question

Disease

answer

Causitive agent, transmission, most important signs/symptoms, treatment, prevention.

question

Entamoeba histolica (Protozoa)

answer

Amoebic dysentery - can die from diarrhea

question

Naegleria fowleri

answer

Ordinarily inhabit standing water, comes in through the nasal passages through the sinuses and into the brain causing meningioencephalitis

question

Acanthamoeba

answer

Through the water, but mostly in contact lens wearers, causes primary acute meningioencephalitis and blindness

question

Balantidium coli

answer

Only ciliated protozoa that can cause infection, humans ingest cycts through food or water assocated with cattle. Causes diarrhea withouth intestinal damage
*Treatment: Antiprotozoan, clean water, and thoroughly cooked food

question

Trichomonas vaginalis

answer

Causes STD called trichomoniasis, or contractable through natural water source. Gas producer/skin irritation
-Female Symptoms: Green discharge
-Male Symptoms: Urethritis
*Treatment is antiprotozoan, sexual prevention, and use of clean water

question

Giardia lamblia

answer

Associated with animals including coyotes, beavers, cattle, cats and humans.
Organism is shed in feces. Causes giardiasis and sulfur belching*
*Treatment is boiling, ozone, and iodine.

question

Hemoflagellates (4 Kinds)

answer

Amastigote
Promastigote
Epimastigote
Trypomastigote

question

Amastigote (Hemoflagellates)

answer

The form lacking a free flagellum

question

Promastigote (Hemoflagellates)

answer

The stage bearing a single, anterior flagellum

question

Epimastigote (Hemoflagellates)

answer

The flagellate stage (curved, interior flagella)

question

Trypomastigote (Hemoflagellates)

answer

Large, fully formed stage (with fins and curve/flagella)

question

Trypanosoma brucei (African Sleeping Sickness)

answer

Spread by tsetse flies, enter bloodstream and outnumber RBCs, causing person to go into a coma and die due to lack of O2

question

Trypanosoma cruzi (Chagas' disease)

answer

Reduviid bug (kissing bug) bites near mouth and poops in wound, trypanisomes enter the blood. Similar to brucei, no sleeping. Extreme organ dammage. Prevalent in road kill animals.
Heart muscles and large intestine harbor masses of amastigotes, chronic inflammation occurs in organs.

question

Leishmania Species

answer

Leishmaniasis caused by sand flu
-Cutaneous: Baghdad boil, localized ulcerated sore
-Espundia: Skin and mucous membrane infection of the head; chronic infection
-Systemic: High intermittent fever, weight loss **Kala alazar

question

Plasmodium (Apicomplexa)
P. malariae, P. vivax, *P. falciparum, P. ovale

answer

Malaria, dominant rotozoan disease, obligate intracellular sporozoan. Spread by female Anopheles mosquito, blood transfusions, and mother to fetus

question

Life cycle of Plasmodium

answer

2 life cycles Sporozoit -> shizogony -> merozoit
-Asexual (human host infected by female mosquito by sporozoit which localizes in liver, then undergoes schizogony generating multiple merozoits which enter circulation in 5-16 days)

question

Toxoplasma gondii

answer

In cat poop, lives naturally in cats that harbor oocysts in the GI tract (ingesting raw meats or substances contaminated by cat feces)
*Treatment is antiprotozoans

question

Sarcocystis (Sarcocystosis)

answer

Parasites of cattle, swine, and sheep (picked up infected cysts while grazing on grass contaminated with human feces.

question

Cryptosporidium

answer

Contaminated water, abdominal pain, chronic diarrhea.
*Treatment is antiprotozoans, immuno-compromised might not recover.

question

Cyclospora cayetanensis

answer

Associated with produce that haven't been washed (oral-fecal transmission). Watery diarrhea, cramps, bloating, fever etc.
*Treatment is antiprotozoans if caught.

question

Babesia

answer

Readwater fever of cattle (first tick-bourne vector), cyclic fever in humans (hot, sweat, cold, repeat)

question

Ascaris lumbricoides

answer

Large, intestinal roundworm indigenous to humans spread by infected feces.

question

Trichuris trichuria (Whipworm Infection)

answer

Causes rectal prolapse in humans and dysentery (fatal)

question

Enterobius vermicularis (Pinworm Infection)

answer

Fecal-oral contamination. Enterobiasis
*treated by antihelminthic

question

Hookworms

answer

May cause pneumonia, nausea, vomiting, cramps, and bloody diarrhea (blood loss is significant - anemia)

question

Strongyloides stercorlis (Threadworm)

answer

Penetrates the skin, inflammation of the lungs, eosinophilia, bloody diarrhea, liver enlargement, bowel obstruction, and malabsportion

question

Trichinella spiralis

answer

Acquired from eating undercooked pork or bear meat (No cure after larvae have encysted)

question

Wucherereia bancrofti (Elephantiasis)

answer

Tropical infection spread by mostuqitos, vectors deposit larvae which move into the closed lympatic system and develop into adults. Chronic infection causes blockage of lympatic circulation and elephantiasis. Massive swelling of the extremities.

question

Onchocerca volvulus (River Blindness)

answer

Transmitted by biting black flies, larvae develop into adults in subcutaneous tissues and adult females migrate via the blood into the eyes, provoking inflammatory rxns.

question

Loa loa (African Eye Worm)

answer

Spread by bite of small flies, can be pulled out from a small hole in the conjunctiva.

question

Schistosomes (Trematodes)

answer

Intestines or bladder, adult flukes live in humans who release eggs into water; early larva (miracidium) develops in fresh water snail into the 2nd larva (cercaria) - this larva penetrates human skin and causes organ enlargement

question

Liver Flukes
-Clonorchis
-Fasciola hepatica

answer

Clonorchis is associated between mammals and snails and fish; humans are infected by eating inadequately cooked fish containing cercariae (crawl into bile duct, mature, and shed eggs into fecces; snails are infected)
-Fasciola hepatica: cycles between herbivores (raw aquatic plants) fluke lodges in liver

question

Paragonimus werstermani (Lung Fluke)

answer

Cycles between carniverous animals, snails, and crustaceans; humans are infected by eating undercooked crustaceans; intestinal worms migrate to lungs.

question

Taenia saginata (Beef Tapeworm)

answer

Scolex, humans are difinitive host, from undercooked beef (i.e. carpaccio)

question

Taenia solium (Pork Tapeworm)

answer

Infects humans through ingesting cysts or eggs, which can go up into the brain causing seizures, psychiatric disturbances.

question

Flow Chart to Infection

answer

1. Contact (attachment)
2. Colonization
3. Invasion (microbes go through defense system or enter sterile tissue systems)
4. Infection (multiplication w.i tissue)

question

Transient Flora

answer

Microbes that occupy the body for short periods (eg. vaginal/menstrual)

question

Resident Flora

answer

Microbes that have become established, e.g. skin, upper respiratory, GI (NOT STOMACH), urethra, ear canal, eye, mouth
gas producers in L.I.
Maintenance: Probiotics, antibiotics, dietary changes, and diseases may alter.

question

Figure 13.7 pg 395** Factors in developing an infection

answer

Old age, youth, genetic disorders, surgery, transplants, organic disease i.e. cancer, liver malfunction, diabetes, chemo therapy, stress, location etc.

question

True Pathogens (Define)

answer

Causes disease in a healthy person

question

Opportunistic Pathogen (Define)

answer

Causes disease in a weaker person (e.g. Candida albicans, Pseudomans species)

question

Virulence (Define)

answer

Strength of a patogen, characteristics or structure that contributes to disease and helps them avoid the host

question

Portals of Entry
-Skin

answer

By physical break (worms and arthopods, vector based)

question

Portals of Entry
-Mucous Membrane

answer

Eyes nose, mouth (GI), vagina, anus, urinary, respiratory

question

Portals of Entry
-Other

answer

Transplacental, breastmilk

question

STORCH (Baby Test)

answer

Syphilis, Toxoplasmosis, Other (Hep. B, HIV, chlamydia), Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, Herpes

question

Attachment (Define)

answer

Gaining a stable foothold at the portal of entry

question

Ways of Attachment (Adhesion)

answer

Fimbrae, Glycocalyx, Cilia, Suckers/Hooks, Barbs, Viral Spikes

question

Surviving Host Defenses
Staphylococcus/Streptococcus

answer

Produce leukocidins, toxic to white blood cells

question

Exoenzymes (Define)

answer

Dissolve extracellular barriers

question

Toxigenicity (Define)

answer

Capacity to produce toxins

question

Stages of Disease

answer

Incubation, Prodromal, Invasion, (Convalescence)

question

Localized Infection (Define)

answer

Microbes enter the body and remain confined to a specific tissue

question

Systemic Infection (Define)

answer

Throughout the body

question

Focal Infection (Define)

answer

Started locally and spread throughout (e.g. Lyme disease)

question

Mixed Infection (Define)

answer

Different microbes growing simultaneously (polymicrobial)

question

Primary Infection (Define)

answer

Initial infection (first)

question

Secondary (Opportunistic) Infection (Define)

answer

Another infection by a different microbe (may take advantage of a weakened host)

question

Acute Infection (Define)

answer

Comes on Rapidly, with severe but short-lived effects

question

Chronic Infection (Define)

answer

Progresses and persists over a long period of time

question

Signs (Define)

answer

Something you can physically look for
-E.g. Blood pressure, rash, fever

question

Symptoms (Define)

answer

Something the patient is feeling
E.g. chills, pain, nausea, headache, weakness, cramps (prodromal phase of infection)

question

Edema (Define)

answer

Accumulation of fluids

question

Granulomas and Abcesses (Define)

answer

Walled off collections of inflammatory cells and microbes

question

Lymphadensis (Define)

answer

Swelling of the lymph vessels

question

Leukocytosis (Define)

answer

Increase in WBC

question

Leukopenia (Define)

answer

Decrease in WBC

question

Septicemia (Define) 3 Types

answer

Microbes multiplying in the blood

question

Septicemia - Bactermia (Define)

answer

Bacteria multiplying in the blood

question

Septicemia - Viremia (Define)

answer

Viruses multiplying in the blood

question

Septicemia - Toxemia (Define)

answer

Toxins multiplying in the blood

question

Asymptomatic (Define)

answer

No outward signs of disease, or an inapparent infection so the person does not seek medical attention (e.g. HIV, Herpes)

question

Portals of Exit (Respiratory)

answer

Mucus, sputum, nasal drainage, saliva

question

Portals of Exit (Other)

answer

Skin, fecal, urogenital, removal of blood by would or sample

question

Persistence - Latency (Define)

answer

Will not go into convalescence over time

question

Persistence - Chronic Carrier (Define)

answer

Will not go into convalescence ever

question

Persistence - Sequele (Define)

answer

Long term permanent damage to tissues or organs

question

Reservoir (Define)

answer

Primary habitat of the pathogen (e.g. soil, food source, water, human, animal)

question

Source (Define)

answer

Index case - originator of the infection

question

Carrier (Define)

answer

An individual who inconspicuously shelters a pathogen and spreads it to others; may or may not have experienced disease due to microbe

question

Asymptomatic Carrier (Define)

answer

Shows no symptoms

question

Incubation Carrier (Define)

answer

Spread infectious agent during the incubation period

question

Convalescent Carrier (Define)

answer

Recuperating without symptoms

question

Chronic Carrier (Define)

answer

Individual who shelters the infectious agent for a long period of time

question

Passive Carrier (Define)

answer

E.g. Contaminated health care provider, doesn't actually get the infections agent. *fomites

question

Fomites (Define)

answer

Inanimate objects that can transmit infection, like health care equipment.

question

Zoonosis (Define)

answer

An infection indigenous to animals but naturally transmissible to humans (including insects)

question

Communicable Diseases (Define)

answer

Transmits from one person to the next

question

Contagious (Define)

answer

Very easily transmitted (highly communicable)

question

Non-communicable (Define)

answer

Does not arise through transmission from host to host

question

Patterns of Transmission - Direct Contact (Define)

answer

Physical contact or by fine aerosol droplets (E.g. wound, skin, sex, kissing, etc.)

question

Patterns of Transmission - Indirect Contact (Define)

answer

Inanimate materials (fomites), food, water, biological products pass from infected host to intermediate conveyor and then to another host.

question

Nosocomial Infections (Define)

answer

Diseases that are acquired or developed during a hospital stay

question

Universal Precautions (Define)

answer

PPE (Personal Protective Equipment), gloves, masks, gowns, etc.

question

Epidemiology (Define)

answer

The study of the frequency and distribution of disease and health-related factors in human populations.

question

Surveillance (Define)

answer

Collecting, analyzing, and reporting data on rates of occurrence, mortality, morbidity, and transmission of infection.

question

Prevalence (Define)

answer

Number of Existing Cases

question

Incidence (Define)

answer

Number of NEW Cases

question

Mortality (Define)

answer

Death Rate

question

Morbidity (Define)

answer

Affected Rates

question

Endemic (Define)

answer

Always present in the population (e.g. Tick-bourn illnesses, STIs)

question

Sporadic (Define)

answer

A high number of cases in irregular intervals

question

Epidemic (Define)

answer

A high prevalence and incidence of cases beyond expectation

question

Pandemic (Define)

answer

Worldwide (continental) involvement (at least 2 continents)

question

Koch's Postulates of Determining Causitive Agents

answer

1. All cases must have the same signs and symptoms of a particular microbe.
2. Isolate (grow out in a pure culture) the microbe from the infected subject.
3. Inoculate a susceptible host within the range and observe resultant disease.
4. Re-isolate the agent from this subject.

question

*Relative Resistance*

answer

Prion
Endospore (Sterilize)
Acid Fast Bacteria (Disinfect)
Protozoan Cysts
Gram -
Fungal
Viruses, enveloped
Protozoan trophozoit
Viruses, naked
Gram +

question

Sterilization (Define)

answer

Destroy everything, including endospores. A process that will destroy all viable microbes, including viruses.

question

Disinfection (Define)

answer

Remove most of the pathogens from inanimate objects (fomites) excluding endospores.

question

Antiseptic (Define)

answer

Disinfectants applied directly to exposed body tissues

question

Sanitation (Define)

answer

Any cleansing technique that mechanically removes microbes to a level that is considered safe.

question

Degermation (Define)

answer

Reduces the number of microbes through mechanical means (e.g. hand washing)

question

Microbial Death (Define)

answer

Goal is a permanent loss of microbes, no binary fission (ineffective).

question

Factors Affecting Death Rate

answer

# of microbes, nature of microbes (G+vsE), Temp, pH, [ ], Mode of action, presence of solvents, organic matter (blood, tissues, etc.) or inhibitors.

question

Modes of Action (Targets)

answer

The Cell Wall (In All Pro/Eukaryotes)
The Cell Membrane (")
Proteins ("+Antiviral)
Nucleic Acids ("+Antiviral)

question

Physical Control (in Microbial Death)

answer

Heat (moist/dry), cold, desiccation, radiation, filtration

question

Moist Heat - Autoclaving Technique

answer

Steam under pressure 15 psi/121 degC/15 mins, steam must reach surface of item being sterilized.

question

Moist Heat - Boiling Water

answer

Boil at 100 DegC for 30 mins to destroy non-spore forming pathogens (Disinfection, would need pressure for sterilization)

question

Moist Heat - Tyndallization

answer

Intermittent sterilization for substances that cannot withstand autoclaving. Used for some canned foods and laboratory media - Disinfection procedure.

question

Moist Heat - Pasteurization (batch and flash)

answer

Heat is applied to kill potential agents of infection and spoilage without destroying the food flavor or value
Batch: 66 degC for 30 minutes
Flash (Ultra): 71.6 degC for 15 seconds
*Not sterilization: Kills non-spore forming pathogens and lowers overall microbe count; does not kill endospores or many non-pathogenic microbes.

question

Dry Heat - Air and Incineration

answer

Using higher temeratures than moist heat, flame or electric heating coil, ignites and reduces microbes and other substances. 140-180 degC coagulates proteins x 2 hrs.

question

Cold - Microbiostatic

answer

Slowing the growth of microbes by refrigeration 0-15 degC and freezing <0 degC. Used to preserve food, media, and cultures

question

Cold - Desiccation

answer

Remove water from cells, leads to metabolic inhibition. Not effective microbial control. Many cells retail the ability to grow when water is reintroduce (e.g. Beef Jerky)

question

Cold - Lyphilization

answer

Freeze drying; perservation

question

Radiation - Ionizing Radiation

answer

Deep penetrating power that has sufficient energy to cause electrons to leave their orbit; breaks down the DNA. Used to sterilize medical supplies, food products (e.g. Gamma Rays, X-Rays, Cathode Rays)

question

Radiation - Non-ionizing Radiation

answer

Little penetration power so it must be directly exposed. (e.g. UV radiation creates pyrimidine dimers, which interfere with replication)

question

Filtration (Define)

answer

Physical removal of microbes by passing a gas or liquid through filter. Used to sterilize heat sensitive liquids and in hospital isolation units and industrial clean rooms (charcoal based filters only bind with chemicals).

question

Levels of Chemical Decontamination - High Level Germicides

answer

Kill Endospores

question

Levels of Chemical Decontamination - Intermediate Level Germicides

answer

Kill fungal spores, viruses, and most bacteria

question

Levels of Chemical Decontamination - Low Level Germicides

answer

Most vegetative bacteria, some fungal cells, some viruses. Clean surfaces that touch skin but not mucous membranes.

question

Chemical Agents of Healthcare
*Halogens

answer

Chlorine (bleach), iodine

question

Chemical Agents of Healthcare
*Phenolics

answer

Lysol, triclosan

question

Chemical Agents of Healthcare
*Clorhexadine

answer

Hibiclens

question

Chemical Agents of Healthcare
*Alcohol

answer

Ethyl Alcohol (50-90%), Isopropyl Alcohol (desiccator and denature)

question

Chemical Agents of Healthcare
*Hydrogen Peroxide

answer

Gas and liquid, do not put on straight surgical incisions (causes scarring)

question

Chemical Agents of Healthcare
*Aldehyde Sterilants and Disinfectants

answer

Glutaraldehyde, formaldehyde (formalin 37% aq. sol'n), bad b/c kill by akylating protein and DNA

question

Chemical Agents of Healthcare
*Gasses and Aerosols

answer

Ethylene Oxide, Propylene Oxide - Strong alkylating agent, high level sterilize and disinfect plastics and prepackaged devices, foods

question

Chemical Agents of Healthcare
*Detergents and Soaps

answer

QUATS (quaternary ammonia compunds) act as surfactants that may alter membrane permeability in some bacteria and fungi, soaps acts as emulsifiers that mechanically remove soil and grease containing microbes.

question

Chemical Agents of Healthcare
*Heavy Metals

answer

Oligodynamic action, sol'ns containing Ag and Hg kill vegetative cells in low concentrations by inavtivating proteins. (eg. Silver nitrate and merthiolate)

question

Chemical Agents of Healthcare
*Dyes

answer

Analine dyes are very active against gram positive species of bacteria and some fungi, sometimes used in antisepsis and wound treatment

question

Chemical Agents of Healthcare
*Acids and Alkalis

answer

Acids are naturally added into foods etc, but not many bases. They are more in cleaners.

question

Semi-synthetic Drugs

answer

Starts naturally, but then modified in lab

question

Table 12.1 Concepts of Antimicrobial Drugs

answer

-Selectively toxic to microbe, but nontoxic to host cell.
-Microbicidal rather than microbistatic
-Relatively soluble; functions even when highly diluted in body fluids
-Remains potent long enough to act and is not broken down or excreted prematurely
-Doesn't lead to devel. of antimicrobial resistance
-Complements or assists the activities of host's body defenses.
-Remains active in tissues and body fluids.
-Readily delivered to site of infection
-Reasonably priced
-Does not disrupt the host's health by causing allergies or predisposing the host to other infections.

question

Selective Toxicity (Define)

answer

Toxic to the microbe but not the host

question

Table 12.2 Terminology of Chemotherapy
*Chemotherapeutic Drug

answer

Any Chemical used in the treatment, relief, or prophylaxis of a disease.

question

Table 12.2 Terminology of Chemotherapy
*Prophylaxis

answer

(Ahead of time, to avoid infection) The use of a drug to prevent potential for infection of a person at risk.

question

Table 12.2 Terminology of Chemotherapy
*Antimicrobial chemotherapy

answer

The use of chemotherapeutic drugs to control infection (made in a lab)

question

Table 12.2 Terminology of Chemotherapy
*Antimicrobials

answer

All inclusive term for any antimicrobial drug (chemotherapeutic), regardless of it's origin.

question

Table 12.2 Terminology of Chemotherapy
*Antibiotics

answer

Naturally made by a fungus or bacteria
-Bacteria: Streptomyces and Bacillus
-Fungus/Molds: Penicillium and Chephalosporium

question

Table 12.2 Terminology of Chemotherapy
*Semisynthetic drugs

answer

Antimicrobial compounds synthesized in the laboratory after being isolated from natural sources

question

Table 12.2 Terminology of Chemotherapy
*Synthetic drugs

answer

Antimicrobial compounds synthesized in the laboratory through chemical reaction

question

Table 12.2 Terminology of Chemotherapy
*Narrow spectrum (limited)

answer

Antimicrobials effective against a limited array of microbial types; for example, a drug effective mainly on gram positive bacteria.

question

Table 12.2 Terminology of Chemotherapy
*Broad spectrum (extended)

answer

Antimicrobials effective against a wide variety of micribial types; for example, a drug effective against both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.

question

Table 12.3 Selected Microbial Sources of Antibiotics
-Bacteria

answer

Micromonospora, Bacillus sp., Chromobacterium, Streptomyces sp. (filamentous)

question

Table 12.3 Selected Microbial Sources of Antibiotics
-Mold

answer

Penicillium sp. and Cephalosporium

question

Mechanism of Drug Action
*Cell Wall Inhibitors (Target?)

answer

Target Peptidoglycans

question

Mechanism of Drug Action
*Cell Membrane (Target?)

answer

Target Cell membrane permeability

question

Mechanism of Drug Action
*DNA/RNA (Target?)

answer

Target replication and transcription (copies of DNA and mRNA)

question

Mechanism of Drug Action
*Protein Synthesis (Target?)

answer

Targets and inhibits action of ribosomes, blocks initiation of proteins by targeting TRANSLATION in ribosomes.

question

Mechanism of Drug Action
*Metabolic Pathway (Targets?)

answer

Linear Target (interrupts linear steps of metabolism) or cyclic target (potentially target cycle or more of the product coming off (e.g. Kreb's cycle, target would be ATP)

question

Cell Wall Antimicrobial Agents

answer

Penicillin and cephalosorins produced by fungus, block synthesis of peptidoglycans

question

Cell Membrane Antimicrobial Agents

answer

Polymyxins (e.g. Neosporin) interact with phospholipids and cause leaking, particularly in Gram - bacteria

question

Nucleic Acid Antimicrobial Agents

answer

Quinolones target replication and transcription

question

Protein Synthesis Antimicrobial Agents

answer

Tetracyclines block attachment of tRNA on the A acceptor site and stop further synthesis (problems for developing fetus and developing adult teeth)

question

Metabolic Pathway Antimicrobial Agents

answer

Sulfonamides and trimethoprim (Sulfa and Bactrim) work by competitive inhibition (drug comepets with normal substrae for enzymes active site/lock and key) or the synergistic Effect, the effects of a combination of antibiotics are greater than the effects of the individual antibiotics.

question

Penicillianse-resistant (Define)

answer

Certain microbes have an enzyme that allows a microbe to be resistant to the Penicillin Tree

question

Newly Developed Classes of Antimicrobials
-Fosfomycin trimethamine

answer

Combining two different drug classes to inhibit cell wall synthesis

question

Newly Developed Classes of Antimicrobials
-Synercid

answer

Effective against Staphylococcus and Enterococcus that cuase endocarditis and surgical infection (used on drug resistant Staph and Entero)

question

Newly Developed Classes of Antimicrobials
-Daptomycin

answer

Directed mainly against G+, disrupts membrane function/permeability

question

Newly Developed Classes of Antimicrobials
-Ketolides

answer

Ketek, new drug with different ring stucture from Erythromycin; for resistant infections

question

Newly Developed Classes of Antimicrobials
-Oxazolidinones

answer

Zyvox - antimicrobial that blocks the interaction of mRNA (used to treat MRSA and VRE

question

MRSA

answer

methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus

question

VRE

answer

vancomycin resistant Enterococcus

question

Agents to Treat Fungal Infections
-Macrolide Polyene

answer

Tomically and systemically, Nystatin (topical)

question

Agents to Treat Fungal Infections
-Griseofulvin

answer

150 pills a month, nephrotoxic

question

Agents to Treat Fungal Infections
-Synthetic azoles

answer

Broad spectrum (ketaconazole, clomitrazole, miconazole)

question

Agents to Treat Fungal Infections
-Flucytosine

answer

Lamasil, analog of cytosine

question

Agents to Treat Fungal Infections
-Ecchinocandins

answer

Damage cell walls (capsofungin)

question

Antiparasitic Chemotherapy
-Antimalarial drugs

answer

Quinine based, highly drug resistant

question

Antiparasitic Chemotherapy
-Antiprotozoan Drugs

answer

Flagyl (metronidazole)

question

Antiparasitic Chemotherapy
-Antihelminthic Drugs

answer

Paralyze, disintegrate, or inhibit metabolism
(Mebenazole, thabendazole, braod spectum, inhibits glucose utilization (metabolism inhibition), pyrantel, piperazine paralyzes muscles, niclosamide, destroys scolex)

question

Antiviral Chemotherapeutic Agents

answer

Block penetration, replication, transcription, translation, or prevent maturation of viral particles
(Ribavirin RSV (hemmorrhagic fevers), AZT, protease inhibitors (HIV))

question

Drugs for Treating Influenza
-Amantadine/Rimantidine

answer

Restricted almost exclusively to influenza A, prevent fusion of virus with cell membrane

question

Drugs for Treating Influenza
-Relenza and Tamiflu

answer

Slightly broader spectrum, blocks neuraminidase in influenza A and B, reduces viral load, which reduces symptoms

question

Antiherpes Drugs

answer

-Valtrex, Zovirax, Famvir, Denavir

question

Outbreak Therapy (Define)

answer

Treat every day until everything dries up, can weaken immune system.

question

Oral Suppressive Therapy (Define)

answer

More for immunocompromised, treat daily

question

HIV and AIDS medications

answer

Nucleotide analogn and nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (interference with RNA synthesis), protease inhibitors (enzyme inhibitors) AZT

question

AZT

answer

Azidothymidine (AZT) first drug aimed at treating AIDs, thyamine analog used in nuclear medicine

question

Interferons

answer

INF, human-based glycoprotein produced primarily by fibroblasts and leukocytes
*treats HepC, genital warts, Kaposi's Sarcoma (in AIDs pts) and slows progression of certain cancers, leukemias, and lymphomas

question

Acquired Resistance (Define)

answer

The spontaneous mutation in DNA, acquisition of new genes or set of genes via transfer from another species (did not complete medication cycle)

question

Mechanism of Acquired Drug Resistance (12.14)

answer

1. Drug Inactivation
2. Decreased Drug Permeability
3. Activation of Drug Pumps
4. Change in drug binding site
5. Use of alternate metabolic pathways

question

Negative Interactions between Drugs/Host

answer

Drug Toxicity, allergic reactions, and disruption in the balance of normal flora (super-infection)

question

How to Select a Drug (2 Tests)

answer

Lowest possible Effect
-Kirby-Bauer Disk Diffusion Test (by Zones of Inhibition)
-E-test Diffusion Test

question

Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC, Define)

answer

Smallest Concentration of drug that visibly inhibits growth)

question

Therapeutic Index (Define)

answer

Choosing a drug with the highest level of selectivity but lowest level of toxicity.

question

Both Flagella and Cilia are found primarily in
a. algae
b. protozoa
c. fungi
d. both b and c

answer

both flagella and cilia are found primarily in (B) protozoa

question

Features of the nuclear envelope include
a. ribosomes
b. a double membrane structure
c. pores that allow communication with the cytoplasm
d. b and c
e all of these

answer

Features of the nuclear envelope include (D) a double membrane structure and pores that allow communication with the cytoplasm.

question

The cell wall is usually found in which eukaryotes
a. fungi
b. algae
c. protozoa
d. a and b

answer

The cell wall is usually found in the eukaryotes (D) fungi and algae.

question

What is embedded in the rough endoplasmic reticuluma. ribosomes
b. Golgi apparatus
c. chromatin
d. vesicles

answer

Embedded in the rough endoplasmic reticulum are (A) ribosomes.

question

Yeasts are ___ fungi; and molds are ___ fungi.
a. macro, micro
b. unicellular, filamentous
c. motile, nonmotile
d. water, terrestrial

answer

Yeasts are unicellular fungi and molds are filamentous fungi (B).

question

In general, fungi derive nutrients though
a. photosynthesis
b. engulfing bacteria
c. digesting organic substrates
d. parasitism

answer

In general, fungi derive nutrients through (C) digesting organic substrates.

question

A hyphae divided into crompartments by cross walls is called
a. nonseptate
b. imperfect
c. septate
d. perfect

answer

A hypa divided into compartments by cross walls is called (C) septate.

question

Algae generally contain some type of
a. spore
b. chlorophyll
c. locomotor organelle
d. toxin

answer

Algae generally contain some type of (B) chlorophyll.

question

Which characteristic(s) is/are not typical of protozoan cellsa. locomotor organelle
b. cyst
c. spore
d. trophozoit

answer

A (C) spore is not typical of a protozoan cell.

question

The protozoan trophozoit is the
a. active feeding stage
b. inavtive dormat stage
c. infective stage.
d. spore forming stage.

answer

The protozoan trophozoit is the (A) active feeding stage.

question

All mature sporozoa are
a. parasitic
b. nonmotile
c. carried by an arthropod vector
d. both a and b

answer

All mature sporozoa are (D) both parasitic and nonmotile.

question

Parasitic helminths reproduce with
a. spores
b. eggs and sperm
c. mitosis
d. cysts
e. all of these

answer

Parasitic helminths reproduce with (B) eggs and sperm.

question

Mitochondria likely originated from
a. archaea
b. invaginations of the cell membrane
c. purple bacteria
d. cyanobacteria

answer

Mitochondria likely originated from (C) purple bacteria.

question

Human fungal infections involve and affect what areas of the human bodya. skin
b. mucous membranes
c. lungs
d. all of these

answer

Human fungal infections involve and affect (D) the skin, mucous membranes, and lungs.

question

Must helminth infections
a. are localized to one site on the body
b. spread though major systems of the body
c. develop within the spleen
d. develop within the liver

answer

Most helminth infections (A) are localized to one site in the body.

question

Matching
-Diatom

answer

Single celled alga with silica in its cell wall

question

Matching
-Rhizopus

answer

Genus of black bread mold

question

Matching
-Histoplasma

answer

Fungal cause of Ohio Valley Fever

question

Matching
-Cryptococcus

answer

A yeast that infects the lungs

question

Matching
-Euglenid

answer

motile flagellated alga with eyespots

question

Matching
-Dinoflaggelate

answer

Alga that causes red tides (carry poisonous neurotoxins)

question

Matching
-Trichomonas

answer

flagellated protozoan genus that causes an STD

question

Matching
-Entomoeba

answer

The cause of amebic dystentery

question

Matching
-Plasmodium

answer

The cause of malaria

question

Matching
-Enterobius

answer

Helminth worm invovled in pinworm infection

question

A microbicidal agent has what effecta. sterilizes
b. inhibits microorganism
c. is toxic to human cells
d. destroys microorganisms

answer

A microbicidal agent (D) destroys microogranisms.

question

Micrbial control methods that kill _____ are able to sterilize
a. viruses
b. the tubercle bacillus
c. endospores
d. cysts

answer

Microbial control methods that kill (C) endospores are able to sterilize.

question

Any process that destroys the non-spore forming contaminants on inanimate objects is
a. antisepsis
b. disinfection.
c. sterilization.
d. degermation

answer

Any process that destroys the non-spore-forming contaminants on inanimate objects is (B) disinfection.

question

Sanitization is a process by which
a. the microbial load on objects is reduced
b. objects are made sterile with chemicals
c. utensils are scrubbed
d. skin is debrided

answer

Sanitization is the process by which (A) the microbial load on the object is reduced.

question

An example of an agent that lowers the surface tension of cell sis
a. phenol
b. chlorine
c. alcohol
d. formalin

answer

An agent that lowers the surface tension of cells is (C) alcohol.

question

High temperatures _____ and low temperatures _____.
a. sterilize, disinfect
b. kill cells, inhibit cell growth
c. denature proteins, burst cells
d. speed up metabolism, slow down metabolism.

answer

High temperatures kill cells, low temperatures inhibit cell growth (B).

question

The primary action of _____ heat is to _____.
a. dry, destroy cell wall
b. moist, kill vegetative cells
c. dry, dissolve lipids
d. moist, denature proteins

answer

The primary action of moist heat is to denature proteins (D).

question

The temperature-pressure combination for an autoclave is
a. 100 deg C and 4 psi
b. 121 deg C and 15 psi
c. 131 deg C and 9 psi
d. 115 deg C and 3 psi

answer

The temperature-pressure combination for an autoclave is (B) 121 degC/15 psi.

question

Microbes that is/are the target(s) of pasteurization include(s)
a. Clostridium botulinum
b. Mycobacterium species
c. Salmonella species
d. both b and C

answer

Microbes that are the targets of pasteurization include Mycobacterium species and Salmonella species.

question

Ionizing radiation removes _____ from atoms.
a. protons
b. waves
c. electrons
d. ions

answer

Ionizing radiation (Gamma Rays) removes (C) electrons from atoms (breaks disulfide bonds in DNA).

question

The primary mode of action of nonionizing radiation is to
a. produce superoxide ions
b. make pyrimidine dimers
c. denatures proteins
d. break disulfide bonds

answer

The primary mode of action of nonionizing radiation (UV light) is to (B) make pyrmadine (thiamine) dimers.

question

The most versatile method of sterilizing heat-sensitive liquids is
a. UV radiation
b. exposure to ozone
b. beta propiolactone
d. filtration

answer

The most versatile method of sterilizing heat sensitive liquids is (D) filtration.

question

_____ is the iodine antiseptic of choice for wound treatment.
a. 8% tincture
b. 5% aqueous
c. Iodophor
d. KI solution

answer

(C) Iodophor is the iodine antiseptic of choice for wound treatment.

question

a chemical with sporicidal properties is
a. phenol
b. alcohol
c. quaternary ammonium compound (QUAT)
d. glutaraldehyde

answer

A chemical with sporicidal properties is (D) glutaraldehyde.

question

Silver sulfadiazine is used
a. in antisepsis of burns
b. as a mouthwash
c. to treat genital gonorrhea
d. to disinfect water

answer

Silver sulfadiazine is used to treat (A) antisepsis in burns.

question

Detergents are
a. high level germicides
b. low level germicides
c. excellent antiseptics
d. used in disinfecting surgical instruments

answer

Detergents are (B) low-level germicides.

question

Which of the following is an approved sterilanta. chlorhexidine
b. betadyne
c. ethylene oxide
d. ethyl alcohol

answer

(C) Ethylene oxide is an approved sterilant.

question

A compound synthesized by bacteria or fungi that destroys or inhibits the growth of other microbes is a/an
a. synthetic drug
b. antibiotic
c. antimicrobial drug
d. competitive inhibitor

answer

A compound synthesized by bacteria or fungi that destroys or inhibits the growth of other microbes is an (B) antibiotic.

question

Which statement is not an aim in the use of drugs in antimicrobial chemotherapy? The drug should
a. have selective toxicity
b. be active even in high dilutions
c. be broken down and excreted rapidly
d. be microbicidal

answer

The drug should(C) be broken down and excreted rapidly.

question

Microbial resistance to drugs is acquired through
a. conjugation
b. transformation
c. transduction
d. all of these

answer

Microbial resistance to drugs is acquired through (D) conjugation, transformation, and transduction.

question

R factors are _____ that contain a code for _____.
a. genes, replication
b. plasmids, drug release
c. transposons, interferon
d. plasmids, conjugation

answer

R factors are (B) plasmids that contain a code for drug resistance.

question

When a patient's immune system becomes reactive to a drug, this is an example of
a. super infection
b. drug resistance
c. allergy
d. toxicity

answer

When a patient's immune system becomes reactive to a drug, this is an example of (C) allergy.

question

An antibiotic that disrupts the normal flora can cause
a. the teeth to turn brown
b. aplastic anemia
c. a superinfection
d. hepatotoxicity

answer

An antibiotic that disrupts the normal flora can cause (C) a superinfection.

question

Most antihelminthic drugs function by
a. weaking the worms so that they can be flushed out by the intestine
b. inhibiting worm metabolism
c. blocking the absorption of nutrients
dd. inhibiting egg production
e. all of these

answer

Most antihelminthic drugs function by (B) inhibiting worm metabolism.

question

Select a drug or drugs that can prevent a viral nucleic acid from being replicated.
a. Azidothymidine
b. Acyclovir
C. Amantadine
D. Both a and b

answer

(D) Both azidothmidine and acyclovir can prevent a viral nucleic acid from being replicated.

question

Which of the following effects do antiviral drugs NOT havea. killing extracellular viruses
b. stopping viral synthesis
c. inhibiting virus maturation
d. blocking virus receptors

answer

Antiviral drugs do NOT (A) kill extracellular viruses.

question

Which of the following modes of action would be the most selectively toxica. interrupting ribosomal function
b. dissolving the cell membrane
c. preventing cell wall synthesis
d. inhibiting DNA replication

answer

(C) Preventing cell wall synthesis would be the most selectively toxic.

question

The MIC is the _____ of a drug that is required to inhibit growth of a microbe.
a. largest concentration
b. standard dose
c. smallest concentration
d. lowest dilution

answer

The MIC (minimum inhibitory concentration) is the (C) smallest concentration of a drug that is required to inhibit growth.

question

An antimicrobial drug with a _____ therapeutic index is a better choice than one with a _____ therapeutic index.
a. low, high
b. high, low

answer

An antimicrobial drug with a (B) high therapeutic index is a better choice than one with a low therapeutic index.

question

Matching
-Sulfonamides

answer

Interferes with synthesis of folic acid

question

Matching
-Penicillin

answer

Blocks synthesis of peptidoglycans

question

Matching
-Tetracycline

answer

Blocks the attachment of tRNA on the ribosome

question

Matching
-Erythromycin

answer

Prevents the ribosome from translocating

question

Matching
-Quinolone

answer

Inhibits DNA gyrase

question

Matching
-Amantidine

answer

Interferes with fusion of virus and host cell

question

Matching
-Polymixin

answer

Breaks down cell membrane integrity

question

All protozoan pathogens have a _____ phase.
a. cyst
b. sexual
c. trophozoit
d. blood

answer

All protozoan pathogens have a (C) trophozoit phase.

question

Entomoeba histolyca primarily invades the
a. liver
b. large intestine
c. small intestine
d. lungs

answer

Entamoeba histolytica prmarily invades the (B) large intestine.

question

Giardia is a/an _____ that invades the _____.
a. flagellate, large intestine
b. amoeba, small intestine
c. ciliate, large intestine
d. flagellate, small intestine

answer

Giardia is a/an (D) flagellate that invades the small intestine.

question

Hemoflagellates are transmitted by
a. mosquito bites
b. insect vectors
c. bug feces
d. contaminated foods

answer

Hemoflagellates are transmitted by (B) insect vectors.

question

Plasmodium reproduces sexually in the _____ and asexually in the _____.
a. liver, red blood cells
b. mosquito, human
c. human, mosquito
d. red blood cell, liver

answer

Plasmodium reproduces sexually in the (B) mosquito and asexually in the human.

question

In the exoerythrocytic phase of infection, Plasmodium invades the
a. blood cells
b. heart muscle
c. salivary glands
d. liver

answer

In the exoerythrocytic phase of infection, Plasmodium invades the (D) liver.

question

An oocyst is found in _____, and a pseudocyst is found in _____.
a. humans, cats
b. cats, humans
c. feces, tissue
d. tissue, feces

answer

An oocyst is found in (C) feces, and a pseudocyst is found in tissue.

question

A person can acquire toxoplasmosis from
a. pseudocysts in raw meat
b. oocysts in the air
c. cleaning out the cat litter box
d. all of these

answer

A human can acquire toxoplasmosis from (D) pseudocysts in raw meat, oocysts in the air, and cleaning out the cat litter box.

question

All adult helminths produce
a. cysts and trophozoits
b. scolex and proglottids
c. fertilized eggs and larvae
d. hooks and cuticles

answer

All adult helminths produce (C) fertilized eggs and larvae.

question

The _____ host is where the larva develops, and the _____ host is where the adults produce fertile eggs.
a. intermediate, difinitive
b. definitive, intermediate
c. secondary, transport
d. primary, secondary

answer

The (A) intermediate host is where the larva develops, and the definitive host is where the adults produce fertile eggs.

question

Antihelminthic medications work by
a. paralyzing the worm
b. disrupting the worm's metabolism
c. causing vomiting
d. both a and b

answer

Antihelminthic medications work by (D) paralyzing the worm and disrupting the worm's metabolism.

question

Currently, the most common nematode infestation worldwide is
a. hookworm
b. ascariasis
c. tapeworm
d. trichinosis

answer

Currently, the most common nematode infestation worldwide is (B) ascariasis.

question

Hookworm disease are spread by
a. the feces of humans
b. mosquito bites
c. contaminated food
d. micrscopic invertibrates in drinking water

answer

Hookworm diseases are spread by (A) the feces of humans.

question

Trichinosis can only be spread from human to human by
a. cannibalism
b. flies
c. raw pork
d. contaminated water

answer

Trichinosis can only be spread from human to human by (A) cannibalism.

question

The swelling of limbs typical of elephantiasis is due to
a. allergic reaction to the filarial worm
b. granuloma development due to inflammation by parasites
c. lymphatic circulation being blocked by filarial worm
d. heart and liver failure due to infection

answer

The swelling of limbs typical of elephantiasis is due to (C) lymphatic circulation being blocked by filarial worm.

question

Which of the following is NOT considered an insect vectora. flea
b. mosquito
c. tick
d. tsetse fly

answer

The (C) tick is not considered an insect vector.

question

The _____ mosquito feeds on blood, which is required for development of _____.
a. male, larvae
b. male, parasites
c. female, GI tract
d. female, eggs

answer

The (D) female mosquito feeds on blood, which is required for development of eggs.

question

The host defenses that are most active during worm infestations are
a. phagocytes
b. antibodies
c. killer T cells
d. eosinophils

answer

The host defenses that are most active in worm infestations are (D) eosinophils.

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-amebic dysentery

answer

Entamoeba hystolica, Protozoa

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-Chagas disease

answer

Trypanosoma cruzi, Protozoa

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-Tapeworm

answer

Tania saginata (Beef), Helminth
Tania solium (Pork)

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-Hookworm

answer

Necator amaericanus, Helminth

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-African sleeping sickness

answer

Trypanisoma bruceii, Protozoa

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-Pinworm

answer

Enterobius vermicularis, Helminth

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-Filariasis (Elephantiasis)

answer

Wuchereria bancrofti, Helminth

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-Amebic menigoencephalitis

answer

Naegleria fowleri, Protozoa

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-Malaria

answer

Plasmodium vivax malaria ovale or falciparum, Protozoa

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-Toxoplasmosis

answer

Toxoplasma gondii, Protozoa

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-Trichinellosis

answer

Trichinella spiralis, Helminth

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-Whipworm

answer

Tricuris trichiura, Helminth

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-River Blindness

answer

Onchocerca vovulus, Helminth

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-Contact lens wearers blindness

answer

Acanthamoeba, Protozoa

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-Ciliated protozoa causes diarrhea

answer

Balantidium coli, Protozoa

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-Trichomoniasis STD

answer

Trichomonas vaginalis, Protozoa

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-Giardiasis

answer

Giardia lamblia, Protozoa

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-Leishmaniasis Cutaneous, Espundia, and Systemic (kala alazar)

answer

Leishmania species, Protozoa

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-Sarcocytosis

answer

Sarcocystis species, Protozoa

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-Chronic diarrhea

answer

Cryptosporidium parvum, Protozoa

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-Cyclosporiasis

answer

Cyclospora cayetanensis, Protozoa

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-Redwater fever of Cattle (tick bourn) aka Babesiosis aka Cyclic Fever

answer

Babesia, Protozoa

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-Intestinal Roundworm Indigenous to Humans

answer

Ascaris lumbricoides, Helminth

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-Threadworm

answer

Strongyloides stercorlis and Trichinella spiralis, Helminths

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-African Eye Worm

answer

Loa loa, Helminth

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-Trematodes

answer

Schistosomes, Helminth

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-Liver Fluke

answer

Clonorchis and Fasciola hepatica, Helminths

question

Match Disease with Causative Agent
-Lung Fluke

answer

Paragonimus westermani, Helminth

question

Match Disease with Mode of Transmission
-Amebic Dysentary

answer

ingestion of food contaminated by human feces

question

Match Disease with Mode of Transmission
-Chagas disease

answer

bite from the reduviid bug

question

Match Disease with Mode of Transmission
-Cyclosporiasis

answer

Ingesting fecally contaminated water or produce

question

Match Disease with Mode of Transmission
-Toxoplasmosis

answer

Contact with cats/cat feces or ingesting rare or raw meat

question

Match Disease with Mode of Transmission
-Giardiasis

answer

ingestion of cysts in water contaminated by wild animal feces

question

Match Disease with Mode of Transmission
-Tapeworm

answer

eating poorly cooked beef or pork

question

Match Disease with Mode of Transmission
-Filariasis

answer

bite from an Anopheles mosquito

question

Match Disease with Mode of Transmission
-Schistosomiasis

answer

Freshwater snail vector releases infectious stage (cercaria)

question

Match Disease with Mode of Transmission
-Ascariasis

answer

water or food contaminated with human feces containing eggs

question

Match Disease with Mode of Transmission
-River Blindness

answer

Bite from the black fly

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