First Aid Exam 3 (CH. 13-18) – Flashcards
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The body absorbs inhaled poisons very rapidly, so immediate care is critical.
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True
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Most brain injuries are caused by:
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trauma.
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A brain injury in which the head comes to a sudden stop but the brain continues to move back and forth inside the skull is:
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coup-contrecoup.
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When the brain is injured, blood vessels in the brain dilate allowing more blood into the injured area; swelling and an increase in pressure result. This can affect all but:
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body temperature.
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The most common type of skull fracture, which causes a thin-line crack in the skull, is a:
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linear fracture.
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A fracture that occurs when there is a break in the base of the skull, is difficult to detect, and often causes extensive damage, is a:
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basilar fracture.
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When assessing a victim of head injury, it is important to obtain a history that includes:
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whether the victim's mental status has changed.
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The most serious complication of a head injury is:
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lack of oxygen to the brain.
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One of the late signs of skull fracture is Battle's sign, which is:
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bruising behind the ears.
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Before beginning any first aid care for head injury, first:
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assess the victim's mental status.
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Whenever you care for a victim of head injury, always assume:
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spinal injury.
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After activating the EMS system, the top priority of first aid care for a head injury is to:
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establish an open airway.
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If the victim sustained a medical or nontraumatic brain injury, place the victim on his or her:
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left side and elevate the head slightly.
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A toddler is running in the living room and falls, striking the side of his head on the end of a coffee table. The toddler is lying very still, with a blank stare on his face. What should you do?
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Assess the toddler's ABCDs and call 911.
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A local baseball league player has been struck in the side of the head with a baseball. She is lying on her back, unresponsive, with blood coming from her ear. She is breathing. What should you do?
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Have someone call 911; stabilize her head, open her airway with jaw thrust.
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When the spinal cord is injured, the victim may show signs of:
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paralysis.
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In which of the following situations should you always suspect spinal injury?
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motorcycle accidents
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The two major complications of spinal injury are inadequate breathing effort and:
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paralysis.
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A high number of spinal injuries occur in the ________ spinal region.
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cervical
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The first step in assessing a responsive victim of spinal injury is to:
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note the mechanism of injury.
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At a local ski hill, a snowboarder wipes out while doing a flip. He is responsive and says he cannot move or feel his legs and feet. He has most likely suffered a:
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lower spine injury.
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Pain associated with movement is a sign of spinal injury. Assess the victim's pain by:
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asking the victim where it hurts.
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What is the most reliable sign of spinal injury in a responsive victim?
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paralysis
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What technique should you use to open the airway of an unresponsive victim with spinal injury?
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modified jaw-thrust
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Under which of the following circumstances should you not remove the helmet of a spinal-injured victim?
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removal of the helmet would cause further injury
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The general rule for management of spinal injury is to support and immobilize the:
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entire body.
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A helmeted child falls from a bicycle and is lying unresponsive on the sidewalk, on her side. She is breathing. As a First Aider who witnesses this accident, you should:
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call 911, then stabilize the child's helmeted head.
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At the local skateboard park, a skater takes a header in the half pipe. He didn't have a helmet on, and is lying on his back confused and not able to move. As a First Aider, you should:
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not move the victim, call 911, and stabilize his head and neck in a neutral in-line position
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Head injuries affect 500,000 children under fourteen years of age.
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True
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Skull fracture itself presents little danger unless accompanied by brain injury
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True
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When assessing a head wound, palpate the wound to determine size and depth of the injury.
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False
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To control bleeding of an open or depressed skull injury, apply direct pressure.
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False
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Any head injury victim who loses consciousness even briefly must be evaluated at a medical facility.
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True
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When the spinal cord is damaged, the victim will always have paralysis or numbness.
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False
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The extent of assessment of a spinal-injured victim should be based on the level of training the First Aider has had under the direction of a qualified and certified instructor.
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True
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You can generally rule out the possibility of spinal column or spinal cord damage if the victim can walk or move his or her arms and legs.
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False
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A fracture of one spot on the spine is usually associated with a fracture in other areas of the spine.
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True
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If a victim of a fall from a ladder has numbness and tingling in his arms and legs, you should have him stand up and walk it off.
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False
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Sports helmets make it easier for the First Aider to access the victim's airway.
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True
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While placing a victim's head in a neutral in-line position, you encounter resistance of the neck and head to move. You should force the head and neck into a neutral position.
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False
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Football helmets should be left in place; however, the face shield should be removed if the victim requires immediate access to the airway.
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True
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Football shoulder pads must be removed to assess the victim.
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False
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If a victim of a football injury is to be transported, you can leave the face shield on.
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False
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cervical vertebrae are the least prone to injury.
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False
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The first priority in treating spinal injury is to ensure an adequate airway and breathing.
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True
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Poisoning is the ________ cause of accidental death in the United States.
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third leading
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Toxic dusts, gases, and fumes are poisons that enter the body through:
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inhalation.
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How many of all poisoning incidents involve drugs?
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two-thirds
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What is the number-one cause of accidental death among children?
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poisoning
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Which of the following questions should you ask the victim or bystanders when taking a history from a poisoning victim?
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When was it swallowed?
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To manage a poisoning victim correctly, it is important to get:
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a relevant history.
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Which of the following might suggest poisoning by ingestion?
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acute abdominal pain
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The incidence of food poisoning is:
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dramatically high.
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After activating the EMS system, the next step in providing first aid care to a poisoned victim is to:
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maintain the airway.
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In some cases, poison control professionals will instruct you to:
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administer activated charcoal to absorb the poison.
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Which of the following would not be used to treat a poisoning victim?
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syrup of ipecac
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The adult dose for activated charcoal is:
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1 gram/kilogram of body weight
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In which of the following cases would you not give activated charcoal as part of your treatment?
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the victim has swallowed gasoline
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Activated charcoal should be used for victims who have ________ a poison.
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ingested
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Under which of the following circumstances should you not give activated charcoal to a victim?
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if the victim has swallowed acids or alkalies
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Activated charcoal works by ________ contaminants.
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absorbing
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Most toxic inhalations occur as a result of
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fires.
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Which of the following is not true concerning carbon monoxide poisoning?
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Carbon monoxide poisoning causes 25 percent of all poisoning deaths in the U.S. each year.
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The initial signs and symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning are similar to those of:
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the flu.
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Which of the following is a sign or symptom of high-level exposure to carbon monoxide?
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chest pain
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After activating the EMS system, the next priority when caring for a victim of inhaled poisons is to:
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get the victim into fresh air.
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If you suspect the victim has inhaled carbon monoxide, move the victim at least ________ feet from the suspected source of the carbon monoxide.
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150
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What position is best for a victim of inhaled poison if there are no contraindicating injuries?
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lateral recumbent
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Most common injected poisons come from:
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insect stings.
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Injected poisons usually cause ________ reaction at the injection site:
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an immediate
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When providing first aid care for a victim of injected poison, after activating the EMS system, you should next:
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maintain the victim's airway.
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The greatest danger from injected poison is
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anaphylactic shock.
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Which of the following is a sign or symptom of absorbed poisons?
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itching or irritation
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Stinging nettles cause intense burning or stinging pain. After washing with soap and water, you are advised to apply:
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calamine lotion to the skin.
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The poisonous element of poison ivy is:
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urushiol.
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Poisons can enter the body through ingestion, intention, injection, or absorption.
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False
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The goal of first aid care for swallowed poisons is to rid the body of the poison before it enters the intestinal tract.
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True
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Half of all plant poisonings are caused by mushrooms.
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True
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If all signs and symptoms of a poisoned victim have been controlled, the victim generally does not need to see a physician.
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False
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Food poisoning is difficult to detect because the signs and symptoms vary greatly.
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True
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If you suspect food poisoning, give the victim milk or ice cream to neutralize the poison.
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False
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It is best to use activated charcoal in the powder form because it stays active longer than the pre-mixed.
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False
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The body absorbs inhaled poisons very rapidly, so immediate care is critical.
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True
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Activated charcoal is the treatment of choice for victims of swallowed poisons.
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True
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You must administer activated charcoal immediately to a victim of alcohol or gasoline ingestion to rid the body of the product.
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False
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Charcoal briquettes used for outdoor cooking can be crushed up and ingested for an ingested poisoning victim.
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False
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The signs and symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning change with time and intensity of the poisoning.
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True
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If people and pets in the same environment share the same symptoms, you should suspect carbon monoxide poisoning.
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True
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Bee venom from a honeybee is an example of an absorbed poison.
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False
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Stinging nettles cause intense burning or stinging pain.
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True
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Absorbed poisons generally cause burns, lesions, and inflammation.
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True
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Urushiol is a slightly light-blue oil that causes poison ivy reactions
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False
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The more skin affected by an absorbed poison, the greater the need for medical attention.
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True
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What is the most abused drug in the United States?
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alcohol
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Which of the following would you not do if you suspect an unresponsive victim might be experiencing a drug or alcohol emergency?
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watch the victim walk down the street
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Which of the following signs and symptoms of a drug- or alcohol-related emergency would indicate a life-threatening emergency?
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vomiting while not fully responsive
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An abnormal or irregular pulse slower than ________ beats per minute indicates potential danger for the victim.
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60
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Alcohol is completely absorbed from the stomach and intestinal tract within:
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two hours.
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There are four general stages of alcohol withdrawal. Major seizures occurring within 48 hours characterize which stage?
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stage three
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Which of the following characterize stage two signs and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal syndrome?
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vomiting, illusion, or hallucinations
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Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of delirium tremens?
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seizures
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A victim who responds appropriately to verbal or noxious stimuli but will fall asleep when the stimuli is removed, falls into which category of responsiveness?
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responsive verbally or to pain
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When obtaining a history of a victim of a drug-/alcohol-related emergency, which of the following information is the least important?
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age and weight of the victim
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Which of the following is not a sign that immediate medical attention is needed for a drug/alcohol problem?
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awake and alert
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Which of the following is not a goal of First Aider crisis intervention when managing a drug/alcohol crisis?
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to provide counseling
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Which of the following is not one of the general guidelines for managing a drug/alcohol crisis?
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establish a close relationship
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The primary first aid concern in acute intoxication is:
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maintaining an airway.
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Regarding violent drug/alcohol victims, be alert to the signals of danger or violence and take evasive action. This includes:
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leaving the scene.
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What is the preferred method for handling "bad trips"?
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the talk-down technique
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Which of the following would be part of providing appropriate nonverbal support when managing a drug/alcohol crisis?
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maintaining eye contact
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Which of the following would not be appropriate when handling a victim of overdose?
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telling them they are stupid
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You should not use ________ when handling a victim who has used PCP.
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the talk-down technique
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The "talk-down technique" used to handle victims having bad trips includes:
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helping the victim verbalize what is happening.
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To prevent a victim from becoming violent, you should:
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not invade the victim's personal space.
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General guidelines for managing a drug/alcohol crisis include:
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ensuring your own personal safety.
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The drug Ecstasy is:
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a stimulant
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Which of the following is a legal but abused narcotic pain reliever?
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oxycontin
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Which of the following is not true about the drug PCP?
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is known as "Special K"
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Which of the following is not true about "roofies" (Rohypnol)?
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They cause recurring "bad trips."
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Which of the following is a drug that can cause a rapid and dangerous rise in pulse and blood pressure and lead to seizures, stroke, and death?
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cocaiine
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When handling victims of possible drug overdose, what is your first priority?
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ensure your personal safety
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Which of the following is the best indication that a violent drug victim is about to lose control?
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excessive sweating and agitation
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Because heroin is a depressant, the victim's ________ will probably be decreased.
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breathing
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Drug abusers are more prone to certain injuries, illnesses, and infectious diseases.
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True
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It is difficult to assess drug or alcohol emergencies properly because drugs and alcohol produce signs that mimic a number of system disorders and diseases.
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True
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You can safely assume that if a person is in a stupor or has slurred speech, he is a victim of drug overdose.
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False
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A musky, fruity, acetone odor on the breath is a sign of alcohol intoxication.
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False
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Acute alcohol intoxication has many of the same signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia.
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True
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Acute alcohol intoxication often mimics hypoglycemia so you should always suspect diabetes and give the victim sugar if in doubt.
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True
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Alcohol withdrawal syndrome is dose dependent; the more the alcoholic was drinking, the more severe the syndrome will be.
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True
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A single episode of DTs lasts between one and three hours; multiple episodes can last as long as a week.
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False
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If a victim of drug overdose seems to be hyperventilating, have the victim breathe into a paper bag.
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False
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Never repeat or confirm what the victim says during the "talk-down" technique because it can make the victim even angrier.
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False
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The "talk-down" technique is the preferred method for handling bad drug trips.
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True
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Oxycontin is an illegal narcotic pain reliever.
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False
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As a stimulant, heroin can cause the user to stop breathing.
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False
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Rohypnal can cause sedation and amnesia.
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True
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Methamphetamines are produced in illegal clandestine drug labs.
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True
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Ritalin is a drug used to treat attention deficit disorder and is used as a street drug as well.
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True
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Heroin is one of the most potent stimulants of the street drugs.
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False
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GHB is one of the "club drugs" that is found in liquid form and added to drinks.
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True
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A condition in which fatty substances and other debris are deposited on the arterial walls is:
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atherosclerosis.
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Arteriosclerosis is often referred to as:
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hardening of the arteries.
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Myocardial infarction refers to the death of the:
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myocardium.
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A heart attack without pain is called:
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a silent myocardial infarction.
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Arteriosclerosis occurs when arteries lose their:
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elasticity.
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In a heart attack, the common structures that cause the problems are:
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arteries
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Pulmonary edema results from ________ leaking out of the capillaries into the surrounding lung tissue.
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plasma
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Angina pectoris literally means:
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pain in the chest.
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Angina pectoris occurs when the heart's demand for ________ is greater than what it is receiving.
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oxygenated blood
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Which of the following is true about angina pectoris
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Angina is a brief feeling of pain or discomfort.
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The most common sign of angina pectoris is:
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chest pain
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Stable angina pectoris usually appears suddenly and is associated with
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physical exertion
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The most dramatic sign of progressing congestive heart failure is:
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pulmonary edema.
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Which of the following conditions is most likely to produce cardiac tissue death?
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myocardial infarction
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A condition in which plasma seeps out of the capillaries into the lungs due to pressure from a failing heart is:
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pulmonary edema.
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When the blood supply to the heart is significantly reduced or stopped, the result is:
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myocardial infarction.
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Generally, the best way to relieve angina pectoris is to:
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rest
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If an adult has had a heart attack and his/her pulse is absent, you should:
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start CPR
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To treat a responsive cardiac victim, activate the EMS system, then:
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perform an initial assessment.
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If the responsive cardiac victim is able (and has no allergies or contraindications), encourage them to chew:
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two low-dose baby aspirin.
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Which of the following is true concerning a thrombus stroke?
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80 percent of all strokes are thrombus strokes.
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The characteristics of a stroke depend on:
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the cause, location and severity of the stroke.
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Approximately 20 percent of all strokes are caused by:
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hemorrhage.
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A transient ischemic attack is:
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a brief spell, similar to a stroke.
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Which of the following is not associated with TIAs (transient ischemic attacks)?
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nausea or vomiting
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Which of the following statements about cerebral embolisms is true?
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Of all strokes, cerebral embolisms have the most rapid onset.
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Because of its dramatic nature, 80 percent of the victims of this form of stroke die.
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hemorrhage
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A stroke that produces a sudden excruciating headache followed by a rapid loss of consciousness, and coma is caused by:
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cerebral hemorrhage.
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You should position the conscious victim of a stroke:
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on his back with head and shoulders slightly raised.
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Which of the following is not a sign/symptom of a stroke?
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chest pain
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A 60-year-old male is walking to the kitchen and suddenly clutches his head and collapses to the floor. He is unable to move his right arm and cannot speak. He has most likely suffered a:
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stroke.
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Heart attacks and associated heart disease are the number-one killer of adults in the United States today.
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True
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Because of the critical nature of heart disease emergencies, you should treat every adult with chest pain as a heart attack victim until proven otherwise.
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True
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Atherosclerosis is a disease condition in which the arteries lose their elasticity.
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False
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It is difficult for a First Aider to tell the difference between the pain of angina pectoris and the pain of a heart attack.
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True
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Twenty-five percent of all myocardial infarction victims have no chest pain at all.
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True
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Silent myocardial infarctions are commonly seen in women, diabetics, and the elderly.
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True
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If you are in doubt about whether the victim is having an angina attack or a myocardial infarction, treat it as if it were a heart attack.
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True
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Heart attack is the same as cardiac arrest.
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False
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You should not allow a victim to move on his or her own if you suspect myocardial infarction.
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True
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It is crucial to determine at the scene the kind of stroke that occurred because first aid care will differ according to the cause of the stroke.
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False
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If the victim of a stroke develops difficulty breathing or becomes unconscious, turn him/her on his/her side with the paralyzed side up.
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False
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A victim of a stroke can be given water to drink.
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False
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A conscious victim of a stroke may not be able to speak, but can still understand and hear you speak.
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True
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A transient ischemic attack may precede a thrombotic stroke.
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True
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A stroke should be treated as an emergency just like a heart attack.
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True
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Conservatively estimated, there are more than ________ diabetics in the United States.
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14 million
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Approximately, how many of all diabetics go undiagnosed or unrecognized?
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one-half
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Insulin is a hormone needed to facilitate the movement of ________ out of the bloodstream and into the cell.
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glucose (sugar)
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In diabetes, ________ accumulates in the bloodstream.
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glucose (sugar)
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Two major complications of diabetes include:
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stroke and heart attack
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When the cells of the body don't get the glucose they need, _____ are used as fuel instead.
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fats and proteins
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Which of the following is NOT a common complication from diabetes?
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shortness of breath
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of type I diabetes?
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It is generally controlled by diet and/or oral medication
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Diabetes face a grave physical situation when their blood glucose level is:
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too high or too low
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All of the following are true about gestational diabetes EXCEPT
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women deliver smaller than normal babies
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Insulin is a hormone needed to facilitate the movement of:
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glucose
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You witness a car, slowly jump a curb and hit a tree. You run over to find a conscious middle-aged woman looking very intoxicated but who has no odor of alcohol on her breath. You should suspect a(n):
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diabetic emergency
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While out golfing, your partner becomes dizzy and light-headed. He says he is a diabetic and hasn't eaten yet today. What should you do to assist in treating him?
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you have him drink a regular cola
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DKA stands for:
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diabetic ketaoacidosis
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Which of the following is a rapid life-threatening emergency?
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hypoglycemia
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Which of the following is a sign or symptom of hyperglycemia?
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flushed, dry, warm skin
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A condition that results from too little insulin and too much sugar is:
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hyperglycemia
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All of the following are signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia except:
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pale, moist skin
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All of the following are signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia except:
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intense thirst
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Hypoglycemia is the result of:
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too much insulin, not enough glucose
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Which of the following would most likely be a cause of hyperglycemia?
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victim has not taken his/her insulin
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A general rule about first aid care for diabetics is, when in doubt:
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give sugar
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All of the following might be a sign that an unconscious victim is having a hypoglycemic diabetic emergency except:
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breath the smells fruity and sweet
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The onset of hypoglycemia is:
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sudden, within minutes
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When caring for a conscious victim of hypoglycemia, after activating the EMS system you should:
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give the victim sugar
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Which of the following should you avoid when caring for a victim of hypoglycemia?
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giving sugar to a victim that can't swallow
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What is the best position for an unconscious victim with suspected hypoglycemia?
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lateral recumbent
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A victim of hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia may appear:
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intoxicated
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The breath of a victim with hypoglycemia will have:
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no unusual odor
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The first indication of diabetes may be a life-threatening emergency.
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True
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Type I diabetes was previously called "adult-onset" diabetes.
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False
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Gestational diabetes increases a woman's risk of delivering very large babies.
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True
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Hypoglycemia doesn't look anything like shock.
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False
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A symptom of hyperglycemia is pale, moist skin.
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False
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The victim of hyperglycemia will usually complain of dry mouth and intense thirst.
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True
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An undiagnosed hyperglycemic patient will experience hunger, thirst, and frequent urination.
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True
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You should always make certain to distinguish between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia before administering sugar.
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False
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Hypoglycemia is a grave medical emergency that can cause death in minutes.
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True
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If the victim is conscious, orange juice (with several tablespoons of sugar mixed in) can be given to a victim of hypoglycemia to help increase the blood sugar level.
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True
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Type II diabetes requires the victim to have an insulin injection daily.
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False
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Often a hypoglycemic or hyperglycemic victim may appear intoxicated.
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True
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Signs and symptoms for hyperglycemia appear gradually, over a period of days.
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True
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Simply stated, diabetes mellitus is a disease in which there is too much insulin and not enough sugar.
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False
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Type II diabetics have to endure this disease their entire lives.
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False
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A hypoglycemic victim may be hostile or belligerent.
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True
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A Type I diabetic takes insulin to control his/her diabetes.
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True
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A Type I diabetic takes an oral medication to control his/her diabetes.
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False
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A sensation of shortness of breath, a feeling of air hunger accompanied by labored breathing, defines:
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dyspnea.
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Which of the following would most likely cause true dyspnea?
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aspiration of a foreign body
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Which one of the following first aid care procedures would you apply for a victim with dyspnea after checking for aspiration and clearing the airway?
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assist with ventilation if needed
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Generally, dyspnea is characterized by________ breathing.
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rapid, shallow
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A respiratory disease characterized by inelastic, distended alveoli is:
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emphysema.
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Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of emphysema?
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a chronic cyanotic (blue) complexion
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"Pink puffers" refers to victims of:
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emphysema.
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A productive cough that has persisted for at least 3 months out of the year over the past 2 consecutive years would indicate:
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chronic bronchitis.
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Typical victims of chronic bronchitis are invariably:
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heavy cigarette smokers.
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The term "blue bloaters" refers to victims of:
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chronic bronchitis.
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Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of chronic bronchitis?
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pinkish coloring
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Coughing that produces thick mucus; swelling of the hands, feet, and ankles; and low-pitched snoring sounds during inhalation and exhalation are all signs and symptoms of:
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chronic bronchitis.
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The number-one goal of first aid care for victims with COPD is to:
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enhance oxygenation.
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A reaction to dust or pollen, often seasonal and occurring most often in children, describes which of the following types of asthma?
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extrinsic
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The alveoli have become inelastic, distended, and trap air, which is no longer able to get into the bloodstream. This process occurs in:
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emphysema.
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Which of the following is not a sign/symptom of asthma?
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a mucus-producing cough
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Which of the following is not a reliable sign of status asthmaticus?
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wheezing
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A severe, prolonged asthma attack that does not respond to aggressive treatment is:
answer
status asthmaticus.
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Which of the following is not part of the first aid care of an asthma victim?
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refrain from giving the victim anything by mouth
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In pneumonia, which part of the respiratory system fills with fluid or pus?
answer
alveoli
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Almost all asthma attacks involve:
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bronchospasm.
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The signs and symptoms of pneumonia depend on:
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the lobe of the lung that is affected.
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Which of the following is a sign or symptom of pneumonia?
answer
chest pain
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A fever usually exceeding 101°F and chills that "shake the bed" are symptoms of:
answer
pneumonia.
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The causes of hyperventilation syndrome usually involve:
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anxiety or emotional stress.
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"Overbreathing" is associated with which one of the following conditions?
answer
hyperventilation
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uestion 27 0 / 1 point Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of hyperventilation syndrome?
answer
unequal pupils
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Which of the following is not proper first aid care for a victim with hyperventilation?
answer
have the victim breathe into a paper bag
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Hyperventilation involves breathing at a rate faster than:
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40 breaths/minute.
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When you hyperventilate, you breathe:
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too rapidly and too deeply.
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A person who severely hyperventilates can:
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faint.
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Without enough oxygen, certain cells in the body can die within minutes.
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True
question
People diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease typically have emphysema, chronic bronchitis, or both.
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True
question
Because victims of emphysema are usually cyanotic, they are referred to as "blue bloaters."
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False
question
The most important known factor in COPD is cigarette smoking.
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True
question
The victim of chronic bronchitis usually has a tendency toward associated heart disease and right-heart failure.
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True
question
When a person with COPD is having dyspnea, it is important to activate EMS right away.
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True
question
Intrinsic (nonallergenic) asthma is most common in adults. One cause is in response to emotional stress.
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True
question
If allowed to do so in your area, assist the victim of an acute asthma attack with their asthma medication.
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True
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It is important to stay calm when caring for a victim with asthma, because stress and emotional intensity can actually worsen the asthma.
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True
question
You can safely assume that a wheezing victim has asthma.
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False
question
A person with pneumonia will generally have a fever over 101 degrees F.
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True
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Overbreathing increases the carbon dioxide in the blood to an abnormal level, causing hyperventilation.
answer
False
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The three goals of first aid care for asthma are to improve oxygenation, relieve bronchospasm, and improve the victim's ventilation.
answer
True
question
Dyspnea is the least common of all medical complaints in adults.
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False
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Asthma is characterized by repeated infections, which thicken and distort the lining of the bronchioles, and a characteristic "blue" color of the body.
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False
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The treatment of choice for hyperventilation is to have the victim breathe slowly into a paper bag.
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False
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If hyperventilation is caused by a medical problem, the hyperventilation is relatively benign.
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False
question
Hyperventilation can cause an acid/base imbalance that in turn causes carpopedal spasm of the hands.
answer
True