Exam 16 Corrections
B. Cyclin D1
C. DNA topoisomerase
Vinca alkaloids that bind
β-tubulin and inhibit
its polymerization into
mitotic spindle formation
Used for: Solid tumors, leukemias,
Hodgkin (vinblastine) and
AE: Vincristine: neurotoxicity
(areflexia, peripheral neuritis),
(Fasting insulin;Testosterone; Luteinizing Hormone)
A. Increased; Increased; Increased
B. Increased; Increased; Decreased
C. Increased; Decreased; Increased
D. Decreased; increased; decreased
Hyperinsulinemia and/or insulin resistance hypothesized to alter hypothalamic hormonal feedback
response-> increased LH:FSH and increases androgens (testosterone) from theca interna cells.
A. Decreased rough ER
B. Decreased smooth ER
C. Dilated rough ER
D. Increased smooth ER
Null mutation: A mutation (a change) in a gene that leads to its not being transcribed into RNA and/or translated into a functional protein product.
So protein that controls the traffic of vesicles into the golgi complex is non-functional. Golgi is the distribution center for proteins and lipids from ER (particularly the rough ER) to the vesicles and plasma membrane.
Rough ER= Site of synthesis of secretory (exported) proteins
Smooth ER=Site of steroid synthesis and detoxification of
drugs and poisons.
A. I am concerned that your daughter may of precocious puberty
B. I would like to order labs to ensure your daughter’s development is normal
C. Your daughters development is normal
Has some breast bud development and a few pubic hairs so beginning Tanner Stage II Development which is age appropriate (should be reached by ~10-11.5 years)
Ex of segmented viruses: Bunyavirus (Hantavirus), Orthomyxovirus (Influenza), Arenavirus, and Reovirus (Rotavirus)
To understand which viral gene segments are assoc with a particular phenotype look at the resassortment strains and determine how the presence of the segment affects the growth of the virus
A. Cystic hygroma
B. Enlarged thyroid gland
C. Thyroglossal duct cyst
GRAVES DISEASE often presents during stress (like pregnancy). Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin (IgG so crosses the placenta) stimulates the TSH receptors on newborns thyroid too!
Thyroglossal duct cyst presents as an anterior midline neck mass that moves with swallowing or protrusion of the tongue.
A. Central vacuolization with lipid accumulation
B. Periodic acid-Schiff positive intramyofibrillar vacuoles
C. Segmental ischemic necrosis
PAN=Medium vessel vasculitis
Typically involves renal and visceral vessels, not
Immune complex mediated.
Transmural inflammation of the arterial wall
with fibrinoid necrosis.
Period acid-Schiff stain= tains glycogen, mucopolysaccharides; used to diagnose Whipple disease
A. Abnormal origin of the SMA
B. Anomalous origins of multiple renal arteries to each kidney
C. Multiple ureters with abnormal courses
Horseshoe kidney: Inferior poles of both kidneys fuse
abnormally. As they ascend from pelvis during fetal development, horseshoe kidneys get trapped under inferior mesenteric artery and remain low in the abdomen. Will only have max of 2 ureters originating from it
A. Cryptococcus neoformans
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Asplenic so encapsulated microbes: Encapsulated microbes, especially SHiN
(S pneumoniae >> H influenzae type B >
Most common cause of meningitis in ppl 6-60 yrs:
N meningitidis (#1 in teens)
Incidence of H influenzae meningitis has greatly decreased with introduction of the conjugate H influenzae vaccine in last 10-15 years. Today, cases are usually seen in unimmunized children.
A. Bacteriophage transduction
B. Natural transformation
C. Plasmid transfer
Ability to take up naked DNA (ie, from cell lysis) from environment (also known as \”competence\”). A feature of many bacteria, especially S pneumoniae, H influenzae type B, and Neisseria (SHiN). Any DNA can be used. Adding deoxyribonuclease to environment will degrade naked DNA in
medium->no transformation seen.
Transduction= A \”packaging\” event. Lytic phage infects bacterium, leading to cleavage of bacterial DNA. Parts
of bacterial chromosomal DNA may become packaged in phage capsid. Phage infects another bacterium, transferring these genes
A. Microtubules for axonal transport
B. Myelin sheaths for saltatory conduction of action potentials
C. Neurofilaments for structural support of axons
Chem agent: Paclitaxel, other taxols
microtubules in M phase so
that mitotic spindle cannot
break down (anaphase cannot
Used for: Ovarian and breast carcinoma
AE: Myelosuppression, neuropathy,
Microtubules are involved in slow axoplasmic transport in
B. Membrane receptors
C. Nuclear receptors
D. Protein regulation
E. Protein structure
CTFR gene defect-> misfolded protein-> protein retained in RER and not sent to cell membrane
CFTR encodes an ATP-gated Cl− channel that secretes Cl− in lungs and GI tract, and reabsorbs Cl− in sweat glands. So there’s a defect in this channel which is a protein structure
A. Case series
Collects data from a group of people to assess
frequency of disease (and related risk factors) at
a particular point in time.
Can show risk factor association with disease, but
does not establish causality.
Cohort=Compares a group with a given exposure or risk
factor to a group without such exposure. Looks to see if exposure affects the likelihood of disease.
1000 – 32 = 968
3.2% X 968 = 31
ANSWER = C
A. Anaerobic glycolysis
B. Fatty acid degradation
D. Oxidative phosphorylation
INCREASED PROTEIN DEGRADATION = increased polyubiquitination in the muscle cells.
In order for proteins to be degraded via proteasomes, they have to be modified by ubiquitination.
A. Decrease in the expression of adhesion molecules on vascular endothelial cells
B. Decrease in serum C-reactive protein concentration
C. Influx of macrophages producing IL-1, IL-6, and tumor necrosis factor-a
Induration= an increase in the fibrous elements in tissue commonly associated with inflammation and marked by loss of elasticity and pliability
Bee sting-> Anaphylaxis Type 1 hypersensitivity
Induration formation simular to granuloma formation. Macrophages produce:
IL1= Causes fever, acute inflammation. Activates
endothelium to express adhesion molecules.
Induces chemokine secretion to recruit WBCs.
IL-6= Causes fever and stimulates production of acute phase
TNFa= Mediates septic shock. Activates endothelium.
Causes WBC recruitment, vascular leak.
This and Carvedilol are the two nonselective alpha and beta antagonists
Phentolamine= nonselective reversible alpha blocker. Given to patients on MAOIs who eat tyramine containing food
B. Recommend that the patient keep a sleep diary
C. Order an arterial blood gas analysis
Sleep Apnea: Repeated cessation of breathing > 10 seconds during sleep->disrupted sleep->daytime
somnolence. Normal Pao2 during the day.
B. Low-dose estrogen
Is a selective estrogen receptor modulator: Antagonist at estrogen receptors in hypothalamus. Prevents normal feedback inhibition and increases release of LH and FSH from pituitary, which stimulates ovulation. Used to treat infertility due
to anovulation (eg, PCOS).
May cause hot flashes, ovarian enlargement, multiple simultaneous pregnancies, visual disturbances.
Medroxyprogesterone is used for contraception
A. Bullous pemphigoid antigen
B. Collagen, Type VII
Less severe than pemphigus vulgaris (autoAB against desmoplakin causes flaccid bullae) . Involves IgG antibody against hemidesmosomes (epidermal basement membrane; antibodies are \”bullow\” the epidermis). Causes tense blisters that contain eosinophils.
A. Abnormal HB structure
B. Abnormal Fe Absorption
C. Deficiency of erythrocyte spectrin
D. Impaired oxidative enzyme function
Hereditary spherocytosis=Spheroid erythrocytes due to spectrin or ankyrin defect; hemolytic anemia; increased MCHC, increased RDW. Results in small, round RBCs with less surface area and no central pallor. Autosomal dominant
A. Day 1
B. Day 6
C. Day 12
D. Day 18
E. Day 26
Increased concentration of estrogen and decreased concentration of progesterone means she is around ovulation period (Day 14). Estrogen concentrations hit their peak just before ovulation
A. Candida albicans
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
Forms pseudohyphae and budding yeasts at 20°C
S.aureus would be purple spherical clusters. Beta hemolytic so on blood agar: Complete lysis of RBCs->clear area surrounding colony on blood agar
A. Calcium carbonate
D. Magnesium trisilicate
So phase I of drug metabolism is inhibited and diazepam (benzo) hangs around a little longer causing overdose effects (CNS depressant)
Most likely Schistosoma on photomicrograph which can cause spleen and liver enlargement
Metronidazole=Treats Giardia, Entamoeba, Trichomonas
A. Dead space
B. Diffusion abnormality
D. Low FiO2
respiratory zone becomes unable to perform gas exchange. Ventilated but not perfused!
FiO2= fraction of inspired oxygen
A. Determine which drugs have been prescribed for the patient in the past
B. Obtain serum tox screening on the patient
C. Order a MRI of the spine
D. Refer the patient to a drug addiction program
A. Blood: gas partition coefficient
B. Brain:blood partition coefficient
C. Brain: gas partition coefficient
D. Hepatic metabolism
E. Lipid solubility
F. Minimal alveolar concentration
Drugs with decreased solubility in blood= rapid induction and recovery times. Nitrous oxide tends to have decreased blood and lipid (crossing the blood-brain barrier) solubility so has fast induction and low potency
MAC = Minimal Alveolar Concentration (of inhaled anesthetic) required to prevent 50% of subjects from moving in response to noxious stimulus (eg, skin incision).
Labs: Hb 9 (low), Hemocrit 27% (low) Leukocyte count 3100 (low) Neutrophils 20% (low) Lymphocytes 75% (high) Monocytes 5%, Platelet count 75,000 (low).
The lymphocytes have cytoplasmic projections and are acid phosphatase positive even in the presence of tartrate. Dx?
A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
B. Acute myelogenous leukemia
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
E. Hairy cell leukemia
Age: Adult males. Mature B-cell tumor. Cells have filamentous, hair-like projections (fuzzy appearing on Light Microscopy ).
Causes marrow fibrosis->dry tap on aspiration. Patients usually present with massive splenomegaly.
Stains TRAP (tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase) ⊕. TRAP stain largely replaced with flow cytometry.
Ultrasonography shows normal fetus consistent in size with 30-week gestation. Diagnosis?
A. Drug overdose
D. Renal disease
Preeclampsia(New-onset hypertension with either proteinuria
or end-organ dysfunction after 20th week
of gestation) + maternal seizures + HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis (increased LDH), Elevated Liver enzymes,
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Leishmania donovani
C. Taenia saginata
D. Toxoplasma gondii
E. Trypanosoma cruzi
Amebiasis—bloody diarrhea (dysentery) liver abscess
(\”anchovy paste\” exudate), RUQ pain; histology shows flask-shaped ulcer.
Dx via: Serology and/or trophozoites (with engulfed RBCs in the cytoplasm) or cysts with up to 4 nuclei in stool
A. Genitofemoral nerves
B. Illioinguinal nerves
C. Lumbo sacral trunks
D. Obturator nerves
E. Pudendal nerves
Erection—Parasympathetic nervous system
Emission—Sympathetic nervous system
Ejaculation—visceral and Somatic nerves
B. Lymphatic obstruction
C. Varicella-zoster virus infection
D. Venous hypertension
Hemorrhoids develop when the veins of the rectum or anus become dilated or enlarged and can be either \”internal\” or \”external.\”
External hemorrhoids receive somatic
innervation (inferior rectal branch of pudendal nerve) and are therefore painful if thrombosed-> pain with defecation and bright red blood on wiping. Associated w/ low fiber diet and constipation.
Mets to the bone: Prostate (blastic), breast (mixed) > lung (mixed), thyroid (lytic), kidney(lytic)
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Strep. pyogenes (group A)
Associated with Nosocomial infections (catheters,
Aerobic, motile, gram ⊝ rod. Non-lactose
fermenting, oxidase ⊕. Produces pyocyanin
(blue-green pigment A )
1. Precontemplation—not yet acknowledging that there is a problem
2. Contemplation—acknowledging that there is a problem, but not yet ready or willing to make a
3. Preparation/determination—getting ready to change behaviors
4. Action/willpower—changing behaviors
5. Maintenance—maintaining the behavior changes
6. Relapse—returning to old behaviors and abandoning new changes
1ST order elimination = CONSTANT FRACTION (of drug eliminated per unit of time)
12.5 – 10 = 2.5 is the concentration eliminated in 2 hours
2.5 / 12.5 = 0.2 or 20% ELIMINATION (fraction of drug eliminated in 2 hours)
10 X (0.20) = 2
10 – 2 = 8 mg/L
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Candida parapsilosis
C. Nocardia asteroides
D. Pneumocystis jiroveci
E. Streptococcus gallolyticus (formerly S.bovis)
Gram ⊕ and form long, branching filamentous rod resembling fungi.
Aerobe, causes pulmonary infection in immunocompromised
(Mucus production and secretion; Activity of Airway Cilia; Alveolar Macrophage Function)
A. Increased; Increased; Increased
B. Increased; Increased; Decreased
C. Increased; Decreased; Decreased
Increased mucus production assoc with Chronic bronchitis
Decreased activity of airway cilia and alveolar macrophage function assoc with Bronchiectasis (chronic necrotizing infection of bronchi-> permanently dilated airways)
A. Low sensitivity
B. Low specificity
C. Potential for a false positive result
Sensitivity=Proportion of all people with disease who test
positive, or the probability that when the disease is present, the test is positive.
So with low sensitivity there too high of a chance for a false positive that would create a lot of stress.
A. C cell hypoplasia
B. Columnar metaplasia
C. Follicular atrophy
D. Glandular hypertrophy
E. Squamous metaplasia
Thyroxine= thyroid hormone supplement. So exogenous thyroxine will inhibit the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary-> decrease in TRH(hypothalamus) and TSH (anterior pit)-> decrease in stimulation of thyroid follicular cells and follicular atrophy.
A. Change, but the direction cant be predicted
B. Decrease in width
C. Increase in width
D. Remain the same
Confidence interval= mean ± Z(SEM).
Standard Error of the Mean(SEM)= SD/ square root of (N)
SD= standard deviation and N= number of measurements
CI= mean ± Z(SD/ square root of (N)).
As N↑ SEM↓ and the CI gets wider!
A. Deletion in the short arm of chromosome 15
B. Duplication within the chromosome 15
C. Large trinucleotide repeat expansion in the PWS area of chromosome 15
D. Maternal origin of both chromosomes 15
E. Translocation in the short arm of chromosome 15
Imprinting= At some loci, only one allele is active; the
other is inactive (imprinted/inactivated by methylation). With one allele inactivated, deletion of the active allele →disease.
PWS= Maternal imprinting: gene from mom is normally
silent and Paternal gene is deleted/mutated. Results in hyperphagia, obesity, intellectual, disability, hypogonadism, and hypotonia.
A. Activated proto-oncogenes
B. Defective detoxification enzymes
C. Defective DNA repair enzymes
D. Impaired regulation of apoptosis
E. Impaired signal transduction
Li-Fraumeni Syndrome: Abnormalities in TP53→multiple malignancies at an early age. Also known as SBLA cancer syndrome (sarcoma, breast, leukemia, adrenal gland).
TP53 gene: p53, activates p21, blocks G1→ S phase leads to apoptosis!
A. Binding of ammonia and other hepatically cleared toxins in the gut
B. Blockade of new protein synthesis
C. Blockade of 2 succesive steps in the metabolism of folic acid
D. Increased endotoxin production where bacterial overgrowth occurs in the gut
E. Killing of bacteria in the gut that generate ammonia
A. BMI of 34
B. Cigarette smoking
C. History of gallstone disease
E. Type 1 DM
A. Left upper
C. Left lower
D. Right upper
E. Right lower
Right lung is more common site for inhaled foreign body because the right main stem bronchus is wider and more vertical than the left.
While upright— foreign body would enter inferior segment of
right inferior lobe.
A. Bowman capsule
B. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Efferent arteriole
E. Proximal tubule
Carries out most of the re-absorption in the nephron so needs.
PCT and medullary segment of the thick ascending limp particularly susceptible to ischemic damage-> acute tubular necrosis
A. Angiotensin converting enzyme
C. Guanylyl cyclase
D. Nitric oxide synthase
E. Phospholipase A2
Machine like murmur along left sternal border= Patent ductus arteriosus
Tx: w/Indomethacin to close PDA (inhibits COX1 and COX2)
A. Dome of the bladder
B. Obturator Nerves
C. Pelvic parasympathetic nerves
D. Penile urethra
E. Ureterovesical junction
A. Carnitine palmitoyltransferase-1
C. Glucose 6-phosphatase
D. Glycogen phosphorylase
E. Succinate dehydrogenase
Rate determining enzyme in glycogenolysis (Glycogen→glucose)
McArdle disease: (skeletal muscle glycogen phosphorylase
deficiency) Increased glycogen in muscle but muscle can’t break it down to use it. Chronic exercise intolerance with myalgia, fatigue, painful cramps, myoglobinuria.
A. Autosomal dominant inheritance
B. Decreased penetrance
E. X-linked recessive inheritance
Presence of both normal and mutated mtDNA, resulting in variable expression in mitochondrially inherited disease.
Ex: Mitochondrial myopathies!
D. Lateral (external) rotation
E. Medial (internal) rotation
Infraspinatus (suprascapular nerve)—laterally
rotates arm; pitching injury.
Teres minor (axillary nerve)—adducts and
laterally rotates arm.
A. Decrease in adrenocorticotropic hormone
B. Decreased LH
C. Decreased TSH
D. Increased FSH
E. Increased prolactin
↑↑ FSH is specific for menopause (loss of
negative feedback on FSH due to ↓ estrogen
A. Folic acid
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
D. Vitamin D
E. Vitamin E
CF-> pancreatic insufficiency-> ADEK vit deficiency
Vit E deficiency: Hemolytic anemia, acanthocytosis,
muscle weakness, posterior column and spinocerebellar tract demyelination.
Vit A: Night blindness (nyctalopia); dry, scaly, skin (xerosis cutis); corneal degeneration (keratomalacia); Bitot spots on conjunctiva; immunosuppression.
A. A fracture of a lumbar vertebra
B. Rupture of the deltoid tendon
C. Rupture of an intervertebral disc
D. A tear in the sciatic nerve
E. A torn muscle in the low back
Evidence of a Traumatic injury–> disc rupture/ herniation–> disc can impinge on other nerves cause radiating pain.
Nerve root impingement at the L5/S I intervertebral foramen level can result i n radiating low back pain down the back of the thigh into the leg to the foot,called sciatica.
A. Absence of a 3′ untranslated region
B. Absence of a poly (A) tail
C. Presence of an internal ribosome entry site
D. Very short open reading frame
Translation goes from 5′ end→3′ end
The 5′ cap plays a role in the ribosomal recognition of messenger RNA during translation into a protein. Prokaryotes do not have a similar cap because they use other signals for recognition by the ribosome.
A. Dendritic cells
C. Myeloid precursors
D. Plasma cells
E. T lymphocytes
Endogenous antigen (like from an HPV infected tumor cell) would present it on an MHCI and CD8s would take care of it!
Dendritic cells are antigen presenting cells and express MHCII
A. Adenylyl cyclase
B. Guanylyl cyclase
C. Janus kinase
D. Phospholipase C
E. Tyrosine kinase
GTPase hydrolyze GTP->GDP which inactivate G protein so if there’s a mutation the G-protein/ G subunit will remain active leading to the increased activity of their respective enzyme.
Gs subunit and Gi subunit–> adenylyl cyclase
Gq subunit–> Phospholipase C
A. Grade 2/6 diastolic decrescendo murmur heard best over the second and third left intercostal spaces
B. Grade 2/6, rumbling diastolic murmur heard best 2 cm left of the sternal border at the fourth left intercostal space
C.Grade 3/6 crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur heard best at the second left intercostal space
D. Grade 4/6 continuous systolic and diastolic murmur heard best along the left sternal border
E. Grade 4/6, holosystolic murmur heard best over the lower left sternal border and the cardiac apex
Post MI→Mitral Regurgitation:
Holosystolic, high-pitched \”blowing murmur.\”—loudest at apex and radiates toward axilla. MR is often due to ischemic heart disease (post-MI), MVP, LV dilatation.
Incidence Rate = # of new cases/ # of people at risk (during a specified time period)
INCIDENCE = 200 new cases / 2000 at risk = 10%
A. Discontinue consumption of all alcoholic beverages
B. Discontinue gardening
C. Go for a long walk outside daily
D. Increase participation in swimming pool-based exercise classes to at least 3 times weekly
E. Lose weight
Gets sun exposure for vit D! and is considered a weight bearing exercise too!
Vit D (activated) increases GI and renal absorption of Ca
A. Donor macrophages secreting cytokines and affecting host cells
B. Donor plasma cells elaborating antibodies against host cells
C. Donor T lymphocytes reacting against host cells
D. Host macrophages secreting cytokines and affecting donor cells
Graft vs Host disease (Type IV hypersensitivity)
Grafted immunocompetent T cells proliferate in the
immunocompromised host and reject host cells with
\”foreign\” proteins →severe organ dysfunction.
Delayed (T-cell-mediated) type—sensitized T cells encounter antigen and then release cytokines (leads to macrophage activation).
A. Serum calcium concentration
B. Serum cortisol concentration
C. Serum tissue transglutaminase activity
D. Stool a1-antitrypsin concentration
E. Urine 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid concentration
Possible MEN 1:
Pituitary tumors (prolactin or GH)
Pancreatic endocrine tumors—Zollinger-
Ellison syndrome, insulinomas, VIPomas,
A. Acne vulgaris
B. Cutaneous lupus erythematosus
D. Pseudofolliculitis barbae
Foreign body inflammatory facial skin d/o characterized by firm, hyper-pigmented papules and pustules that are painful and pruritic. Located on the cheeks, jawline, and neck. Commonly occurs as result of shaving (razor bumps). Primarily affects black males
A. Decreased intestinal absorption of glucose
B. Enhances metabolism of insulin
C. Promotion of peripheral insulin uptake
D. Promotion of skeletal muscle glucose release
E. Stimulation of hepatic glucose production
Glucagon stimulate liver to preform Glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis (glucose production)
X-linked recessive so heterozygous females are the carrier and will have more prevalence than the males whos are actually affected by disease
A. Amphotericin B
Binds ergosterol (unique to fungi); forms membrane pores that allow leakage of electrolytes.
Used for: Serious, systemic mycoses. Cryptococcus (amphotericin B with/without flucytosine for cryptococcal meningitis), Blastomyces, Coccidioides, Histoplasma, Candida, Mucor. Intrathecally for fungal meningitis.
Supplement K+ and Mg2+ because of altered renal tubule permeability.
periodic acid-Schiff stain: stains glycogen and mucopolysaccharides so the cell walls of fungi stain magenta; this only works on living fungi
(Amino Acids; Glucose; Phosphate; HCO3)
A. Increased; Increased; Increased; Increased
B. Increased; Increased; Decreased; Decreased
C. Decreased; Decreased; Increased; Decreased
D. Decreased; Decreased; Decreased; Decreased
Generalized reabsorptive defect in PCT.
Associated with ↑excretion of nearly all amino acids, glucose, HCO3-, and PO4. May result in metabolic acidosis (proximal renal tubular acidosis).
Causes include hereditary defects (eg, Wilson disease, tyrosinemia, glycogen storage disease, cystinosis), ischemia, multiple myeloma, nephrotoxins/drugs (eg, ifosfamide, cisplatin, tenofovir,expired tetracyclines), lead poisoning.
A. Administration of endothelin-1 into the pulmonary artery
B. Administration of phenyelephrine into pulmonary artery
C. Decreasing the inspired oxygen concentration from 21% to 10%.
D. Increasing the inspired carbon dioxide concentration from 0.3% to 3%
E. Intravenous infusion of 0.9% saline for 5 minutes
F. Intravenous infusion of 20% albumin solution (20g/100ml saline) for 5 minute
0.9% Saline→ ↑pulmonary hydrostatic pressure (pushes saline like the NaCl out of capillary)→0.9% saline freely filtered→ ↑filtration→ ↑fluid volume in the extracellular space→ ↑lymph flow
Lymph come from extracellular fluid to the only way to increase it would be to adjust the tonicity of blood stream by adding a solution so either E or F.
Albumin (F) would increase the oncotic pressure and pull fluid in to the capillary where as 0.9% saline would increase the hydrostatic pressure just enough to push the saline out to be filtered and increase the lymph flow
A. Abnormal myelin sheaths
B. Absence of Schwann cells
C. Degeneration of astrocytes
D. Degeneration of oligodendrocytes
Charcot Marie Tooth disease:
Also known as hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy (HMSN). Group of progressive hereditary nerve disorders related to the defective production of proteins involved in the structure and function of peripheral nerves or the myelin sheath. Typically autosomal dominant inheritance pattern and associated with foot deformities (pes cavus), lower extremity weakness and sensory deficits.
Oligodendrocytes myelinate axons in CNS
A. a-adrenergic agonist
B. a-adrenergic antagonist
C. Nicotinic cholinergic agonist
D. Nicotinic cholinergic antagonist
α-adrenergic agonists, used as nasal decongestants
Reduce hyperemia, edema, nasal congestion; open obstructed eustachian tubes.
A. Adjustment disorder with depressed mood
B. Biopolar disorder
C. Dysthymic disorder
D. Major depressive disorder
AKA persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)= depression often milder lasting at least 2 years
Volumetric flow rate (Q) = flow velocity (v) ×
cross-sectional area (A)
Q= 20 cm/sec × 2 cm^2= 40 cm^3/sec ×60 sec/min×0.001L/cm^3= 2.4 L/ min
0.001L= 1 cm^3
A. antagonized VLDL cholesterol secretion
B. Increases catabolism of LDL cholesterol
C. Inhibits cholesterol uptake
D. Stimulates PPAR-a receptors
Inhibits lipolysis (hormonesensitive lipase) in adipose
tissue; reduces hepatic VLDL synthesis
Fibrates stimulate PPAR-a receptors to induce HDL synthesis
A. P. falciparum and P. malariae
B. P. falciparum and P. ovale
C. P. faciparum and P.vivax
D. P. vivax and P.ovale
Chloroquine: (for sensitive species), which blocks
Plasmodium heme polymerase;
P vivax/ovale—48-hr cycle (tertian;includes fever on first day and
third day, thus fevers are actually48 hr apart); dormant form
(hypnozoite) in liver
So tx with Cloroquine add primaquine for hypnozoite (test for