FBLA Business Law 2018 – Flashcards

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Person who authorizes another in an agency relationship
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Principal
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Any contract formed electronically such as over the internet
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E-contract
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When payment for goods take place at a later date, the transfer of title takes place when
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Buyers select and agree to buy the goods @ sellers store
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Any agreement reached by the representative in an agency relationship binds
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The principal & 3rd party
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A legitimate defense to wrongful interference
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Bona-fide competition
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required to negotiate on behalf of the principal or bring him or her and third parties into contractual relationship.
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Agent
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is a natural person, business, or corporation that provides goods or services to another entity under terms specified in a contract or within a verbal agreement. Independent contractors are usually paid on a freelance basis. Contractors often work through a limited company or franchise, which they themselves own, or may work through an umbrella company.
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Independent contractor
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a person who acts as an intermediary between sellers and buyers of real estate/real property and attempts to find sellers who wish to sell and buyers who wish to buy.
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Real estate broker/agent
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is a legal term which, in its broadest sense, can refer to any person who holds property, authority, or a position of trust or responsibility for the benefit of another, also can be a person who is allowed to do certain tasks but not able to gain income.
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Trustee
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describes a legal relationship in common law where physical possession of personal property, or a chattel, is transferred from one person (the 'bailor') to another person (the 'bailee') who subsequently has possession of the property. It arises when a person gives property to someone else for safekeeping, and is a cause of action independent of contract or tort.
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Bailment
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The vast majority of small businesses start out like this. These firms are owned by one person, usually the individual who has day-to-day responsibility for running the business. They own all the assets of the business and the profits generated by it. They also assume complete responsibility for any of its liabilities or debts.
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Sole proprietorships
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two or more people share ownership of a single business. Like proprietorships, the law does not distinguish between the business and its owners. They should have a legal agreement that sets forth how decisions will be made, profits will be shared, disputes will be resolved. Many split up at crisis times unless there is defined process. They must decide how much time and capital each will contribute, etc.
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Partnership
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chartered by the state in which it is headquartered, is considered by law to be a unique entity, separate and apart from those who own it. It can be taxed; it can be sued; it can enter into contractual agreements. The owners are its shareholders. The shareholders elect a board of directors to oversee the major policies and decisions. It has a life of its own and does not dissolve when ownership changes.
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Corporation
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It requires employers to pay covered employees who are not otherwise exempt at least the federal minimum wage and overtime pay of one-and-one-half-times the regular rate of pay. For nonagricultural operations, it restricts the hours that children under age 16 can work and forbids the employment of children under age 18 in certain jobs deemed too dangerous. For agricultural operations, it prohibits the employment of children under age 16 during school hours and in certain jobs deemed too dangerous.
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Wages & hours
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An administered by the (OSHA). Most private industries are regulated by OSHA or OSHA-approved state programs, which also cover public sector employers. Employers covered by the OSH Act must comply with the regulations and the safety and health standards promulgated by OSHA. Employers also have a general duty under the OSH Act to provide their employees with work and a workplace free from recognized, serious hazards. OSHA enforces the Act through workplace inspections and investigations.
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Workplace safety & health
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Americans with disabilities act of 1990
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ADA
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Many small companies use this, where very few levels of management separate executives from analysts, secretaries and lower-level employees. Best when a company has less than 20 employees, especially if the company employs one or two employees per department. One advantage of using this for management is that decisions can be made relatively quickly.
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Flat organization structure
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centered on job functions, such as marketing, research and development and finance. Small companies should use this when they want to arrange their organizational structure by department. For example, a small company may have a director, two managers and two analysts in the marketing department. The director would likely report to the Chief Executive Officer, or CEO, and both managers would report to the director. In addition, each manager may have an analyst reporting to them. It works well when small companies are heavily project-focused.
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A functional organizational structure
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is a body of elected or appointed members who jointly oversee the activities of a company or organization. Other names include board of governors, board of managers, board of regents, board of trustees, and board of visitors. It is often simply referred to as "the board".
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Board of directors
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is the practice of leasing for a prescribed period of time the right to use a firm's successful business model and brand. The word's meaning is free—and is used both as a noun and as a (transitive) verb. It is said to have a greater incentive than a direct employee because he or she has a direct stake in the business.
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Franchise
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is a combination of two or more corporations engaged in entirely different businesses that fall under one corporate group, usually involving a parent company and many subsidiaries. Often, it is a multi-industry company and are often large and multinational.
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Conglomerates
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A (LLC) is a hybrid business entity having certain characteristics of both a corporation and a partnership or sole proprietorship (depending on how many owners there are). An LLC, although a business entity, is a type of unincorporated association and is not a corporation. The primary characteristic an LLC shares with a corporation is limited liability, and the primary characteristic it shares with a partnership is the availability of pass-through income taxation. It is often more flexible than a corporation, and it is well-suited for companies with a single owner.
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Limited Liability Company
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1 Intent 2 Offer 3 Timeframe 4 Obligations 5 Representations 6 Consideration 7 Arbitration 8Acceptance
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Contract Step
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In business, amalgamation is the merger and acquisition of many smaller companies into much larger ones.
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consolidation
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The combining of two or more companies, generally by offering the stockholders of one company securities in the acquiring company in exchange for the surrender of their stock.
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Merger
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is a high ranking person in a given corporation that is assigned a title indicating his position within the corporation. While a corporation may have many positions under its purview, only the persons holding the highest ranking positions are considered this (or executives).
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Corporate Officer
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Party may do this after a breach of contract
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Discharge
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A contract that cannot be enforced by law. They are different from voidable contracts, which are contracts that may be (but not necessarily will be) nullified. However, when a contract is being written and signed, there is no automatic mechanism available in every situation that can be utilized to detect the validity or enforceability of that contract.
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Void
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A contract, unlike a void contract, is a valid contract. At most, one party to the contract is bound. The unbound party may repudiate the contract, at which time the contract is void.
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voidable
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A contract or transaction that is valid, but which the court will not enforce. It is usually used in contradistinction to void (or void ab initio) and voidable. If the parties perform the agreement, it will be valid, but the court will not compel them if they do not.
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unenforceable
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a contract in which all elements are specifically stated (offer, acceptance, consideration), and the terms are stated, as compared to an "implied" contract in which the existence of the contract is assumed by the circumstances.
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Express contract
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occurs when one party in a contract presents information to another that is incorrect, deceitful, or meant to confuse the other party.
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Contract fraud
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threats, violence, constraints, or other action brought to bear on someone to do something against their will or better judgment.
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Duress
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In jurisprudence, it is an equitable doctrine that involves one person taking advantage of a position of power over another person.
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Undue influence
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Witholding info
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Non-disclosure
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In the United States, persons under 18 are typically minor and their contracts are considered voidable; however, if the minor voids the contract, benefits received by the minor must be returned. The minor can enforce breaches of contract by an adult while the adult's enforcement may be more limited under the bargain principle
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Minors & contracts
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is a legal cause of action in which a binding agreement or bargained-for exchange is not honored by one or more of the parties to the contract by non-performance or interference with the other party's performance.
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Breach of contract
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Punitive & Compensatory & Liquidation
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Breach of Contract Remedies
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is the act of selling a product or service in return for money or other compensation.
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sale
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18 or 16 with parental consent but the other partner must be 18 or older. Younger with judicial consent (with no strict minimum age). With parental consent, serious reasons are required for a minor to marry; without parental consent, the unwillingness of the parents has to constitute an abuse.
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Marriage age
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An agreement, antenuptial agreement, or premarital agreement, it is a contract entered into prior to marriage, civil union or any other agreement prior to the main agreement by the people intending to marry or contract with each other. The content of this agreement can vary widely, but commonly includes provisions for division of property and spousal support in the event of divorce or breakup of marriage. They may also include terms for the forfeiture of assets as a result of divorce on the grounds of adultery; further conditions of guardianship may be included as well.
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prenuptial
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is a marriage that is considered valid by both partners, but has not been formally registered with a state or church registry, or a formal religious service. In effect, the act of the couple representing themselves to others as being married acts as the evidence that they are married. In jurisdictions recognizing common-law marriages, such a marriage is not legally distinct from a traditional ceremonial marriage enacted through a civil or religious ceremony in terms of the couple's rights and obligations to one another.
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Common-law marriage
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A husband and wife may obtain a divorce through the simplified dissolution procedure only if all of the following statements are true about both spouses at the time that they jointly file a petition for simplified dissolution of marriage.
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Divorce
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Sexual harassment Adultery[3] Alcoholism[3] Disability[3] Desertion[3] Imprisonment[3] Domestic violence No-fault Divorce
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Requirements for a divorce
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typically arise in proceedings involving divorce (dissolution of marriage), annulment and other legal proceedings where children may be involved. In most jurisdictions the issue of which parent the child will reside with is determined in accordance with the best interests of the child standard.
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Residence and contact issues
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is the process of anticipating and arranging for the disposal of an estate during a person's life. It typically attempts to eliminate uncertainties over the administration of a probate and maximize the value of the estate by reducing taxes and other expenses. However, the ultimate goal of estate plan is determined by the specific goals of the client and may be as simple or complex as the client's needs dictate.
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Estate planning
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A testament is a legal declaration by which a person, the testator, names one or more persons to manage his or her estate and provides for the distribution of his property at death. For the devolution of property not disposed of by will, see inheritance and intestacy.
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will
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Any person over the age of majority and of sound mind (having appropriate mental capacity) can draft his or her own will with or without the aid of a lawyer. (Estimates of the percent of Americans who write wills before they die range from 30 percent to 50 percent.
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Requirements for will
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the action (generally illegal) of advertising goods that are an apparent bargain, with the intention of substituting inferior or more expensive goods.
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Bait and switch
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is the practice of making unethical or immoral monetary loans intended to unfairly enrich the lender. A loan may be considered usurious because of excessive or abusive interest rates or other factors, but according to some dictionaries, simply charging any interest at all can be considered it
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Usury
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Overcharging for services rendered
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Deceptive Service Estimates
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a right to keep possession of property belonging to another person until a debt owed by that person is discharged.
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lien
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is an alternative dispute resolution (ADR) process whereby the parties to a dispute use a conciliator, who meets with the parties separately in an attempt to resolve their differences. They do this by lowering tensions, improving communications, interpreting issues, providing technical assistance, exploring potential solutions and bringing about a negotiated settlement.
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Conciliation
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A lawsuit or (very rarely) "suit in law" is a civil action brought in a court of law in which a plaintiff, a party who claims to have incurred loss as a result of a defendant's actions, demands a legal or equitable remedy. The defendant is required to respond to the plaintiff's complaint. If the plaintiff is successful, judgment is in the plaintiff's favor, and a variety of court orders may be issued to enforce a right, award damages, or impose a temporary or permanent injunction to prevent an act or compel an act. A declaratory judgment may be issued to prevent future legal disputes.
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Litigation
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is an act of giving money or gift giving that alters the behavior of the recipient, where the gift is of a dishonest nature.
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Bribery
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In criminal law, it is an agreement between two or more persons to commit a crime at some time in the future.
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Conspiracy
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A wrongful act or an infringement of a right (other than under contract) leading to civil legal liability.
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Torts
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denotes an unlawful act punishable by a state
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Crime
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theft or misappropriation of funds placed in one's trust or belonging to one's employer.
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embezzlement
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Also known as commercial law, the body of law that applies to the rights, relations, and conduct of persons and businesses engaged in commerce, merchandising, trade, and sales.
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Business Law
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enforceable rules in a society
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Laws
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laws grouped into organized form
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Code
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law based on current standards or customs of people
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Common law
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law dictated by central authority
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Positive law
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power to decide over a case
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Jurisdiction
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fairness (clergyman)
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Equity
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law made when courts interpret constitutions
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Constitutional law
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laws enacted by legislatures
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Statutes
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legislation at the local level
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Ordinance
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governmental bodies formed to carry out particular laws
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Administrative agencies
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law created by judicial branch
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Case law
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Latin for "to adhere to decided cases"
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Stare decisis
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when a law is in conflict with a constitution
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Unconstitutional
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violation of private legal rights of an individual
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Civil law
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offense against society
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Crime
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violation of citizens' rights to live in peace
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Criminal law
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law that deals with methods of enforcing legal rights and duties
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Procedural law
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defines rights and duties
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Substantive law
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rules that apply to business situations and transactions
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Business law
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private wrongs against people or organizations
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Torts
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deciding what is right or wrong in a reasoned, impartial manner
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Ethics
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Making decisions that treat everyone the same
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Impartiality
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ethics that deal with business
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Business ethics
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Ethics that evaluates the results of an action
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Consequence-based reasoning
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Standard for judging right and wrong, (love etc)
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The Good
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Ethical decisions that evaluate only the act and not its consequences
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Fundamental ethical rules
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A mental test to identify illogical actions
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Universalizing
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Legitimate claims on other people, which flow from each person's status as a human being
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Moral rights
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more than 50%, in elections and legislative bodies
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Majority rule
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Personal, human rights recognized and guaranteed by our Constitution
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Civil rights
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Doing what is right even under pressure to act otherwise
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Integrity
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Insurance policy that pays the employer money in the case of theft by employees
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Fidelity bond
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Open, peaceful conduct in violation of an alleged unjust law
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Civil disobedience
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A person who does not respect the law
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Scofflaws
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made by 13 original American colonies against King George III of England and guaranteed rights
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Declaration of Independence
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loose charter made by 13 sovereign states
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Articles of Confederation
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7 articles, framing document that currently consists of 7 articles and 27 amendments
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US Constitution
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the first ten amendments of the U.S. Constitution
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Bill of Rights
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Personal, natural rights guaranteed by the Constitution
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Civil Rights
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benefits to which a person is justly entitled to by law
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Legal rights
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Obligations or standards of conduct toward other persons that are enforceable by law
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Legal duties
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Concept of fundamental fairness in compliance with reasonable and just laws
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Due process of law
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Division and allocation of the powers of government between its various branches
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System of checks and balances
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private organization of citizens who select and promote candidates for election to public office, not in Constitution
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Political party
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trying a governmental official for misconduct in an office
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Impeachment cases
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Change or alteration, ¾ pass
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Amendment
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Governmental system wherein each citizen may vote directly to decide issues
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Democracy
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Governmental systems wherein citizens elect representatives to decide issues
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Republic
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Freedom from external control
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Sovereignty
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take dispute to court
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Litigate
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governmental forum that administers justice under the law
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Court
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independent third party who tries to develop a solution acceptable to both sides, not biding
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Mediator
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someone who holds an informal hearing to determine what happened, binding both parties
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Arbitrator
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first court to hear a dispute
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Trial court
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power to hear a case in full for the first time
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Original jurisdiction
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a court that reviews decision of a lower court if a party claims there was an error made in the previous procedure
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Appellate court
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a verbatim record of what went on at trial
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Transcript
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written arguments on the issues of law
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Appellate briefs
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a court that can hear almost any type of case
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General jurisdiction
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court that only hears one specific type of case
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Special jurisdiction
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order that compels the state court to turn over the record of the case to the Supreme Court for review
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Writ of certiorari
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a court whose proceedings are recorded and available as evidence of fact
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Court of record
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title given to judges who sit on the state and federal Supreme Court
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Justice
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lower courts below main courts of general original jurisdiction
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Associate circuit courts/ county courts
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courts that administer their ordinances
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Municipal court
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courts that handle disputes in which small amounts, $2,500 or less, are involved
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Small claims court
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younger members of society
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Juveniles
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courts that administer wills and estates
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Probate courts
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punishable offense against society
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Crime
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breach of duty, the specific conduct that violates the statute
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Criminal act
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doctrine that explains that a corporate officer can be held criminally responsible
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Vicarious criminal liability
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the criminal conduct of taking another's property or money by a person to whom it has been trusted
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Embezzlement
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crime punishable by confinement for more than a year in a state prison or by a fine of more than $1,000
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Felony
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people who lie under oath
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Perjury
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less serious crime
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Misdemeanor
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lesser misdemeanors, can only be fined, not entitled to a jury trial
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Infractions
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offenses committed in the business world, do not involve force or violence, do not cause injury or physical property damage
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White-collar crimes
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state that competing companies may not cooperate in fixing prices or dividing sales regions
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Antitrust laws
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variation of larceny, taking of property from another's person or immediate presence against the victim's will, by force or by causing fear
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Robbery
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entering a building without permission when intending to commit a crime
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Burglary
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one who obtains money or other property by lying about a past or existing fact
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False pretenses
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falsely making or materially altering a writing to defraud another
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Forgery
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unlawfully offering or giving anything of value to influence the performance of an official
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Bribery
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obtaining money or other property from a person by wrongful use of force, fear, or the power of office
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Extortion/blackmail
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an agreement between two or more persons to commit a crime
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Conspiracy
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willful and illegal burning of a building
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Arson
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based on problems with the way evidence is obtained or the way the accused is arrested, questioned, tried, or punished
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Procedural defenses
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disprove, justify, or excuse the alleged crime
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Substantive defenses
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use of force that appears to be reasonably necessary to the victim to prevent any harm, extends to members of one's family and household and to other whom one has a legal duty to protect
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Self defense
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allows the defendant to escape liability
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Defense
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exists when the accused does not know the difference between what is right and wrong
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Criminal insanity
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freedom from prosecution even when one has committed the crime charged, can be granted in exchange for an agreement to testify about the criminal conduct of several other criminals, however, if an immune witness refuses to testify, he/she is guilty of contempt of court
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Immunity
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action that hinders the administration of justice
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Contempt of court
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any penalty provided by law and imposed by a court
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Punishment
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where an accused person may agree to plead guilty to a less serious crime in exchange for having a more serious charge dropped
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Plea bargaining
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private or civil wrong
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Tort
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torts for which the defendant intended either the injury or act
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Intentional torts
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when a person intentionally threatens to physically or offensively injure another
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Assault
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intentional breach of the duty to refrain from harmful or offensive touching of another
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Battery
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depriving a person of freedom of movement without the person's consent and without privilege
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False imprisonment
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a false statement that injures one's reputation, spoken=slander, written=libel
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Defamation
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invasion of the right to privacy as protected by the US Constitution
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Invasion of privacy
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entry onto the property of another without the owner's consent
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Trespass to land
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a thief is always a converter, when property is stolen, destroyed, or used in a manner inconsistent with the owner's rights
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Conversion
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when a third party encourages a contracted party to breach the contract
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Interference with contractual relations
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intent is not required, only carelessness
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Negligence
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liability that exists even though the defendant was not negligent
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Strict liability
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monetary award to the injured party to compensate for a loss
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Damages
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anything that the judge allows to be presented to a jury that helps prove or disprove the alleged facts
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Evidence
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made by witnesses under oath
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Testimony statements
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written order by the judge commanding a witness to appear in court to give a testimony
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Subpoena
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someone who has personal knowledge of the facts related to a case
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Witness
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jury's decision
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Verdict
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final result of the trial
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Judgement
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intentional misrepresentation of an existing, important fact that is relied on and causes financial injury
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Fraud
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an agreement that courts will enforce
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Contract
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person who communicates a serious, definite proposal
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Offeror
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persons to whom the offer is made
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Offerees
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proposal by an offeror to do something, provided the offeree does something in return
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Offer
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objective legal test used by jurors or judges (rather than a subjective test based on what offerors say they were thinking) to determine if the offer made indicated the offeror intended to contract
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Test of the reasonable person
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right to withdraw an offer before it is accepted, not effective until communicated to the offeree
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Revocation
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offeree's response to an offer which modifies it, when a party changes some of the terms of a contract, counteroffer counts as rejection of old contract
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Counteroffer
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separate contract arising when the offeree gives the offeror something of value in return for a promise to leave an offer open
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Option
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occurs in contracts when a party to whom an offer has been made agrees to the proposal
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Acceptance
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requires that the terms in the acceptance must exactly match the terms contained in the offer
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Mirror image rule
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offeree indicates acceptance by performing his/her obligations under the contract, offeror promises something in return for the offeree's performance and indicates that this performance is the way acceptance must be made
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Unilateral contracts
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offeree can accept offer by giving a promise to the offeror instead of performing the contracted-for act
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Bilateral contracts
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agreement to enter into a contract that is evidenced by words or conduct between the parties
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Genuine agreement
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contract in which the injured party can withdraw
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Voidable
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backing out of the transaction by asking for the return of what you gave and offering to give back what you received
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Rescission
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acting toward the contract as though one intends to be bound by it
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Ratification
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occurs when one party uses an improper threat or act to obtain an expression of agreement
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Duress
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occurs when one party to a contract is in a position of trust and wrongfully dominates the other party
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Undue influence
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occurs when one party holds an incorrect belief about the facts related to a contract
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Unilateral mistake
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both parties to a contract have an incorrect belief about an important fact
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Mutual mistake
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important facts that influence both parties' decisions about a contract
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Material facts
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party to a contract does not know that a statement he/she made is untrue
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Innocent misrepresentation
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party to a contract knows that a statement he/she made is untrue
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Fraudulent misrepresentation
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intentional misrepresentation of an existing, important fact
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Fraud
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transfer of ownership without receiving anything in return
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Gift
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person giving the gift
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Donor
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person receiving the gift
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Donee
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that which is given or received in a contract
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Consideration
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to not do something
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Forbearance/detriment
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a person promising an action or forbearance
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Promisor
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the person to whom the promise is being made
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Promisee
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there has been a change in a party's legal position as a result of the contract
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Legal value
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token amount identified in a written contract when parties either cannot or do not wish to state the amount precisely
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Nominal consideration
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agreement to purchase all of a particular producer's production
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Output contract
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seller agrees to supply all of the needs of a particular buyer
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Requirements contract
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a debt where the parties agree that the debt exists and on the amount of the debt
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Liquidated debt
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parties' agreement to change the obligation required by their original contract and the performance of the new obligation
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Accord and satisfaction
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party settles a claim at the time the tort occurs, and liability is unliquidated because the extent of damages is uncertain
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Release
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agreement by all creditors to accept something less than the total amount of their claims as full payment
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Composition of creditors
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promise is enforced even though no consideration is given for it
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Promissory estoppel
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state laws setting time limit for bringing a lawsuit
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Statute of limitations
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underlying contract to keep a contract open
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Option contract
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binding offer stating in writing how long it is to be held open
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Firm offer
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individual under the age of majority
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Minors
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ability to understand that a contact is being made and its general meaning
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Contractual capacity
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things needed to maintain life and lifestyle
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Necessaries
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things that are relative luxuries
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Non-necessaries
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both parties to a contract return the consideration
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Disaffirmance
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acting toward a contract as though one intends to be bound by it
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Ratification
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severing the child-parent relationship
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Emancipation
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minor part of one's life
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Minority
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age at which a person can be legally bound to contracts
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Age of majority
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mental impairment caused by voluntary use of alcohol, drugs, or inhalants
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Intoxication
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condition in which a party to a contract is unable to understand the consequences of the contractual act
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Mental incapacity
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range of acts an organization has authorized an employee to do
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Scope of authority
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activity involving an agreement with the following: payment to participate, chance to win based on luck rather than skill, and a prize for one or more winners
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Gambling
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bet on the uncertain outcome of an event
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Wager
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rate of interest at which lenders may not exceed by law
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Maximum rate of interest
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the illegal action or practice of lending money at unreasonably high rates of interest.
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Usury
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rate specified by statute when interest is called for but no percentage is stated in the contract
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Legal rate of interest
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higher interest rates that loan companies and pawnbrokers may change on loans up to $2,000
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Small loan rate of interest
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accepting something of value for a promise not to inform on or prosecute a suspected criminal
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Compounding a crime
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state requirement for people in certain occupations and businesses to pass exams and receive a license
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Competency license
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required license imposed by government on certain occupations for the sole purpose of raising money
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Revenue license
question
competitors agree to charge the same amount for a product or service
answer
Price fixing
question
competitors' agreement that one bidder will have the lowest bid for a particular job
answer
Bid rigging
question
manufacturer attempts to influence the retail price of its product
answer
Resale price maintenance
question
competitors' agreement to split market areas between themselves
answer
Allocation of markets
question
restoring or making good a loss; repayment of money illegally obtained
answer
Restitution
question
contracts where separate consideration is given for the illegal and legal parts
answer
Divisible
question
contract for which legal and illegal parts cannot be separated or broken out into separate items
answer
Indivisible
question
term or contract that is grossly unfair and oppressive under the UCC
answer
Unconscionable
question
element of unconscionability shown by how the contract is created
answer
Procedural unconscionability
question
element of unconscionability established by the terms of the agreement
answer
Substantive unconscionability
question
crime of lying under oath
answer
Perjury
question
law stating that certain agreements are not enforceable in court unless they are evidenced by a signed writing
answer
Statute of frauds
question
contracts required to be in writing to be enforceable in court
answer
Within the statute of frauds
question
contracts which are not governed by the statute of frauds, thus not required in writing
answer
Without the statute of frauds
question
contract that has been fully performed
answer
Executed contract
question
contract that has not yet been fully performed
answer
Executory contract
question
obligation that is enforced as if it were a contract in order to prevent unjust enrichment of one party
answer
Quasi-contract
question
promise to pay a debt or default of another
answer
Collateral promise
question
promise to pay another's debt that is not conditioned upon the other person's failure to pay
answer
Primary promise
question
exception to a statute of frauds provision making a third party liable for an oral promise to pay another's debt if the main purpose of the promise serves the promisor's own interest
answer
Main purpose rule
question
contract clause stating that both parties agree that the terms written in the contract constitute the entire and final agreement
answer
Integration clause
question
rule under which oral testimony cannot be used to contradict terms in a complete, final, written contract
answer
Parol evidence rule
question
spoken words inadmissible in court
answer
Parol statements/Parol evidence
question
method of contract interpretation focused on the main goals of the parties to the contract
answer
Parties' principal objective
question
contract in which the more powerful party dictates all the important terms
answer
Contracts of adhesion
question
something a party will receive under a contract
answer
Contractual rights
question
one who transfers contractual rights
answer
Assignor
question
party to whom a transfer of contractual rights is made
answer
Assignee
question
fulfillment of contractual promises as agreed
answer
Performance
question
legal obligations created by a contract
answer
Contractual duties
question
turning over to another party one's duties under a contract
answer
Delegation of duties
question
one who owes a duty under a contract
answer
Obligor
question
termination of contractual duties that ordinarily occurs when the parties perform as promised
answer
Discharge
question
failure to provide complete performance of contractual obligations
answer
Breach of contract
question
ending a contract for sale of goods because of breach, while retaining other remedies; also, any act that shows an intent to end the obligation of payment of commercial paper
answer
Cancellation
question
performance of all but a minor contractual duty
answer
Substantial performance
question
failure to perform a legal duty or failure to perform an agreement
answer
Defaults
question
notification, before the scheduled time of performance, of refusal to perform contractual terms as agreed
answer
Anticipatory breach
question
parties' replacement of their original contract with a new contract
answer
Substitution
question
agreement between the parties to a contract to change to obligation required
answer
Accord
question
performance of the new contractual obligation parties have agreed to substitute for their original obligation
answer
Satisfaction
question
contractual party's release of the other party from the duty of performance and the acceptance of a substitute party
answer
Novation
question
in contracts, material change in the terms of a contract made intentionally by one party without consent of the other
answer
Alteration
question
offer to perform an obligation
answer
Tender
question
currency or coins
answer
Legal tender
question
action or procedure followed to enforce a right or to compensate for an injury
answer
Remedy
question
deducting the cost of completing or fixing a minor breach from payment of the contract price to the breaching party
answer
Offset
question
restoring or making good a loss; repayment of money illegally obtained
answer
Restitution
question
amount of awarded to compensate for a plaintiff's loss
answer
Compensatory money damages
question
money awarded to a party for foreseeable injuries caused by the other party's breach
answer
Consequential money damages
question
damages agreed upon before a possible breach of contract
answer
Liquidated money damages
question
money a court requires a defendant to pay in order to punish and set an example of the defendant
answer
Punitive damages
question
token amount awarded when rights have been violated but there is no actual injury
answer
Nominal damages
question
court order for a defendant to do exactly what he or she promised to do in the contract
answer
Decree for specific performance
question
to act to minimize one's injury
answer
Mitigate damages
question
contractual party's intentional and explicit giving up of a contractual right
answer
Waiver
question
state laws setting time limit for bringing a lawsuit
answer
Statute of limitations
question
legal proceedings discharging debts and distributing assets
answer
Bankruptcy
question
contract in which ownership of goods transfers from the seller to a buyer for a price
answer
Sale
question
transaction in which transfer of ownership is to take place in the future
answer
Contract to sell
question
consideration for a contract to sell or sale of goods
answer
Price
question
exchange of goods for goods
answer
Barter
question
items of tangible, movable, personal property
answer
Goods
question
delivery of the agreed-upon price and the concurrent acceptance of it by the seller
answer
Payment
question
seller in sales of goods and contracts to sell
answer
Vendor
question
buyer in sales of goods and contracts to sell
answer
Vendee
question
receipt that serves as written evidence of the transfer of ownership of goods
answer
Bill of sale
question
term or contract under the UCC that is grossly unfair and oppressive
answer
Unconscionable
question
contract in which the more powerful party dictates all the important terms
answer
Contracts of adhesion
question
seller who deals regularly in a particular type of goods or who claims special knowledge in a certain type of sales transaction
answer
Merchant
question
seller who does not meet the definition of a merchant
answer
Casual sellers
question
innocent third party to a fraudulent transfer of goods who gives value to the goods and gains rights in them
answer
Good faith purchase
question
physically existing goods owned by the seller
answer
Existing goods
question
designated subject matter of a particular sales contract
answer
Identified goods
question
goods that are not both existing and identified
answer
Future goods
question
to place the goods at the buyer's disposal or to give notice to the buyer that delivery can be received
answer
Tender of delivery
question
free on board
answer
FOB
question
cost, insurance, freight price
answer
CIF
question
sale that, by agreement of the parties, calls for payment of the goods at a later date
answer
Credit sale
question
collect on delivery
answer
COD
question
completed sale in which the buyer has the option of returning the goods
answer
Sale or return
question
goods are delivered to the buyer in an "on trial" or "on satisfaction" basis
answer
Sale on approval
question
sale involving a person who sells a fractional interest in a single good or in a number of goods that are to remain together
answer
Sale of an undivided interest
question
public sale to the highest bidder
answer
Auction
question
transfer, generally by sale, of all or a major part of the goods of a business in one unit at one time
answer
Bulk transfer
question
individual who acquires goods primarily for personal, family, or household use
answer
Consumer
question
let the buyer beware
answer
Caveat emptor
question
court procedure allowing a party to bring suit on his or her behalf and for those similarly situated
answer
Class action
question
governmental order requiring that certain improper conduct be stopped
answer
Cease-and-desist order
question
voluntarily, court-enforced agreement between the government and an offender requiring the termination of an illegal or questionable practice
answer
Consent order
question
repayment of money illegally obtained
answer
Restitution
question
dishonest, fraudulent, or anticompetitive business method
answer
Unfair trade practice
question
advertising that improperly deceives or conceals material facts
answer
False or misleading advertising
question
game involving elements of prize, chance, and consideration
answer
Lottery
question
improper business practice involving luring buyers with an understocked, low-priced good only to sell them a more profitable one
answer
Bait and switch
question
let the seller beware
answer
Caveat venditor
question
relationship or connection between parties to a legally binding agreement
answer
Privity of contract
question
statement about the product's qualities or performance that the seller assures the buyer is true
answer
Warranty
question
assurance of quality or performance explicitly made by the seller
answer
Express warranty
question
express warranty that obligates the seller to repair or replace a defective product without cost to the buyer within a reasonable time
answer
Full warranty
question
warranty providing a level of protection less than a full warranty
answer
Limited warranty
question
greatly exaggerated sales talk
answer
Puffing
question
warranty obligation implicitly imposed by law on all sellers
answer
Implied warranty
question
claims of third parties against the goods
answer
Encumbrances
question
warranty requiring that the goods fit the ordinary purposes for which the goods are used
answer
Warranty of merchantability
question
notice of exclusion in a warranty
answer
Disclaimer
question
legal union of a man and woman as husband and wife
answer
Marriage
question
marital relationship legalized by the couple holding themselves out as husband and wife and sharing home and property for an extended period
answer
Common-law marriage
question
mutual duties of the wife and husband
answer
Marital consortium
question
the creating of a parent-child relationship
answer
Adoption
question
keeping a spouse from getting property rights
answer
Prenuptial agreement
question
court order that cancels a marriage because of a problem that existed from the beginning of the marriage
answer
Annulment
question
valid marriage that can be terminated by one or both parties due to improper grounds
answer
Voidable marriage
question
marriage considered invalid from the beginning
answer
Void marriage
question
a person who knowingly marries a second spouse while still married to the first, bigamy is a crime
answer
Bigamist
question
court action terminating a marriage
answer
Divorce
question
termination of marriage
answer
Dissolution
question
divorce proceeding in which the requesting spouse does not have to show cause
answer
No-fault divorce
question
stage in the divorce process where the spouses maintain their marital rights and obligations, but do not live together
answer
Separation
question
division of the physical and other care and control responsibilities for a child
answer
Child custody
question
monetary payment by a parent to provide a dependent child with appropriate economic maintenance
answer
Child support
question
support paid by the wage earner of the family to the other spouse
answer
Alimony
question
tangible and intangible things and their corresponding legal rights and interests
answer
Property
question
tangible, movable property and intangible property
answer
Personal property
question
items of tangible, movable, personal property
answer
Goods
question
purely intangible personal property that one cannot touch or move
answer
Intellectual property
question
protects the expression of a creative work, such as the work of an artist, author, or composer
answer
Copyright
question
unauthorized copying, sale, display, or performance of a copyrighted work
answer
Infringement
question
limited use of copyrighted works by critics, researchers, new reporter, and educators
answer
Fair use
question
some sort of mark that identifies a service as opposed to a product
answer
Servicemark
question
unique marking of some sort that identifies a product of a particular manufacturer or merchant
answer
Trademark
question
government grant of exclusive right to make, use, and sell a product or process that is novel, unobvious, and useful
answer
Patent
question
unpatented, valuable formula or process not known to others
answer
Trade secret
question
shift of physical possession of the property to the new owner
answer
Delivery
question
person receiving the gift
answer
Donee
question
person giving the gift
answer
Donor
question
right of an owner of property to an increase in that property
answer
Accession
question
property that is intentionally placed somewhere but then forgotten
answer
Mislaid property
question
property that the owner unknowingly leaves somewhere or accidentally drops
answer
Lost property
question
acquisition of title by taking possession of personal property that belongs to no one
answer
Occupancy
question
ownership of all property rights by oneself
answer
Ownership in severalty
question
ownership existing when two or more persons have the same ownership rights in the same property
answer
Co-ownership
question
attribute of co-ownership which means that no co-owner can exclude any other co-owner from physical portion of the property
answer
Equal rights of possession
question
attribute of co-ownership which allows any co-owner to require the division of the property among the co-owners
answer
Right of partition
question
co-ownership of property with equal interests and the right of survivorship
answer
Joint tenancy
question
right of one joint tenant to ownership of property when the other joint tenant dies
answer
Right of survivorship
question
form of co-ownership by which the partners hold partnership property
answer
Tenancy in common
question
property owned equally by spouses
answer
Community property
question
usual form of co-ownership between married, carrying equal interest and the right of survivorship
answer
Tenancy by the entireties
question
property owned by either spouse at the time of marriage or received as a gift or inheritance
answer
Separate property
question
transfer of possession of personal property without transfer of ownership
answer
Bailment
question
party who gives up possession of the property
answer
Bailor
question
person having temporary possession and control of another person's goods, holding them in trust for a specified purpose
answer
Bailee
question
bailee's receipt and acceptance of the goods themselves
answer
Actual bailments
question
care and present control of another's personal property under the owner's direction
answer
Custody
question
goods of an essentially identical nature
answer
Fungible
question
duty arising from an extraordinary bailment in which the bailee is liable for all damage, loss, or injury
answer
Extraordinary care
question
bailment that requires an unusually high standard of care
answer
Extraordinary bailment
question
arises when only one of the parties benefits from the bailment
answer
Gratuitous bailment
question
duty created by mutual-benefit bailment in which the bailee is liable only if negligent in some fashion
answer
Ordinary care
question
consideration is given and received by both bailor and bailee
answer
Mutual-benefit bailment
question
duty arising from an bailment in which the bailee must not ignore, waste, or destroy the property
answer
Minimal care
question
arises without consent of the bailee, raises issue of whether the goods are lost or misplaced
answer
Involuntary bailments
question
sign, label, or warning reducing a bailee's duty of care
answer
Disclaimer
question
right of a bailee to retain possession of the bailed property until payment is made
answer
Bailee's lien
question
one who agree, for a fee, to transport goods that are lawful and fit for shipment for anyone who applies
answer
Common carrier
question
fee for delay by party shipping goods in loading or by party receiving goods in unloading
answer
Demurrage
question
carrier's right to retain possession of the goods until the charges for transportation and incidental services are paid
answer
Carrier's lien
question
bailment in which ownership remains with the manufacturer or wholesaler until the goods are sold
answer
Consignment
question
goods are delivered to the buyer in an "on trial" or "on satisfaction" basis
answer
Sale on approval
question
land, things permanently attached to land, and certain rights to use the land of others
answer
Real property
question
basic physical element of realty
answer
Land
question
right to dig or mine the earth on realty
answer
Mineral right
question
control of water on surface or under the ground of realty
answer
Water right
question
when personal property is permanently attached to realty
answer
Fixture
question
items of personal property attached to realty by business tenants
answer
Trade fixtures
question
bundle of ownership rights in, and powers over, realty; also property of the deceased
answer
Estate
question
transaction when an estate is transferred from a grantor to a grantee by deed
answer
Conveyance
question
estate with all the ownership rights
answer
Fee simple absolute
question
make ownership conditional on some act or event
answer
Conditional estates
question
ownership only for the length of a life
answer
Life estate
question
the legal document used to transfer ownership of real property
answer
Deed
question
also known as tenancies, involve ownership for a limited period of time
answer
Nonfreehold estates
question
occurs when you adversely/harmfully and exclusively possess in an open and notorious way the land of another private person
answer
Adverse possession
question
involves giving real property to the government, for use as a park or roadway
answer
Dedication
question
power of the government to take private property for public use in exchange for the fair market price
answer
Eminent domain
question
irrevocable rights to some limited use of another's land
answer
Easements
question
promise usually made in writing by the buyer to the seller
answer
Restrictive covenants
question
law adopted by city or country to regulate the location of residential, business, and industrial districts
answer
Zoning ordinances
question
treatment of a single property in a manner inconsistent with the treatment of similar properties in the area
answer
Spot zoning
question
granted by a city or country to allow a landowner to make some use of his or her land that is inconsistent with the general zoning ordinance
answer
Variance
question
when a person is on the land without a right to be there
answer
Trespass
question
something that attracts children to trespass
answer
Attractive nuisance
question
legal right in another's property given as security for the performance of a financial obligation
answer
Lien
question
agreement in which one party receives temporary possession of another's real property
answer
Lease
question
consideration given in return for temporary possession
answer
Rent
question
person conveying possession of realty
answer
Landlord
question
person receiving possession of realty
answer
Tenant
question
ownership interest of the tenant
answer
Leasehold estate
question
when the leasehold is for a renewable period of time with rent due at stated intervals
answer
Periodic tenancy
question
when rent is paid by the month
answer
Tenancy from month to month
question
when a leasehold is for a definite period of time
answer
Tenancy for years
question
if a tenant remains in possession after a lease has expired
answer
Tenancy at sufferance
question
when a party possesses land with the owner's permission but without an agreement as to the term of the lease or the amount of the rent
answer
Tenancy at will
question
when a landlord blocks the tenant from possession of all the real property
answer
Eviction
question
when a landlord fails to perform certain duties as defined in the lease or imposed by statute and if the tenant abandons the premises because of such a breach
answer
Constructive eviction
question
when the tenant either leases all the property to a third person for a period of time that is less than that remaining on the lease of leases part of the property to a third person for part or all the term remaining
answer
Subletting
question
takes place when the tenant transfers his or her entire interest in the lease to a third person
answer
Assignment of a lease
question
implied warranty where a landlord is required to provide residential property in a condition fit for human living
answer
Warranty of habitability
question
contractual arrangement that protects against loss
answer
Insurance
question
when one party pays to compensate for harm
answer
Indemnify
question
the party who agrees to indemnify
answer
Insurer
question
party covered or protected
answer
Insured
question
recipient of the amount to be paid
answer
Beneficiary
question
written contract of insurance
answer
Policy
question
the stated maximum amount that could be paid if the harm a person is insured against occurs
answer
Face value
question
consideration for a contract of insurance
answer
Premium
question
possible loss arising from injury to to death of a person or from damage to property from a specified peril
answer
Risk
question
potential to sustain loss if the injured property is damaged or destroyed or if the insured person is injured or dies
answer
Insurable interest
question
type of insurance intended to indemnify for harm to the insured's personal or real property brought about by perils such as theft and windstorm
answer
Property insurance
question
type of insurance that indemnifies for losses resulting from accident, chance, or negligence
answer
Casualty insurance
question
exceptions that are expressly stated in the policy that relieve the insurance company from paying
answer
Exclusions
question
type of property insurance that covers the direct loss to property resulting from fire, lightning strike, or removal from premises endangered by fire
answer
Fire insurance
question
attached to the policy and forms to provide for special and individual needs
answer
Endorsements
question
clause in a fire insurance policy that requires the insured to maintain coverage equal to a certain percentage of the total current value of the insured property
answer
Coinsurance
question
insurance covering goods being transported on the high seas
answer
Inland marine insurance
question
casualty insurance that indemnifies against personal injury or property damage claims for which the insured is legally responsible
answer
Liability insurance
question
insurance providing liability and other coverages for the operation of a motor vehicle
answer
Automobile insurance
question
indemnifies against all damage to the insured's car except that caused by collision or upset
answer
Comprehensive insurance
question
requires that parties to an automobile accident be indemnified by their own insurance company regardless of who is at fault
answer
No-fault insurance
question
contractual arrangement under which an insurer promises to pay an agreed upon amount of money to a named party upon the death of a particular person
answer
Life insurance
question
indemnifies persons partially from the hard financial consequences of unemployment, disability, death, or forced retirement
answer
Social insurance
question
person who dies
answer
Decedent
question
those who die without a valid will
answer
Intestate
question
male personal representative to take charge of the intestate's property/female personal representative to take charge of the intestate's property
answer
Administrator/Administratrix
question
property of the deceased
answer
Estate
question
when the someone dies leaving a valid will
answer
Testate
question
legal expression usually in writing by which a person directs how their property is to be distributed after their death
answer
Will
question
maker of the will that is male/maker of the will that is female
answer
Testator/Testatrix
question
personal representative who is named by the maker of a will to carry out the directions in the will and is male/female
answer
Executor/Executrix
question
clear intention to make a will
answer
Testamentary intent
question
maker must know at least in a general way the kind and extent of the property involved, the persons who stand to benefit, and that he/she is making arrangements to dispose of his or her property after death
answer
Testamentary capacity
question
a formal, written, and witnessed amendment to a will
answer
Codicil
question
one that was entirely written by the decedent's own hand and signed by him/her
answer
Holographic will
question
oral will
answer
Nuncupative will
question
when the property reverts to the state
answer
Escheats
question
when the transferee of the property is a separate entity under law
answer
Trust
question
legal entity that has the title to the subject property
answer
Trustee
question
creator of a trust
answer
Settlor
question
party for whose benefit the trust is managed in accordance with the settlor's wishes
answer
Beneficiary
question
trust created during lifetime of settlor
answer
Inter vivos trust
question
trust created after the death of the settlor in accordance with directions in his/her will
answer
Testamentary trust
question
a trust created for the fulfillment of an altruistic purpose
answer
Charitable trust
question
a trust created for a private purpose
answer
Private trust
question
private trust that protects the beneficiary's interest in the subject property from the beneficiary's creditors
answer
Spendthrift trust
question
trusts that are usually created by a written or oral statement in which the terms are explicitly stated by the settlor
answer
Express trust
question
first implied trust where the entity intended to receive the benefit of an express trust cannot do so
answer
Resulting trust
question
implied trust that is created to require a person holding property to transfer it to another because retention of the property would be a wrongful and unjust enrichment of the holder
answer
Constructive trust
question
when one person is authorized to alter another's legal relationships
answer
Agency
question
the person who authorizes another to alter one of his or her legal relationships
answer
Principal
question
party authorized by the principal to act on his/her behalf
answer
Agent
question
customers
answer
Third party
question
range of acts authorized by the principal
answer
Scope of authority
question
require that the agent serve the best interests of the principal
answer
Fiduciary duties
question
assumption of the law that the agent promises the third party that the principal has capacity
answer
Warranty of the principal's capacity
question
when the agent receives no consideration and there is no contract
answer
Gratuitous agency
question
agency authority directly communicated by the principal to the agent
answer
Express authority
question
any writing that appoints someone as an agent
answer
Power of attorney
question
power to do anything that is reasonably necessary or customary to carry out the duties expressly authorized
answer
Implied authority
question
created when a principal leads the third party to reasonably believe that a particular person has agency authority
answer
Apparent authority
question
duties owed by agents to principals include loyalty, care and skill, confidentiality, and accounting
answer
Fiduciary duties
question
core duty that requires that agents place the interests of their principals above the interests of all others
answer
Duty of loyalty and obedience
question
duty that requires the agent to exercise the degree of care and skill that a reasonably prudent person would use in a similar situation
answer
Duty of reasonable care and skill
question
duty that requires the agent to treat information about the principal with great caution
answer
Duty of confidentiality
question
duty that requires an agent to account to the principal for all money and property of the principal that comes into the agent's possession
answer
Duty of accounting
question
mixing the fund or property of the principal and agent
answer
Commingling
question
separate accounts for the funds of principals
answer
Trust accounts
question
when the principal accepts the benefits of the unauthorized transaction with the third party
answer
Ratification
question
occurs when the agent is not allowed to disclose the principal's existence or identity
answer
Undisclosed principal
question
party who pays
answer
Employer
question
party who does the work
answer
Employee
question
when an employer contracts to pay an employee to do work under supervision and control
answer
Employment
question
an employee can be discharged at any time because there has been no agreement about the length of his/her employment, also the employee may quit without being liable for breach of contract at any time
answer
Employment at will
question
the employee has the duty to obey the reasonable orders and rules of the employer
answer
Duty of obedience
question
requires that those who accept work possess the skill, experience, or knowledge necessary to do it
answer
Duty of reasonable skill
question
the employee is obligated to look out for the best interests of the employer
answer
Duty of loyalty and honesty
question
an employer is justified in discharging an employee who fails to perform assigned duties at the prescribed time and in the prescribed manner
answer
Duty of reasonable performance
question
deductions of money from employee's payroll
answer
Payroll deductions
question
payment into an insurance fund that compensates employees for injuries on the job
answer
Worker's compensation
question
document obtained from the state allowing a person under 18 years old to work
answer
Work permit
question
firing an employee in retaliation for reporting violations of law by the company
answer
Wrongful discharge
question
workers who have been terminated despite having complied with all the terms of their employment contracts
answer
Discharged without cause
question
money paid by the government for a private insurance fund to workers who have lost their job through no fault of their own
answer
Unemployment compensation
question
if an employee has been discharged because of violating an employment obligation
answer
Discharged for a cause
question
employment contracts in which new employees promise not to join a union
answer
Yellow-dog contracts
question
injunction issued by a judge after hearing only one side of an argument
answer
Ex parte injunction
question
any group of employees whose employment contract is negotiated together
answer
Bargaining unit
question
signature on card indicates that a worker wants to be represented by a particular union
answer
Authorization card
question
conducted by a union if workers wish to be represented by a union but management will not voluntarily recognize it
answer
Representation election
question
selecting a bargaining representative by a majority secret vote of the workers in the bargaining unit, NLRB then recognizes that union as the exclusive negotiator for all employees in the bargaining unit
answer
Certification
question
process by which employees can reject union representation or select a different union
answer
Decertification election
question
establishment in which all workers must join the union within a stated period
answer
Union shop
question
establishment in which nonunion members are not required to join an union but must pay union dues
answer
Agency shop
question
establishment in which nonunion members are not required to join the union or pay union dues
answer
Open shop
question
state laws which ban the union shop, closed shop, and agency shop
answer
Right-to-work laws
question
process by which the union and employer negotiate a contract that binds both sides
answer
Collective bargaining
question
collective bargaining situation in which the union and the employer cannot decide on important issues
answer
Deadlocked
question
attempt by a neutral third party to achieve a compromise between the two parties in dispute
answer
Mediation
question
union or employer actions which violate the rights of employees with respect to union activity
answer
Unfair labor practices
question
walking with signs at employer's business to publicize dispute or influence opinion
answer
Picketing
question
work stoppage in which the dispute is over wages, hours, or conditions of employment
answer
Economic strike
question
work stoppage in which the dispute is over unfair labor practices
answer
Unfair labor practice strike
question
refusal to buy or use an employer's goods or services
answer
Boycott
question
stopping a labor dispute by federal court order for a period of 80 days when a national emergency strike is threatened
answer
Cooling-off period
question
work stoppage that involves national defense or major industries or that would imperil national health or safety
answer
National emergency strike
question
employees' refusal to buy their employer's products or services
answer
Primary boycott
question
striking employees try to encourage customers to stop buying products or services of a third party
answer
Secondary boycott
question
collectively stop working to force an employer to give in to union demands
answer
Strike
question
occurs when an employer temporarily closes down operations to induce the union to agree to the employer's position
answer
Lockout
question
treating individuals differently in the workplace on the basis of race, color, gender, national origin, or religion
answer
Employment discrimination
question
groups that employment law protects
answer
Protected classes
question
employer's actions were meant to advance the business rather than to create unjustified discrimination
answer
Business necessity
question
when an employer treats members of a protected class less favorably than other employees
answer
Unequal treatment/disparate treatment
question
a job requirement that compels discrimination against a protected class
answer
Bona fide occupational qualification
question
system that rewards employees for length of employment rather than merit
answer
Bona fide seniority system
question
label for a workplace policy that does not seem on the surface to discriminate against any protected class
answer
Neutral on its face
question
employer treats members of a protected class less favorably, has the effect of eliminating members of a protected class
answer
Disparate impact
question
people qualified for a particular job
answer
Applicant pool
question
persons actually in the workforce
answer
Workforce pool
question
linking of the challenged practice and the difference in percentages of protected class persons
answer
Causation
question
one thing exchanged for another; type of sexual harassment case in which a supervisor seeks sexual favors from a subordinate in exchange for continued employment or a favorable term or condition of employment
answer
Quid pro quo
question
interference with an employee's ability to work through unwelcome comments, gestures, or touching of a sexual nature
answer
Hostile environment
question
court-ordered plan to remedy past discrimination by bringing the percentages of minorities and women in the workforce up to their corresponding percentages in the pool of qualified applicants
answer
Affirmative action plan
question
physical or mental condition that substantially limits a major life activity
answer
Disability
question
suit brought by an employee against an employer that claims the employer's carelessness caused the employee's injury
answer
Negligence suit
question
defenses in a negligence suit that include the employee's contributory negligence, employee's assumption, and co-worker negligence
answer
Common-law defenses
question
person is aware of a danger on the job but agrees to do it anyways
answer
Assumption of risk
question
employee does something carelessly to contribute to her or his injury or death
answer
Contributory negligence
question
one worker causes the injury of another
answer
Co-worker negligence
question
laws that require most employers to buy insurance to pay benefits to injured employees
answer
Workers' compensation statutes
question
federal agency that administers the Occupational Safety and Health Act by enacting safety regulations and inspecting workplaces
answer
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
question
law enacted in 1970 that created the Occupational Safety and Health Administration
answer
Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)
question
retraining an injured worker for a different job
answer
Vocational rehabilitation
question
type of law OSHA enforces that requires employers to provide a work environment free from hazards likely to cause serious physical harm or death
answer
General duty clause
question
those who do not work regularly for one employer
answer
Casual workers
question
form of business owned by one person who has total unlimited liability
answer
Sole proprietorship
question
association of two or more persons, as co-owners, to carry on a business for profit
answer
Partnership
question
legal entity created by the authority of federal or state law
answer
Corporation
question
explicit statement, orally or in writing, of the terms and conditions agreed to by the partners for running the partnership
answer
Partnership agreement
question
partnership that buys and sells goods and services commercially
answer
Trading partnership
question
partnership that provides professional and noncommercial assistance or advice
answer
Non-trading partnership
question
partnership formed for a single transaction
answer
Special partnership
question
partnership formed by two or more persons or firms combining resources and skills for one complex project
answer
Joint venture
question
all partners assume full liability for debts of the firm
answer
General partnership
question
partnership form authorized by state statute requiring at least one general partner but allowing limited liability for the rest
answer
Limited partnership
question
partner with limited liability in a limited partnership
answer
Limited partner
question
partner known to the public but who takes no active managerial role
answer
Silent partner
question
partner not known to the public but active as a manager
answer
Secret partner
question
partner neither known to the public nor active in management
answer
Dormant partner
question
person who is not a partner but who is held out as such
answer
Nominal partner
question
change in partnership relationship due to a partner ceasing his association with its ongoing purpose
answer
Dissolution
question
period following dissolution in which the ongoing business of the partnership is concluded, its obligations are satisfied, and each partner's share is distributed
answer
Winding-up period
question
conclusion of the legal existence of the partnership
answer
Termination
question
partnership in which a partner may withdraw at any time without liability to other partners
answer
Partnership at will
question
form of co-ownership by which the partners hold partnership property
answer
Tenancy in partnership
question
those who sell a business idea and the corporate form for it
answer
Promoters
question
application to a state for a corporate charter
answer
Articles of incorporation
question
signers of the articles of incorporation
answer
Incorporators
question
also called stockholder, person owning share of stock in a corporation
answer
Shareholder
question
basic stock in a corporation conveying to its owner the right to vote and to receive dividends
answer
Common stock
question
distributions of corporate earnings
answer
Dividends
question
non-voting stock conveying the right to receive a stipulated dividend before any common shareholders receive their dividends
answer
Preferred stock
question
process by which a corporation's life is ended
answer
Liquidation
question
individuals elected by the shareholders to be responsible for the overall direction of a corporation
answer
Directors
question
rule that protects management and other parties involved in a corporation form being held personally liable for honest errors in judgment made in the course of business
answer
Business judgement rule
question
two or more corporations combine to form a new one
answer
Consolidation
question
combination of corporations in which one absorbs another
answer
Merger
question
rules and regulations for the internal management of corporate affairs
answer
Bylaws
question
long-term notes a corporation issues
answer
Bonds
question
unsecured bonds
answer
Debentures
question
power to vote shares for shareholders
answer
Proxy
question
enables shareholders to protect their proportionate voting power and interest in past and future profits
answer
Preemptive right
question
taxation of a corporation as an entity based on its earnings and then of the shareholders on corporate dividends
answer
Double taxation
question
form of business organization governed by subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code, under which earnings are treated the same as a gain or loss from a partnership and only taxed at the individual owner's level
answer
S corporation
question
form of business organization offering limited liability, taxation as a partnership, and few of the restriction for use encountered in the S corporation or limited partnership Articles of organization
answer
Limited liability corporation (LLC)
question
owners of an LLC
answer
Members
question
form of business organization easily converted to a partnership that avoids double taxation and affords partial limited liability protection
answer
Limited liability partnership (LLP)
question
trading and other commercial intercourse between or among the states
answer
Interstate commerce
question
commerce conducted wholly within one state
answer
Intrastate commerce
question
notification of parties of the charges and of the upcoming hearing/trial
answer
Due process
question
a governmental publication containing agency regulations and presidential proclamations and orders
answer
Federal Register
question
unconditional written orders or promises to pay money collectively defined
answer
Commercial paper
question
an unconditional written order by one person that directs another person to pay money to a third
answer
Draft/bill of exchange
question
person who executes or draws the draft and order payment to be made
answer
Drawer
question
party ordered to pay the draft
answer
Drawee
question
party to whom commercial paper is made payable
answer
Payee
question
draft on which payment is due immediately when presented to the drawee
answer
Sight draft
question
if a draft is payable on a set date, at the end of a specified period after sight, or at the end of a specified period after the date of the draft
answer
Time draft
question
drawee's promise to pay the draft when due
answer
Acceptance
question
type of draft by which a bank depositor orders the bank to pay money, usually to a third party
answer
Check
question
bank agrees to pay a check when due
answer
Honor
question
bank's refusal to pay a check when due
answer
Dishonor
question
when the drawer directs the bank to not pay a check when the check has been lost or stolen
answer
Stop-payment order
question
unconditional written promise by a person or persons to pay money according to the payee's order or to pay money to the bearer of the instrument
answer
Promissory note
question
person who executes a promissory note
answer
Maker
question
paper when personal property is offered as security and so indicated on the face of the note
answer
Collateral note
question
instrument bearing a bank's written acknowledgement of the receipt of money, together with an unconditional promise to repay it at a definite time in the future
answer
Certificate of deposit
question
personal check that has been accepted by a bank before payment
answer
Certified check
question
a check that a bank draws on itself
answer
Cashier's check
question
a draft drawn by a bank on funds that it has on deposit at another bank
answer
Teller's check
question
a draft issued by a post office, bank, express company, or telegraph company for use in purchasing or transferring funds for the purchaser
answer
Money order
question
a draft drawn by a well- known financial institution on itself or its agent
answer
Traveler's check
question
written unconditional promise or order for a sum certain payable on demand or at a definite time
answer
Negotiable
question
another term for commercial paper
answer
Negotiable instruments
question
proper transfer of a negotiable instrument so that the person receiving the instrument has the power to collect on it by overcoming defenses of the person who must pay it off
answer
Negotiation
question
dated earlier than the date of issuance
answer
Antedated
question
dated later than the date of issuance
answer
Postdated
question
any official currency or coin acceptable as a medium of exchange in nation at the time the commercial paper is written
answer
Money
question
clause making the entire balance of a debt due and payable upon a certain event
answer
Acceleration clause
question
commercial paper payable on sight or when presented
answer
Payable on demand
question
commercial paper legally collectible by the party in possession
answer
Bearer paper
question
commercial paper made payable to the order of a specified payee
answer
Order paper
question
signature on the reverse side of commercial paper
answer
Indorsement
question
owner of commercial paper who signs it on the reversed side
answer
Indorser
question
party to whom commercial paper is indorsed
answer
Indorsee
question
party in possession of commercial paper payable to his or her order or to bearer
answer
Holder
question
indorsement making the paper payable to the order of the designated party
answer
Special indorsement
question
indorsement limiting or eliminating signature-based liability for the indorser
answer
Qualified indorsement
question
indorsement without wording limiting or eliminating liability for the indorser
answer
Unqualified indorsement
question
places a limitation on the use of a check or other negotiable financial instrument
answer
Restrictive indorsement
question
party lending his or her credit standing to insure the payment of an instrument
answer
Accommodation party
question
party that takes commercial paper in good faith without knowledge of any defect or overdue status and gives value for it
answer
Holder in due course (HDC)
question
party that takes commercial paper after an HDC and thereby acquires the same rights in them
answer
Holder through a holder in due course (HHDC)
question
defenses good against all obligees except HDCs and HHDCs
answer
Limited defenses
question
defenses good against all obligees
answer
Universal defenses
question
any act that shows an intent to end the obligation of payment of commercial paper
answer
Cancellation
question
party's unauthorized change to or completion of a negotiable instrument intended to change the obligation of a party
answer
Alteration
question
transaction in which a party buys goods or services for personal or household use
answer
Consumer transaction
question
debit or credit to an account initiated by the use of a terminal, computer, telephone, or magnetic tape
answer
Electronic fund transfer (EFT)
question
person or business that owes money, goods, or services to another
answer
Debtor
question
that which is owed to a debtor
answer
Debt
question
party to whom a debt is owed
answer
Creditor
question
legal method or device creating a security interest in personal property or fixtures in order to protect creditors
answer
Secured transaction
question
interest in or claim against specified property of the debtor created for the purpose of assuring payment of the debt
answer
Security interest
question
property subject to the security interest of the creditor
answer
Collateral
question
right of a secured party to take back collateral to use in satisfaction of the debt
answer
Right of repossession
question
person who has a security interest in collateral owned by the debtor-buyer
answer
Secured party
question
secured transaction in which the creditor has possession of the collateral
answer
Pledge
question
contract that creates or provides for a security interest
answer
Security agreement
question
exists when the security interest is superior to all other claims in the collateral
answer
Perfected security interest
question
brief, written notice of the existence of a security interest in the identified property
answer
Financing statement
question
legal presumption that everyone has knowledge of facts on public file
answer
Constructive notice
question
filing by a creditor releasing a security interest in collateral
answer
Termination statement
question
to pay the balance due and the expenses of the creditor in exchange for receiving the collateral
answer
Redeem
question
debtor in a pledge who voluntarily gives up possession of the property
answer
Pledgor
question
creditor in a pledge who takes possession of property given up by pledgor
answer
Pledgee
question
legal right in another's property as security for the performance of an obligation such as the repayment of a loan
answer
Lien
question
pledge of tangible personal property
answer
Pawn
question
lien against realty available to one who has supplied labor or material to improve it
answer
Mechanic's lien
question
being primarily liable for a debt created in favor of the principal debtor
answer
Suretyship
question
person who owes the debt or obligation
answer
Principal debtor
question
third party agreeing to being primarily liable for debt in case of default by the principal debtor
answer
Surety
question
cosurety who pays the full debt is entitled to judgment against the other cosureties for their proportionate share of the debt
answer
Right of contribution
question
party agreeing to be secondarily liable in case of default by the principal debtor
answer
Guarantor
question
debt in which the creditor lacks a secured interest in collateral
answer
Unsecured debt
question
court-ordered procedure by which a portion of a delinquent debtor's wages are paid to satisfy the debt
answer
Garnishment
question
total added cost when one pays in installments for goods or services
answer
Finance charge
question
evaluation of a party's ability to pay debts
answer
Credit rating
question
commercial paper payable on or before an identified calendar date
answer
Payable at a definite time
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