
metrenidazole
penicillin
DTaP vaccine prevention of TOXIN NOT INFECTION
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C. botuliniun: appearance, location, 2 virulence factors
answer
GPR
spores
soil and food

AB neurotoxin blocks ACh release
heat labile toxin
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C. botulinium diseases
answer
adult: INTOXICATION in canned foods
infant: INFECTION causes limpness, flaccid paralysis, due to infection of spores in honey
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tx C. botulinium
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adult: trivalent antitoxin
infant: antibiotics can worsen by releasing toxin
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C profringens: locations, medial growth, risk factors, appearance
answer
GPR
soil, colon, food
traumatic implantation
stormy fermentation in milk media
double zone hemolysis
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C. profringens: virulence
answer
a toxin: causes cell lysis (lecthinas)
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C. profringens identifications
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neigler reaction: growth on egg yolk agar on side without antitoxin signaling lecthinas activity
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C. profringens disease and tx
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gangrene: tense skin
hyperbaric O2
antibiotics
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Clostridium difficile: 2 virulence factors ad diagnostic method
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toxin A: enterotoxin damages mucosa and attracts granulocytes

toxin B: cytoplasmic cytotoxin

screen stool for toxin
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C. diff diseases and treatment
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associated with clindamycin and cephalosporins
causes pseudomembranous colitis (yellow plaques)

metronidazole, vancomycin if resistant
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listeria: appearance, location, virulence factors
answer
GPR without spores
facultative intracellular
tumbling motility / actin jet motility

listrolysin O
B hemolysin

cold growth: ice cream, cold cuts, hot dogs, cheese
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what is actin jet motility and what 3 bugs have it
answer
listeria, shigella, EIEC
spear of actin punctures cell
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listeria: diseases 3
answer
pregnancy listeriosis: pregnancy allows immune supression, fever, chills, mono like, crosses placenta

neonatal: early granuloma, later meningitis

meninigits: in elderly and renal pt
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listeria TX
answer
ampicillin
gentamycin
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corynebacterium: appearance, growth requirements,
answer
no spores, GPR
aerobic diptheroids
club shape
tellurite medium
chinese letters (V/L)
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corynebacterium virulence factor
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diptheria toxin: decreases protein synthesis
adds ADP-ribose to eEF-2
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what two bugs decrease protein synthesis via ADP-ribose/eEF-2 pathway
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diptheria and pseudomonas
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diptheria disease
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localized microbe but toxin goes systemic
dirty gray pseudomembrane that bleeds when scraped

toxin targets heart and nerves (myocarditis, palsies, neuritis)
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diptheria diagnosis
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elik test: if strain makes toxin it makes percipitation line with antitoxin
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diptheria tx
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erythromycin and antitoxin
prevent with vaccine
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two branching bacteria, how can you tell them apart
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actinomyctes: GPR, branching, ANAEROBE, has SULFUR GRANULES, causes SOLITARY brain abscess

nocardia: GPR, branching, AEROBE, caues SINGLE brain abscess
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actinomyces israelli diseases
answer
location: gingiva, vagina

dental infection
invades bone
tissue swelling and draining abscess
lumpy jaw: cervicofacial swelling due to poor dental hygiene or trauma
CNS: solitary brain abscess
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tx actinomyces
answer
penicillin G
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nocardia asteroides and brasiliensis and mycetoma: location and risk factors
answer
soil, transplant, trauma, immune supression, cancer
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nocardia asteroides disease
answer
cavitary bronchopulmonary disease
can spread to brain and cause solitary abscess
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nocardiamycetoma disease
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draining SC granules
cellulitis
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tx nocardia
answer
sulfa
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mycobacteria: stain type, growth media, growth requirements, special cell features
answer
GPR, acid fast, ogligate aerobes

cell wall has increased lipids so resists drying and detergents

facultative intracellular: escape macrophages

grow on lowenstein johnson

stain with auramine: rhodamine staining bacilli (sputum screen)
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TB: transmission, 5 virulence factors
answer
respiratory

sulfatides: inhibit phagolysosome, waxy

cord factor: decrease WBC migration

No LPS layer

exotoxin

ilicts HSV IV response causing ghon complexes/granulomas)
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primary pulmonary TB events
answer
HSV IV response causing ghon focus and complex granulomas with macrophages
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reactivated TB events
answer
erosion of granulomas into airway
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when is a PPD positive
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HIV >5mm
AIDS anything at all (have no T cells...)
>10mm in high risk for exposure, IV drug users
>15mm in low risk for exposure
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how do you treat a person with a positive PPD
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you dont! positive PPD does not diagnose TB. you do more tests and such
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mycobacterium scofulaceum sign
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lymphadenitis of cervical nodes in kids
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mycobacterium marinium: cause, signs
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fish tank abrasion causes single granuloma soft tissue infection
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mycobacterium leprae: stain type, growth requirements, locations
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acid fact rods
punch bopsy lesion to test
obligate intracellular
nasal discharge and armadillos
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2 types of leprae and the difference
answer
tuberculoid: less severe, Th1 response can supress. LEPROMIN POSITIVE, MACULAR lesions, granuloma, parasthesia DUE TO MACULE MASS EFFECT

leprematous: severe weak CMI response, FOAM CELLS, lepromin negative, NODULAR lesions, parasthesia due to DAMAGE TO TISSUE, LION FACES due to CT distruction
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tx leprosy
answer
dapsone
rifampin
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difference between neisseria meningitis and gonorrhea
answer
meningitidis: capsule, vaccine, respiratory, mannose fermenting

gonorrhea: genital, B-lactaminase
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neisseria characteristics of all
answer
GPC diplococci
flat sides
oxidase positive
glocuse fermenting
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N. meningitidis: growth, properities, appearance
answer
GNC diplococci
kidney bean shape
maltose fermenting
capsule latex
grows on chocolate agar with 5% CO2
LPS layer
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N. meninigitids: location, transmission, signs
answer
5% of population has in nasopharynx
respiratory droplets in crowds

abrupt fever, chills, vomiting, rash

fulminent: in younger kids, adrenal collapse (waterhouse fredricheson) death in 24h
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N. meningitidis: virulence
answer
LPS layer: septic shock, decreases C5-9 causing bacteremia

polysacchardia capsule B antigen: most common in US, not immunogenic NOT IN VACCINE
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components of N. meningitidis vaccine and tx
answer
conjuate: Y, W-135, C, A (NO B IN IT)

tx: rifampin for close contacts
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what is the most common cause of urethritis
answer
chalmydia
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features of neisseria gonorrhea
answer
kidney shaped diplococci
sensitive to drying and cold
pilli with antigenic variation
outer membrane proteins: serotype
opa: antigenic, variable, adherance
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gonorrhea growth requirements
answer
thayer marin chocolate and antibiotics to decrease flora
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diseases of gonorrhea
answer
urethritis
arthritis
endocervicitis
PID
opthalmia: blindness
question
tx gonorrhea
answer
erythromycin drops for opthalmia
ceftriaxone
question
moraxella catarahallis: stain type, diseases
answer
GNC
otitis media and sinusitis #3
question
pseudomonas: growth requirements, stain type, color, appearance, cell features
answer
aerobic
non-fermenting
GNR
oxidase positive
catalase positive
grape odor
slime layer capsule
blue green on EMB/MacConkey
question
pseudomonas virulence factors
answer
exotoxin ADD ribosylates eEF2 (like diptheria)

capsule- penetrates well in CF and pneumonia patients
question
pseudomonas diseases
answer
pneumonia
hot tub folliculitis
eye ulcer with contacts
erythema gangrinosum: black eschar
UTI HA
swimmers ear
DM malignant otitis externa
question
what type of microbes florish in a patient with chronic granulomatous disease
answer
catalase positive
question
legionella: stain type, shape, growth requirements
answer
GNR stains poor
needs cystine, Fe for growth (yeast extract with charcoal buffer, fastidious)
grows in water
question
legionella pneumonia: location, transmission, risk factors
answer
facultative intracellular
transmission in air conditioning
not human to human
risk in smokers >55, alcoholics, immune supressed
question
legionares disease
answer
atypical penumonia, confusion, hyponatremia, diarrhea
question
pontiac fever
answer
legionares disease in younger pt
less severe pneumonitis
question
francisella: cause, stain
answer
facultative intracellular
rabbit fever
GNR
question
bordatella: location, transmission, growth requiremenet, stain
answer
GNR, strict aerobe
human resivour on mucosa
question
bordatella virulence
answer
fillamentous hemagluttin: allows to attach to cillia

pertussis toxin: activates islets causing hypoglycemia, attachment

adenylate cyclasetoxin: decreases leukocyte chemotaxis

trachial cytotoxin: kills cillia
question
4 phases of pertussis
answer
incubation 7-10d
catarrhal 1-2wk: best cultures, cold like
paroxysmal 2-4wk: whoop, vomiting
convalescent 3-4wk: decreased cough, pneumonia, seizure
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growth of pertussis
answer
raganlow media of direct cough plate or nasopharynx culture
question
tx pertussis
answer
erythromycin, macrolides
question
brucella: stain type, location, sign
answer
GNR
zoonotic
sweating
question
6 causes of bloody diarrhea
answer
camplobacter
shigella
EIEC
EHEC
salmonella
E. histolytica
question
5 causes of non-bloody diarrhea
answer
ETEC
vibro
norovirus
rotavirus
persistant = parasites (cryptrosporidium, giardia)
intoxications: B. cerus, S. aures, etc
question
what bacteria is an exception to bloody diarrhea and why
answer
EHEC: blood does not come from damage from the bacteria it comes from the toxin so there will be NO fever and NO PMN
question
why is bloody diarrhea bloody, what are some signs
answer
invasive and inflammatory
blood, puss, PMN, fever
question
most common cause of adult and kid diarrhea
answer
adult: norovirus
kid: rotavirus
question
most common cause diarrhea in AIDS
answer
cryptosporidium
question
main way to tell shigella and salmonella apaet
answer
both are non-lactose fermenting
shigella is not motile and has no H2S
salmonella is motile and has H2S
question
most common cause of bloody diarrhea
answer
camplobacter (usually starts watery)
question
how can you tell apart the two bloody diarrhea E. coli
answer
EIEC: + fermentation of sorbitol
EHEC: - fermentation of sorbitol
question
camplobacter: stain type, appearance, locations, complications
answer
GNR curved at 42 deg

poultry, invasive, infective at low dose

bloody gastroenteritis, guillian barre, reactive arthritis
question
H. pylori: appearance, growth requirements, lab reactions, transmission
answer
curved rod
microaerophilic
oxidase positive
urease positive
fecal oral
motile
silver stain
question
H. pylori diseases
answer
invades stomach lining causing duodenal ulcer
MALToma (resolves with tx)
gastric adenocarcinoma (does not resolve)
question
tx h. pylori
answer
omeprazole
amoxicillin
clathromyicn
question
vibro: shape, stain, growth requirements, lab signs
answer
GNR curved, polar flagella
oxidase positive
ferments sucrose
question
V. colera: virulence, signs, location
answer
toxin causes voluminous watery diarrhea, increases cAMP
have to ingest lots has low virulence
acidity in stomach
in human colon, cocepods, shellfish
question
Vibro parahaemolyticus: disease, cause
answer
gastroenteritis from undercooked seafood
question
vibro vulmificus 2 diseases
answer
gastroenteritis from undercooked seafood
cellulitis: rapid spreading
question
properities of enterobacter
answer
GNR
facultative anaerbe
cytochrome C oxidase
turn nitrates into nitrites
LPS layer
endotoxin
antigens (O, H, K, V1)
question
enterobactericae antigens
answer
O- cell envelope
H- flagella
K- capsule polysaccharide
V1- virulence capsule on salmonella
question
how do tell apart the 4 enterobactericae
answer
E. coli ferments lacrose, klebsiella doesnt

salmonella has H2S and is motile, Shigella isnt
question
E. coli: stain, fermentation, lab signs, locations
answer
GNR
ferment lactose
oxidase negative
human colon
enterohemorrhagic comes from cow poo
question
most common cause of UTI and why
answer
E. coli, pilli attach to urethra
question
second most common causes of neonatal sepsis and meningitis (to GBS) and why
answer
E. coli: K1 capsule
question
why does E. coli cause sepsis
answer
LPS layer endotoxin, nosocomal, central lines
question
4 types of E. coli and who/how to get
answer
ETEC: travelers diarrhea
EPEC: peds diarrhea
EIEC: distractor for dissentary
EHEC:
question
#2 infantile diarrhea
answer
EPEC
question
what E. coli have toxin
answer
ETEC: LT toxin heat labile, increases cAMP like vibro

EHEC 0157:H7: verotoxin decreases protein synthesis
question
what two bugs have toxin that increase cAMP to cause diarrhea
answer
vibro
ETEC
question
what two bugs decrease protein synthesis with verotoxin
answer
EHEC 0157:H7 and shigella
question
disease of verotoxin
answer
hemolytic uremic syndrome
question
signs of EHEC
answer
not invasive, no fever
bloody diarrhea
no PMM (toxin causes the problem)
no fermentation or sorbitol unlike normal flora E. coli
question
klebsiella: stain, characteristics
answer
GNR
capsule
ferments lactose
question
what causes thick gelantenous red sputum
answer
currant jelly sputum
klebsiella
question
diseaes of klebsiella
answer
UTI nosocomal
pneumonia lobar (esp in alcoholic)
question
what is the most common lobar pneumonia
answer
s. pneumo
question
shiella: transmission, markers
answer
fecal oral, daycare, humans only

non motile
no H2S
non-lactose fermenting
question
plaque: types, signs, appearance, tx
answer
bubonic: infective bubos
pneumonia: warfare, death fast

coagulates in flea and it regurgitates into person

bipolar safety pin, coagulase positive

tx aminoglycocides
question
4 yersenia
answer
plaque
coccidiodes
hanta virus
enterocolitica
question
enterocolitica: growth requirements, signs
answer
grows in cold
bloody diarrhea
pseudoappendicitis
question
proteus:lab signs, growth, staining, disease signs
answer
GNR
swarms
no lactose fermentation
makes urease which makes stones
increases urine pH which makes strones
question
salmonella: staining, lab markers, types
answer
GNR
no lactose fermentation
motile H2S

enterolyticus, tymphanirum, typhi
question
s. typhi: transmission, progression of disease
answer
fecal oral
human to human

mucosa > M cells > lymph > primary septicemia > seeds organs > gallbladder (home base)
question
signs of S. typhi
answer
rose colored spots

DIARRHEA AND CONSTIPATION

osteomyelitis in sickle cell

septicemia
question
salmonella enteritidis and tynaphrium: location, MOA, diseases
answer
undercooked chicken, reptiles

need large dose because it is sensitive to stomach acid

no toxin causes inflammation itslf

gastroenteritis
osteomyelitis: esp sickle cell
question
how can you diagnose salmonella
answer
hektoen agar: H2S shows as black colonies
question
hemophalus: staining, shape, lab signs, growth requirements
answer
GNR pleomorphic
not hemolytic
needs heme, X (hematin) and Y (NAD) to grow
question
hemophalus virulence factors
answer
capsule: major virulence factor
satellite: staph is B hemolytic and releaes X and V so hemophalus can grow next to it
question
diseases of hemophalus
answer
otitis
bronchitis/pneumonia
epiglogttitis
question
hemophalus vaccine type
answer
1st conjugate vaccine that has protein allowing class switch to get bettr Ab response
question
hemophalus ducrei: signs
answer
lesion open (increases transmission)
painful cancre
slow to heal without tx
question
gardenerella: stain, lab signs, growth requirements
answer
GN
facultative anaerobe
catalase postiive
oxidase negative
question
gardenerella disease
answer
vaginal pH disruption,
odor
thin gray fluid
clue cell: vaginal epithelial cell coated with bacteria
question
pasturella: disease, cause, tx
answer
cellulitis due to cat bite (dogs pant so less O2 which kills it)
rapid spread
augmentun and clauvonic acid
question
eikenella corrodens: cause, signs, disease
answer
human bite
bleach smell
carodes agar
cellulitis
question
capnocytophagia: risk factures, stain type, cell sign
answer
dog bite
encapsulated so splenectomy is risk factor
GN
fillamentous
question
bartonella: stain type, cause
answer
cat scratch
GNR
question
HAECK disease
answer
subacute endocarditis
question
bacteroides: stain type, growth need, disease
answer
GNR
anaerobic
infect surgical wounds
question
treopnema pallidum: growth requirements, how to test for it and in what phase
answer
obligate pathogen

primary: spiralis on microscopy
secondary: non specific AB test and specific FTA ABS test positive
tertiary: nonspecific test negative, specific positive
question
signs of syphillis in all stages
answer
prmary: chanker, painless, lasts few weeks

secondary: rash on palms and soles, condolymata lata, flat wart like, highly infectious

latent none

tertiary: gumma, AORITIS
question
signs of congenital syphillis
answer
stillbirth
keratitis
CN VIII dammage
hutchensons teeth: notched
desquamation rash
snuffles
saddle nose
saber shins
question
tx and SE of syphillis tx
answer
pen G

jarish-herxheimer rxn: LPS fly off dueing TX inducing shock when tx spirochetes
question
borellia: appearance, stain, transmission, growth requirements
answer
large GN
microaerophillic
ixodes tick
question
borella signs
answer
primary: bulls eye annular lesion

secondary: fever, chills, muscle pain, nodes enlarged

tertiary: HSN III arthritis migratory, myocarditis, meningitis, bells palsy
question
leptospira: where does it come from, distinguishing cell feature
answer
pet pee
hooks
question
chalmydicea: stages of replication
answer
elementary enters cell but cannot replicate so turns into reticulate body

it replicates and turns into elementary to leave cell
question
serotypes and diseases of chalmydia
answer
D-K: nongonoccal urethritis, PID, conjunctivits

L1-3: lymphogranuloma venerium: swollen nodes, genital elemphantitis, fistula

A-C trauma: follicular conjunctivitis, conjunctival scaring due to inturned lashes leads to blindness
question
tx chalmydia
answer
doxycycline
question
C. psitaci: transmission, disease
answer
bird poo
atypical pneumonia
question
C. pneumonia: disease
answer
walking pneumonia
question
rickettsia rikettsia: disease, transmission, pathogenesis, signs, tx
answer
RMSF
dermacentor tick
vasculitis invades endothelium
rash begins at ankles.wrist involving palms and soles

tx doxycycline
question
R. prowazekii: transmission, disease
answer
lice in crowded unsanatary area
epidemic
question
mycoplasma: disease, cell features, growth agar
answer
extracellular, no cell wall
no B-lactams work!!
peptidoglycan wall
fried egg colonies on Eatons agar

dry hacking cough, atypical pneumonia
spreads fast
young adults
cold agglutinins
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