PSU Safety Exam – Study Questions – Flashcards

1. In the event of a fire, the first consideration is?
A. Calling the fire department
B. Extinguishing the fire
C. Getting a safe distance away and warning others that are nearby
D. moving flammable materials away from the immediate area

2. Peroxide explosions are catalyzed by?
A. Water
B. Metals
C. Plastics
D. Most ionic salts

3. When collecting liquid oxygen in a cold trap, the trap should be kept free of?
A. Hydrocarbons
B. Water
C. D2O
D. Rare gases

4. Class D fire extinguishers are intended for?
A. Paper fires
B. Solvent fires
C. Electrical fires
D. Metal and metal hydride fires

5. Skin exposed to a strong acid or base should be:
A. Immediately flooded with water
B. Immediately covered with a gauze wrap
C. Immediately wiped dry with paper towels
D. Immediately neutralized with the complimentary substance

6. Hydrofluoric acid spills produce:
A. Fluorine gas requiring the are to be evacuated
B. Slow-healing painful skin burns
C. Nothing – the material is harmless
D. Yellowish stains on the skin

7. Floor drain traps should always be filled with water.
A. True
B. False

8. Slush baths with liquid nitrogen are discouraged because:
A. O2 will be condensed and concentrated in the bath
B. Liquid nitrogen can cause skin burns
C. They cause excess condensation of water vapor and this can become an electrical shock hazard
D. They require an OSHA approved Dewar which is different from the ones generally found in the chemical laboratory

9. KI in 10% HCL or H2SO4 is a test reagent for:
A. Mercury
B. Potassium cyanide
C. Benzene
D. Peroxides
E. Ethers

10. Health toxins may cause illness or injury by upsetting the body’s biological functions and/or damage to its biological structure.
A. True
B. False

11. It should always be assumed that any chemical mixture will be more toxic than its most toxic component.
A. True
B. False

12. Any common chemical neutralizer may be used to inactivate a hazardous substance that has been spilled.
A. True
B. False

13. A container marked “FLAMMABLE” means that the chemical inside:
A. Has a flash point of 100° F or less
B. Has a flash point of 100° C or less
C. Cannot be used under atmospheric conditions
D. Has a boiling point of 100° C or less

14. A flame arrestor is part of a safety storage can which:
A. Prevents a fire at the lip of the can from going down into the can
B. Prevents a fire from ever starting in a can
C. Is a temperature sensitive shutoff system which closes the can to smother a fire
D. Prevents a fire from coming out of the can

15. Which of the following should not be used to fight an alkali metal fire?
A. Isopropanol
B. MET-LX
C. Sand
D. Powdered graphite

16. Proper use of a fire extinguisher is to:
A. Aim at the base of the fire and keep the fire fighting material aimed at one spot
B. Aim at the highest point of the fire and work one’s way down to the base of the fire.
C. Aim at the base of the fire and sweep the fire fighting material around the base of the fire.
D. Shoot the fire material in short bursts so that the material has time to work on stopping the fire.

17. Which of the following types of organic compounds do not form peroxides?
A. Olefins
B. Ethers
C. Amines
D. Cyclic ketones

18. Which should not be done if chemicals are spilled over a large part of one’s body?
A. Remove contaminated clothing
B. Flood person with cold water for at least 15 minutes
C. Apply neutralizing chemicals
D. Wash with a mild detergent

19. Liquid nitrogen may be used to cool a combustible material in the presence of air.
A. True
B. False

20. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. When storing or moving a gas cylinder, the cap must be securely in place.
B. The cylinder valve may be lubricated with grease if it is hard to move.
C. Large cylinders must be strapped to a wheeled cart when being moved.
D. All cylinders must always be restrained by straps, chains, or a suitable stand.

21. Chemicals which act during pregnancy to produce a physical or functional defect in the embryo, fetus or offspring are called:
A. Carcinogens
B. Teratogens
C. Antigens
D. Halogens

22. If a person is in contact with a live electrical circuit, you should first:
A. Disconnect the power
B. Remove the victim
C. Call for help

23. If a fellow worker is bleeding severely and you are not trained in first aid, you should:
A. Run and get help
B. Apply a tourniquet
C. Apply a coagulant
D. Compress the wound with whatever is available

24. Which substance cannot be used unless there is adequate ventilation:
A. Ammonium hydroxide
B. Sodium hydroxide
C. Potassium hydroxide
D. Magnesium chloride

25. The Beilstein Test is for:
A. Alkylating agents
B. Halogens
C. Peroxides
D. the “oxygen balance” situation

26. Many peroxides which are handled in the laboratory are sensitive to shock
A. True
B. False

27. It is alright to use a metal spatula with peroxides.
A. True
B. False

28. Which of the following will not form peroxides upon long exposure to air:
A. Tetrahydrofuran
B. Isopropyl Ether
C. Cyclohexene
D. Cyclohexane

29. Amyl nitrite is an antidote for which type of poisoning?
A. Mercury
B. Cyanide and nitrile
C. Benzene
D. Methyl alcohol

30. Inert sorbent material may be used to cleanup spills of acids, bases or flammables.
A. True
B. False

31. Which of the following substances readily form peroxides on exposure to air and light?
A. Ethers
B. Alcohols
C. Carboxylic acids
D. Aromatics
E. None of the above

32. Which of the following statements regarding the proper procedures for vacuum operations is false?
A. Vacuum pumps should be equipped with belt guards
B. Large vacuum vessels should be taped or adequately shielded prior to use.
C. Any type of glassware can be used.
D. Exhausts from pumps should be vented into a hood.
E. A cold trap should always be placed between the apparatus and the pump

33. Which of the following procedures is unsafe?
A. Storing acid bottles in rubber carriers
B. Adding boiling chips before heating a liquid in unstirred vessels
C. Using a hot water or steam bath for vacuum distillation
D. Using cork stoppers for large separatory funnels
E. Diluting acids by pouring water into the concentrated acid

34. Which of the following substances should never be flushed down the drain?
1. Benzene 2. Ethanol 3. Potassium Nitrate 4. Lithium
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 3 and 4 only
E. 1 through 4

35. Which of the following substances react violently with potassium metal?
1. H2O 2. HCl (aq.) 3. THF 4. Mineral Oil 5. KCl (aq.)
A. All of the above
B. 1, 2, and 5 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 4, and 5 only
E. 1, 2, and 4 only

36. Which one of the following does not give off harmful vapors?
A. CCl4
B. CH3COOH (aq.)
C. PCl5
D. Br2
E. HCl (aq.)

37. Which one of the following substances is most suitable for oil baths?
A. Chlorinated aromatics
B. Peanut oil
C. Paraffin oil
D. Mineral oil
E. Silicone oil

38. What are appropriate reporting requirements?
A. Only accidents involving injury need be reported.
B. Fires must be reported except when a qualified fire department has been called in, which conducts its own investigation.
C. All accidents must be reported promptly to the Chemistry Department Office.
D. Injuries need not be reported if an attending physician submits a report.
E. Weekly reports must be submitted indicating whether any accidents have occurred.

39. Which of the following vision correction devices should not be worn in the laboratory under any circumstances?
A. Glasses with clip-on side shields
B. Goggles
C. Contact lenses
D. Sun glasses
E. Convex lenses

40. Select the oxide which is poisonous. It can endanger vision, and has a tendency to vaporize. This compound should always be handled under a hood.
A. Fe2O3
B. CuO
C. ZnO
D. OsO₄
E. CaO

41. To prevent explosions, aqueous solutions of diazonium salts should never be:
A. stirred
B. Evaporated to dryness
C. Irradiated with sunlight
D. Allowed to sit at room temperature
E. Brought in contact with polyethylene

42. Which of the following classes of compounds is generally considered to be carcinogenic?
A. Strong alkylating agents
B. Strong oxidizing agents
C. Strong dehydrating agent
D. Inert gases
E. Strong reducing agents

43. Which of the following compounds is notorious for forming peroxides on exposure to air?
A. Acetone
B. Diethyl ether
C. Diasomethane
D. Sebacic acid

44. Dry chemical fire extinguishers are suitable for which classes of fires?
A. Class A fires
B. Class B fires
C. Class C fires
D. Class A and C fires
E. Class A, B, and C fires

45. Working with salts of this metal can result in total loss of hair.
A. Thallium
B. Potassium
C. Sodium
D. Calcium
E. Iron

46. All laboratories should be equipped with which of the following?
1. Safety mask 2. Eye wash 3. Safety shower
4. First aid kit 5. Class D fire extinguishers
A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1, 3, and 4 only
C. 2, 4, and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only
E. All of the above

47. Skin contact with the following substance will not cause severe burns.
A. Dry ice
B. Glacial acetic acid
C. Acetone
D. Concentrated hydrogen peroxide
E. Liquid nitrogen

48. The risk of a flask imploding increases as the size of the flask used increases.
A. True
B. False

49. The Material Safety Data Sheet, or MSDS, must be accessible for every chemical used in the workplace.
A. True
B. False

50. Which of the following can be discarded down the sink?
A. Azides
B. Halogenated compounds
C. Combustible compounds
D. Benzene
E. None of the above

51. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Diazomethane is not dangerous as a pure liquid.
B. Diazomethane is not dangerous as a pure gas.
C. Heavy metal salts are explosive
D. Some azides can be discarded down the drain.
E. Liquid nitrogen and acetone make a very good slush bath

52. What is initially produced from the reaction of sodium metal and moisture in the air?
A. Nitrogen
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Hydrogen
D. Oxygen
E. Carbon dioxide

53. Place in order the following liquids with respect to their reactivity with potassium metal. (“~” means is about equal to):
1. t-butanol 2. water 3. mineral oil 4. methanol
5. heptanes
A. 3>1>2~5>4
B. 2>4>1>3~5
C. 2>4~1>5>3
D. 2>4~1>5>3
E. 1>4>2>3>5

54. Which of the following must be done when transferring diethyl ether from a previously opened 55 gallon drum to a 5 liter metal can?
1. Make sure area is well ventilated.
2. Electrically ground drum and can to prevent sparks.
3. Check bulk solvent for explosive peroxides.
4. Make sure area is free of open flames.
A. 1, 2, 4
B. 2, 3
C. 3
D. 1, 4
E. 1, 2, 3, and 4

55. A class D fire extinguished would be used on fires involving which of the following materials?
1. Hexane
2. Wood
3. Lithium Aluminum Hydride
4. Acetone
5. Oil spilled on a hot plate
6. Electrical system of a gas chromatograph
7. Paper in a plastic trash receptacle
8. Zirconium powder
9. Diethyl ether
10. Propane
A. 3 and 8
B. 1, 4, and 9
C. Only class A, B, and C extinguishers are in use today
D. 2 and 7
E. 6
F. All of the above materials; class D is an all-purpose extinguisher

56. Which of the following characteristics apply to the compound shown below?
1. Severe liver poison
2. Strong oxidizing agent
3. Highly flammable
4. Carcinogenic
5. May be explosive upon slight shock
6. May react explosively with organic matter
Benzene is:
A. 3 and 4
B. 3, 4, and 6
C. 1, 3, and 4
D. 1, 3, and 6
E. 4 only

57. Which of the following characteristics apply to the compound shown below?
1. Severe liver poison
2. Strong oxidizing agent
3. Highly flammable
4. Carcinogenic
5. May be explosive upon slight shock
6. Rapidly carries soluble material on skin and other solutes into the bloodstream
7. May react explosively with organic matter
CCl₄ is:
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 4
C. 1 and 5
D. 4 and 6
E. 3, 4, and 6

58. Which of the following characteristics apply to the compound shown below?
1. Severe liver poison
2. Strong oxidizing agent
3. Highly flammable
4. Carcinogenic
5. May be explosive upon slight shock
6. Rapidly carries soluble material on skin and other solutes into the bloodstream
7. May react explosively with organic matter
70% HClO₄ is:
A. 7 only
B. 2, 5, and 7
C. 2 only
D. 4 and 6
E. 1, 2, and 4

59. Which of the following characteristics apply to the compound shown below?
1. Severe liver poison
2. Strong oxidizing agent
3. Highly flammable
4. Carcinogenic
5. May be explosive upon slight shock
6. Rapidly carries soluble material on skin and other solutes into the bloodstream
7. May react explosively with organic matter
Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) is:
A. 3 and 5
B. 5 and 6
C. 3 only
D. 6 only

60. Which of the following characteristics apply to the compound shown below?
1. Severe liver poison
2. Strong oxidizing agent
3. Highly flammable
4. Carcinogenic
5. May be explosive upon slight shock
6. Rapidly carries soluble material on skin and other solutes into the bloodstream
7. May react explosively with organic matter
Diethyl ether is:
A. 1 and 6
B. 5 only
C. 1 and 5
D. 3 and 5

Administering 15-second inhalation intervals every 2 minutes of amyl nitrite is the proper treatment for a person who has been exposed to:
A. Chlorine gas
B. Cyanides or nitriles
C. Hydrogen sulfide
D. HF gas

After washing thoroughly with water, applying a compress of dilute thiosulfate solution is often used as a treatment for skin exposed to:
A. Ultraviolet light
B. Hydrogen sulfide
C. Nitriles
D. Bromine

Which of the following compounds are known for their tendancy to explode upon concentration and/or shock?
1. Picric acid
2. Perchloric acid
3. Diazomethane
4. Trinitrotoluene
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. All of the above
D. 2 and 3 only

64. Which of the following solvents is generally not considered to be a human carcinogen?
A. Carbon tetrachloride
B. Acetonitrile
C. Benzene
D. Hexamethylphosphoramide

65. A tetratogen is a substance which is known to cause:
A. Cancer
B. Mutations in organisms exposed to it
C. Anemia
D. Abnormal growth and development in a developing embryo or fetus

66. Which of the following solvents should never be dried over sodium metal?
A. Methylene chloride
B. Diethyl ether
C. Dioxane
D. Tetrahydrofuran

67. Waste column chromatography adsorbents should be disposed of by:
A. Incineration
B. Washing down the sink with plenty of water
C. Disposal through hazardous waste program
D. Discarded in plastic bags through the regular trash collection system

68. In an emergency situation in a Penn State Laboratory, which number should you call for campus emergency help?
A. 911
B. 777
C. 9-911
D. 110

69. Which of the following solvents should not be dried over lithium aluminum hydride?
1. Toluene 2. Acetonitrile 3. Tetrahydrofuran
4. Acetone
A. 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. All of the above can be dried over LAH

70. To avoid violent reactions while diluting solutions, always pour less concentrated solutions into more concentrated solution while stirring.
A. True
B. False

71. A solution should not be extracted until it is colder than the boiling point of the extractant solvent.
A. True
B. False

72. Which of the following is not considered to be an effective means of heat distribution during a vacuum distillation?
A. Heating mantle
B. Steam bath
C. Bunsen burner
D. Ceramic cavity heater
E. Oil bath

73. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal cooling liquid for dry ice?
A. Nonvolatility
B. Solubility in water
C. Nontoxic vapors
D. Ability to float dry ice
E. Nonflammable

74. What type of spatula should not be used with peroxides?
A. Ceramic
B. Wooden
C. Metal

75. Mercury spilled into floor cracks can be made nonvolatile by amalgamation with:
A. Iron dust
B. Nickel dust
C. Zinc dust
D. Copper dust

76. The most efficient method of extinguishing a fire is to aim the extinguisher at the apex of the flames
A. True
B. False

77. A gas cylinder should never be emptied completely; leave a slight pressure in it to keep contaminants out.
A. True
B. False

78. A federal Hazard Communication Standard is sometimes called the “Workers Right to Know” law and requires communication of information to workers about workplace hazards, as well as employee training to help prevent accidents or spills.
A. True
B. False

79. What are the four classes of hazardous chemical?
A. Corrosives, metals, reactives, health toxins
B. Corrosives, flammables, metals, health toxins
C. Corrosives, flammables, acids/bases, health toxins
D. Corrosives, flammables, reactives, health toxins

80.The Material Safety Data Sheet provides the following EXCEPT:
A. Provides detailed chemical, physical, and hazard information about chemical spills
B. Provided physical data along with the appearance and odor of the chemical so it can be easily identified
C. Indicates fire and explosion hazards as well as fire-fighting procedure
D. Indicates references concerning health hazards, toxicity limits, exposure limits, etc., so one can readily look them up

81. A container of a chemical from a manufacturer must be labeled with appropriate warning information with the name and the address of the manufacturer or importer only if it is a hazardous chemical.
A. True
B. False

82. Which is not a KEY source for learning about a chemical’s properties, hazards, or precautions?
A. Material Safety Data Sheet
B. Chemical labels
C. NRC’s Prudent Practices for Handling Hazardous Chemicals in Laboratories
D. Your freshman organic book

83. Eye protection is important whenever you handle a hazardous chemical. This may mean using safety glasses with sideshields, goggles, a face mask, or your prescription eyeglasses, depending on the situation.
A. True
B. False

84. Any kind of gloves will provide sufficient protection of the hands from hazardous chemicals.
A. True
B. False

85. Which statement concerning hoods is false?
A. The National Research Council recommends one hood for each two laboratory workers.
B. Hood performance should be confirmed before work is begun.
C. The hood may be kept open if no work is being performed.
D. The should be operating when you work with any volatile substance with a Threshold Limit Value of less than 50 parts per million.

86. The placement of chemicals in a hood has little or no effect on how effectively the hood eliminates vapors.
A. True
B. False

87. To dilute an acid safely, add water slowly to the acid to avoid a violent exothermic reaction.
A. True
B. False

88. Reactive chemicals undergo violent reactions under certain conditions. Some of these chemicals are:
A. Explosives, such as nitroglycerine and TNT
B. Compounds that polymerize readily such as butadiene
C. Neither A or B, as these are flammable hazardous chemicals
D. Both A and B are correct

89. Which component need not be present to start a fire?
A. The fuel (the flammable chemical)
B. The oxidizer (usually the air)
C. An Ignition source, supplies by spark, flame or heat
D. A reducing agent

90. The definition of flash point is:
A. The highest temperature at which a liquid produces sufficient vapor to ignite
B. The minimum temperature required to cause ignition
C. The maximum temperature required to cause ignition
D. The lowest temperature at which a liquid produced sufficient vapor to ignite

91. Some factors not affecting toxicity are:
A. Duration of exposure
B. Physical health of the person exposed
C. Sensitivity to the chemical
D. All these factors affect toxicity

92. Carcinogens cause growth of abnormal cells and are called cancer-causing agents. Which of the following is no carcinogenic?
A. Hexane
B. Asbestos
C. Benzene
D. Vinyl chloride

93. Toxins include:
A. Mutagens
B. Carcinogens
C. Teratogens
D. All of the above

94. After an accidental spill has occurred all of the below actions should be done EXCEPT:
A. Notify others in the lab and emergency personnel
B. Close off all ventilation especially if a carcinogen is spilled
C. Identify the substance in question
D. Remove sources of ignition if a flammable chemical is involved

95. The proper way to dispose of toxic or bad-smelling chemicals is to pour them down the drain at the end of the work period,
A. True
B. False

96. When is it permissible to consume food or beverages in a chemistry laboratory?
A. When the items are in factory-sealed packaging.
B. After all gloves and safety clothing have been removed.
C. When sitting at a carrel or desk.
D. Never. It is against University policy to eat or drink in a chemistry laboratory.

97. What is the best guideline to follow when storing chemicals?
A. Breakable glass containers should be kept close to the floor.
B. Liquids should be stored near sinks.
C. Chemicals should be stored alphabetically. They will be easier to locate in case of an emergency.
D. By compatibility. Flammables with flammables; oxidizers with oxidizers.

98. Proper emergency eye wash technique includes the following:
1. Flush eyes for at least 15 minutes.
2. Take a 60 second break every 5 minutes.
3. Use your fingers to open your eyelids.
4. Roll your eyeballs up and down while flushing.
5. After flushing, apply salve to the affected eye and seek medical attention.
A. All o the above
B. 1, 3, 4, and 5
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 1, 5