"Everything for Finals" more – Flashcards
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two halves of a composition that are identical mirrored images of each other; formal balance
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symmetrical
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a principal of design referring to the arrangement of visual elements to create stability in an artwork
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balance
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balance that it almost symmetrical; small variations make the arrangement more interesting
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approximate symmetry
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informal balance in which unlike objects or elements have equal "felt weight" or eye attraction
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asymmetrical
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a composition based on a circle with the design radiating from a central point
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radial
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The human body has this type of balance
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approximate symmetrical
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The width of the face is
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five eyes wide
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This facial feature is halfway between the chin and the bottom of the nose.
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the bottom of the bottom lip
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This facial feature is even with the top of the eyes and the bottom of the nose.
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the ears
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This facial feature is about even with the center (pupil) of the eyes.
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the width of the mouth
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This facial feature is halfway between the eyebrows and the chin.
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the bottom of the nose
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This facial feature is at the horizontal halfway point on the skull.
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the eyes
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The height of an average adult human body is
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seven heads tall.
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(True/False) The width of the bottom of the nose is as wide as one eye.
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True.
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(True/False) The width of the neck is about half a face wide.
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True
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(True/False) The measurement of the hight of you body is the same as the measurement of you outstretched arms.
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True
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Which element of art is used most in perspective?
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space
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The flat surface or plane where an artist organizes the picture is called the
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picture plane
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When drawing a vertical line in perspective, they should be
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straight up and down
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A technique of creating the illusion of depth on a flat surface using lines is called
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linear perspective
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(True/False) When drawing in linear perspective, details become clearer and lower on the picture plane to make them appear closer to the viewer.
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True
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A point on the horizon line toward which parallel lines are made to recede and meet in perspective drawing is called the
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vanishing point
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The diminishing of color intensity to lighter or duller hues to give the illusion of distance is called
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aerial perspective
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The representation of three-dimensional objects on a flat two-dimensional surface
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perspective
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Precise shapes or forms that can be described using mathematical formulas.
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geometric shapes and forms
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Twentieth-century art containing shapes that simplify shapes of real objects to emphasize form instead of subject matter.
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abstract art
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Shapes or forms made by the forces of nature; free flowing
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organic shapes and forms
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Wassily Kandinsky style of painting was realistic, then evolved into
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abstract, then changed to abstract expressionism
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Mid-nineteenth century artistic style in which familiar scenes are presented as they actually appear
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realism
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Where was Wassily Kandinsky born?
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Moscow, Russia
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Painting style developed after World War I in New York City that emphasized abstract elements of art rather than recognizable subject matter. It stresses feelings and emotions.
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abstract expressionsim
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Art that has no recognizable subject matter.
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non-objective art
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Kandinsky's occupation before he decided to be an artist was
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lawyer
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Kandinsky was influenced to change his style after he saw the artwork of
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impressionist artists
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Kandinsky had three citizenships during his life. List these countries in order.
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Russia, Germany, France
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Wassily Kandinsky related his paintings to his interests in spiritual thoughts and
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music
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Wassily Kandinsky took formal music and drawing lessons beginning at age
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ten
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The message or meaning that an artwork communicates.
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content
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Invented during the Renaissance, Leonardo was one of the first artist to use this in his artwork.
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perspective
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Leonardo da Vinci's ingenious composition and early use of perspective is on a dining room wall of a Milan monastery (name the painting).
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The Last Supper
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The Renaissance began in
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Florence, Italy
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Leonardo da Vinci's handwriting was
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backwards
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Period of time at the end of the Middle Ages when artists, writers, and philosophers were "reawakened" to art forms and ideas from ancient Greece and Rome.
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Renaissance
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A portrait painted by Leonardo da Vinci that became the most celebrated painting in the history of art.
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Mona Lisa
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Leonardo said, "The wisest teacher man could have is".
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nature
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Leonardo studied this in order to draw human anatomy.
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corpses of people
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A person who has wide interests and is an expert in several areas is called a
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Renaissance Man.
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We have information about Leonardo because of his many
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notebooks
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Leonardo was a master of
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all subjects
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Why did Leonardo da Vinci's use a triangle basis for his paintings?
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to focus on the most important part of the painting
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the brightness or dullness of a hue
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intensity
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placing these colors next to each other make them look brighter
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complementary colors
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Two colors that are directly opposite of each other on the color wheel
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complementary colors
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A lighter value of a hue made by adding a small amount of white to it.
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tint
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(True/False) The complement of orange is green.
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False
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Cool colors usually make a painting look calm and peaceful. They are
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blue, green, and purple
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Variations in the dark and light of color made by adding black to it.
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shade
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What should be mixed with the color of an objects to get a paint color with the most natural hue for shading?
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the complement
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This word has the same meaning as intensity (the brightness or dullness of a hue).
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saturation
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Which type of art would you see in an art gallery or museum?
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fine art
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What are philosophers interested in concerning your view of art?
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making you think more creatively
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Colors that sit side by side on the color wheel and have a common hue
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analogous colors
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Of the five conditions that determine whether or not an object is an artwork,which must always be present in order for it to be considered art?
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artist intention
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A response that occurs when something is seen and enjoyed for its own sake, or for its beauty and pleasurable qualities.
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aesthetic response
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The proper use of colors can be a very powerful too. An artist can use warm colors to make
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objects seem to come forward toward the viewer
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An artwork with logical, harmonious relationships among its parts has
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good design
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A specific color's emotional response can be changed by using
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intensity and value
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The hue most associated with purity.
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white
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Lines going in the same direction that always stay the same distance apart.
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parallel lines
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The line in a work of art that represents the place where the sky and earth appear to meet or converge.
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horizon line
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The artist that was one of the first to use perspective in his portraits.
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Leonardo da Vinci
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If you are standing on a hill, the horizon line in your picture plane will be
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down low
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An artist will position objects high on the picture plane
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to make them appear in the background
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Two of the methods used to show perspective are
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overlapping and size
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Another way to define the horizon line is
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it is at eye level.
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preaching to unbelievers
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kerygma
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right thinking
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orthodoxy
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heresy that taught Jesus was two persons
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nestorianism
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in the year of The Lord
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Anno Domini
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self-sacrificing love
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agape
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denied that Jesus was God
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arianism
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hatred for God
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blasphemy
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supreme happiness
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beatitude
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sexual love
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eros
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heresy that taught Jesus only seemed human
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docetism
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brotherly love
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philia
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word of God
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theology
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love among family members
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storge
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teacher
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rabbi
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God-bearer
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theotokos
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wind or breath
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ruah
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repentance
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metanoia
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adonai
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Lord
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oral teaching to believers
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didache
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a belief
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creed
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inclination to sin
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concupiscence
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learner
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disciple
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contract of love
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covenant
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silent prayer
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contemplation
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prayer of petition
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intercession
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"_______" refers to the distinction of the Trinity.
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Persons
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The _________ of God cannot be understood by humans.
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mysteries
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God's __________ is three persons in love.
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inner life
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"Jesus" means ______.
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savior
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The birth of Jesus is the ___________.
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Incarnation
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The "____" statements are in John's Gospel.
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I am
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Jesus grew in ____________________.
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wisdom and knowledge
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Peter's __________ was that Jesus was the Son of God.
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confession
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Jewish officials convicted Jesus of _________.
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blasphemy
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Jesus learned to read and write ______.
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Hebrew
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The first books of the Bible are the _____.
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Torah
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Luke's genealogy stressed the ________ of Jesus.
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divinity
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Jesus' native tongue was _______.
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Aramaic
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Jesus was trained as a _________.
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carpenter
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Jesus revealed his divinity through his _____.
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words
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Jesus was both ________________.
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human and divine
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The virgin birth is a __________________.
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doctrine of faith
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The way we encounter Jesus is through ________________________________________.
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prayer, others, mass, and the sacraments.
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God transcends ______.
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gender
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Matthew and Luke both include __________ about Jesus' birth.
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narratives
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Jesus' mission was to bring the ______________.
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Kingdom of God
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"Ruah" means ______________ of the Holy Spirit.
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breath or wind
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Revelation of the Holy Spirit was _______.
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gradual
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Each person of the Trinity is fully ___.
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God
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The Holy Trinity was revealed at Jesus' __________________________.
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Baptism and Transfiguration
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The book of ______ is the prayer book of the Bible.
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Psalms
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Mental prayer is called "_____________."
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contemplation
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The Lord's Prayer is a prayer of ________________________________.
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praise, petition, and contrition.
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The word "Baptism" comes from a word meaning _______.
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immerse
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___________ is a type of prayer called meditation.
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Imagination
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Finding or establishing a prayer ___________________________________ helps develop prayer life.
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time, place, attitude, and position
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Mary is the _________________ Christian saint.
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first and greatest
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Jesus is the ____ for what it means to be fully alive.
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norm
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__________ is the Christian virtue of Charity.
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Solidarity
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As a pious Jew, Jesus prayed in the ________________________.
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synagogue and the temple
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The Gospels of Matthew, Mark, and Luke are called "________."
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synoptic
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The sign of the cross is a profession of faith in the trinity made with __________________.
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gestures and words
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The Father begets the Son from ____________.
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all eternity
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The nature of God is a _________________.
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community of love
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The ____________________ preserved Mary from sin.
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Immaculate Conception
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A gift from God is called "_____."
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grace
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The Greek word "______" means fish.
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Ichtus
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Mary's initial "yes" to God came at the ___________.
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Annunciation
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A title that means "____________" is Christ.
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Anointed One
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The heresy denying Christ's divinity is "________."
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Arianism
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"______" is something that points beyond itself.
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Symbol
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"___________" is the teaching authority of the Church.
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Magisterium
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"_________" means God-bearer.
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Theotokos
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Jesus was a _________________________.
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prophet, priest, and king
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The term Jesus used for himself most often was "__________."
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Son of Man
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God becoming human is called the "___________."
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Incarnation
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_______ was the only Roman historian to mention Pontius Pilate.
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Tacitus
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The authors of the four Gospels are called ___________.
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Evangelists
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God is eternal
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no beginning and no end.
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God is unique
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just like his creatures.
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God is infinite
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no limits to God.
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God is Holy
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he is pure love.
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God is omnipresent
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God is everywhere.
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God contains all things
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all of creation is under God's care.
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God is pure spirit
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can't be divided into parts.
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God is immutable
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God does not change.
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God is alive
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he acts in the lives of people.
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Newtons second law of motion
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States that the acceleration of an object is in the same direction as the net force on an object, and that the acceleration equals the net force by the mass
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friction
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force that opposes the sliding between two touching surfaces
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static friction
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frictional force that prevents two surfaces from sliding past each other
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sliding friction
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frictional force that opposes the motion of two surfaces sliding past each other
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air resistance
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force that opposes the motion of objects that move the air
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gravity
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attractive force between two objects that depends on the masses of the objects and the distance between them
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weight
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gravitational force exerted on a object
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centripetal acceleration
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acceleration of an object toward the center of a curved or circular path
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centripetal force
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net force that is directed toward the center of a curved or circular path
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Newtons third law of motion
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states that when one object exerts a force on a second object, the second object exerts a force on the first object that is equal in strength and in the opposite direction
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momentum
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property of a moving object that equals its mass times its velocity
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_____ and ______ are connected.
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force and motion
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An object will have greater ____________ if a greater _____ is applied.
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acceleration, force
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affect acceleration
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mass of an object and the force applied to it
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connects force, mass, and acceleration with the formula F=ma (F-force, m-mass, a-acceleration)
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Newton's Second Law of Motion
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the unit for mass
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kg (kilogram)
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one pound
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0.45 kg
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unit for acceleration
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m/s2
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kg*m/s2
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newton
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the force that opposes motion between two surfaces that are touching each other
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friction
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areas where surface bumps stick together and are the source of friction
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microwelds
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friction between two surfaces that are not moving past each other
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static friction
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friction that occurs between two surfaces sliding past each other
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sliding friction
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friction that occurs between two surfaces rolling past each other
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rolling friction
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a force that opposes anything in earth's atmosphere
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air resistance
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The amount of resistance depends on an object's _____, ____, and _____.
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shape, size, and speed
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forces on a falling object are balanced and the object falls with constant speed
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terminal velocity
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any two masses exert an attractive force on each other
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Law of Gravitation
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___________ depends on the _____________________ and the ______________________.
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Gravitation, masses of the objects and distances between them
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_______ is a ________________ that gives the universe its _________.
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Gravity, long-range force, structure
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Acceleration due to gravity (near earth's surface)=_______ - always ________
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9.8m/s2, downward
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only the force of gravity acting on the object
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free fall
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Due to _______, all objects fall with the same ____________ regardless of ____.
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inertia, acceleration, mass
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gravitational force exerted on an object
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weight
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how much matter an object contains
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mass
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anything that is thrown or shot
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projectile motion
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Projectile motion has ______________.
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two velocities
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Two velocities of projectile motion:
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horizontal and vertical
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follows a curved path because of gravity
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projectile motion
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acceleration toward the center of a curved or circular path ("toward the middle")
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centripetal acceleration
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the unbalanced force that causes centripetal acceleration
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centripetal force
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the ability to cause change
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energy
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there are different forms of this
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energy
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different forms of energy
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electrical, chemical, and thermal
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energy of motion
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kinetic energy
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kinetic energy depends on what?
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mass and velocity
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formula for kinetic energy
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KE=1/2mv2
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unit of measurement for energy
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joules
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small change in velocity
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big change in kinetic energy
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energy that is stored in a motionless object
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potential energy
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stored by things that stretch or compress
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elastic potential energy
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stored in chemical bonds between atoms
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chemical potential energy
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stored by things above the earth
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gravitational potential energy
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gravitational potential energy depends on what?
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mass, acceleration due to gravity, and height
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formula for gravitational potential energy
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GPE=mgh
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measurement for GPE
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joules
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energy can change from one form to another
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energy conversion
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fuels store what?
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chemical potential energy
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the total amount of potential energy and kinetic energy in a system
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mechanical energy
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formula for mechanical energy
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ME=PE+KE
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energy may change from one form to another, but the total amount of energy never changes
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law of conservation of energy
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example of law of conservation of energy
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swing going from kinetic to potential
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what converts mechanical energy to what?
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friction, thermal energy
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small amount of mass is converted into
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large amount of energy
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two nuclei are fused together
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nuclear fusion
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where does nuclear fusion take place?
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the sun
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two nuclei break apart
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nuclear fission
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energy from food that is stored in your body and is used to fuel the processes that keep you alive
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chemical potential energy
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used to measure how much energy you get from various foods
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food calorie
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one food calorie is equal to how many joules?
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4184 J
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speed (velocity)
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s=d/t measured in m/s
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acceleration
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a=vf-vi/time measured in m/s2
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force
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f=ma measured in N
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momentum
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p=mv measured in kg m/s
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kinetic energy
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KE=1/2m(v2) measured in j
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gravitational potential energy
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GPE=m(9.8m/s)(h) measured in j
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mechanical energy
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ME=PE+KE measured in j
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work
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w=fd measured in j
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power
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p=w/t measured in W
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speed (velocity)
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s=d/t measured in m/s
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acceleration
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a=vf-vi/time measured in m/s2
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force
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f=ma measured in N
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momentum
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p=mv measured in kg m/s
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kinetic energy
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KE=1/2m(v2) measured in j
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gravitational potential energy
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GPE=m(9.8m/s)(h) measured in j
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mechanical energy
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ME=PE+KE measured in j
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work
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w=fd measured in j
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power
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p=w/t measured in W
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motion
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a change in position over time
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reference point
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a place or object used for comparison to determine if an object is in motion
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position
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an objects location
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distance
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how far an object moves
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displacement
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distance and direction of an object's change in position from the starting point
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instantaneous speed
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the rate at which an object is moving at a given moment in time
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velocity
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describes the speed and direction of a moving object
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acceleration
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rate of change of velocity, which occurs if an object speeds up, changes direction, or slows down
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Newton's First Law
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an object at rest remains at rest, and an object in motion remains in motion at constant speed and in a straight line unless acted on by an unbalanced force
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inertia
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resistance of an object to a change in it's motion
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terminal velocity
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the highest velocity that a falling object will reach
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air resistance
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force that opposes the motion of objects that move the air
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Newton's second law
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states that the acceleration of an object is in the same direction as the net force on an object, and that the acceleration equals the net force by the mass
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centripetal force
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net force that is directed toward the center of a curved or circular path
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path of a projectile
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follow a curved path because of gravity and inertia
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gravity
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attractive force between two objects that depends on the masses of the objects and the distance between them
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momentum
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property of a moving object that equals its mass times its velocity
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energy
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the ability to cause change
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joule
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unit of measurement for energy
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kinetic energy
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energy of motion
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potential energy
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energy that is stored in a motionless object
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fusion
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two nuclei are fused together
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work
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transfer of energy that occurs when a force makes an object move, measured in joules
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power
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amount of work done, or the amount of energy transferred, in a certain amount of time, measured in watts
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machine
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device that makes doing work easier by increasing the force applied to an object, by changing the direction of an applied force, or by increasing the distance over which a force can be applied
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effort force
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force exerted on a machine that is used to do work
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resistance force
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force applied by a machine to overcome resistance
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mechanical advantage
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number of times a machine multiplies the effort force applied to it
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efficiency
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measure of how much of the work put into a machine is changed into work done by a machine
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simple machine
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machine that does work with only one movement; includes the lever, pulley, wheel and axle, inclined plane, screw, and ledge
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lever
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simple machine made from a bar that is free to pivot about a fixed point
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pulley
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simple machine that consists of a grooved wheel with a rope, chain, or cable that runs along a groove, changes the direction of the effort force, and can be foxed or moveable
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wheel and axle
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simple machine that consists of two different-sized wheels that rotate together
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inclined plane
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simple machine that consists of a sloping surface, such as a ramp, that reduces the amount of force needed to lift something by increasing the distance over which the force is applied
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screw
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simple machine that consists of an inclined plane wrapped around a cylindrical post
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wedge
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simple machine that consists of an inclined plane with one or two sloping sides
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compound machine
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combination of two or more simple machines
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organic compounds
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large numbers of compounds containing the element carbon
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hydrocarbon
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saturated or unsaturated compound containing only carbon and hydrogen atoms
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saturated hydrocarbon
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compounds, such as propane or methane, that contains only single bonds between carbon atoms
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isomers
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compounds with identical chemical formulas but different molecular structures and shapes
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unsaturated hydrocarbon
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compound, such as ethene or ethyne, that contains at least one double or triple bond between carbon atoms
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aromatic compound
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compound that contains the benzene ring structure and can have a pleasant or unpleasant odor and flavor
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substituted hydrocarbon
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hydrocarbon with one or more of its hydrogen atoms replaced by atoms or groups of other elements
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alcohol
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compounds, such as ethanol, that is formed when -OH groups replace one or more hydrogen atoms in hydrocarbon
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polymer
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new, huge molecule made up of mainly monomers linked together to form a long chain that can be spun into fibers and used for plastics
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monomer
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small molecule that forms a link in the polymer chain and can be made to combine with itself repeatedly
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polyethylene
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polymer formed from a chain containing many ethylene units; often used in plastic bags and plastic bottles
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protein
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large, complex, biological polymers formed from amino acids; make up many body tissues, such as muscles, tendons, hair, and fingernails
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nucleic acid
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essential organic polymers that control the activities and reproduction of cells
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DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)
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a type of essential biological compound that codes and stores genetic information, controls the production of RNA, and is found in the nuclei of cells
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carbohydrate
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group of biological compounds, such as sugars and starches, with twice as many hydrogen atoms as oxygen atoms
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lipids
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group of biological compounds that contains the same elements as carbohydrates but in different arrangements and combinations, and includes saturated and unsaturated fats and oils
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What percent of all carbon compounds are organic?
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90 percent
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Why can carbon form many organic compounds? (1)
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It has four electrons in its outer energy level, so it can form four covalent bonds with atoms of carbon or other elements.
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Why can carbon form many organic compounds? (2)
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It can link together with other carbon atoms in many different arrangements, like chains, branched chains, or rings.
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Why can carbon form many organic compounds? (3)
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It can form single, double, or triple bonds.
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Why can carbon form many organic compounds? (4)
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It can bond with atoms of other elements, such as hydrogen and oxygen.
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Hydrocarbons have ____ compounds.
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many
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How much energy used by humans do hydrocarbons produce?
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more than 90 percent
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Saturated hydrocarbons hold
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as many hydrogen atoms as possible
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Saturated hydrocarbons' boiling points
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increases with addition of carbon atom
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means all single bonds
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the suffix "-ane"
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The properties of isomers can
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vary a lot
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Melting points and boiling points
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decrease with more branching in the isomer.
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double bonds
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two carbon atoms share two electrons
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means double bond
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suffix "-ene"
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triple bonds
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two carbon atoms share three electrons
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means triple bond
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suffix "-yne"
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polyunsaturated hydrocarbon
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a hydrocarbon that has more than one double or triple bond
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benzene structure
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electrons are shared by all six carbon atoms in the ring
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An equal sharing of electrons in a benzene ring
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shows as alternating double and single bonds and causes the benzene molecule to be very stable
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organic acids
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hydrocarbons in which -COOH (Carboxyl) groups replace one or more hydrogen atoms in a hydrocarbon
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petroleum
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mixture of thousands of carbon atoms
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fractional distillation
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the process that uses the boiling point of oil to separate carbon compounds
question
Polymers can be made to
answer
have many different properties.
question
A polymer's properties depend on (1)
answer
which monomers are used to make the polymer
question
A polymer's properties depend on (2)
answer
the amount of branching in the polymer molecule
question
A polymer's properties depend on (3)
answer
how the polymer is shaped
question
Your body breaks down the proteins into their
answer
amino acid monomer
question
Your body then uses these amino acid monomers to
answer
make more proteins
question
Every amino acid contains the amine group, ____, and a carboxyl group, _____.
answer
-NH2, -COOH
question
Peptide bonds form between the
answer
amine group of one amino acid and the carboxyl group of another amino acid
question
Proteins are polymers of about
answer
100 or more amino acids linked by peptide bonds
question
nucleotides
answer
organic polymers formed from monomers
question
Nucleic acids control the
answer
activities and reproduction of cells
question
In human DNA, four nucleotides form two chains that twist together to form a
answer
double helix
question
Sugars provide
answer
quick energy soon after eating
question
Starches are polymers made of
answer
monomers of the sugar glucose
question
Glucose= C6H12O6
answer
C6H12O6
question
Cholesterol is used to
answer
build cell membranes
question
Saturated fats contain only
answer
single bonds between carbon atoms.
question
Unsaturated fats contain at least
answer
one double bond
question
If you ride your bicycle down a straight road for 500 m then turn around and ride back to where you started, your distance is _____ to your displacement.
answer
Greater than
question
Motion is a change in ______.
answer
Position
question
The speed you read on a speedometer is _______.
answer
Instantaneous speed
question
3 m/s north is an example of a ______.
answer
Velocity
question
The relationship among speed, distance, and time is _____.
answer
S=d/t
question
The equation used to find acceleration is ______.
answer
Vf-Vi/t
question
Inertia varies depending on _____.
answer
Mass
question
Newton's first law of motion is also called the law of ______.
answer
Inertia
question
The upward force on an object falling through the air is ______.
answer
Air resistance
question
The relationship among mass, force, and acceleration is explained by ______.
answer
Newton's second law of motion
question
A feather will fall through the air more slowly than a brick because of ______.
answer
Air resistance
question
In the absence of air, a penny and a feather that are dropped from the same height at the same time will ______.
answer
Fall at the same rate
question
According to Newton's second law of motion, _______.
answer
F=ma
question
When an object moves in a circular path, it accelerates toward the center of the circle as a result of ______.
answer
Centripetal acceleration
question
The size of the gravitational force between two objects depends on their _____.
answer
Masses and distance between them
question
When a force is exerted on a box, an equal and opposite force is exerted by the box. These forces are called ______ forces.
answer
Gravitational
question
In the equation p=mv, the p represents ______.
answer
Momentum
question
The statement "to every action they is an equal and opposite reaction" is _______.
answer
Newton's third law of motion
question
The unit of momentum is ______.
answer
Kg x m/s
question
A 300-N force acts on a 25-kg object. The acceleration of the object is _____.
answer
12m/s²
question
A 3000-N force acts upon a 200-kg object. The acceleration of the object is ______.
answer
15m/s²
question
The kinetic energy of an object increases as its _______ increases.
answer
Velocity
question
Increasing the speed of an object ______ its potential energy.
answer
Does not affect
question
The SI unit for energy is a _____.
answer
Joule
question
You can calculate kinetic energy by using the equation ______.
answer
KE (J)= ½ m (kg) x v² (m²/s²)
question
You can calculate gravitational potential energy by using the equation ______.
answer
GPE (J)= m (kg) x 9.8m/s² x h (m)
question
A slanted surface used to raise an object is an _____.
answer
Inclined plane
question
A device that does work with only one movement and changes the size or direction of a force is a ___.
answer
Simple machine
question
A bar that is free to pivot about a fixed point is a _____.
answer
Lever
question
The rate at which work is done is called _____.
answer
Power
question
The amount by which a machine multiplies an effort force is called the _____.
answer
Mechanical advantage
question
An inclined plane with one or two sloping sides forms a machine called a _____.
answer
Wedge
question
An inclined plane wrapped around a cylindrical post is a _____.
answer
Screw
question
The unit of power is the _____.
answer
Watt
question
Three of the following simple machines are basically the same: lever, pulley, wedge, wheel and axle. Which one does NOT belong?
answer
Wedge
question
A compound that is made up of only carbon and hydrogen atoms is _____.
answer
Hydrocarbon
question
A huge molecule made up of many smaller molecules is called a _____.
answer
Polymer
question
A polymer formed from amino acids is _____.
answer
Protein
question
Rubbing alcohol is a _______.
answer
Substituted hydrocarbon
question
An organic compound that has hydrogen and oxygen present in a 2:1 ratio is a ______.
answer
Carbohydrate
question
DNA is a ____.
answer
Nucleic acid
question
An organic compound that has a
answer
COOH group and -NH² group is an______. -Amino acid
question
The individual molecules that make up a polymer are called _____.
answer
Monomers
question
The structure of benzene can be best described as a ______.
answer
Ring
question
What explains why there are so many organic compounds?
answer
Carbon can form 4 covalent bonds.
question
How many electrons does a carbon atom have in its outer energy level?
answer
4
question
What is true about all aromatic compounds?
answer
They contain a benzene ring structure.
question
Which of the following:--CO,--NH²,--COOH,--OH, is a characteristic of an alcohol?
answer
-OH
question
Displacement includes both distance and direction.
answer
True
question
Motion occurs when there is a change in speed.
answer
False (position)
question
The relationship s=d/t can be used to calculate speed, distance, or time.
answer
True
question
Acceleration occurs when velocity changes.
answer
True
question
If you roll a ball up a hill it undergoes positive acceleration.
answer
False (negative)
question
When you push on a sled and it begins to go downhill, you cause positive acceleration.
answer
True
question
Acceleration is calculated by dividing change in motion by total time.
answer
False (velocity)
question
When the forces acting in an object are unbalanced, the net force is zero.
answer
False (balanced)
question
An object in motion at a constant velocity will change its motion only if a balanced force acts on it.
answer
False (unbalanced)
question
In a car crash, inertia could cause you to crash into the windshield.
answer
True
question
If you were trying to get out of the way of a storm, you would need to know the speed at which it was moving.
answer
False (direction)
question
The total distance traveled divided by the constant speed is the average speed.
answer
False (total time)
question
Gravity causes all falling objects to accelerate at a rate of 9.8m/s2.
answer
True
question
The momentum of a 5,000 kg truck that is standing still is greater than the momentum of a 3,000 kg truck that is also at rest.
answer
True
question
The terminal velocity is the highest velocity that will be reached by a falling object.
answer
True
question
Friction is a force that opposes motion between two surfaces that are touching each other.
answer
True
question
Energy is the ability to cause change.
answer
True
question
Energy is measured in m/s.
answer
False (joules)
question
Chemical energy travels from the Sun to Earth and is transformed into light energy by plants.
answer
False
question
As mass decreases, kinetic energy increases.
answer
False (increases)
question
Lowering the height of an object decreases its potential energy.
answer
True
question
The sum of potential and kinetic energy in a system is called the total energy.
answer
False (mechanical)
question
As an object falls, its potential energy increases.
answer
False (kinetic)
question
Energy in the form of motion is potential energy.
answer
False (kinetic)
question
A rock at the edge of a cliff has kinetic energy because of its position.
answer
False (potential)
question
According to the law of conservation of energy, energy can be created or destroyed.
answer
False (can't)
question
Energy that is stored is kinetic energy.
answer
False (potential)
question
Elastic energy is the total potential energy and kinetic energy in a system.
answer
False (mechanical)
question
Energy is measured in joules.
answer
True
question
A book sitting on a shelf has gravitational potential energy.
answer
True
question
When a machine is used to do work, the force applied by the machine is called the effort force.
answer
False (person)
question
Under certain conditions, it is possible to get more work out of a machine than you put in.
answer
False
question
Some machines don't multiply the force that is applied to them.
answer
False (no)
question
In order for work to be done on an object, the object must move.
answer
True
question
Work out will always be greater than work in.
answer
False (never)
question
In the formula w=fd, if you increase the "d" you can increase the "f".
answer
True
question
A machine can change the direction of the applied force.
answer
True
question
A peptide containing a large number of amino acids is called a lipid.
answer
False (protein)
question
Lipids control the production of DNA.
answer
False (nucleic acids)
question
When a peptide contains a large number of nucleic acids, the material is called a protein.
answer
False (amino)
question
A carbohydrate that contains ten hydrogen atoms also contains five oxygen atoms.
answer
True
question
To be healthy, a person should eat no lipids.
answer
False (some)
question
Most of the important biological compounds in your body are polymers.
answer
True
question
Compounds containing carbon are inorganic compounds.
answer
False (organic)
question
Starch is made up of the monomers of the sugar glucose.
answer
True
question
a compound that is made up only of carbon and hydrogen is called ______
answer
hydrocarbon
question
a hydrogen that has at least one double or triple bond is ___
answer
unsaturated
question
a huge molecule made up of many small molecules is called ______
answer
polymer
question
a polymer formed from amino acids
answer
protein
question
rubbing alcohol is a -
answer
substituted hydrocarbon
question
DNA is a
answer
nucleic acid
question
plastic is a
answer
polymer
question
cholestreol is a _____needed to build cell membranes
answer
lipid
question
an organic compound that has a -COOH group and a -NH2 group is an
answer
amino acid
question
the individual compounds that make up a polymer are called
answer
monomers
question
the structure of a benzene model is described as a
answer
ring
question
what explains why there are so many organic compounds
answer
carbon can form four covalent bonds
question
______ contains a benzene ring structure
answer
aromatic compound
question
how many electrons does a carbon atom has in its outer energy level?
answer
four
question
_____ account about 15% of your total body weight
answer
proteins
question
a slanted surface used to raise an object
answer
inclined plane
question
a device that does work with only one movement and changes the size or direction of a force
answer
simple machine
question
a bar that is free to pivot about a fixed point a. fulcrum b. lever c. ramp d. screw
answer
b. lever
question
the rate at which work is done is called _____ a. effinciecy b. effort force c. mechanical advantage d. power
answer
d. power
question
the amount by which a machine multiplies an effort force is called the _______ a. efficiency factor b. fulcrum c. mechanical advantage d. resistance force
answer
c. mechanical advantage
question
an inclined plane with one or two sloping sides forms a machine called _____ a. pulley b. lever c. ramp d. wedge
answer
d. wedge
question
an inclined plane wrapped around a cylindrical post is a ___ a. block and tackle b. lever c. ramp d. screw
answer
d. screw
question
how much work is done on a 150 kg box if 10 newtons of force is applied for 10m? a.100J b. 10J c. 5 N d. 1 N
answer
a.100J
question
a winding mountain road is an example of a(n)
answer
inclined plane
question
the unit of power
answer
watt
question
three of the following simple machines are basically the same. the one that does NOT belong with the group is the ___ a.lever b.pulley c.wedge d.wheel and axle
answer
c.wedge
question
the kinetic energy of an object increases as its ___ increases.
answer
velocity
question
increasing the speed of an object___its potential energy
answer
does not effect
question
the SI unit for energy is the ____
answer
joule
question
you can calculate kinetic energy by using the equation ___ a. KE (J) = m (kg) x 9.8 m/s2 x h (m) b. KE (J) = w (m) x h (m) c. KE (J) = 1/2m (kg) x v2 (m2/s2)
answer
c. KE (J) = 1/2m (kg) x v2 (m2/s2)
question
a bus engine travels chemical potential energy into ___so that the bus MOVES
answer
kinetic energy
question
in a nuclear fusion reaction, mass is transformed into____.
answer
energy
question
according to the law of conservation of energy, the total amount of energy in the universe _____
answer
remains constant
question
the upward force on an object falling through the air is ____
answer
air resistance
question
the relationship among mass, force, and acceleration is explained by ______
answer
newtons second law of motion
question
a feather will fall through the air more slowly than a brick becuase of _____
answer
air resistance
question
in the absence of air, a penny and a feather that are dropped from the same height at the same time will____
answer
fall at the same rate
question
according to newtons second law of motion, _____ a. F= m x a b. F= m x v c. F= p x a d. F= p x v
answer
a. F= m x a
question
the path of a projectile is
answer
curved
question
for any object, the greater the force that's applied to it, the greater its ___ will be.
answer
acceleration
question
the size of the gravitational force between two objects depends on the_____
answer
masses and the distance between them
question
when a force is exerted on a box, an equal and opposite force is exerted by the box. these forces are called
answer
centripetal forces
question
in the equation p = m x v, the p represents _____
answer
momentum
question
the statement "to every action there is an equal and opposite reaction" is ___
answer
newtons third law of motion
question
the unit of momentum is ____ a. kg x m b. kg x m/s c. kg x m/s2 d. m/s2
answer
b. kg x m/s
question
when two balls collide, the momentum of the balls after the collision is explained by ____
answer
law of conservation of momentum
question
a 300-N force acts on a 25-kg object. the accleration of the object is____ a. 7,500 m/s2 b. 300 m/s2 c. 25 m/s2 d. 12 m/s2
answer
d. 12 m/s2
question
a 3,000-N force acts on a 200-kg object. the acceleration of the object is ___
answer
15 m/s
question
if you ride your bicycle down a straight road for 500 m then turn around and ride back to where you started, your distance is______ your displacement a. greater than b. equal to c. less than d. can't determine
answer
a. greater than
question
motion is a change in _____
answer
position
question
the speed you read on a speedometer is______ a. instantaneous speed b. constant speed c. average speed d. velocity
answer
a. instantaneous speed
question
3 m/s north is an example of a
answer
velocity
question
the relationship among speed, distance, and time is ____
answer
s = d/t
question
a merry go round horse moves at a constant speed but changing _____
answer
velocity
question
inertia varies depend on _____
answer
mass
question
newton's first law of motion is also called the law of ____
answer
inertia
question
if the forces acting on an object at rest are _____, the object will remain at rest
answer
balanced
question
Odysseus left Penelope bound for what city?
answer
Troy
question
Odysseus is known for
answer
his tricks.
question
Who is the father of Odysseus?
answer
Laertes
question
How old is Telemachus at the start of the epic?
answer
Early twenties
question
Which goddess often assists Odysseus and Telemachus, and speaks up for them in the councils of the gods on Mount Olympus?
answer
Athena
question
Alies of the Trojans, great fighters on horseback, battled Odysseu's men in the first adventure
answer
Cicones
question
Why are the Lotus eaters dangerous?
answer
They take drugs and offer it to Odysseus' men.
question
Which plant makes the sailors forget their desire to return home?
answer
Lotus
question
Give the name of the Cyclop who was blinded by Odysseus.
answer
Polyphemus
question
Odysseus could trick Polyphemus by ...
answer
calling himself "Nobody"
question
Why does Poseidon despise Odysseus?
answer
Odysseus blinded his son.
question
The Laestrygonians
answer
are giants who eat humans.
question
Who transforms Odysseus's sailors into pigs?
answer
Circe
question
Who saved Odysseus from Circe's tricks?
answer
Hermes
question
Who does Odysseus wants to speak when he enters the Underworld?
answer
Tiresias
question
six headed monster with rows of serrated teeth that lives near Charybdis
answer
Scylla
question
Which monster does swallow the sea in a whirlpool?
answer
Charybdis
question
Who does Zeus send to rescue Odysseus from Calypso?
answer
Hermes
question
Hermes can fly because
answer
he has magic sandals
question
Of what did Odysseus's mother die?
answer
Grief
question
Who begs Odysseus to bury him?
answer
Elpenor
question
What does Tiresias warn Odysseus not to harm on his voyage?
answer
The cattle of the Sun
question
How is Odysseus able to listen safely to the Sirens' song?
answer
He has his men bind him to the ship's mast.
question
Who is the Keeper of the Winds?
answer
Aeolus
question
How long does Odysseus spend on Calypso's island?
answer
Seven years
question
How does Odysseus disguise himself to return to his family?
answer
An old beggar
question
Who is Argos?
answer
Odysseus's old dog
question
Give the name of the swineherd who helps Odysseus when he returns disguised to his family?
answer
Eumaeus
question
Eurycleia recognizes Odysseus based on what distinguishing feature?
answer
A scar on his leg
question
In Penelope's archery contest, through how many axes must Odysseus fire his arrow?
answer
twelve
question
Who is the leader of the suitors of Penelope? He plans to kill Telemachus.
answer
Antinous
question
How could Penelope put off her choice of a new husband?
answer
She weaves a dress which she unravels during the night. She refuses to marry again until the dress will be finished.
question
How does Penelope know that Odysseus is her real husband?
answer
He knows that their bedroom was made around a living olive tree.
question
What do the "firemen" do for a living? Why is this ironic?
answer
They burn houses which is ironic because originally a fireman's mission was to put out fires.
question
In the opening scene, why are the books compared to birds?
answer
The books are compared to birds because as the books are burning, they take "flight" to that of birds/pigeons that are nuisances.
question
According to pages 3-4, what does Montag think of his job?
answer
Montag thinks his job is entertaining and he enjoys what he does, so in all he loves his job.
question
Who does Montag meet on his way home?
answer
He meets Clarisse McClellan, a 17 year old girl, who knows awfully a lot more than what is expected of their society.
question
During his conversations, Montag says that " You never wash it off completely" referring to the kerosene. What could this mean symbolically?
answer
This could mean that once you burn something important like books, you can't exactly shake off the feelings after you've done it as it is the guilt of burning books and the houses that contain them.
question
Why do you think that Bradbury would introduce Clarisse before Montag's wife, Mildred?
answer
It is probably because Clarisse will be of more importance in the story and to show the differences in personalities of the two of them.
question
Why does Mildred need help when Montag gets home?
answer
Mildred needs help because she overdosed on sleeping pills and was completely passed out.
question
Describe the help that she receives.
answer
Two men hook up tubes that pump her stomach and extracts the pills as well as pumps new blood.
question
Is there anything unusual about the way the two men go about helping Mildred? How is it unusual?
answer
They are very impersonal about the ordeal. The men say this happens often and that the two aren't necessarily doctors but just operators.
question
How is life in Montag's house very different from that of Clarisse's house?
answer
In Montag's house, Mildred and Guy hardly ever talk or communicate in any way. Mildred is always in the "parlor" and Guy is often at work. At Clarisse's house, she and her family often talk and discuss things.
question
How does Mildred react after she wakes up from her previous night's experience?
answer
Mildred doesn't remember what had happened and feels as if she is having a hangover.
question
What does Mildred do all day?
answer
Mildred watches TV or listens to her music from her earpieces (seashells).
question
Describe the setup of Montag's TV room?
answer
There are four walls with a TV except for one that is just a plain wall.
question
What is Clarisse doing when Montag sees her on page 21?
answer
Clarisse is speaking to her uncle.
question
How is Clarisse different than Mildred?
answer
Clarisse is different from Mildred because she has thoughts about the world for what it really is unlike Mildred who doesn't really care.
question
What is the mechanical hound and what is its purpose?
answer
The mechanical hound is an eight-legged spider/dog and its purpose is to track down and find people who find books that is trained like an assassin.
question
What is the hound's reaction to Montag?
answer
The hound doesn't like Montag and acts coldly toward Montag.
question
Why does society consider Clarisse "anti-social"?
answer
Society considers Clarisse "anti-social" because she thinks differently and doesn't speak of the "normal" things in their society.
question
At the next fire, what does Montag take?
answer
Montag takes the books and hides them.
question
On page 40, Beatty reveals something very important about himself and his knowledge. What is it?
answer
Beatty knows information that is contained in books, indicating he has probably read books before.
question
What technology does Mildred use to go to sleep?
answer
Mildred uses earpieces/seashells.
question
Who is Mildred's "family?"
answer
Her "family" is the people at the parlor.
question
What has happened to Clarisse? How did it happen?
answer
She was hit by a car and killed.
question
What is unusual about the way Mildred told Montag about Clarisse?
answer
Mildred didn't show much remorse over the death of Clarisse and it was as if she was content with the death.
question
List three things Beatty talks about in his speech to Montag that are true about our world.
answer
a. He said that knowledge is slowly being lost because school is shortened and discipline is relaxed because people are worrying less. b. He said that the bigger the population, the more minorities which he says that most people don't want to offend other from different races and etc. c. He also said that if someone doesn't like a particular book, that they burn it which means if someone doesn't like it, they just get rid of it.
question
What human institutions are being criticized in this novel?
answer
It was colleges/universities.
question
What is Fahrenheit 451?
answer
Fahrenheit 451 symbolizes the temperature at which books burn.
question
What are Gregor's thoughts and impressions as he wakes up to find himself transformed into an insect?
answer
He seems a little surprised at first. He thinks he is dreaming, but soon realized he is not. He is very calm about the whole matter.
question
What kind of work did Gregor do before his metamorphosis?
answer
He worked as a traveling salesman.
question
What are Gregor's obligations to his family before his transformation into an insect?
answer
He had to pay off his parents' debt to his boss. He also had to pay the rent and all the bills.
question
What are some of the things that Gregor hopes for?
answer
He wants to quit his job, send his sister off to music school, to pay off his parents' debt, and to make his big break.
question
Who sends Grete to get the doctor? The locksmith?
answer
Gregor's mother sends Grete to get the doctor. Mr. Samsa sends the servant to get the locksmith.
question
How would you describe the chief clerk? (manager)
answer
heartless, all-business, doesn't care that Gregor is not well, cruel
question
What two contradictory goals does Gregor seem to be striving for throughout the story?
answer
He wants to live in isolation but wants connection to the outside world.
question
Why does Gregor finally decide to reveal himself to the chief clerk and his parents?
answer
He is desperate to stop the chief clerk from leaving and, thus, fire him. He wants to see his family's reaction: if they will be there for him even though he can no longer provide for the family.
question
How does the chief clerk threaten Gregor?
answer
The chief clerk threatens to fire Gregor. He then accuses him of stealing money from his previous day of work.
question
What is the chief clerk's reaction when he sees Gregor?
answer
He is shocked, horrified, and was too scared to turn his back to Gregor.
question
How do Mr. and Mrs. Samsa react when they see Gregor for the first time?
answer
Mr. Samsa - makes threatening fists toward Gregor but then starts to sob. Mrs. Samsa - begins to step forward but collapses
question
Why can't Gregor explain himself to the chief clerk?
answer
He, for one, could no longer talk. Even if there was no language barrier between him and the chief clerk, the chief clerk would not have been willing to listen.
question
What are some of the things Gregor tries to tell the chief clerk?
answer
Gregor tries to tell the chief clerk that the people at the office hate the traveling salesmen. He then tries to defend himself and attempts to tell him that he is responsible for all the bills, and, thus, if he looses his job, his family will suffer greatly.
question
Who knocks over the coffee pot?
answer
Mrs. Samsa knocks over the coffee pot when she falls.
question
What causes Mrs. Samsa to collapse to the floor?
answer
The sight of Gregor causes Mrs. Samsa to collapse to the floor.
question
How does Mr. Samsa force Gregor back into his room?
answer
Mr. Samsa uses a cane and rolled up newspaper to try to get Gregor back into his room. He also hisses and stomps as an attempt to scare Gregor.
question
What happens to Gregor as he is being shoved back into his room?
answer
As he is being shoved back into his room, Gregor hurts himself by getting stuck in the door (His father did not open both of the double-doors). His left side is one giant scar.
question
In what ways has Gregor been alienated from society?
answer
Gregor is isolated from society when his father slammed the door on him, separating him from the rest of his family. He has no friends because of his work schedule. The people he works with do not like him. His family has now shut him out because he is an insect.
question
How have the roles in the Samsa family changed?
answer
Gregor is no longer the care-taker. Now his parents must find ways to provided for themselves, Grete, and Gregor.
question
What is the major theme of the story?
answer
The major theme of the story is change.
question
Why doesn't Gregor drink the milk his sister leaves for him?
answer
Gregor does not drink the milk left by his sister, Grete, because he does not like the taste, since his appetite has changed.
question
Why does the household cook ask Mrs. Samsa to let her go?
answer
The household cook asks Mrs. Samsa to let her go because she finds Gregor terrifying.
question
Where does Gregor like to hide?
answer
Gregor likes to hide under the sofa, which is raised very high off the ground.
question
Who has assumed major responsibility for Gregor's life.
answer
Grete has now assumed major responsibility for Gregor's life.
question
Why did Gregor become a traveling salesman?
answer
Gregor became a traveling salesman because he had to pay off his parents' debt to his boss and also pay for the bills.
question
How do the Samsa's expect to live now that their son's source of income is lost?
answer
The Samsa's now must all find jobs. Mr. Samsa also has money he put aside but did not tell anyone about it until now. When Gregor would give his father his paycheck for the bills, Mr. Samsa would not tell him or anyone else that it was more money than necessary and would just keep it saved up for himself.
question
Why is Gregor so intent on sending his sister to the conservatory to study music?
answer
Gregor wants Grete to go to the music school so she can have a better future and follow her dreams.
question
In what ways are Gregor's physical powers declining?
answer
Gregor can no longer see far. He lost a leg because of his father. He can also no longer move his arm chair to where he wants it to be.
question
How has Grete's attitude and behavior toward Gregor changed?
answer
She has stopped thinking of Gregor as a person. She is no longer interested in him. She does not clean his room or feed him the only food he will eat. She is now impatient and indifferent toward him.
question
Why does Grete want to remove most of the furniture from Gregor's room?
answer
She wants him to have more room to climb around (which he is hardly able to do since he is missing a leg).
question
Why does Gregor cling to the picture of the woman in furs on the wall?
answer
The picture of the woman symbolizes his dreams and his last connection to humanity.
question
What causes Mrs. Samsa to faint on the sofa?
answer
She sees Gregor clinging to the picture of the woman on the wall and he scares her.
question
Why does Gregor run after Grete after his mother faints?
answer
Gregor wants to help his mother, even though he can't. Not being able to help her saddens Gregor because he is no longer the care-taker.
question
What kind of job has Mr. Samsa taken?
answer
Mr. Samsa has become a bank messenger.
question
Why doesn't Gregor recognize his father in his new uniform?
answer
His father is almost unrecognizable because of his change in attitude.
question
How does Mr. Samsa react when he first comes into the apartment and sees his wife lying on the floor?
answer
He is very angry and blames Gregor.
question
How does Mr. Samsa punish Gregor?
answer
Mr. Samsa throws a bunch of apples at Gregor.
question
Why does Gregor lose his consciousness?
answer
Gregor looses consciousness because an apple is embedded in his back, and the pain is so excruciating.
question
Who saves Gregor from certain death?
answer
Gregor's mother begs Mr. Samsa to stop throwing apples at him.
question
How has the balance of power in the Samsa household changed by the end of Part 2?
answer
Instead of Gregor having all the power in the house, Mr. Samsa is now in charge of everything.
question
How has Mr. Samsa's attitude toward Gregor changed at the start of Part 3, Division 1?
answer
Mr. Samsa is now more patient toward Gregor, but he also hides his feelings.
question
What kind of job does Mrs. Samsa have?
answer
Mrs. Samsa now sews underwear.
question
What kind of job does Grete have?
answer
Grete has become a salesgirl.
question
How is Grete trying to improve her prospects for the future?
answer
Grete is studying French and learning shorthand so she can get a good job soon.
question
How do you explain Grete's ambivalence toward Gregor?
answer
She both cared and didn't care about Gregor. She is used to living without him. She now looses freedom because she has to work.
question
Why does Grete become angry with her mother?
answer
She is mad because her mother is trying to clean Gregor's room (which was Grete's job), which made her feel guilty.
question
Who do the Samsas hire to clean Gregor's room?
answer
The Samsas hirer an older widow, who teases and is not afraid of Gregor, to clean his room.
question
Why do the Samsas rent a room to three men?
answer
The Samsas rent a room to three men because they can earn extra money and be distracted from Gregor.
question
How does Gregor feel when he hears the three men chewing their food at dinner?
answer
He feels alone and abandoned.
question
Why do the three lodgers threaten to sue Mr. Samsa?
answer
They are very upset about him misrepresenting his home and not telling them there is a bug living in another room.
question
What private thoughts does Gregor have of Grete when he hears her violin playing?
answer
He wants her to go into his room and play for him alone. He would want her to willing be in there and never be let out. Grete will be happy and kiss Gregor's neck. (Hero fantasy.)
question
Why does Grete want to get rid of Gregor?
answer
Grete sees Gregor as a burden.
question
How does Gregor feel once he is back in his room?
answer
He is calm and no longer in pain.
question
How would you describe the cleaning woman's responses to Gregor when she first comes into the house?
answer
She is mean but not grossed out. She is curious and messes with him.
question
Why does Gregor feel that Grete is right about his disappearing from everyone's life?
answer
He is isolated and feels like a burden. His death will cause the family to thrive.
question
Who discovers Gregor's body?
answer
The cleaning lady discovers Gregor's body.
question
Why does Mr. Samsa order the three lodgers out of his house?
answer
He didn't want the lodgers to see Gregor's dead body.
question
What do the Samsas plan to do the day of Gregor's death?
answer
They plan on taking a day off of work and have a nice walk.
question
In what sense is the story optimistic?
answer
The Samsa family is starting fresh.
question
Each verb has four principle parts -
answer
present, present participle, past, and past participle
question
What helps make these four principle parts all the verb's tenses and forms?
answer
helping verbs
question
How do you make a past and past participle of a regular verb?
answer
adding "-d" or "-ed"
question
How to form irregular verbs -
answer
1. present, past, and past participle are the same 2. past and past participle are the same 3. form past participle by adding "-n" or "-en" to past 4. change "i" in the present form to "a" for the past and "u" for the past participle 5. change vowel of present to form past, add "-n" or "-en" to present to form most past participles
question
indicate when an action or state of being occurs (past, present, or future)
answer
verb tenses
question
simple tense - present
answer
expresses an action as it happens, or that happens regularly
question
simple tense - past
answer
expresses an action that began and ended in the past
question
simple tense - future
answer
expresses an action that will begin in the future
question
present perfect
answer
expresses an action that was completed at an indefinite time in the past, or that started in the past and continues in to present (starts with "has" or "have")
question
past perfect
answer
expresses an action that occurred before another in the past (starts with "had")
question
future perfect
answer
expresses an action that will take place before another in the future
question
describes an ongoing action or state of being
answer
progressive form
question
present progressive
answer
describes an action or state of being in process
question
past progressive
answer
describes an action or state of being ongoing in the past
question
future progressive
answer
describes an action or state of being ongoing in the future
question
present perfect progressive
answer
describes an action or state of being that started in the past and continues in the present
question
past perfect progressive
answer
describes an action or state of being interrupted by another past action
question
future perfect progressive
answer
describes an action or state of being that will take place by a specific future time
question
"do" + verb; makes the verb more forceful
answer
emphatic form
question
when the subject performs the action
answer
active voice
question
when the action is received by the subject
answer
passive voice
question
passive voice is only used for -
answer
transitive verbs
question
indicates the status of the action or condition the verb describes
answer
mood
question
used to make statements and to ask questions
answer
indicative mood
question
used to express a wish or to state a condition that is contrary to fact, or for a command or request following the word "that"
answer
subjunctive mood
question
used to give a command or make a request
answer
imperative mood
question
avoid missing tenses by -
answer
1. using the same tense to express two or more actions that occur at the same time 2. (to show a sequence of past events) use past perfect or past progressive for oldest event and simple for most recent
question
confusing verb - lie, lay, lain
answer
to rest in a flat position
question
confusing verb - lay, laying, laid
answer
to place
question
confusing verb - rise, rising, rose, risen
answer
to go upward
question
confusing verb - raise, raising, raised
answer
to lift
question
confusing verb - sit, sitting, sat
answer
to occupy a seat
question
confusing verb - set, setting, set
answer
to put or place
question
confusing verb - leave, leaving, left
answer
to go away from
question
confusing verb - let, letting, let
answer
to allow
question
A verb must agree with its subject in -
answer
number.
question
Singular subjects take -
answer
singular verbs
question
Plural subjects take -
answer
plural verbs
question
form of verb must also agree with -
answer
person of its subject
question
singular indefinite pronouns -
answer
each, everyone, neither, nobody, another, anybody, anyone, something
question
plural indefinite pronouns -
answer
several, few, both, many
question
both singular and plural indefinite pronouns -
answer
some, all, most
question
A compound subject joined together by "and" requires a -
answer
plural verb
question
Compound subjects that act as a single unit take -
answer
singular verbs
question
Compound subjects preceded by "each," "every," or "many" take -
answer
singular verbs
question
When the parts of a compound subject are joined by "or" or " nor", the verb -
answer
should agree with the part closest to it.
question
names a group of people or things
answer
collective noun
question
When the members of a collective noun act as a unit, it takes a -
answer
singular verb
question
When the members of a collective noun act as individuals, it takes a -
answer
plural noun
question
Phrases or clauses that serve as subjects of sentences always take -
answer
singular verbs
question
Some nouns ending in "-s" appear to be ______ but they are ________ in meaning and therefore take a -
answer
plural, singular, singular verb
question
Nouns ending in "-s" name one thing but take -
answer
plural verbs
question
Numerical accounts and titles of art, literature, or music are considered -
answer
singular
question
Fractional numbers are ________ only if they refer to a ________ noun.
answer
singular, singular
question
When a relative pronoun is the subject of an adjective clause, it -
answer
agrees in number with its antecedent
question
inverted sentence
answer
the subject follows the verb or part of the verb
question
imperative sentence
answer
does not state the subject
question
In almost every sentence beginning with "here" or "there" -
answer
the subject follows the verb
question
In a sentence with a predicate nominative, the verb -
answer
must agree with the subject, not the predicate nominative
question
Personal pronouns change their forms depending on -
answer
how they function in a sentence
question
three cases of pronouns
answer
nominative - I, you, he, she, it, we, you, they objective - me, you, him, her, it, us, you, them possessive - my, mine, your, yours, his, her, hers, its, our, ours, their, theirs
question
use it when the pronoun functions as a subject or predicate nominative or as parts of a compound subject
answer
nominative case
question
takes the nominative case; it follows a linking verb and identifies the subject of the sentence
answer
predicate pronoun
question
use when the pronoun functions as a direct object, indirect object, object of a preposition, or part of a compound object
answer
objective case
question
personal pronouns that show ownership or relationships
answer
possessive case
question
possessive pronouns that can be used in place of a noun; can function as subjects or objects
answer
mine, ours, yours, his, hers, its, theirs
question
possessive pronouns that can be used to modify a noun or gerund; precede the noun or gerund it modifies
answer
my, our, your, his, her, its, their
question
case of "who" is determined by -
answer
the pronoun's function in the sentence
question
nominative "who"
answer
who, whoever
question
objective "who"
answer
whom, whomever
question
possessive "who"
answer
whose, whosever
question
"who" and "whom" can be used to -
answer
ask questions and to introduce subordinate clauses
question
In a question, "who" is used as -
answer
subject or predicate pronoun
question
"whom" is used as a
answer
direct or indirect object of a verb or as the object of a preposition
question
how to decide whether to use "who" or "whom" in a subordinate clause
answer
consider how the pronoun functions in the sentence. subject - who object - whom
question
a pronoun must agree with its antecedent in -
answer
number, gender, and person
question
the noun or pronoun that a pronoun refers to or replaces
answer
antecedent
question
If the antecedent is singular, -
answer
use a singular pronoun
question
If the antecedent is plural, -
answer
use a plural pronoun
question
used to refer to nouns or pronouns joined by "and"
answer
plural pronoun
question
A pronoun that refers to nouns or pronouns joined by "or" or "nor" should agree with -
answer
the noun or pronoun nearest to it
question
may be referred to by either a singular or plural pronoun
answer
collective noun
question
what a collective noun's pronoun depends on
answer
the meaning of the noun in the sentence
question
must be the same as the antecedent
answer
gender and person
question
masculine
answer
he, his, him
question
feminine
answer
she, her, hers
question
neutral
answer
it, its
question
must agree with the indefinite pronoun as an antecedent
answer
number
question
singular indefinite pronouns
answer
another, anybody, anyone, anything, each, either, everybody, every one, everything, neither, nobody, no one, one, somebody, someone
question
plural indefinite pronouns
answer
both, many, several, few
question
singular or plural indefinite pronouns
answer
all, any, most, none, some
question
how to know if indefinite pronoun is singular or plural
answer
use the meaning of the sentence
question
pronouns' relationship with appositives
answer
can be used with an appositive, in an appositive, or in a comparison
question
a noun or pronoun that follows another noun or pronoun to identify or explain it
answer
appositive
question
pronouns that are often followed by appositives
answer
we, us
question
how to determine whether to use "we" or "us"
answer
drop the appositive and determine whether the appositive is a subject (we) or an object (us)
question
A pronoun used in an appositive is in the same ____ as the _______________________
answer
case, noun to which it refers
question
What can be used to begin a clause?
answer
"than" or "as"
question
when words are left out of a clause beginning with "than" or "as"
answer
elliptical
question
how to determine the correct pronoun to use in an elliptical clause
answer
fill in the unstated words
question
pronouns ending in "-self" or "-selves"
answer
reflexive or intensive pronouns
question
reflexive and intensive pronouns are -
answer
never used alone
question
reflexive and intensive pronouns must -
answer
refer to or intensify, an antecedent in the same sentence
question
pronouns that cause general reference problems
answer
it, this, that, which, such
question
general reference problems occur when pronouns are used to refer to -
answer
a general idea rather than a specific noun
question
correct general pronoun problems
answer
adding a clear antecedent or by rewriting the sentence to eliminate the pronoun
question
occurs when the pronouns "it," "you," or "they" does not refer to a specific person or thing
answer
indefinite reference
question
correct indefinite reference problems
answer
rewriting the sentence to eliminate the pronoun
question
occurs when a pronoun could refer to two or more antecedents
answer
ambiguous reference
question
correct ambiguous reference problems
answer
rewrite the sentence to clarify what the pronoun refers to
question
words that describe or restrict the meaning of other words
answer
modifiers
question
modify nouns and pronouns
answer
adjectives
question
adjectives answer -
answer
"which one," "what kind," "how many," or "how much"
question
parts of speech that can be used as adjectives
answer
articles, nouns, participles, possessive nouns/pronouns, demonstrative pronouns
question
modify verbs, adjectives, and adverbs
answer
adverbs
question
adjectives answer -
answer
"when," "where," "how," or "to what extent"
question
use this when comparing two persons, places, things, or actions
answer
comparative form
question
positive form
answer
no comparison
question
comparative form
answer
two or more things
question
superlative form
answer
three or more things
question
how to form comparative form of one-syllable and two-syllable words
answer
adding "--er"
question
how to form superlative form of most one-syllable and two-syllable words
answer
adding "-est"
question
how to form comparative and superlative form of most modifiers with three syllables
answer
combine the regular form with the words "more" or "most"
question
how to make a negative comparison
answer
use "less" or "least"
question
avoid double comparison
answer
do not use both "-er" and "more" to form comparative; do not use both "-est" and "most" to form superlative
question
use these words to compare an individual with the rest of its group
answer
"other" and "else"
question
when making a compound comparison, -
answer
use "than" or "as" after the first modifier to avoid an incomplete comparison
question
adjective and predicate adjective; used to describe a condition in a positive way
answer
good
question
adverb and predicate nominative; means "healthy"
answer
well
question
adjective and predicate nominative; describes a condition in a negative way
answer
bad
question
a word or phrase placed so far away from the word it modifies that the meaning of the sentence is unclear or incorrect
answer
misplaced modifier
question
a word or phrase that does not clearly modify and noun or pronoun
answer
dangling modifier
question
two or more negative words used in a sentence to express a single negation
answer
double negative
question
No player can receive two consecutive services in the same game.
answer
True
question
When a player serves out of turn or from the wrong service court and wins the rally, a "let" is called.
answer
True
question
The server and receiver must stand within the serving and receiving court areas.
answer
True
question
In doubles, the receiver and the non-receiver can return the serve.
answer
False
question
Both the server and receiver must have both feet touching the floor until the serve is delivered.
answer
True
question
If in serving, the server misses the bird, there is a penalty and the serve cannot be taken over.
answer
False
question
At the point of contact on the serve, the head of the racquet must clearly pass below the server's hand.
answer
True
question
At the point of contact on the serve, the bird must be above the server's shoulder.
answer
False
question
Any bird that lands on a line, whether serving or during play, is out.
answer
False
question
The bird cannot be contacted by the receiving team until it has passed over the net.
answer
True
question
If the serve touched the net and lands in the proper service court, the receiving team earns a side-out.
answer
False
question
A player can touch any part of the net with his/her racquet or body.
answer
False
question
A player's follow-through is allowed to go over the net, as long as it does not touch the net.
answer
True
question
The court dimensions for a doubles match is 48'x24'.
answer
False
question
The height of the net should reach 6' in the middle.
answer
False
question
Badminton was introduced to the United States in 1878.
answer
True
question
The men's championship trophy is called the Thomas Cup.
answer
True
question
The women's championship is called the Uber Cup.
answer
True
question
Games are played up to 11 points.
answer
False
question
In doubles, the team that begins the match by serving is allowed two faults before loosing their serve.
answer
False
question
Pickle Ball is a narrowed down version of tennis that is played on a badminton court.
answer
True
question
Pickle Ball is played with a wooden paddle and a tennis ball.
answer
False
question
Pickle Ball originated in the summer of 1965.
answer
True
question
Pickle Ball was named after a dog.
answer
True
question
Pickle Ball is played on a court size of 20'x44'.
answer
True
question
The official paddles in Pickle Ball are made of either plastic or iron.
answer
False
question
When serving, the server must keep both feet behind the end line.
answer
False
question
The serve must be underhand with the paddle passing below the waist.
answer
True
question
The server may bounce the ball and then hit it.
answer
False
question
The serve must be made diagonally and bounced in the correct service court.
answer
True
question
If a server hits the net and the ball bounces in the correct service court, a "let" is called and the server gets one more chance to serve the ball into the correct service court.
answer
True
question
The team that begins the match is allowed 2 faults.
answer
False
question
To score a point, the team must serve.
answer
True
question
The only time teammates can change sides of the court is when their team scores a point.
answer
True
question
Volley means to hit the ball in the air before it bounces.
answer
True
question
A player may hit the ball in the air anywhere on the court.
answer
False
question
The ball may be played in the air only after the ball bounces twice (one time on each side of the court).
answer
True
question
The double-bounce rule means that the ball must bounce 2 times on one side of the net before it must be returned.
answer
False
question
A fault is called when the serve does not land within the proper service court.
answer
True
question
There are 4 Pickle Ball courts in the Rebel Dome.
answer
False
question
Identify the major physical characteristics of England.
answer
rural: green, rolling meadows, peaceful rivers, neat farms Highlands: band of hills, runs the length of the west coast, rock formations have been run down, difficult to farm Midlands: thick veins of coal, air dark from fumes from factory mills, highest population density Lowlands: slopes gently toward English Channel, low elevations, soft rocks because they break apart easily, soil is fertile, most productive farms, marine west coast climate, sheep and dairy and beef cattle
question
Explain why London became one of the world's greatest commercial and shipping centers.
answer
located on Thames River, Thames caused level of Atlantic Ocean to rise, result is estuary (a flooded valley at the mouth of a river), ships could sail directly to port, grew in 1500s because of changes in patterns in world settlement and trade, in late 1400s - improved ships and navigational devices allowed Europeans to push westward, location was ideal for trade
question
Describe how the Industrial Revolution affected Britain's economy.
answer
business owners built factories to produce manufactured goods to sell to Britain's colonies, first used water power to run spinning machines, switched to coal, major coal fields in Pennine mountain range, large reserves of iron ore (rocky material containing a valuable mineral), produced steel, Germany and United States ended Industrial Revolution, fallen upon hard times, coal supply was used up, now uses gas for power
question
Identify the major physical characteristics of Scotland.
answer
bears the mark of heavy glaciers that moved across the area during the last Ice Age Highlands: large high plateau, many lakes (called lochs), Grampian Mountains cut across region, coasts have inlets (called firths), inlets covered with moors (broad, treeless rolling plains), moors covered with bogs (areas of wet spongy ground), abundant rainfall, limited plant growth, shrubs,
question
What fueled the Industrial Revolution?
answer
coal resources in the Midlands
question
London became one of the greatest commercial and shipping centers in the world mainly because...
answer
ships could sail directly into its port
question
in contrast to the southern Uplands and the Highlands, the central Lowlands of Scotland..
answer
supports a higher percentage of the population
question
(t/f) Scotland has retained the parliamentary system.
answer
false
question
Heavy industries in Wales have declined since the mid-1900s because of the ...
answer
lack of modern technology
question
Most of the Nordic region has a mild marine west coast climate because...
answer
the warm currents of the North Atlantic Drift moderate the weather and keep the polar zones
question
One sixth of Ireland is covered by...
answer
peat
question
(t/f) Coal mining is a major activity in the Nordic nations.
answer
false
question
(t/f) The Nordic nations share a northern location, common religion, and related languages.
answer
true
question
What was a major result of the Industrial Revolution?
answer
exports of manufactured goods to the British colonies increased
question
(t/f) Agriculture is a major economic activity in Ireland, but not in Scotland and Wales.
answer
false
question
Compared with the land in the Highlands, the Lowlands region of England is....
answer
covered by more fertile farmland
question
London's relative location improved in the 1500s when...
answer
improvements in ships and navigation devices increased trade in the Atlantic
question
(t/f) The government of Ireland cut local taxes by 6.2%
answer
false
question
Scotland's lakes and rugged highlands were created by...
answer
the movement of glaciers
question
Ireland's basic landscape pattern consists of...
answer
hills ringing most of the coastline with a plain in the middle
question
(t/f) The way that Welsh economy changed in the late 12th century after a period of high unemployment, foreign investment brought new industries to Wales.
answer
false
question
(t/f) The Nordic countries share a Viking heritage, the same religion, and mixed economies and democratic systems.
answer
true
question
Because of the moderating effects of warm currents of the North Atlantic Drift, most of the Nordic religion has a...
answer
marine west coast climate
question
What is an important source of energy in Ireland?
answer
geothermal energy
question
What 2 French region lie in the south central and southeastern France?
answer
the Massif Central and the Alps
question
(t/f) Farming is the major activity in the Alps.
answer
false
question
(t/f) The heirs of Hugh Capet expanded the kingdom's boundaries to about those of modern France.
answer
true
question
In contrast to the way Germany was unified in the 1800s, the unification of Germany in the 1900s was the result of...
answer
pressure from the citizens
question
Where are Germany's most important industrial centers located?
answer
in the central part of the country
question
What resource-rich regions along the Rhine River lie in eastern France?
answer
Alsace and Lorraine
question
where is France's chief center of commercial industry located?
answer
in Paris and its surrounding area
question
In order to encourage national unity, the French government did what?
answer
established the French academy to preserve the purity of the French language
question
why is the Ruhr Valley important to Germany's economy?
answer
it produces most of Germany's iron and steel
question
In contrast to the way that Germany was unified in the 1900s, unification in the 1800s was the result of...
answer
the activism of the state of Prussia
question
In order to stimulate economic growth in recent years, the government of France...
answer
privatized some government owned businesses
question
What town north of Paris is an important industrial city for France?
answer
Lille
question
the region in southwest France is known for the production of what?
answer
wine grapes
question
Mont Blanc at 15,771 feet is the tallest peak in what mountain range?
answer
the Alps
question
By the time Charlemagne died in 1814, he controlled an empire known as what?
answer
Holy Roman Empire
question
2 Impressionist painters known as masters in the art world are...
answer
Auguste Renoir and Claude Monet
question
Immediately after Charlemagne's death, Germany...
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broke up into many small, rivaling, free states
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After World War 2, Germany was divided into ...
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2 countries
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What 2 bodies of water border Germany on the North?
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the Baltic and the North Sea
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The Holocaust was the murder of 6 million Jews and 6 million other people by who?
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Adolf Hitler
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France is divided from Switzerland and Italy by the ...
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Alps
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the crop that is use to make France's highly prized wine is what?
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grapes
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The French people overthrew their kings and set up republic in...
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1789
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The mountain range that separates France from Spain is called...
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Pyrenees mountains
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What did Hitler promise the people of Germany?
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He would restore Germany to its former glory and improve the economy.
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By 1949, Germany was divided into...
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West Germany and East Germany
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The capital of Germany is...
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Berlin
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the Berlin was built around...
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West Berlin
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During the 40 years of the wall's existence, in which region of Germany is Berlin located?
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Communist East Germany
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Why was the Berlin wall built in 1961?
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to keep East Berliners and East Germans from escaping into West Berlin
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the climate of Germany can be described as...
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Northern Germany's climate is mild due to the North Sea, and Southern Germany's climate is humid continental
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The quote, "God made the world, but the Dutch made The Netherlands" refers to...
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reclaiming land from the sea, lakes, and swamps
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(t/f) Relations between Belgium's 2 ethnic groups improved after the country gained its independence from the Netherlands in 1830.
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false
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Luxembourg has maintained a high standard of living by...
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changing from and economy once dominated by steel manufacturing to service industries and high-tech firms based economy
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Switzerland's cantons differ in language, religion, economic activities, but not...
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form of government
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(t/f) Switzerland has used Austria as a model for economic renewal.
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false
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(t/f) Dutch farmers fertilize heavily and use modern agricultural methods in order to make the best possible use of their land.
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true
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(t/f) Luxembourg has close cultural ties to Germany, France, and Belgium.
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true
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(t/f) Austria was part of Switzerland for many years.
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false
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(t/f) An abundance of mineral resources has enabled Swiss to develop.
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false
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(t/f) The Netherlands are so sparsely populated that the Dutch, by building Polders, have created large lakes for recreational use.
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false
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(t/f) In Belgium, strong cultural bonds have unified the Flemmings and the Walloons into 1 ethnic group.
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false
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(t/f) The Swiss are a French-speaking people with a unified culture.
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false
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(t/f) Austria and Hungary were separated into independent countries after the Austro-Hungarian empire collapsed after World War 1.
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true
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(t/f) From Normandy to the Riviera and from Bordeaux to the Alps, the economic activities and the landscape of France are the same throughout the country.
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false
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(t/f) The Benelux countries are the most densely populated in Europe.
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true
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Rotterdam and Amsterdam are port cities of Belgium.
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false
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(t/f) The Belgian Parliament has not yet begun to decentralize the government.
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false
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(t/f) Dikes were constructed when the Roman conquered the Netherlands.
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true
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(t/f) The Dutch only drink chocolate and the Swiss can only eat cheese with holes in it.
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false
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What landform separates the Iberian Peninsula from the rest of Europe?
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the Pyrenees
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(t/f) Spain's climate due to its elevation, the Meseta in central Spain has an extremely wet climate.
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false
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(t/f) The island of Crete was the center of Greek culture about 3,500 years ago.
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true
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How are Spain and Portugal alike?
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Both Spain and Portugal established colonial empires during the 15th century.
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(t/f) about the Northern region of Italy - About two thirds of Italy's factory products are made there.
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true
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Compared to 100 years ago, today Portugal...
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has many more African immigrants living in the country
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How has Italy's economy changed since 1950?
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more people are working in manufacturing and service industries
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(t/f) about the economy of Greece - Forestry is a major economic activity on the rugged mountain slopes of the country.
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true
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Ancient Greece is credited with influencing Western ideas about...
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democracy
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When did the unification of Italy begin?
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in the mid 1800s
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(t/f) about Greece's relationship with the sea - Greece relies on both the Aegean Sea and the Mediterranean Sea for irrigation.
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false
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Besides the Pyrenees, what other physical features isolate the Iberian Peninsula from the rest of Europe?
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steep coastal cliffs
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The economy of Spain has changed in recent years in what way?
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Transportation equipment is now the country's major export
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(t/f) about the island of Crete in the 1500s - It was invaded by people from the island of the Minos
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false
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(t/f) about Portugal - Portugal was the birthplace of the Renaissance.
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false
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(t/f) about Greece being a part of Mediterranean Europe - It won its independence from Turkey in 1830
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false
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Why have many Italians migrated to the north in recent years?
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to work in northern factories
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(t/f) about the Po River Valley - The region is the site of Italy's major cultural center.
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false
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(t/f) about the economy of Greece - Agriculture is an important part of the Greek economy.
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true
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(t/f) about Spain and Portugal - Both countries have large Basque-speaking regions.
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false
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(t/f) about ways Italy has changed - production of automobiles has declined since the 1950s
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false
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The 3 regions of Italy wee united...
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under the Roman Empire and not again until the mid-1800s
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What 2 bodies of water does the Iberian Peninsula separate?
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Atlantic Ocean and Mediterranean Sea
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What river flows in the southern region of Spain?
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Guadalquivir River
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In recent times, Spain's economy has
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shifted from agricultural to producing transportation equipment
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Why did King Philip II place Madrid the capital in its central location?
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to control people and resources in all parts of the nation
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The Basque province of Spain has argued for independence in the past. What other 2 nations that we have studied have also demanded independence?
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Belgium and Quebec
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What mountains cover the majority of Italy?
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Apennines
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The city of Bologna is...
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a leading agricultural center well known for its variety of foods
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Which of Italy's regions is often called Europeans Italy?
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Northern Italy
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(t/f) Rome was chosen as Italy's capital in the late 1800s because of the 3 reasons. All roads lead to Rome is one reason.
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false
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In Italian, how would one say "midday"?
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mezzogiorno
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What separates most of Greece from Peloponnese?
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Gulf of Corinth
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In Greek mythology, where did the gods live?
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Mt. Olympus
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An important economic activity in the Athenian suburb of Piraeus is
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shipbuilding
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(t/f) does this describe Athens? Athens is heavily populated.
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yes
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(t/f) Solidarity is the name of the Communist party in Poland.
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false
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(t/f) The Nazi slaughter of millions of civilians during WWII is called the Holocaust.
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true
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(t/f) Poland today is a multiethnic nation.
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false
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(t/f) A ghetto is an area of a city where a minority is forced to live.
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true
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(t/f) Most of Poland is covered by the North European Plain.
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true
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The majority of Poles are
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Roman Catholics
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Poland's natural resources include...
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coal, sulfur, copper, and open fields with fertile soil
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The Holocaust resulted in the destruction of most of Poland's...
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Jewish population
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From the late 1940s until 1989, Poland was controlled by a...
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Communist government backed by the former Soviet Union
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Poland's transition away from a Communist economy was marked at...
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sharp price increases and high unemployment
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(t/f) Collective farms are owned and operated by large corporations.
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false
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(t/f) Slovakia's economy has long been based on industry.
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false
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(t/f) The landscape of the Czech Republic is dominated by plateaus and mountains.
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true
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(t/f) Most Hungarians are descendants of the Magyars.
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true
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(t/f) The Czech Republic, Slovakia, and Hungary share Western outlooks and ways.
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true
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The economy of the Czech Republic is based on...
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industry
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Slovakia became an independent nation in1993 when it split with...
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the Czech Republic
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One of the most serious problems for facing the Czech Republic is...
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air and water pollution
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The landscape of Hungary consists of...
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a broad plain in the east and plateaus, hills, and valleys in the west
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The "breadbasket of Europe" is found in the fertile soil of...
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eastern Hungary
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(t/f) Since the end of Communist rule in the Balkans, the countries there have prospered peacefully.
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false
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(t/f) The Balkan Peninsula is divided into many small nations.
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true
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(t/f) Romania has fertile plains and mineral resources, yet its people are impoverished.
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true
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(t/f) Slovenia has a lower standard of living than the other Balkan nations.
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false
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(t/f) To balkanize is to break up into small, mutually hostile political units.
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true
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For 500 years, the people of the Balkans were ruled by the...
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Turks
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Bulgaria is known as the garden of Eastern Europe because...
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its summers are warm and its winters are mild
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In recent years, Albania has....
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rebuilt links with other nations
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Yugoslavia after WWII was...
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made up of 6 separate republics held together only by Communist rule
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The poorest of the Yugoslav republics before independence was...
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Macedonia
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to formally add into a country or state the territory of another
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annex
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capital of Byzantine Empire
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Constantinople
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to give variety to
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diversify
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capital of Ukraine
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Kiev
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site of 1986 nuclear disaster
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Chernobyl
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The 3 small nations along the eastern shore of the Baltic Sea are...
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Lithuania, Latvia, and Estonia
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(t/f) about the main physical features of the Baltic states. It is flat and covered with marshy lowlands
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true
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Why were the Baltic states part of the Soviet Union before it broke up in 1991?
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The Soviet Union forcibly annexed them after 1939
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What is Ukraine's major export to Russia and other nearby nations?
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food
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Moldova is a small, landlocked nation that...
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uses Romanian in its schools
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navigable
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deep and wide enough to allow ships to pass
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dry farming
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methods that leave land unplanted every few years in order to gain moisture
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siroccos
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hot, dry winds from northern Africa
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hub
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a central point of concentrated activity and influence
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seismic activity
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has many earthquakes and volcanic eruptions
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subsidence
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a geological phenomenon in which the ground in an area sinks
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Renaissance
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a great period of art and learning that started in Italy in the 1300s and was diffused throughout Europe
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grabens
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areas of land that have been dropped down between faults
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inhabitable
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able to support permanent residents
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tsunami
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giant sea wave
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kerosene
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a form of liquid fuel
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stolid
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impassive and unemotional
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phoenix
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a mythological bird that dies in a burst of flames and then is born again from the ashes
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salamander
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a mythical lizard, thought to be able to live in fire
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pedestrian
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a person who is walking
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marionette
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a puppet doll controlled by strings attached to each limb
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simile
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a comparison using "like" or "as"
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imperceptible
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so small as to be unnoticeable
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mausoleum
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a large, grand tomb or grave
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thimble
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a metal cap worn on the thumb to protect the skin from pin-pricks while sewing
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pulverized
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crushed to dust
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melancholy
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sadness
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hypnotic
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trance-like, producing the condition of hypnosis
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lozenge
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a dissolvable capsule containing medicine
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peculiar
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odd, strange, out of the ordinary
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kennel
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a dog house
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olfactory
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pertaining to the sense of smell
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proboscis
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nose
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incinerator
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a small hot fire used for garbage disposal
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abstract
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a form of non-representational art
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cricket
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fair play
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ravenous
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starving, hungry
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jargon
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technical words relating to a specific topic
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luminescent
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emitting light, glowing
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brittle
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frail, easily broken, delicate
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cataract
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a film over the eye, impeding sight
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phoenix
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a mythological bird who dies in a burst of flame and then is re-born from the ashes
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ruddy
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a red, flushed complexion
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centrifuge
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a device that spins a substance around so fast that it breaks up to its component parts
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pratfall
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a slapstick sight gag
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exploitation
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to use selfishly, take advantage of
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censor
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an official who prohibits certain language or content
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incinerator
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an extremely hot oven
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noncombustible
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something that cannot explode or ignite
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tactile
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the physical sensation of touching
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dike
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a dam
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insistent
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persisting, demanding
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organic compounds
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large numbers of compounds containing the element carbon
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hydrocarbon
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saturated or unsaturated compound containing only carbon and hydrogen atoms
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saturated hydrocarbon
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compounds, such as propane or methane, that contains only single bonds between carbon atoms
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isomers
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compounds with identical chemical formulas but different molecular structures and shapes
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unsaturated hydrocarbon
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compound, such as ethene or ethyne, that contains at least one double or triple bond between carbon atoms
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aromatic irony
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compound that contains the benzene ring structure and can have a pleasant or unpleasant odor and flavor
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substituted hydrocarbon
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hydrocarbon with one or more of its hydrogen atoms replaced by atoms or groups of other elements
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alcohol
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compounds, such as ethanol, that is formed when -OH groups replace one or more hydrogen atoms in hydrocarbon
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polymer
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new, huge molecule made up of mainly monomers linked together to form a long chain that can be spun into fibers and used for plastics
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monomer
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small molecule that forms a link in the polymer chain and can be made to combine with itself repeatedly
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polyethene
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polymer formed from a chain containing many ethylene units; often used in plastic bags and plastic bottles
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depolymerization
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process using heat or chemicals to break a polymer chain into monomers
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proteins
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large, complex, biological polymers formed from amino acids; make up many body tissues, such as muscles, tendons, hair, and fingernails
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nucleic acids
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essential organic polymers that control the activities and reproduction of cells
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deoxyribonucleic acid
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a type of essential biological compound that codes and stores genetic information, controls the production of RNA, and is found in the nuclei of cells
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carbohydrates
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group of biological compounds, such as sugars and starches, with twice as many hydrogen atoms as oxygen atoms
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lipids
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group of biological compounds that contains the same elements as carbohydrates but in different arrangements and combinations, and includes saturated and unsaturated fats and oils