Mesa Embraer 175 – Flashcards
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Aircraft approved for ______ operations
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Visual (VFR), Instrument (IFR), Icing conditions, Category I and II
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Maximum Ramp Weight (MRW)
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85,870 lbs
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Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTOW)
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85,517 lbs
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Maximum Landing Weight (MLW)
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74,957 lbs
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Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW)
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69.886 lbs
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Minimum Flight Crew
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Pilot and Copilot
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Maximum Takeoff and Landing Tailwind Component
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10 Knots
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Maximum Runway Slope
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+/- 2%
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Runway Surface Type
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Paved
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Flap Maneuvering Load Accelerations Limits
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-1.0 G to +2.5 G Flaps Up -0.0 G to +2.0 G Flaps Down (1,2,3,4,5,Full)
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Maximum Operating Altitude
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41,000 '
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Maximum Takeoff Altitude
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8,000'
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Minimum Takeoff Altitude
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-1000'
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Maximum ambient air temperature for takeoff and landing
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52C
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Maximum flap extension altitude
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20,000'
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Minimum ambient temperature approved for takeoff
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-40C (SAT)
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Maximum latitude for stationary alignment
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78.25N to 78.25S
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Maximum operating airspeed
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VMO (320 kts)
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Maximum operating Mach number
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MMO (.82M)
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Maximum airspeed for RAT operations
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VMO/MMO
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Turbulent airspeed below and above 10,000'
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Below 10,000' 250 KIAS At and above 10,000' 270 KIAS/.76M
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Maximum tire limit ground speed
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195 Knots
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Maximum windshield wiper operation speed
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253 KIAS
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Maximum landing gear speeds (VLOE, VLE, VLOR)
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VLOE 250 KIAS VLE 250 KIAS VLOR 250 KIAS
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Flaps 1 Maximum Speed
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230 KIAS
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Flaps 2 Maximum Speed
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215 KIAS
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Flaps 3 Maximum Speed
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200 KIAS
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Flaps 4 Maximum Speed
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180 KIAS
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Flaps 5 Maximum Speed
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180 KIAS
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Flaps Full Maximum Speed
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165 KIAS
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Maximum Operating Speed to 8,000'
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300 KIAS
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Maximum Operating Speed 8,000' to 10,000'
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300 to 320 Linearly
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Maximum Operating Speed 10,000' to FL290
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320 KIAS (VMO)
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Maximum Operating Speed FL290 to FL410
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.82M (MMO)
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Definition of Icing Conditions
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The Outside Air Temp (OAT) on the ground or for takeoff, or Total Air Temp (TAT) inflight, is 10C or below and visible moisture in any form is present
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Maximum Fuel Capacity
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20,785 lbs 10392.5 lbs or 1535.5 US Gal per tank
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Unusable Quantity per Tank
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75 lbs/11 US Gal per tank
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Maximum Fuel Imbalance
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794 lbs
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Minimum Fuel Tank Temperature
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-40C (taken from the left wing sensor)
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Crossfeed Operations
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Must be OFF during takeoff and landing
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Max Differential Pressure
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Up to 37,000' 7.80 psi Above 37,000' 8.34 psi 0.2 psi for Takeoff and Landing
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Maximum Differential Overpressure
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8.77 psi Positive -0.5 psi Negative
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Maximum altitude for single pack operations
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FL310
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Do not take off with brake temp in the _______
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amber
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Thrust Reversers limitations
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Ground Use Only Not Authorized While Taxiing Full Stop Landings Do NOT attempt go-around after deployment Powerback is PROHIBITED MIN REV thrust with the Translating Cowl open below 60 KIAS Idle thrust with the Translating Cowl closed at 30 KIAS
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Autopilot Minimum Engagement Height (Takeoff)
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400'
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Autopilot Minimum Use Height (Coupled ILS Approach)
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50'
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Type of Engine
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CF34-8E5
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N1 & N2 Parameters
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N1 Max 99.5% N2 Min 58.5% Max 99.4%
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ITT Parameters
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Start 815C Continuous 960C Max T.O.G.A. 990C (5 Minutes Dual Engine, 10 Min Single Engine) First 2 minutes of T.O. or Go Around 1006C
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Oil Pressure Limits
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25 psi to 95 psi
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Oil Temp Limits
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Continuous 155C Transient (15 Minutes) 163C
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EICAS Markings Colors
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Red Max & Min Limitations Amber Caution Range Green Normal Operating Range
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Maximum FLEX reduction
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FLEX reduction must not exceed 25% of full takeoff thrust FLEX PROHIBITED on contaminated runways
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ATTCS must be ____ for all _____ ______
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ATTCS must be ON for all takeoffs and landings
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Engine Starter Duty Cycle Limits
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Attempts 1 & 2, 90 Sec ON/10 Sec OFF (Ground) Attempts 1 & 2, 120 Sec ON/10 Sec OFF (Airborne) Attempts 3,4,5 90 Sec ON/5 Min OFF (Ground) Attempts 3,4,5 120 Sec ON/5 Min OFF (Airborne)
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Dry Motoring Duty Cycle Limits
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Attempt 1 90 sec ON/5 Min OFF Attempts 2,3,4,5 30 Sec ON/5 Min OFF After 5 attempts, allow 15 min cool down
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APU Starter Duty Cycle
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Attempts 1,2 1 Minute ON/1 Minute OFF Attmempt 3 1 Minute ON/5 Minute OFF
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APU Start Conditions
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Batteries 22.5V minumium Battery #2 Temp < -20C OAT Temp < -54C
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APU EGT Limitations
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Start 1032C Continuous 717C Amber range 662C to 717C, no time limit NO AUTOMATIC SHUTDOWN IF LIMITS EXCEEDED IN FLIGHT
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APU Altitude Limitations
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30,000' Max for APU Start 33,000' Max for APU Operations (Electric Supply Only) 21,000' Max for Assist Engine Start 15,000' Max for providing Bleed Air for pressurization
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Maximum APU rotor speed
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108%
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TAS, TAT, SAT valid above
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60 KIAS
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Standby Compass not reliable when
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Transmitting on VHF #1
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Baro Minimums MUST be used for
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All Cat 1 Approaches
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LOC Back Course approaches using IESS are
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NOT authorized
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What components power the AC electrical system
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2 Integrated Drive Generators (IDG) Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) Inverter Ram Air Turbine (RAT) AC GPU Receptacle
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What components power the DC electrical system
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2 NiCad batteries (24VDC, 27 AH) 3 Transformer Rectifier Units (TRU) 28VDC, 300 A DC GPU Receptacle
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How does the IDG maintain a stable power supply?
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A constant speed drive (CSD) attaches the IDG to the Accessory Gear Box
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What will cause the amber IDG light on the overhead panel to illuminate?
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High Oil Temperature Low Oil Pressure
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What is the purpose of the Transformer Rectifier Units?
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Converts 115VAC to 28VDC
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Can the APU replace a failed IDG?
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Yes, up to 33,000'
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How is it known that an AC GPU is hooked up to the airplane and ready to provide electricity?
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GPU Button Displays AVAIL and the GPU icon is presented on the electrical synoptic page. Once the GPU button is pushed in, the button will display IN USE provided another AC power source is not available.
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MEMORY ITEM: APU Fire
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APU Emergency Stop Button Push In
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MEMORY ITEM: BATT 1 (2) Overtemp
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Associated Battery OFF
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MEMORY ITEM: CABIN ALTITUDE HI
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Crew Oxygen Masks DON, 100% Crew Communication Establish Altitude 10000 ft or MEA, WHICHEVER IS HIGHER Thrust Levers IDLE Speed Brake FULL OPEN Airspeed MAX/APPROPIATE Transponder 7700 ATC NOTIFY
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MEMORY ITEM: CARGO COMPARTMENT FIRE
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Associated Cargo Fire Extinguishing Button PUSH
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MEMORY ITEM: CRG FWD (AFT) SMOKE
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Associated Cargo Fire Extinguishing Button PUSH
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MEMORY ITEM: ENG 1 (2) FIRE
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Autothrottle DISENGAGE Affected Engine: Thrust Lever IDLE Start/Stop Selector STOP Fire Extinguishing Handle PULL
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MEMORY ITEM: JAMMED CONTROL COLUMN (PITCH)
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Elev Disc Handle PULL
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MEMORY ITEM: DUAL ENGINE FAILURE
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Airspeed 250 KIAS MINUMUM RAT Manual Deploy Lever PULL
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MEMORY ITEM: EMERGENCY EVACUATION
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Emergency/Parking Brake ON Thrust Levers IDLE Start/Stop Selectors STOP Fire Extinguishing Handles PULL AND ROTATE (1-L and 2-R) APU Emergency Stop Button PUSH IN APU Fire Extinguishing Button PUSH Pressurization Dump Button PUSH IN ATC NOTIFY Emergency Evacuation ANNOUNCE Batteries OFF
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MEMORY ITEM: ENGINE ABNORMAL START
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Start/Stop Selector STOP
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MEMORY ITEM: EMERGENCY DESCENT
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Fstn Belts Signs ON Altitude 10000 ft OR MEA, WHICHEVER IS HIGHER Thrust Levers IDLE Speedbrake FULL OPEN Airspeed MAX/APPROPIATE Transponder 7700 ATC NOTIFY
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MEMORY ITEM: JAMMED CONTROL WHEEL (ROLL)
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Aileron Disc Handle PULL
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MEMORY ITEM: PITCH TRIM RUNAWAY
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A/P Disc Button PRESS AND HOLD Pitch Trim Systems 1 & 2 Cutout Button PUSH IN
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MEMORY ITEM: ROLL (YAW) TRIM RUNAWAY
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A/P Disc Button PRESS AND HOLD
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MEMORY ITEM: STEERING RUNAWAY
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Steer Disc Switch PRESS
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GPU plugged in and outside GPU panel displays IN USE means:
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Ground service bus is in use Cockpit GPU button will display AVAIL even though the ground service bus is in use.
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GPU in use and APU started. Next pilot action:
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Deselect the GPU button before the next GPU connection
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Batteries charge source
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Any AC Power Source
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Aircraft Batteries endurance (without charging)
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10 Minutes
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Purpose of the DC GPU receptacle
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APU start when batteries < 22.5 VDC, or Battery temp is < -20C
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Minimum Battery Temp for APU Start
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-20 C
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Minimum battery voltage to close battery bus-ties
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18 Volts
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During APU Start, Battery usage
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BATT 1 powers the APU FADEC & EICAS for monitoring BATT 2 powers the APU Start Bus (including DC Fuel Pump)
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What is the purpose of the Inverter?
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Converts 28 VDC from batteries to 115 VAC to power the AC STANDBY BUS when an AC source is not available
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AC STANDBY BUS powers:
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Engine exciters 1A and 2A
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When will the RAT deploy?
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Automatically is AC BUSSES are not powered
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How long after deployment before RAT provides power?
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8 Seconds
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What prevents total power failure during RAT deployment?
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Batteries supply power to the DC ESS BUSSES and AC STANDBY BUS
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RAT provides power to:
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ESS BUSSES
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Minimum RAT airspeed
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130 KIAS. Below that speed results in load shedding
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What manages the electrical system?
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4 Integrated Control Centers (ICC) provides power distribution and protection. 2 Secondary Power Distribution Assemblies (SPDA) distributes electrical loads to aircraft systems according to distribution logic
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Can the flight crew reset the ICC and SPDA remote CB's?
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ICC - No, can only be reset my maintenance SPDA - Yes, via the MCDU
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Electrical System Fault Logic
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1. Onside (Dedicated IDC) 2. Inside (APU) 3. Outside (GPU) 4. Cross Side (Opposite IDC)
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Aircraft Dimensions
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Height 32' 3" Length 103' 11' Wingspan 98' 2"
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Turn Radius
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53' 8" Wheels 54' 4" Tail Clearance
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Flight Deck Emergency Equipment
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PBE (2) Halon Fire Extinguisher (1) Flashlight (1) Life Vests (3) 02 Masks (3) Crash Axe Escape Ropes (2)
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Cabin Emergency Equipment
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PBE (2) Halon Fire Extinguishers (3) Water Fire Extinguisher (1) Flashlights (2) Megaphone (1) Live Vests (2) MRTs (2) Portable O2 Bottles (2) First Aid Kits (2) Grab & Go Kit (1) EEMK (1) AED (1)
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ORIGINATING/RECEIVING Checklist Required Pubs
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Maintenance log can MEL QRH Honeywell FMS guide Airworthiness & Registration 2 Checklists TOLD Cards
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How to power on cockpit dome light on an unpowered airplane
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Flight Attendant Panel "COURTESY LIGHTS" switch to AUTO
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What charges the emergency lights
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4 Emergency Light Power Units (ELPU) charged off the DC BUS 1
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Emergency Lights duration
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10 Minutes
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When will the Emergency Lights illuminate?
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Emergency Lights switch in AUTO, and DC BUSSES lose power or the airplane's electrical power is turned off
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Where can you check the potable water quantity and waste service tank systems?
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Aft Flight Attendant panel
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What does a fault light mean on the aft flight attendant's panel?
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A fault in the forward or aft drain valve Water level indication is not available
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Where is door information presented?
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MFD "Status" page
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What happens when EMER on the audio panel is selected?
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A red light on the Cabin Light rainbow illuminates 3 hi-lo chimes sound in cabin
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When is the emergency escape slide automatically disarmed?
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When the main cabin or service doors are opened from outside the aircraft
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How to tell if escape slides are armed
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Armed - Red "ARMED" appears above the respective door handle Disarmed - Green "DISARMED" appears above the respective door handle
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Reinforced Cockpit Door "INHIBIT" button causes
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automatic open function is inhibited for 500 seconds
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How is the DVDR activated?
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Turned on through the MCDU Automatically turns on when an engine is running Automatically turns off with weight-on-wheels and engines not running
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How many DVDRs are installed?
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2
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How long will the DVDR record?
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2 hours of voice and radio communications 25 hours of flight data in GMT
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How many displays and instruments are on during initial aircraft power-up?
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DU 2 & 3 IESS & Clock MCDU 2 CCD 1
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What is the purpose of the collector box?
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Keeps the fuel pumps submerged Ensures constant fuel flow to the respective engine
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What is the surge/vent tank?
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Collects fuel during wing-down maneuvers and returns it to the main tanks once the wings are level. Equalizes tank pressure with atmosphere in flight and during refueling
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Can fuel be transferred or dumped overboard?
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No
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What happens when the crossfeed switch is selected to LOW 1?
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Crossfeed valve is opened ACMP 2 pump turned on, provides fuel to both engines from right tank
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What is the only way to close the engine fuel SOV?
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Pull the associated engine fire extinguishing handle
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When will the FUEL 1 (2) LO LEVEL EICAS be presented?
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660 lbs of fuel remaining in the associated tank
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What airplane systems have fire detection and protection?
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Engines APU Cargo Compartments Lavatories
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Are the cockpit and cabin protected from fire?
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Cockpit has one Halon fire extinguisher Cabin has 4 Halon fire extinguishers
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How are the engines and APU protected from fire?
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Engines - 2 Halon fire bottles APU - 1 Halon fire bottle
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Can both engine fire bottles be used for one engine if needed?
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Yes
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What are the Engine and APU fire detection/protection power sources?
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Engine Detection - DC ESS Engine Protection - HOT BATT APU Detection - DC ESS APU Protection - DC ESS
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Describe the engine and APU fire detection system
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Engine 8 pneumatic fire detectors (2 loops) per engine APU 2 pneumatic fire detectors (2 loops)
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Explain the 6-2-7 Rule (Fire Detection System Test)
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6 Visual Warning Indicators on Overhead Panel 2 Visual Warning Indicators on Glareshield 5 EICAS messages/2 Engine fire warnings (2 Aural Indicators, Fire Bell and Triple Chime)
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What happens when an engine fire handle is pulled?
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Closes respective engine fuel SOV Closes respective engine hydraulic SOV Closes respective engine bleed SOV (closes fuel transfer valve)
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What is the indication of an APU fire?
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Fire Bell Red stripe on the EMER STOP button APU FIRE is displayed on the EICAS (triple chime Master Warning aural)
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Will the APU automatically shut down if a fire is detected?
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Only on the ground
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What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is pushed after a fire has been detected?
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APU shuts off immediately (no cool down period) APU fuel SOV closes APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates
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What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is NOT pushed after a fire has been detected?
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After one minute the APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates
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Will the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge?
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Noq
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How many smoke detectors are installed the cargo compartments?
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3 detectors in the forward compartment 2 detectors in the aft compartment
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What happens to the forward cargo compartment in the event smoke is detected?
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Recirculation fan shuts off Ventilation outflow valve closes
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Why are the recirculation fans shut down when cargo compartment fire is detected?
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Prevents oxygen from entering the compartment Prevents Halon agent from escaping into the aircraft's cabin
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How many extinguishing bottles are installed for the cargo compartment?
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2 Bottles used for both compartments 1 High Rate bottle and 1 Low Rate bottle
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Difference between the high rate bottle and the low rate bottle?
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High rate bottle saturates the compartment immediately Low rate bottle maintains saturation over a duration of time (60 Minutes)
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How long will the low rate bottle remain active the compartment?
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60 Minutes
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Can one bottle be used for one cargo compartment and the other bottle used for the other cargo compartment?
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No, only one compartment can be selected
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What happens when a cargo extinguishing button is pushed if smoke has been detected?
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High Rate bottle discharges immediately Low Rate bottle discharges after 1 minute (if airborne) If WOW then low rate does not automatically discharge
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During flight, can the low rate bottle be discharged before the minute is up?
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Yes, by pushing the extinguishing button again
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How is the low rate bottle discharged if the airplane is on the ground?
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The extinguishing button must be pushed again (2 pushes total)
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Can the cargo compartment extinguisher be used if no smoke is detected?
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Yes, the high rate bottle extinguisher button must be pushed twice, once to arm the bottle and once to discharge the bottle. The low rate bottle automatically discharges after one minute if in flight.
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How are the lavs protected from fire?
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Heat sensitive extinguishers in the lav waste bins automatically discharge if a predetermined temperature is reached.
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What kind of APU is the aircraft?
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Sundstrand APS 2300
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Describe the APU
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Constant speed Single stage impeller with a 2 stage axial flow turbine Independent oil system
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What controls the APU?
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A dedicated FADEC
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What battery is used for the APU start?
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BATT 1 powers FADEC and EICAS for monitoring BATT 2 powers the starter (and APU Starting Bus)
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What is the fuel source for the APU?
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Right Fuel Tank Left Fuel Tank through the crossfeed valve
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What fuel pump is used for APU start?
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Batteries "ON" only: DC fuel pump in right tank. AC powered airplane: ACMP2. Right Engine running: Ejector fuel pump.
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Will the APU shutdown automatically if speed and acceleration rate isn't reached in starting cycle time?
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Yes
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What does moving the APU start switch to "OFF" do?
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Initiates normal APU shut down 1 Minute cool down No pneumatics (electrics only for 1 minute)
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Can the APU shutdown be cancelled?
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Yes, by moving the START switch back to "ON" before the 1 minute cool down is over
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How is the APU shutdown immediately?
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APU Emergency stop button No 1 minute cool down period
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What will happen if batteries are turned OFF during the 1 minute APU cool down period?
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APU will shut down immediately
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What will cause an APU automatic shutdown?
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Overspeed (Airborne and WOW) Underspeed (Airborne and WOW) FADEC critical fault (Airborne and WOW) Fire (WOW) Overheat (WOW) Low Oil Pressure (WOW)
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Can the APU be started after a critical fault?
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No
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How many hydraulic systems are on the aircraft?
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3 independent systems (HYD 1, HYD 2, HYD 3)
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What systems use hydraulic power?
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Flight Controls Spoilers Landing gear Nose wheel steering Wheel brakes Thrust reversers
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With one system low, can hydraulic fluid be transferred from one system to another?
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No
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How many hydraulic pumps are one the aircraft?
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6 total: 2 EDPs (Engine Driven Pumps) 4 ACMPs (AC Motor Pumps)
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What are the basic components of the hydraulic systems?
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Reservoir Pumps Accumulator
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What is the purpose of the accumulator
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Helps to maintain constant pressure by covering transient demands. Helps to avoid pump cavitation.
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When will ACMP 1 or 2 automatically activate?
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Ground: Flaps > 0 and TL set to T/O, or Groundspeed > 50 kts. Flight: Engine failure or EDP failure, Flaps > 0
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What are some important items controlled by HYD 2 system?
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Landing Gear Nose Wheel Steering Inboard brakes L & R Inboard Ailerons R & L Inboard Elevators Engine 2 Thrust Reverser Multi-function Spoilers (L & R Panels 5) Ground Spoilers (L & R Panels 1)
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What is the PTU?
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Power Transfer Unit, mechanical pump that uses HYD 1 power to provide HYD 2 pressure.
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What is the primary purpose of the PTU?
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To allow landing gear retraction in the event of an engine 2 or EDP 2 failure
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When will the PTU automatically activate?
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During takeoff or landing with flaps > 0, if Engine 2 or EDP 2 fails
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How is single engine taxi possible if nose wheel steering is on HYD 2?
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Releasing the parking brake activates ACMP 2
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What is the primary purpose of HYD 3 system?
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Back-up for the Flight Controls (it's the "save your butt" system)
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Why are HYD ACMP 3A & B pump switch positions ON & AUTO respectively?
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HYD ACMP 3A pump is primary and has no automation. HYD ACMP 3B pump is a back-up and automatically activates if ACMP 3A fails.
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What, if any, HYD ACMP will function if the RAT is the only power source?
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HYD ACMP 3A only (through the ESS AC BUS)
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In an electrical emergency what provides hydraulic pressure to flight controls until the RAT comes online?
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HYD 3 Accumulator. After 8 seconds the RAT will power ACMP 3A
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In an electrical emergency can HYD 3 system power requirements overload the RAT?
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No. A flow limiter valve is used to reduce flow and limits pump electrical power draw to prevent a RAT stall
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How many fuel tanks does the airplane have?
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2 Integral tanks
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Where is the fuel tank temperature taken?
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Left Tank
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What types of fuel pumps are in each wing?
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Primary ejector pump ACMP DCMP (Right Wing Only) 3 scavenge ejector pumps
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What is the Primary ejector pump?
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Venturi pump with no moving parts and no electrical power used by the respective engine, powered by motive flow.
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What is the purpose of the ACMP?
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Backup pump in case of primary ejector pump failure. Engine Start. Crossfeed operations.
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What is the purpose of the DCMP?
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Used for APU or engine start if AC power or the ACMP is not available.
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What is the purpose of the scavenge pumps?
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Maintains fuel level in the collector box
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What pump(s) is used once an engine is started?
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Associated primary ejector pump
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Can fuel be transferred from tank-to-tank or be dumped overboard?
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No
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What does the AMS use bleed air for?
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ECS (heating & cooling) Engine Start Pressurization Engine and wing anti-ice Water pressure Hot air leak detection
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How many AMS controllers are installed?
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One controller with 2 channels which control the respectivew onside system
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What happens if a (AMS) channel fails?
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The remaining channel is able to control the entire AMS
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What provides air for the AMS?
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Engine bleeds APU bleed External Pneumatic Source
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What is bleed air used for?
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ESC (heating & cooling) Engine Start Engine and wing anti-ice Water pressurization
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What is external pneumatic air used for?
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ECS on the ground Engine start on the ground
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Where is the external ground source panel located?
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Lower fairing between the wings
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What is the primary use for APU bleed air?
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ECS on the ground Engine starting on the ground Electrical source (FL330) Assist with engine start (FL210) Bleed source for pressurization, heating, and cooling (,15,000' MSL)
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Can engine bleed air flow back to the APU?
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No, a check valve prevents flow-back
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Where is bleed air tapped from the engines?
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6th and 10th stage compressors (EBV and HSV respectively) System alternates between valves to regulate an adequate and safe pressure.
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What is the normal pressure for any engine operation?
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45 psi
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What is the purpose of the pre-cooler?
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Cools the bleed air coming from the engine to the AMS
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What cools the pre-cooler?
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Ground N1 Fan Flight N1 Fan or ram air
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What does the overheat detection system (ODS) observe?
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Engine bleeds and packs APU bleed Plumbing for the wing and engine anti-ice system
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Do both ODS loops have to function in order to detect an overheat condition?
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Yes, but if one fails the other will work alone to detect the overheat
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How many ESC packs are on the airplane? What provides air for the packs?
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2 independent packs (left and right). Each engine provides bleed air to it's respective pack
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Can a single pack provide adequate temperature control and pressurization?
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Yes, up to FL310
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Can a single bleed source power both packs?
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Yes, through the crossbleed valve
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What is the ratio of fresh air to recirculated air?
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52% fresh air to 48% recirculated air
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When are the recirculation fans commanded off?
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Cockpit switch. Smoke detected in the recirc bay. DUMP button is pressed. Respective pack is commanded off.
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What keeps the 3 avionic E-Bays cool?
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RWD & CTR E-Bay have 3 fans each pull air from the cabin to bay. Aft E-Bay has natural air-flow from cabin to bay.
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When is the Emergency Ram Air Ventilation activated?
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Both packs commanded or failed OFF below 25,000'. Ram air pressure greater than cabin pressure
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How many channels on the Cabin Pressure Control (CPC)?
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2 channels, one active and one in standby
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Where does the CPC get Landing Field Elevation (LFE)?
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FMS or can be manually selected
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What happens when the dump button is pressed?
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Commands both ECS packs OFF Opens OFV and raises the cabin to 12,400 ft at a rate of 2000 fpm
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Can the cabin altitude be raised higher than 12,400' (with the pressurization dump button pressed in).
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Yes, by using manual mode. Cabin altitude will rise due to natural leaks.
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In manual mode will the cabin depressurize on landing?
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No
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What is the bleed system priority in flight?
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Onside Engine Opposite Engine APU (If Available)
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If engine and APU bleed air are available simultaneously, which has priority?
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APU has priority IF: Aircraft is on the ground, wheel speed < 50 kts, opposite engine bleed pressure is not enough for engine start
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When will the crossbleed valve automatically open?
answer
Only one side bleed source is available Engine 2 start in the air Engine 1 start in the air if APU is not available
question
What are some things that will close the ECS packs?
answer
1. Any engine start if APU is the bleed source 2. Engine start on the ground 3. Respective bleed system duct leak 4. Bleed air source not available for the pack 5. TL set to MAX on takeoff 6. REF A/I set to ALL on takeoff 7. REF ECS set to OFF on MCDU (APU is OFF)
question
Whe are ECS packs recovered?
answer
TL not at MAX, and: 1. Airplane is 500 AFE with both engines operating 2. Airplane is > 9700 MSL with one engine operating
question
What happens if smoke is detected in the recirculation bay?
answer
1. Both recirc fans deactivate 2. Cargo recirc fan deactivates 3. Cargo outflow valve closes
question
Where does the CPCS get cruise flight level & landing elevation from?
answer
FMS before takeoff or CPCS calculates using ambient pressure LFE may be manually inputted
question
What color is the LFE on the EICAS?
answer
Green FMS input Cyan Manual input (an M will be in front of LFE)
question
What is the ABORT mode?
answer
Cabin is scheduled back to the takeoff altitude if: Airplane stops climbing and begins a descent, and Airplane has not climbed >5000 AFE or > 10,000 MSL
question
What sources are used for aircraft anti-icing and de-icing?
answer
Bleed air heat, Electric heat
question
What uses bleed air for ice protection?
answer
Engine lips, 3 outboard slats
question
What uses electric heat for ice protection?
answer
Pitot-static system Windshields Water Lines Pressurization Static Port
question
If an engine fails, does the opposite wing and engine receive ice protection?
answer
Yes, the crossbleed valve opens to provide symmetrical ice protection for both wings. The failed engine does not receive heat to the engine lip
question
How many ice detectors must be working to have icing detection?
answer
One. There are two for redundancy
question
How long will the deicing system remain on after icing is no longer detected?
answer
5 Minutes
question
If "ICING" on the MCDU is set to 'OFF' and on takeoff roll icing conditions are encountered, will the de-icing system turn on?
answer
Not until 1700 ft or 2 minutes after takeoff (whichever happens first)
question
Can the APU be used to provide bleed air for de-icing?
answer
No
question
What is protected from ice & rain?
answer
Engine inlets Wing leading edge Smart probes Windshields Water & Wast drain systems
question
Is the ice protection system automatic?
answer
Yes, under normal conditions
question
Can the pilot override the automatic system?
answer
Yes
question
How is ice detected in flight?
answer
2 Ice detectors Vibrating sensor element that changes frequency when ice builds up around it. Once ice is detected, the sensor element heats, the ice melts, the normal vibrating characteristics are restored, and the heating process stops. The cycle repeats as ice rebuilds on the probes.
question
What compressor stage is bleed air tapped for anti-icing operations?
answer
10th High Stage Valve (HSV)
question
How is bleed air directed for pneumatic anti-ice?
answer
Engines - Independent Wings - Onside bleed
question
What happens if there is a single bleed source failure?
answer
The crossbleed automatically opens
question
How should the MCDU be set if there are icing conditions present on the ground?
answer
ALL
question
What does selecting 'ALL' on the MCDU provide?
answer
Engine anti-ice ON when engines are running Wing anti-ice ON at 40 kts wheel speed
question
If 'ALL' is selected on the ground, at what point will the anti-ice system become automatic?
answer
1700' AGL or 5 minutes after takeoff (whichever happens first)
question
If 'OFF' is selected on the ground, at what point will the anti-ice system become automatic?
answer
1700' or 2 minutes after takeoff (whichever happens first)
question
How does the failure of one of the two power sources affect the windshield heating system?
answer
On ground inhibited In Flight Left side is heated (right heats if left has failed)
question
What does the 'TIMER' selection on the windshield wiper switch do?
answer
Activates the associated wiper in 8 second intervals
question
What happens if the wiper is operated on a dry windshield?
answer
The wiper will stop To reset wiper move switch to 'OFF'
question
When do the smart probes heat?
answer
When an engine is running
question
Is there a test for the anti-ice system?
answer
Yes, but maintenance performs this test
question
How should the aircraft be configured for de-icing?
answer
Bleeds - OFF Stab Trim - Full nose down Flaps - UP Engines and APU - ON or OFF
question
What types of engines are on the aircraft?
answer
Two General Electric CF-34-8E5 Hi-bypass 2 spool, axial-flow, turbo-fan
question
How much thrust do the engines produce?
answer
13,800-14,200 lbs (ISA)
question
Describe N1 Spool
answer
Single stage fan, 4 stage LP turbine
question
Describe the N2 Spool
answer
10 stage compressor, 2 stage HP turbine
question
How many igniters per engine?
answer
2 per engine
question
How many igniters activate for engine starts?
answer
Ground - 1 igniter (Switch in AUTO) Flight - 2 igniters (Switch in AUTO)
question
What happens when the ignition switch is selected to OVRD?
answer
Activates both igniters on the ground or in flight
question
Can the igniters be turned off during flight?
answer
The switch may be moved to the OFF position but the FADEC disregards the command. The OFF position is used for dry motoring on the ground only.
question
What controls the engine?
answer
A two channel FADEC One channel is active and the other channel remains in standby as a backup.
question
Is only one FADEC channel used every flight?
answer
No, they automatically alternate with each engine start
question
What does the cyan line on the N1 gauge represent during approach? When does it appear?
answer
The minimum N1 for bleed requirements in icing conditions. Configured for landing < 1200' RA (when anti-ice is 'ON'.
question
What sources are available for engine starting?
answer
1. APU 2. Ground source (huffer cart or air bottle) 3. Opposite engine 4. Windmill start
question
Does the FADEC provide engine start protection?
answer
Only on the ground for a hot start, hung start, or no light off
question
What will the FADEC automatically do in case of a Hot start?
answer
FADEC will not allow FF if ITT >120 C. FADEC will automatically dry motor engine and introduce fuel when ITT < 120C.
question
Describe the engine start sequence
answer
START switch momentarily to START 7% N2 Ignition 20% N2 Fuel Flow 20% + 5 sec Light Off 50% N2 Ignition Off
question
Stabilized Engine readings after start
answer
N1 27% ITT 460C N2 62% FF 550 lbs/hr Oil Pressure > 25 psi
question
What does WML mean on the engine indications?
answer
Windmilling engine The FADEC has detected a flame-out and is attempting an auto re-light, or An assisted start has been commanded
question
What provides underspeed and overspeed protection?
answer
The FADEC via the FMU Approximately 52% N2 and 102% respectively
question
What happens after 3 overspeed detection events?
answer
FADEC will not re-light the engine
question
What heats the fuel and cools the engine oil?
answer
Fuel/Oil heat exchanger
question
What is ATTCS? What controls it?
answer
Automatic Take-off Thrust Control System Provides max thrust reserve (RSV) according to current rate previously selected via the MCDU. FADEC controlled.
question
What will trigger an ATTCS event?
answer
N1 difference > 15% between engines Engine failure during TOGA Windshear detected
question
When is thrust reverse available?
answer
Weight on wheels (ground use only)
question
What happens if a thrust reverser inadvertently deploys?
answer
FADEC limits respective engine thrust to IDLE
question
What engine thrust rating(s) may only be used for 5 minutes?
answer
TO-1 TO-RSV (TL beyond TOGA) GA (two engine go-around GA-RSV (one engine go-around or windshear)
question
What is FLEX?
answer
Reduced takeoff thrust based on assumed temperature (telling the FADEC that is is warmer than it actually is so it will reduce the thrust)
question
Can the FLEX thrust be reduced lower than CLB thrust?
answer
No
question
What is the only primary flight control that is not FBW (Fly By Wire)?
answer
Ailerons
question
What is the difference between normal mode and direct mode?
answer
There are no higher level functions available in direct mode
question
What are the higher level functions associated with pitch?
answer
Gain on airspeed Elevator Thrust Compensation AOA limiting
question
What are the higher level functions associated with yaw?
answer
Yaw damp Turn Coordination Thrust Asymmetry Gain on airspeed - as airspeed increases, rudder deflection decreases
question
What is the priority for the trim system?
answer
Backup Captain First Officer Autopilot
question
How is roll controlled?
answer
Ailerons and multi-function spoilers (outer 3 spoilers on each wing)
question
How many multi-fuction spoilers are on each wing? What are their functions?
answer
5 per wing 3 outboard spoilers are used to assist in roll control and for ground spoilers. 2 inboard spoilers are only used for ground spoilers.
question
When will the speed brakes automatically close even if the lover shows deployed?
answer
Flaps > 2 Airspeed 70
question
What is the flap/slat extension/retraction sequence?
answer
Slats extend first, flaps retract first
question
Will loss of airspeed data cause the flight controls to go into 'DIRECT" mode?
answer
Yes
question
Can a FCM override pilot input?
answer
No, the pilot always has supreme control
question
What happens to artificial feel if flight controls are disconnected?
answer
Artificial feel is felt at 1/2 the normal load.
question
How are the flight controls trimmed?
answer
Roll & Yaw Ailerons and Rudder surface repositioned to a new 'neutral position', Pitch Horizontal Stabilizer
question
Will the mulit-function spoilers function in 'DIRECT' mode?
answer
Yes, for roll only and at a default fixed gain.
question
Will the speed brakes/ground spoilers function in 'DIRECT' mode?
answer
No
question
What happens to the flight control system when the RAT is the only AC power source?
answer
Horizontal stab trim operates at 1/2 speed. Slat/Flap system operates at 1/2 speed. Slat/Flap position is limited to '3' to allow adequate airspeed for the RAT
question
How is the landing gear extended and retracted?
answer
Electrically commanded and hydraulically actuated?
question
When will the aural warning for the landing gear sound?
answer
IF the gear is not donw and locked, and 700' RA and low TLA, or ANY altitude with flaps set > 5
question
Can the landing gear aural warning be silenced by pushing the 'LG WRN INHIB' button?
answer
Only if both radio altimeters have failed.
question
What are three landing gear extension modes?
answer
Normal - LG lever DOWN Electric Override - Bypasses PSEM to directly command selector valve Alternate gear extension - Manual uplock release opens free-fall sequencing valve
question
That is the purpose of the DN LOCK RLS button on the landing gear lever?
answer
Mechanically releases the landing gear lever lock. Lock protects against inadvertent landing gear retraction when weight-on-wheels
question
What keeps the gear locked in position?
answer
Extended Downlock springs Retracted Uplock hooks
question
Describe the landing gear indications?
answer
Green - Down & Locked White Up & Locked Amber - In Transit Red - gear position and lever disagreement (20 Sec grace)
question
How do the landing gear doors actuate?
answer
Mechanically, during landing gear extension or retraction
question
How are the brakes commanded?
answer
Brake by Wire, Electrically commanded and hydraulically actuated. Pedal position transducers send brake requests to the BCM (Brake Control Module).
question
What hydraulic system(s) provide brake pressure?
answer
HYD 1 Outboard brakes HYD 2 Inboard brakes HYD 1 & HYD 2 Parking/Emergency brakes
question
What protections are provided for braking?
answer
Touchdown - no braking until 3 seconds or > 50 kts wheel speed Anti-skid - Compares wheel speeds and releases pressure (inop < 10kts) Locked-wheel - Allows up to 33% differential braking for steering (inop <30kts)
question
How many applications will the parking/emergency brake provide?
answer
6 applications
question
What stops the wheels from spinning during retractions
answer
Main gear - BCM applies brakes after weight-off-wheels Nose gear - Snubbers in the nose bay stop the wheels
question
Which hydraulic system controls the nosewheel steering
answer
HYD 2
question
What are the limits for the nosewheel steering?
answer
Angle varies with ground speed. Up to 40 Kts +76 41 to 100 Kts - Decreases linearly from 76 degrees to 7 degrees
question
Where can O2 pressure be read?
answer
MFD 'STATUS' page (corrected for temperature) At the O2 cylinder panel (un-corrected for temperature)
question
Do the cockpit crew and passengers share the same emergency oxygen?
answer
No, the cockpit crew uses an O2 cylinder and the cabin passengers use O2 chemical generators.
question
Once the chemical O2 generators are started can they be shut off?
answer
No
question
What is the minimum 02 for a cockpit crew?
answer
2 crew - "Blue for Two" - 842 psi 3 crew - "Green for Three" - 1150 psi
question
What activates when the flight deck O2 masks are removed from their storage unit?
answer
Flow of O2 Mask microphone Flight deck speaker
question
What happens if the TEST//RESET button is pressed while the flight deck O2 masks are removed from their storage unit?
answer
Flow of O2 Deactivates mask microphone Deactivates flight deck speakers
question
What type of oxygen will the quick-donning cockpit crew masks provide?
answer
Emergency - Pure oxygen with positive pressure 100% - Pure oxygen at all altitudes Normal - Oxygen/air mixture (ratio depends on cabin altitude)
question
During preflight how would you know if the cockpit crew O2 has been over pressurized?
answer
The green blow-out disc would be missing on the forward right side of the fuselage.
question
What is the O2 duration for the Passengers, Flight Attendants, and PBE?
answer
Passengers - 12 minutes Flight Attendant cylinder - 30 minutes PBE - 15 minutes
question
When will the passenger O2 masks automatically deploy?
answer
Cabin altitude of 14000 MSL
question
Can the O2 door dispensing units be opened manually if it fails to automatically deploy?
answer
Yes, via a Manual Release Tool located at each FA station
question
What does the PBE provide?
answer
Pressurized O2 and protection from smoke, fumes, and fire up to 40,000 ft for at least 15 minutes. Blue indication: Good. Pink indication: Bad. Vacuum loss : Bad, even with blue indication.
question
How many portable O2 cyclinders are installed in the cabin?
answer
2, one in the FWD section and 1 in the AFT section, 2 masks per cylinder.
question
What emergency equipment is located on the flight deck?
answer
PBE Halon fire extinguisher Flashlight Life Vests O2 Masks Crash axe Escape Ropes
question
What emergency equipment is located in the cabin?
answer
PBE Halon fire extinguishers Water fire extinguisher Flashlights Megaphone Life vests MRT Portable O2 bottles First Aid Kits Grab & Go kit EEMK AED
question
Checklist requires "Logbook, Forms & Manuals to be checked. What are you looking for?
answer
Maintenance log can MEL QRH Honeywell FMS guide Airworthiness & Registration Two checklists TOLD cards
question
Will the cockpit dome light illuminate on an unpowered airplane?
answer
Only if the flight attendant panel 'COURTESY LIGHTS' switch is in 'AUTO'
question
How are the emergency lights charged?
answer
4 ELPUs (Emergency Light Power Units) charged off the DC BUS 1
question
How long will the emergency lights last once illuminated?
answer
10 Minutes
question
When will the emergency lights automatically illuminate?
answer
Provided the switch is in 'AUTO', if the DC BUSSES lose power or the airplane's electrical power is turned off, the emergency lights will automatically illuminate
question
Where does the flight attendant check the potable water quantity and waste service tank system?
answer
Aft flight attendant panel
question
What does a Wast Service Tank light mean on the aft flight attendant panel? Tank full light?
answer
Tank is 75% full Tank is Full
question
What does a 'fault' light mean on the aft flight attendant panel?
answer
A fault in the forward or aft drain valve. Water level indication is not available.
question
What is the purpose of a vent flap on the main cabin or service doors.
answer
To relieve residual cabin pressure prior to opening the main cabin or service doors.
question
What happens if a pilot selects 'EMER' on the audio panel?
answer
A red light on the Cabin Light rainbow illuminates. 3 hi-lo chimes sound in the cabin.
question
When will the reinforced cockpit door latch automatically open?
answer
30 seconds after the flight attendant 'EMER CALL' button has been pushed if the 'INHIBIT' button has not been pushed by the flight crew.
question
What happens if the flight crew pushes the 'INHIBIT' button?
answer
The automatic open function is inhibited for 500 seconds
question
How is the DVDR activated?
answer
Turned on through the MCDU Automatically turns on when an engine is running Automatically turns off with weight-on-wheels and engines not running.
question
Which dispalys can be reverted? Which displays cannot be reverted?
answer
MFDs can be reverted to either EICAS or PDF. PFDs and EICAS cannot be reverted.
question
Explain the 'AUTO' functions of the EDS REVERSIONARY panels
answer
EICAS - failure Each MFD displays EICAS PFD - failure Respective MFD displays associated side PFD MFD - failure No auto reversion
question
Explain the 'PFD', 'MFD', EICAS selections on the EDS REVERSIONARY panel
answer
PFD - Respective PFD will display on associated MFD MFD - MFD cannot be reverted EICAS - EICAS displays on the associated MFD
question
How many ADSs (Air Data Systems) are installed and how are they assigned?
answer
ADS 1 - Captain ADS 2 - First Officer ADS 3 - Standby ADS 4 - IESS ADS 5 - Flight Controls
question
What happens if ADS 1 or 2 fails?
answer
ADS 3 Automatically becomes the source If ADS 3 fails, then the respective x-side ADS is used
question
What happens if the ADS button is pushed?
answer
The respective onside ADS reverts to ADS 3. The respective onside ADS reverts to the x-side ADS if the button is pushed a second time. The respective onside ADS returns if the button is pushed a third time unless the respective side is already failed.
question
Is there an automatic reversion for an IRS failure?
answer
No, it must be manually reverted.
question
What happens if the IRS button is pushed?
answer
The respective IRS to the x-side IRS source
question
How would the pilot know if the ADS or IRS reversion button has been pushed?
answer
An ADS or IRS flag would be displayed on the associated PFD
question
What is the primary flight instrument if both IRS's fail?
answer
IESS
question
What type of approach is prohibited using the IESS?
answer
LOC BC
question
When will the EICAS de-clutter?
answer
30 seconds after gear and flaps are up and all system parameters are normal.
question
What is the function of the EICAS FULL button?
answer
Inhibits the automatic de-clutter of the EICAS
question
When will the EICAS display all of its information?
answer
When the gear is down, flaps are exxtended, or spoilers are deployed under normal conditions. APU running.
question
What color is the course needle (CDI) when using the FMS, VOR/LOC, and x-side data?
answer
FMS - Magenta VOR/LOC - Green X-side - Yellow
question
What runways are included in the database of the EGPWS?
answer
Runways > 3500ft with a published approach
question
How long until impact with a terrain alert on EGPWS?
answer
RED - 30 seconds AMBER - 60 seconds
question
When should the 'GND PROX TERR INHIB' button be pushed?
answer
To cancel unwanted terrain alerts when operating at airports not in the EGPWS database
question
What will generate a windshear caution? Warning?
answer
Caution - Increasing headwind and/or updrafts Warning - Decreasing headwind, increasing tailwind, and/or downdrafts
question
What is our policy for windshear encounters?
answer
Caution - Captain/crew discretion Warning - Firewall thrust and climb in current configuration until warning ceases
question
How is the pilot alerted during a windshear?
answer
Caution - Amber windshear flag on PFD/aural "CAUTION WINDSHEAR" Warning - Red windshear flag on PFD/aural "WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR"
question
Will the autopilot deactivate during windshear guidance?
answer
Yes
question
How long will the windshear alerting last?
answer
until 1,500 ft RA
question
Will the windshear alerting system function if both radar altimeters and or EGPWS are inop?
answer
No
question
What is checked when the 'TO CONFIG' button is pushed?
answer
Parking brake - OFF Spoilers - Stowed (not deployed) Flaps - Set for Takeoff (agreement with FMS) Pitch Trim - Set for Takeoff (Green Range)
question
What does a red ATT or HDG flag on the PFD indicate?
answer
Attitude or Heading reference cannot be determined by the associated IRS
question
What does a red 'X' on the ASI, altimeter, or VSI indicate?
answer
Airspeed, altitude, or vertical speed cannot be determined by the ADS.
question
What is the function of the 'GND PROX GS INHIB' button?
answer
To cancel unwanted glideslope alerts below 2000 ft.
question
When will the FGCS automatically select half-bank? What is the bank angle?
answer
FL250, 17 degrees bank angle
question
What is FPA?
answer
Flight Path Angle is a pilot-selectable pitch attitude (in degrees) of climb or descent. FGCS adjusts thrust and pitch to maintain path angle and airspeed.
question
What does the TOGA button do?
answer
Ground - Activates takeoff guidance crossbars In Flight - Activates Go-Around guidance
question
What do the takeoff guidance crossbars do?
answer
Maintain extended runway centerline, maintain pitch guidance according to slat/flap setting.
question
When is the TOGA mode deactivated?
answer
Another vertical mode is selected Autopilot is activated TCS button is pressed
question
When will the FD automatically display?
answer
TOGA button is pressed Autopilot is activated Windshear detection
question
What is the function of the TCS button?
answer
Allows manual override of the autopilot. When released, airplane maintains new altitude (provided ALT was the active vertical mode) but will return to previous lateral mode (except ILS, autopilot will recapture the LOC/GS)
question
What will disengage the autopilot?
answer
AP button on GP is pushed Any manual pitch trim is activated Either AP/Trim DISC button is pushed Stick shaker activated Flight controls in DIRECT mode Aileron or elevator controls disconnected Overpowering the yoke Internal system failures
question
Can the yaw damp be deactivated if the autopilot is on?
answer
Yes, it is independent of the autopilot
question
When will the auto-throttles engage on the ground? In flight?
answer
On Ground - AT TO(GP) is armed and TLA > 50% In Flight - AT(GP) is armed and airplane > 400' AGL
question
Will the auto-throttles compensate for gusty wind conditions?
answer
Yes, up to 5 kts
question
What will disengage the auto-throttles?
answer
AT (TL or GP) is pushed TLA difference > 8 degrees TL at idle with weight-on-wheels or wheels spinning Internal system failures
question
What is SPDe? Wht mode uses SPDe?
answer
Speed on Elevator, thrust is fixed and pitch is adjusted to maintain airspeed (VS changes). FLCH uses SPDe for climbs and descents.
question
What is SPDt? What modes use SPDt?
answer
Speed on Thrust, thrust id adjusted to maintain selected airpspeed. FPA, VS, GS, ALT, ASEL
question
What are the AT modes?
answer
SPDe, SPDt, TO, GA, HOLD, RETARD (@ 30' RA)
question
What does LIM & OVRD mean on the FMA?
answer
LIM - The selected vertical mode requires more or less engine thrust than is available. OVRD - The TL are being manually moved (no AP disengagement)
question
When is CRZ automatically selected?
answer
When +100' of selected altitude for 90 seconds. Desired airspeed must be achieved or it will remain in CLB mode.
question
What does the SRC button do?
answer
Selects pilot or co-pilot as the data source for the AFCS
question
What does the red AP/TRIM DISC button on the yoke do?
answer
Disconnects the autopilot Stops all trim actuation if button is pushed and held
question
What does the PREV button do?
answer
Allows the capture of the ILS/BC course while still using the FMS as the basic NAV source provided the AUTO TUNE fuction is enabled on the MCDU and the approach is loaded in the FMS.
