LAB FINAL MICROBIOLOGY!!!!!! – Flashcards

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question
the eyepiece is the _______ lens
answer
ocular (10x)
question
the lenses on microscope (4 x, 10 x, 40 x) are called ____________ lens
answer
objective
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_________ is for mounting specimen
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stage
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_________ oil is used to minimize __________
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immersion oil, light scattering
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remove scope from cabinet using_____ and ______
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arm and base
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use ______ adjustment knob first but do not hit the ______ lens
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course
objective
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only use _______ adjustment once you have found object
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fine
question
what objective lens do you use oil for
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100 x
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you use ________'s to wipe oil off the lens
answer
kimwipe
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rod shaped-
shepre shaped-
yeast
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rod shaped-bacilli
sphere-cocci
yeast- unicellular circles/ovals
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the method of handling microbes and materials in a way that minimizes contamination is called _______ technique
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asceptic technique
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the process of transferring a microbe from one medium to the next is called _______ and the sample being transferred is called an __________
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inoculation
inoculum
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forms of media
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1. liquid: nutrient broth in tube (NB)
2. solid: nutrient broth+ agar (solidifying agent)(NA-nutrient agar)
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deep, slant, plate/petri dish
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deep- liquid straight across
slant- semi solid at a slant
petri dish- plate
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transferring an inoculum using aseptic technique
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-inoculate 2 NA slants from 2 NB cultures (take culture from 2 nutrient broths and inoculate them into slants)
-inoculate 1 TSB from 1 NA plate (take culture from plate and inoculate into TSB (soy broth)
-inoculate 1 NA plate from 2 broth cultures (divide plate) (take cultures from 2 broths and inoculate plate, one culture per side)
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the loop we flame is
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an inoculating loop
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when do you need to sterilize
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-every time you open a test tube, the mouth must be sterilized
- before replacing cap, flame again
-flame loop before and after use
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the _____ is always used when transferring organisms from a liquid medium
answer
loop
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streak plate technique
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- isolation streak plate is a method to separate individual bacteria from mixtures
-when a mixture of bacteria is streaked across a plate, the concentration of bacteria gets so low that a single bacterium can form isolated colonies on the surface of the plate
- a colony arises from a single bacterium that divides repeatedly to form a visible mass of cells
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isolation streak plate is a method used to separate individual_________ from _________
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bacteria from mixtures
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streak plate steps
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1. flame loop, dip in inoculum, use to streak section A
2. flame loop between A and B, use streaks in section A as the inoculum for section B
3. it is not necessary to flame loop between section B and C, use streaks in section B as inoculum for section C a ^b>cv
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following incubation of streak plate you should observe
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the presence of individual colonies
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simple staining
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- useful for observing shape and arrangement of cells
-use only one stain
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if only the cells are stained then it is called a ________ stain, if the background is colored, leaving some or all of the cell structure unstained, then it is called _______ stain or also known as ______ stain
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just cells= DIRECT stain
background colored leaving some or all of cell structure unstained= NEGATIVE STAIN
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difference between direct and negative stain
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-direct stain directly stains cells
-negative stain colors background and leaves part or all of cell unstained
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capsule stain is an example of
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negative stain (makes capsule show up, rest of slide colored)
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capsule is also known as
what functions?
answer
glycocalyx
-makes cell sticky helping them attach better to surfaces
-they evade host immune system

ex: streptococcus pneumoniae, mycobacterium
question
smear preparation and staining for DIRECT SIMPLE STAIN
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-get clean slide
-add lapful of water to slide
-obtain TINY amount of bacteria from plate using loop
- mix bacteria into drop of water and spread mixture
-let the mixture air-dry completely
-pass the slide through the flame 3 times to HEAT FIX
-cover smear with CRYSTAL VIOLET for 1 min
-rinse smear until run off it clear and blot dry
-observe using all lenses
question
why do we heat fix when doing a smear and stain
answer
1: causes the cells to adhere to the slide so it wont wash off
2:Kills the microorganisms
3:Causes changes in the bacterial cells which causes them to stain better

It removes water from the bacterial cell, pores open in the cell so more stain can enter the cell wall.
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if bacterial cells aren't killed before smear what might happen
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their ability to retain dye will not be as good as it would if they were dead
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what is the goal of streaking a plate?
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to produce isolated individual colonies on the agar plate
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what is a bad streak plate?
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one that shows bad flaming after area A (too much bacteria)
improper set up
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how to inoculate a streak plate? explain and draw
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1. open tube of nutrient broth/organism
2. flame tube mouth
3.flame loop
4. obtain some of the organism
5.make streak in section A
6. flame loop
7. use section A as medium for section B
8. dont flame
9.use section B for section C
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what would you expect to see if you forgot to heat fix your slide?
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nothing, bacteria would wash off the slide if it isn't heat fixed!!
if it didn't wash off it wouldn't retain dye very well either.
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differential staining (3 types)
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useful for the identification of specific groups of organisms
* uses two or more stains to complete the procedue
1. gram stain
2. endospore stain
3. acid-fast stain
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gram stain
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-based on the cell wall characteristics that differentiates two major groups of bacteria
-gram +(purple) and gram - (pink)
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how to do gram stain
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1.make smear
2. cover smear with crystal violet for 1 min, rinse with water
3. cover smear with iodine for 1 min, rinse with water
4. tip the slide and drip alcohol down until run off is clear (10 seconds!)
5.cover smear with safranin for 1 min
6. rinse with water and blot dry


CRYSTAL VIOLET(primary), IODINE(mordant), ALCOHOL(decolorization),SAFRANIN (counterstain/pink)
question
what order do we use the dyes and alcohols for gram stain
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crystal violet
iodine
alcohol
safranin
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the primary stain in gram staining isthe mordant isthe decolorization isthe counterstain is?
answer
primary-crystal violet
iodine- mordant
alcohol- decolorization
safanin- counterstain
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differential staining (3 types)
answer
useful for the identification of specific groups of organisms
* uses two or more stains to complete the procedue
1. gram stain
2. endospore stain
3. acid-fast stain
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gram stain
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-based on the cell wall characteristics that differentiates two major groups of bacteria
-gram +(purple) and gram - (pink)
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how to do gram stain
answer
1.make smear
2. cover smear with crystal violet for 1 min, rinse with water
3. cover smear with iodine for 1 min, rinse with water
4. tip the slide and drip alcohol down until run off is clear (10 seconds!)
5.cover smear with safranin for 1 min
6. rinse with water and blot dry


CRYSTAL VIOLET(primary), IODINE(mordant), ALCOHOL(decolorization),SAFRANIN (counterstain/pink)
question
what order do we use the dyes and alcohols for gram stain
answer
crystal violet
iodine
alcohol
safranin
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the primary stain in gram staining isthe mordant isthe decolorization isthe counterstain is?
answer
primary-crystal violet
iodine- mordant
alcohol- decolorization
safanin- counterstain
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endospore
answer
clostridium and bacillus produce endospores
-endospores- a survival structure that allows the bacterial cell to survive unfavorable conditions
- under favorable conditions they germinate and release a viable vegetative cell
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acid-fast stain
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-can differentiate between acid fast- and non acid-fast bacteria
-acid fast have mycolic acid in cell walls making them waxy
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what genus can be recognized using the acid fast stain?
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mycobacterium (have my colic acid)
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fungi
examples
answer
eukaryotic
unicellular (yeast)
or
multicellular (molds)

mold ex: asperfillus, rhizopus, penicillium
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protozons
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eukaryotic
-divided into 4 groups based on motility:
1. use cilia (paramecium)
2.use amoeboid motion (amoeba)
3. use flagella
4. no motility

*know how paramecium and amoeba look
question
fungal infections like athlete's foot are challenging to treat and often require long term courses of anti fungal drugs. why do you think fungal infections are so difficult to treat?
answer
because both fungal and human cells are eukaryotic so this makes them have less differences that can be targeted without damaging our own cells.
question
kinds of media
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selective media- supports growth of one group of organisms but inhibits the growth of another. usually they contain salts or dyes to inhibit the growth of the organisms not targeted for study


differential media- allows the growth of more than one microorganism of interest but with distinct differences in appearance of colonies. usually contain a specific substrate and pH indicator to serve as a differential medium.

selective and differential media- allows for only certain bacteria to grow, with a component that also differentiates among the species that survive.

enriched media- extra nutrient constituents have been provided to support the growth of fastidious microbes or encourage the growth of particular bacteria
question
what media allow certain bacteria to grow, but also has component that differentiates among those bacteria that have survived
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selective & differential media
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what media supports the growth of one group of organisms while inhibiting the growth of another (usually contain salts or dyes to inhibit the growth of the organisms not targeted)
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selective media
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which media tends to use salts or dyes to inhibit growth of organisms
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selective media
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which media allows for the growth of more than one microorganism of interest but with distinct differences in appearance of colonies (usually uses a specific substrate and pH indicator to serve as a differential medium)
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differential media
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in differential media what is usually used as a means of differentiation
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pH indicator or specific substrate
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what kind of media provides nutrients to support the growth of fastidious microbes or encourage the growth of particular bacteria
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enriched mediaa
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blood agar
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-both enriched and differential medium
-we can differentiate kinds of streptococci based on their patterns of hemolysis
-hemolysins- toxins that can break down red blood cells
-kinds of hemolysis:
1. beta hemolysis: complete breakdown of the RBC's (clearing around colonies)
2. alpha hemolysis: partial destruction of the RBCs (greenish brown color around the colonies)
3. gamma (y) hemolysis: no lysis of RBS (intact blood agar around colonies)
question
blood agar is what kind of medium
answer
enriched and differential
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hemolysins
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toxins that can break down red blood cells
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how can we differentiate different kinds of streptococci?
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on their patterns of hemolysis
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what are the patterns of hemolysis
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beta (?) hemolysis: complete breakdown of the RBCs (clearing around the colonies)
alpha (?) hemolysis: partial destruction of the RBCs (greenish brown color around the colonies)
gamma (?) hemolysis: no lysis of RBC (intact blood agar around the colonies)
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which hemolysis causes clearing around colonies
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beta hemolysis (complete breakdown of RBCS)
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which hemolysis causes greenish brown color around colonies
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alpha hemolysis- partial destruction of RBC
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which hemolysis leave blood agar around colonies intact?
answer
gamma (y) hemolysis- no lysis of RBC
question
mannitol salt agar medium
answer
-selective and differential media
-shows staphylococcus pathogenic and nonpathogenic
-- selective: high concentration of salt selects salt tolerant (halophilic) satphylococcus only
-differential: mannitol fermentation differentiates pathogenic and nonpathogenic staphylococcus
- pathogenic species of staphylococcus: grow and ferment mannitol to acid- phenol red (pH indicator) changes from pink to yellow
-non pathogenic staphylococcus: grow but can't ferment mennitol-indicator stays pink
question
mannitol salt sugar has what medium
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- selective and differential
- selective: high concentration of salt selects salt tolerant (halophilic) satphylococcus only
-differential: mannitol fermentation differentiates pathogenic and nonpathogenic staphylococcus
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how do we
answer
question
staphylococcus is ___________ or has a high concentration of salt so it is selected this way against other bacteria using the mannitol salt agar (selective media)

pathogenic species of staphylococcus grow and ______ mannitol to acid which causes indicator to turn from pink to ________

nonpathogenic species of satphylococcus: grow but can't _______mannitol- indicator ________
answer
halophilic

pathogenic-ferment manitol, change pink to yellow

nonpathogenic- grow but can't ferment manitol, indicator stays pink
question
eosin methylene blue agar
answer
-selective and differential medium
-selective: dyes 1. eosin and 2.methylene blue select for gram negative bateria (including coliforms)
-differential: lactose fermentation differentiates between coliforms (lector fermentors) and noncoliforms (non lactose fermenters)

coliforms- grow and ferment lactose to acid- trigger a pink to metallic green colony coloration
-non-lactose fermenters: colonies will appear colorless


SOOO
gram positive: no growth
lactose fermenter: pink
non lactose fermenter: colorless
ecoli: metallic green (coliform)
question
what differentiates between coliforms and noncoliforms?
answer
-coliforms=lactose fermentation

-non coliforms=non lactose fermenters
question
coliforms
answer
coliforms- grow and ferment lactose to acid- trigger a pink to metallic green colony coloration
-non-lactose fermenters: colonies will appear colorless
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coliforms which grow and ferment lactose to acid will trigger a _____ to ____ colony coloration on eosin methylene blue agar
answer
pink to metallic green
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non lactose fermenters will appear _____ on eosin methylene blue agar
answer
colorless
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macconkey agar
answer
-nosocomial infections: infections acquired in a hospital setting ex: ventilator associated pneumonia (VAP)
-common causes of VAP: gram positive organisms such as streptococcus, staphylococcus, gram negative organisms including coliforms ( such as ecoli) as well as non coliforms (pseudomonas)
-media to distinguish the above scenario- a good tool to have clinically
-maconket agar: SELECTIVE AND DIFFERENTIAL MEDIUM

-selective: gram positive
-differential: coliforms, non coliforms.

selective: bile salts and crystal violet select for gram negative bacteria (including coliforms)

differential: lactose fermentation differentials between coliforms and noncoliforms (lactose fermenters- pink, non lactose fermenters: colorless)
question
ecoli is gram _____ and is a _____
answer
gram negative, coliform
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what selects for gram negative bacteria?
answer
bile salts and crystal violet
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macconkey agar is for
answer
-identifying gram negative coliforms and noncoliforms to identify causes of nosocomial infections/ventilator associated pneumonia
question
standard plate count
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-commonly used method to estimate the number of microbes in a sample
-originial smaple is diluted through a series of bottles/tubes
-a volume of the dilution is put onto plates and number of colonies are counted after incubation
-number of bacteria in the original sample is calculated by multiplying number of colonies on the plate by the dilution factor corresponding to that plate
-only plates containing between 30 and 300 colonies are considered to be valid and countable
question
only plates containing between _ and _ colonies are considered valid and countable
answer
30 and 300
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The presence of coliforms in food or water indicates the possibility of fecal contamination and thus the potential of fecal pathogens also being present.
answer
true
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Both MacConkey agar and EMB are useful in growing Gram positives.
true or false
answer
false- both select for gram negative
question
high concentration of ______ in mantol salt agar makes this medium selective, while the ________ makes it differential. fermentation of mantel results in the medium around the colony changing from ____ to _____
answer
salt makes it selective
mantel makes it differential
red to yellows
question
growth of ecoli on EMB (eosin methylene blue agar) would produce _________ colonies while growth on the maconkey agar would produce ______ colonies
answer
green
pink
question
ou are testing a sample of water from a local swimming pool. Your 10-1 final dilution plate has 38 colonies on it. The safety standards from swimming pools state that the water cannot contain more than 200 CFU per milliliter [cells per milliliter]. Is the pool you are testing safe to swim in? Why or why not?
answer
b. No, the final cell number is 380 and therefore, more than 200 CFU per milliliter. Correct
question
You are testing a sample of milk from a New York dairy that has been cited for some recent safety violations. Your 10-2 final dilution plate has 201 colonies on it. The FDA safety standard for milk of the type you sampled is 3x105 per milliliter. Is this milk sample safe to drink? Why or why not?
answer
b. Yes, the final cell number is 2.01x104 and, therefore, less than 3x105 per milliliter. Correct
question
blood agar results
answer
patient A- complete clearing beta hemolysis
streptococcus pyrofens: complete clearing
pseudomonas aeruginosa: incomplete clearing alpha hemolysis
staphylococcos epidermidis: no clearning gamma hemolysis
question
macconkey results
answer
sample I- colorless colonies (non lactose)
e coli- pink colonies (lactose fermenter)
pseudomonas aeruginosa: colorless colonies
staphylococcus epidermidis: no growth
question
manitol salt agar results
answer
sample m- color around colony yellow (mannitol fermenter) pathogenic sp

staphylococcus aureus: color around colony yellow (mannitol fermenter) pathogenic sp

staphylococcus epidermidis- growth but no color change (non mantel fermenter) non pathogenic sp

ecoli- no growth
question
eosin methylene blue results
answer
sample p: metallic green colonies (lactose fermenter)
ecoli- metallic green colonies (lactose fermenter)
pseudomonas aeruginosa: colorless colonies (nonlactose)
staphylococcus epidermidis: no growth
question
aerotolerance
answer
oxygen requirement of bacteria varies dramatically
a. obligate aerobe- growth at top of tube only where high oxygen concentrations have diffused into medium

b. facultative anaerobe- both aerobic and anaerobic growth but greater growth with oxygen, growth is best where the most oxygen is present at top but occurs throughout tube

c. obligate anaerobe- only anaerobic growth, ceases in presence of oxygen, growth occurs at bottom where there is no oxygen

d. aerotolerant anaerob- only anaerobic growth, but continues in presence of oxygen, growth occurs evenly and oxygen has no effect
question
for what microbes does growth occur evenly, and oxygen has no effect
answer
aerotolerant anaerobes
question
for what microbes does growth occur most at bottom of tube
answer
obligate anaerobes- they cannot grow where there is oxygen
question
for what microbe does growth occur most at top of tube but still is present through out
answer
facultative anaeobe- does but aerobic and anaerobic growth but greater growth in presence of oxygen
question
for what microbe is growth only occurring at top of tube where oxygen is
answer
obligate aerobe
question
grwoth patterns in BHI adar deeps
answer
brain-heart infusion nutrient agar

tube 1: obligate aerobe: growth is only at the surface o the tube
tube 2: facultative anaerobe: uneven distribution of growth from top to bottom (more growth at top)

tube 3: aerotolerant anaerobe: uniform growth from top to bottom

tube 4: obligate anaerobe: absence of growth in the top portion of tube where oxygen is present. also not large cracks in the agar as a result of gas production by the anaerobic organism
question
cracks are shown in the agar as a result of gas production by the ______ micro organism
answer
obligate anaerobic
question
catalase
answer
-catalyzes hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen
-hydrogen peroxide is toxic to the cells so many bacteria produce the enzyme catalase to break it down
- this test helps in distinguishing gram positive cocci from one another:
staphylococcus- catalase positive, white film
enterococcus- catalase negative, more clear
question
oxidase (cytochrom c oxidase)
answer
-cytochrome c oxidase is the final enzyme of the electron transport chain that reduces O2 to form H2O
-purpose of this test is to determine if the bacterium of interest has cytochrom C oxidase in its electron transport chain
-this helps distinguish gram negative rods from one another
question
what helps us distinguish gram positive cocci from one another?
answer
catalase test
question
what helps us distinguish farm negative rods from one another?
answer
cytochrome c oxidase test
(aerobic organisms like pseudomonas test oxidase positve) (facultative anaerobes such as E.coli- test oxidase negative)
question
what acts as final electron acceptor in anaerobic respiration
answer
nitrate, sulfate, sulfur, and carbonate
question
what acts as the final electron acceptor in fermentation
answer
pyruvate and pyruvate derivatives
question
coal tar
answer
coal tar derivatives have been shown to cause cancer in animals but are allowed in cosmetics because they are only applied to the skin and aren't being injected into humans. coal tar colorants are listed as:

FD&C- color that can be used in food, drugs, and cosmetics
D&C- color that can be used only in drugs and cosmetics
External D&C- color that can be used in drugs and cosmetics applied to skin surface
question
why is proper storage a good idea
answer
1. increased heat causes breakdown of cosmetic
2. degraded ingredients may irritate skin.
question
non comedogenic
answer
will not close the pores of the skill, so it should be less likely to cause acne
question
nutrient agar (NA)
answer
-general purpose culture medium
-rich in nutrients
question
mannitol salt agar (MSA)
answer
-red
-high salt- inhibits most bacteria (NOT staphylococci)
-mannitol- sugar alcohol- bacteria which can ferment this produce acid that causes a yellow color change in media.
-NON fermenting- red, FERMENTING- YELLOW
-staphylococcus aureus- causes infections such as acne to abscesses, toxic shock, blood poisoning.
question
what is the name of the bacteria causing acnes, abscessed, toxic shock, blood poisoning which we use the __________ to test?
answer
MSA-- mannitol salt sugar

staphylococcus aureus
question
staphylococci that ferment mannitol will produce a _________ color change
answer
YELLOW (MSA PLATE)
question
non- mannose fermenting bacteria produce what color in the MSA plate
answer
red

(yellow if it DOES ferment mannitol)
question
eosin methylene blue agar (EMB)
answer
-contains a purple dye INHIBIITING gram positive -SUPPORTS GRAM NEGATIVE GROWTH -lactose fermenting bacteria metabolize the lactose in the media and produce acid causing a color change (GREEN for strong acid such as ecoli or PINK for weaker fermentation)
question
to test for presence of fungi in producets use
answer
sabouraud dextrose agar
question
sabouraud dextrose agar ((SDA)
answer
- a medium used for growing fungi because the nutrients and slightly acidic environment encourages fungal growth and survival
- fungi such as yeast and molds grow
question
what does MSA select for
what does it differentiate
answer
staphylococci
manitol and non manitol fermenters

YELLOW if fermented

(manitol fermenters are pathogenic) staphylococcii aureus
question
what does EMB select and differentiate for
answer
selects for gram -
differentiates lactose fermenters and nonlactose fermenters/coliform/noncoliform

GREEN if coliform
coliform- ecoli feca matter
question
macconkey selects and differentiates for
answer
selects- gram -
differentiates:: lactose fermenters and non lactose fermenters
coliform/noncoliform

* test nosocomial infections due to hospital like ventilator associated pneumonia

RED if coliform
question
what tests nosocomial infections like VAP
answer
maccconkey
question
which tube would have cracks seen due to gas production
answer
facultative anaerobe
aerotolerant anaerobe
question
catalase distinguishes what
answer
gram positive cocci

h202> h20 and oxygen
question
oxidase disttinguishes what
answer
gram negative rods
question
does staphylococcus contain catalase
answer
yes (film shown)
question
does enterococcus contain catalase
answer
no (clear)
question
what is the final enzyme of ETC
answer
oxidase (reduces O2 to H2O)
question
will aerobic have oxidase
answer
YES
anaerobic WILL NOT
question
what is blood agar....selective or diff
answer
differential !!
question
pink cells with green stained structure
answer
endospore stain
question
what is the purpose of performing an isolation streak plate
answer
to obtain a pure culture or to determine if a culture is pure
question
two characteristics of a hypothesis
answer
must be falsifiable, makes a prediction between 2 variables
question
Students commonly confuse Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Staphylococcus Aureus when viewed on a microscope slide. How could you microscopically differentiate S. Cerevisiae and S. Aureus?
answer
S. cerevisiae will be LARGER
question
Considering the Gram stain technique, what would you observe if you decolorized too much?
answer
all cells decolorized
question
final dilution
answer
multiple dilution factors for all tubes (by adding exponents)
question
oxidase presence causes what
answer
purple color change
question
ecoli is a _________ ____________
answer
facultative anaerobe
question
kirby-bauer method
answer
used to test sensitivity of bacteria to antibiotics
larger zone of inhibition= more effective
- measure in mm
question
what are the biochemical tests
answer
-gelatin hydrolysis
- starch hydrolysis
- casein hydrolysis
- carbohydrate formation (phenol red)
- TSI
- IMViC reactions (SIM, MRVP, Simmons citrate)
- urease test
- nitrate reduction
question
gelatin hydrolysis
answer
- protein GELATIN is broken down by enzyme GELITINASE
- gelatin medium is semi- solid at room temp and solid when refrigerated
- inoculated with organisms, incubated at 37C, and then refrigerated

POSITIVE FOR GELITANASE- tube is runny after incubation/ refrigeration

NEGATIVE FOR GELITINASE- tube gels after inoculation and refrigeration
question
if you inoculate a gelatin medium and refrigerate it and it comes out runny what does this mean?
answer
the organism is gelatinase positive because the enzyme has broken down the gelatin
question
if you inoculate a gelatin medium and refrigerate it and it gels what does this mean?
answer
the organism is gelitinase negative because enzyme didn't break down the gelatin
question
starch hydrolysis
answer
- starch is broken down by AMYLASE enzyme
- starch agar medium is inoculated with organisms and incubated at 37C.
- the reagent iodine will then be added to test for the presence of starch, in the presence of starch iodine turns blueish-black.

POSITIVE FOR AMYLASE- agar surrounding colony does not turn bluish black after adding iodine (meaning starch is absent)

NEGATIVE FOR AMYLASE- agar surrounding the colony turns bluish black after adding iodine (starch is present meaning it wasn't broken down so it is amylase negative)
question
what breaks down starch/ hydrolyzes it
answer
amylase
question
what reagent is used to test for starch hydrolysis?
answer
iodine
(iodine turns starch blue/black, so if it does this then amylase was not present)
question
what turns starch blue/black and what test is it used for?
answer
iodine
starch hydrolysis via amylase
question
casein hydrolysis
answer
- the PROTEIN CASEIN is present in milk and is broken down by ENZYME CASEASE
- casein agar or milk agar is inoculated with organisms and incubated at 37C

CASEASE POSITIVE- clear zone surrounding colony, casein is hydrolyzed

CASEASE NEGATIVE- casein is intact, no breakdown via casease
question
what is casein and what media tests it
answer
a protein present in milk

a plate with casein will test for casein hydrolysis via casease
question
what breaks down casein
answer
casease
question
phenol red broth / carbohydrate formation
answer
-phenol red broth is used to determine an organisms ability to utilize a specific sugar
- medium contains pH indicator phenol red, the sugar of interest (glucose or lactose), protein and a small inverted tube called a durham tube
- at neutral pH, the tube will appear red
- organism is inoculated in tube for 24 hrs

SUGAR MAY BE METABOLIZED BY FERMENTATION- acids are produced which when released decrease the pH and cause the phenol red to turn yellow

GAS and METABOLIZED BY FERMENTATION- acid produced, so broth is YELLOW, but gas accumulation also appears as bubble in durham tube

SUGAR CANT BE METABOLIZED BY FERMENTATION- organism will use the protein present in the medium instead, and the by product of protein metabolism such as ammonia, increases the pH and as a result the phenol red turns BRIGHT PINK

REVERSION- if tubes are incubated for too long, then reversion can occur meaning the bacteria utilized all of the carbohydrate and then start breaking down the amino acids in the medium- causes pH to increase again and phenol red will revert from yellow to red on the surface of the medium
( HALF YELLOW HALF RED)
question
if phenol red broth/ carbohydrate formation test is done and tube is bright pink with no bubbles what does this mean?
answer
carbohydrate metabolism by fermentation did not take place, the organism used the protein in medium creating a by product such as ammonia which increased the pH and resulted in a BRIGHT PINK
question
if phenol red broth/ carbohydrate formation test is done and the tube is yellow with bubbles in tube what does this mean?
answer
sugar/carbs were metabolized by fermentation but gas was also produced as a by product of fermentation!!!
question
if phenol red broth/ carb formation test is done and the tube is yellow with no bubble what does this mean?
answer
the sugar was metabolized by fermentation, acids were produced lowering the pH and turning the phenol red YELLOW
question
if phono red broth is done and the top of the tube is red while the bottom is yellow what has happened?
answer
reversion
- tube was incubated too long
- bacteria utilize all carbohydrate and metabolize it via fermentation turning it YELLOW
- but then they begin to break down the amino acids in the medium also causing the pH to increase and turning the yellow phenol red BACK TO RED ON SURFACE
question
Triple sugar iron agar (TSI)
answer
- a differential medium that can differentiate gram negative enteric bacteria based on the ability to FERMENT certain CARBS to produce HYDROGEN SULFIDE!!!
- the medium contains (GLUCOSE, LACTOSE and SUCROSE), a pH indicator, iron, sulfur, and protein. the concentration of glucose is much lower than the other sugars.
- the organism is stabbed and streaked on the slant and incubated for exactly 24 hrs
- at neutral pH slant will be ORANGE RED
- results recorded are color reaction of the slant, color reaction of the butt, production of gas, and production of hydrogen sulfide gas

IF SUGAR IS METABOLZED- acid is produced that decreases pH to a YELLOW

IF GAS IS PRODUCED- crack seen in agar or agar may be pushed up the tube (PRODUCED AS BY PRODUCT OF METABOLIZING CARB)

IF SUGARS ARE NOT METABOLIZED- protein in the medium may be used by organism which causes pH to increase and change color to a MEDIUM MAGENTA OR BRIGHT RED

IF HYDROGEN SULFIDE GAS PRODUCED- it reacts with iron and forms a black precipitate
question
what are the three possible results of the TSI test
answer
1. sugar metabolized- acid produced, lowering pH, turns YELLOW. ***if gas is also produced CRACKS IN AGAR**

2. sugars not metabolized- protein in the medium used and pH increases turning medium MAGENTA OR BRIGHT RED

3. hydrogen sulfide gas produced- reacts with iron forming black precipitate
question
after you do the TSI test, a black precipitate has formed what does this mean?
answer
hydrogen sulfide gas was produced- iron reacts with it forming this black precipitate
question
after you do the TSI test, it is yellow and cracks are in the agar what does this mean?
answer
pH was lowered meaning the sugar was metabolized through fermentation and has turned YELLOW

the cracks indicate gas production
question
after doing TSI test, the tube is bright red, what does this mean?
answer
the sugar was not metabolized, so the medium protein was used instead, raising the pH causing RED COLOR
question
TSI 4 possibilities:

yellow butt and slant with gas:

yellow butt and red slant:

magenta butt and slant

magenta butt and slant with black precipitate
answer
yellow but and slant with gas: glucose plus one or two sugars metabolized, gas produced, no hydrogen sulfide

yellow butt and red slant: glucose only metabolized, no gas, no hydrogen sulfide

magenta butt and slant: no sugars metabolized, proteins metabolized, no gas and no or little hydrogen sulfide

magenta butt and slant with black precipitate: no sugars metabolized, proteins metabolized, no gas, sulfide production
question
IMViC test
answer
- used to identify enteric bacteria (gram negative facultative anaerobic bacteria that reside in GI tract) -INDOLE- indole is produced as a result of hydrolysis of tryptophan (an amino acid)- SIM (sulfur, indole, motility) media is a combined media that contains proteins, iron and sulfur-the sIM media is inoculated with the organism and KOVACS reagent is added after incubation. CHERRY RED- indole positive (tryptophan hydrolysis has occurred) NO RED- indole negative, no hydrolysis of tryptophan - SIM media can also detect release of hydrogen sulfide gas HYDROGEN SULFIDE PRODUCED- it reacts with iron and forms black precipitate Methyl red (M) and Voges-Proskauer tests (V) - all enteric organisms metabolize glucose to either acidic end products or neutral end products- the MRVP broth medium- contains glucose and other ingredients and can differentiate organisms that generate acidic and neutral end products- organism is inoculated into a single broth tube of MRVP. after incubation half is transferred into empty test tube so there are two tubes now. Methyl red test (M) - add drops of methyl red to one tube- if tube turns RED the end product is acidic (MR+)- if TUBE STAYS YELLOW- organism has not produced an acidic end product (MR-) voges proskaur test (V)- add drops of VP reagents A and B to other tube- RED/RED BROWN- organism has produced NEUTRAL end product VP+- YELLOW/YELLOW BROWN- VP-, the organism has not produced a neutral end product *** USUALLY MUTUALLY EXCLUSIVE- if an organism is MR+ then it is VP- citrate test- simmons media- inoculated and incubated- if medium turns BLUE- organism utilized citrate- if medium stays green- organism did not utilize citrate
question
IMViC is used for
answer
identifying enteric bacteria
(gram neg, facultative anaerobic bacteria in GI)
question
indole is produced as a result of
answer
hydrolysis of tryptophan (an amino acid)
question
SIM stands for
answer
sulfur, indole, motility
it contains proteins, iron, and sulfur
question
hydrogen sulfide in general is detected by
answer
reacting with iron and turning black precipitate
question
a positive indole test would be what

a negative indole test would be

the presence of indole means what
answer
SIM media turns cherry red!!!!!!!!

if negative- SIM media doesn't turn red

tryptophan hydrolysis has occurred
question
if SIM media is hydrogen sulfide positive what happens
answer
bottom of tube turns black
question
if SIM media is hydrogen sulfide negative what happens
answer
bottom of tube is yellow
(DOESNT TURN BLACK!)
question
the indole test (part of IMViC) uses what medium
answer
SIMS ( sulfur, indole, motility)
question
what is added to SIM media after inoculation and incubation?
answer
KOVAcS reagent
question
what medium is kovacs reagent used for
answer
SIM
question
what does SIM media detect
answer
indole production (hydrolysis of tryptophan)
release of hydrogen sulfide
question
the Methyl red (m) and votes proskauer tests (v) (PART OF IMViC) use what medium
answer
MRVP- which contain glucose and other ingredients and can differentiate organisms that generate acidic and neutral end products)
question
the MRVP test differentiates what
answer
enteric organisms that generate acidic or neural end products.
question
when using MRVP what tests are you doing
answer
MEthyl red (M) and Voges- proskauer (V) which are part of the IMViC

testing for neutral or acidic end products
question
when using the MRVP you do what after inoculation
answer
put half of tube in another test tube so you have 2 tubes

- one tube use for methyl red test, add drops of methyl red
IF IT TURNS RED- MR+ (produced acidic)

- one tube for votes proskauer test- add drops of VP reagents A and B
RED/ REDDISH BROWN- VP+ (neutral end product)
question
if during your voges proskauer test after adding ____________ reagent your tube turns RED what does this mean
answer
vp+ (neutral end products)

reagent- VP REAGENTS A AND B
question
if during you methyl red test if IMViC, you add methyl red and it turns RED this means what
answer
MR+ (acidic end product)
question
a neutral end product turns VP test what color
answer
VP+ turns tube RED or reddish brown
meaning a neutral end product was made
question
what reactions are usually mutually exclusive out of IMViC?
answer
methyl red and votes proskauer

if one is positive the other is negative
question
methyl red test turning red means neutral or acidic?
answer
acidic end product
question
VP test turning RED means neutral or acidic
answer
neutral end product
question
Citrate test uses what medium
answer
simmons citrate meidum
(contains citrate as sole source of carbon)

- organism inoculated and incubated
- if medium in the slant turns BLUE the citrate has been utilized
- if medium in slant STAYS GREEN- organism could not utilize citrate
question
negative citrate is what color
answer
green (simmons)
question
positive citrate test is what color
answer
blue (simmons)
question
urease test
answer
urease test -urea broth used to detect the presence of the enzyme urease, which hydrolyzes urea- as a result of hydrolysis, ammonia is released which increases pH.- urease is especially produced by organisms that reside in the stomach so they can survive in the acidic pH- YELLOWISH ORANGE- stayed this color after incubation, it is NEGATIVE FOR UREASE- BRIGHT PINK- organism is UREASE POSITIVE
question
urea broth is used for
answer
detecting the presence of urease WHICH IS FOUND IN ORGANISMS RESIDING IN STOMACH SO THEY CAN SURVIVE IN LOW ACIDIC pH
question
urea is produced by who
answer
enteric organisms ( produce it to fight acidic environment)
question
if tube stays yellowish orange after incubation in urea broth
answer
is is UREASE NEGATIVE
question
if tube turns bright pink after incubation in urea broth then
answer
IT IS UREASE POSITIVE
question
nitrate reduction test
answer
- nitrate (NO3) is a nutrient that can be utilized by bacteria and reduced to nitrite (NO2) which can be further deducted to nitrogen (N2) or nitrous oxide (N2O)
- the organism is inoculated in nitrate medium and incubated to determine if nitrate reduction (formation of NO2, N2 or N2O) occurred

STEPS
1. after incubation, nitrate reagents A and B are added to the broth which can detect the presence of nitrite (NO2)

RED BROTH- nitrite is present and this is POSITIVE
CLEAR- either the broth is still NO2 or it was reduced all the way to nitrogen (N2) or nitrous oxide (N2O)( NEEDS FURTHER TESTING)

step 2: if clear, zinc is added to tube
- if any original nitrate NO3 is present, zinc will convert it to nitrite(NO2). in this scenario tube will turn RED since nitrate reagents A and B (which detect nitrite) are already present from step 1 THIS IS NEGATIVE TEST FOR NITRATE REDUCTION since the organism did not reduce nitrate on its own

- if the tube STAYS CLEAR, then no original nitrate remained, meaning this is POSITIVE FOR NITRATE REDUCTION because N2 of N2O must have been present.
question
what is nitrate reduction
answer
the formation of NO2, N2 of N2O (from nitrate NO3)
question
if you do the nitrate reduction test and get a red tube initially this means
answer
nitrate (NO3) has been reduced to nitrite (NO2)
question
if you do the nitrate test and get a clear tube this means
answer
2 possibilities
1. still nitrate present, no reduction
2. nitrate has been reduced to nitrogen(N2) or nitrous oxide (N2O)

NEEDS FURTHER TESTING!!!!
ADD ZINC!!!!!

1. if zinc is added and it turns red- the zinc cause nitrate to convert to nitrite (NO2) meaning it is NEGATIVE FOR NITRATE REDUCTION since it didn't do it alone

2. if zinc is added and it stays clear, then no original nitrate was in tube meaning it was initially reduced to nitrogen or nitrous oxide so it is a POSITIVE RESULT FOR NITRATE REDUCTION
question
nitrate tubes

- yellow without zinc
- clear with zinc
- red with zinc
answer
yellow without zinc added- positive test, nitrate reduced to nitrite

clear with zinc- positive, nitrate reduced to nitrogen or nitrous oxide

red with zinc- negative for nitrate reduction, organism unable to reduce nitrate alone
question
what reagents are used for nitrate test
answer
nitrate reagent A and B
and ZINC
question
rapid identification methods
answer
multitest system- a signle unit that may run 10 or more tests at the same time
- results within 24 hours leading to an identification of the organism

ex: API20E, Minitek, Pathotec, enteropluri-test
question
enteropluri test
answer
allows for 15 biochemical determinations with one inoculation
- results read at 24 hours with a 5 digit code created based on the positive results
- the 5 digit code is then found on the code booklet giving you the identification of the organism
question
DNA fingerprinting
answer
- method of identification of an organism or individuals DNA
- it is useful for epidemiologists to determine the source of infection and identify the organism causing a particular infection
- once the DNA is collected it is cut into small pieces using restriction endonucleases enzymes
- these enzymes cut DNA at specific sequence called the restriction site
- DNA samples with different nucleotide sequences such as samples of different bacteria will be cut differently by the same enzyme and yield different sizes of fragments
question
what is DNA fingerprint useful for
answer
epidemiologists
DETERMINING SOURCE OF INFECTION AND IDENTIFYING ORGANISM CAUSING IT
question
DNA is cut into small pieces during DNA fingerprinting by what?
answer
restriction endonucleases (enzymes)
question
how are DNA fingerprinting/dna fragments examined?
answer
gel electrophoresis
1. restriction enzymes cleave DNA into smaller segments of various sizes
2. DNA segments are loaded into wells in a porous gel, the gel floats in a buffer solution within a chamber between two electrodes
3. when an electric current is passed through the chamber DNA fragments move toward the positively charged cathode
4. smaller DNA segments move faster and father than larger creating the difference in appearance
question
how to do gel electrophoresis
answer
- DNA samples are mixed with a loading dye and loaded into the wells of an agarose gel
- an electric field is applied across the gel causing the negatively charged DNA fragments to move from their origin (sample well) through the gel to the positive end
- the gel matrix acts as a sieve through which smaller fragements move faster than large ones
- a pattern of bands are produced fro each sample and are made visible by staining with a dye (ethidium bromide) that binds to the DNA molecule
- the bands show up under a UV lamp
question
passive agglutination
answer
- agglutination happens when antibodies bind to particulate antigens or cells such as bacteria and form visible climbs called agglutinates
- all diagnostic reactions use something to make antigen- antibody reactions detectable
- passive agglutination utilize beads attached to either antigen or antibodies. when the corresponding antibody or antigen from the patient sample is added clumping will be observed.
question
what does passive agglutination utilize to make antibody antigen reactions detectable
answer
beads attached to either antigens or antibodies

**when the corresponding antibody or antigen from the patient sample is added, then visible clumping will be observed
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