Flashcards – Filing of Protests
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6. Which of the following parties may NOT file a protest? A. The importer or consignee shown on the entry papers, or their sureties B. Any person paying or receiving a refund of any charge or exaction C. Any person seeking entry or delivery D. Any person filing a claim for drawback E. Any party to the entry of merchandise
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E 19 CFR 174.12(a)
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7. Goods are imported under a consumption entry on January 3, 2007. The liquidation of the entry was suspended under an antidumping investigation. On October 18, 2012, CBP liquidates the entry for a duty increase. Based on the above, how long must a broker maintain a consumption entry subject to an antidumping investigation? A. Until at least the entry liquidates B. For at least five years after the entry liquidates C. For at least three years after the entry liquidates D. For at least five years after the date of entry E. For at least five years after the date of creation of the entry
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D 19 CFR 163.4(a)(1)
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8. In instances where a transaction is in a foreign currency, CBP will use an exchange rate in effect on the date of _________ for conversion purposes. A. delivery to the importer B. examination by CBP C. exportation from the foreign country D. entry into the United States E. submission of the entry summary and duties owed
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C 19 CFR 152.1(c); 19 CFR 159.32
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9. Which of the following is NOT required information necessary to file a protest? A. The importer number of the protestant B. The date of the entry C. The shipping party and the bill of lading number D. A specific description of the merchandise affected by the decision as to which the protest is made E. The date of liquidation of the entry, or the date of a decision not involving a liquidation or reliquidation
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C 19 CFR 152.1(c); 19 CFR 159.32
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10. Which party is NOT qualified to be an importer of record on an entry? A. The purchasing agent B. The purchaser of the imported merchandise C. A nominal consignee D. A licensed customs broker E. The selling agent
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C Right to Make Entry Directive CD 3530-002A
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11. Merchandise owned by the Danish military will be imported to the United States from Denmark for a military exercise under DSP 61, license for temporary import of unclassified defense articles. The merchandise will be filed under Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) subheading 9809.00.40. The shipment will arrive at Long Beach seaport on a commercial vessel. Based on this scenario, which of the following is the importer of record required to pay? A. Merchandise Processing Fees only B. Duty only C. Harbor Maintenance Fees only D. Duty, Merchandise Processing Fees and Harbor Maintenance Fees E. The importer of record does not have to pay anything.
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C 19 CFR 24.24(c)(7); 19 CFR 24.23(c)(1)(i); HTS 9809.00.40
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12. The exemption from entry under General Note 3(e), HTSUS, for undeliverable articles, is subject to meeting specific conditions. Which of the following is NOT a requirement to support this exemption? A. Certification that the merchandise was intended to be exported to a foreign country B. Certification that the merchandise is being returned within 60 days of departure from the United States C. Certification that the merchandise did not leave the custody of the carrier or foreign Customs D. Certification that the merchandise is being returned to the United States because it was undeliverable to the foreign consignee E. Certification that the merchandise was not sent abroad to receive benefit from, or fulfill obligations to, the United States as a result of exportation
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B HTS General Note 3(e); 19 CFR 141.4(c)
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13. Any merchandise or baggage regularly landed, but not covered by a permit for its release, shall be allowed to remain at the place of unlading until the ____ calendar day after landing. No later than ____ calendar days after landing, the pilot or owner of the aircraft or the agent thereof shall notify CBP of any such merchandise or baggage for which entry has not been made. A. 5 th, 10 B. 10th, 15 C. 15th, 20 D. 15th, 30 E. 20th, 30
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C 19 CFR 122.50(a)
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14. A consignee, in whose name an entry summary for a consumption entry was made, would like to be relieved from statutory liability for the payment of any increased and additional duties. The consignee declares that he is not the actual owner of the merchandise. On what form shall he file the declaration of owner? A. CBP Form 3124 B. CBP Form 3173 C. CBP Form 3347 D. CBP Form 3461 E. CBP Form 3495
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C 19 CFR 141.20; 19 CFR 141.19(a)
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15 When the following merchandise is reimported into the United States, the payment of duties will be required on all EXCEPT: A. a vehicle previously exported out of the United States for personal use. B. wearing apparel sold to U.S. reseller. C. reimported merchandise where all duties were previously paid. D. food preparations used for restaurants. E. U.S. articles entered or withdrawn from warehouse for consumption in the name of an agency of the United States, without a certification.
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A 19 CFR 141.2, 19 CFR 148.32, 19 CFR 10.103
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60. Port code _________ is not a part of the Customs territory of the United States. A. 0401 B. 1701 C. 2402 D. 5102 E. 5503
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D 19 CFR 101.1; HTSUS Annex C, Schedule D
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61. What is the appropriate form used to file a protest with CBP? A. CBP Form 17 B. CBP Form 19 C. CBP Form 255 D. CBP Form 434 E. CBP Form 4455
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B 19 CFR 174.12(b)
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62. A Customs bonded warehouse proprietor must take a physical inventory of all merchandise in the warehouse, or periodic cycle counts of selected categories of merchandise. Merchandise must be counted at least _____________ each year. A. Once B. Twice C. Three times D. Six times E. Twelve times
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A 19 CFR 19.12(d)(5)
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63. Small Manufacturing Inc. imports aluminum sheets to be molded into air conditioning covers. The sheets were imported on July 3, 2011 under a Temporary Importation under Bond. What is the maximum amount of time (including extensions) that Small Manufacturing Inc. has to export the air conditioning covers? A. 1 year from the date of importation B. 2 years from the date of importation C. 3 years from the date of importation D. 4 years from the date of importation E. 5 years from the date of first extension
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C 19 CFR 10.37
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64. When filing an application for admission of merchandise into a Foreign Trade Zone, what form is used to apply for a zone status? A. CBP Form 214 B. CBP Form 214-A C. CBP Form 214B D. CBP Form 214C E. CBP Form 216
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A 19 CFR 146.32(a)(1); 19 CFR 146.41; 19 CFR 146.52(a)
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65. Which of the following pieces of information is not a required data element on an invoice of imported merchandise? A. A detailed description of the merchandise B. The name of the importing carrier C. The kind of currency D. The name of a responsible employee of the exporter E. The port of entry to which the merchandise is destined
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B 19 CFR 141.86
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66. Pursuant to drawback recordkeeping requirements, all records that pertain to the filing of a drawback claim shall be retained for a minimum of : A. 1 year from the date of shipment release B. 3 years from the date of shipment release C. 3 years after payment of drawback claim D. 5 years from the date of shipment release E. 5 years from the date of entry
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C 19 CFR 191.15
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67. What term is defined as the final computation or ascertainment of duties on entries for consumption? A. Reconciliation B. Final consumption C. Duty drawback D. Liquidation E. Entered merchandise
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D 19 CFR 159.1
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68. What is the appropriate entry type for quota merchandise with Anti-Dumping Duties/ Countervailing Duties withdrawn from a warehouse? A. Entry Type 21 B. Entry Type 22 C. Entry Type 31 D. Entry Type 32 E. Entry Type 38
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E CBP Form 7501 Instructions
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69. A Customs-Trade Partnership Against Terrorism (C-TPAT) Certified nominal consignee designates a C-TPAT Certified licensed customs broker to make entry on its behalf. What entity must appear as the importer of record on the entry? A. The freight consolidator acting on behalf of a client to handle customs matters B. The freight forwarder of the goods C. The carrier of the goods D. The licensed customs broker E. The nominal consignee
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D Customs Directive 3530-002A, Right to make entry 5.1.2, 5.1.3, 5.1.4, 5.2.1, 5.3.2, 5.9.1
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46. Bowles Japan is importing certain stainless steel pipes and tubes of heat-resisting steel under 7304.59.2030. This merchandise is subject to antidumping duties. Ryan's Limited Brokerage services Bowles Japan and has permits in the Districts of Anchorage and Philadelphia. The merchandise is being shipped to its selling agent, Junior Queen (located in Baltimore, Maryland), who has no financial interest in this transaction. At the nominal consignee's request, the shipment is diverted to New York for entry. Ryan's Limited Brokerage is in possession of a valid power of attorney (POA) from the Grantor, authorizing other Customs brokers to make entry. Ryan's Limited Brokerage creates a sub agency POA with Jackson Brokerage, who is only permitted in the District of New York. Who should file the entry? A. Ryan's Limited Brokerage B. Jackson Brokerage C. The nominal consignee D. Junior Queen E. None of the parties
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46 B 19 CFR 111.2(b)(1)
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47. If not associated with an outstanding transaction, what is the timeframe that an Importer Identification Number shall remain on file, from the date on which it was last used on Customs Form 7501 (Entry Summary) or a request for services? A. 90 Days B. 1 year C. 3 Years D. 5 Years E. Indefinitely
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47 B 19 CFR § 24.5(e)
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48. A shipment of pesticides or devices shall be detained at the importer's expense, pending an examination by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) Administrator to determine if the shipment complies with the requirements of the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act. However, a shipment detained for examination may be released to the consignee prior to a determination by the EPA Administrator, provided a bond is furnished for the return of the merchandise to Customs custody. Who would determine the bond amount? A. An Import Specialist B. A customs officer/inspector C. A broker D. A port director E. A representative from the EPA
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48 D 19 CFR 12.115
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49. Whose bond is liable when merchandise is delivered directly to a container station from an importing carrier? A. Bonded Warehouse B. Broker C. Container Station D. Importer E. Importing Carrier
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49 E 19 CFR 19.44(a)
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50. Michael & Sons Brokerage has permits in the Districts of Atlanta, New Orleans, and Los Angeles. Michael & Sons Brokerage service a German bearing manufacturer that ships merchandise subject to antidumping duties to its affiliated U.S. incorporated selling agent that is located at the Port of Long Beach, California. The selling agent has no financial interest in the commercial transaction. At the nominal consignee's request, the shipment of bearings is diverted to Norfolk, Virginia for entry. Michael & Sons Brokerage is in possession of a valid power of attorney (POA) from the Grantor, authorizing other Customs brokers to make entry. Michael & Sons Brokerage creates a sub agency POA with Bill Johnson Brokerage, who is only permitted in the District of New Orleans. Who should file the entry? A. Michael & Sons Brokerage B. Bill Johnson Brokerage C. The nominal consignee D. U.S. selling agent E. None of the parties
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50 E Scenario: Michael & Sons Brokerage has local permits only (not a National Permit)
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51. How many days following the date of release from CBP custody are textile and textile products deemed conditional? A. 30 B. 60 C. 90 D. 150 E. 180
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51 E 19 CFR 141.113(b)
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52. What is the appropriate entry type for the relocation of unreleased merchandise from the Port of Seattle to the Port of Pembina? A. Entry type 01 B. Entry type 06 C. Entry type 52 D. Entry type 61 E. Entry type 63
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52 D CF 7501 Instructions, Page 2
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53. When importing commodities that are regulated under the Toxic Substances Control Act, a certifying statement must be presented prior to release, unless the importer has a blanket certification on file with CBP. Which citation outlines the reporting requirements for a blanket certification? A. 19 CFR 12.110 B. 19 CFR 12.112 C. 19 CFR 12.121(a) D. 19 CFR 12.121(a)(2)(ii)(A) E. 19 CFR 12.123(a)
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53 D 19 CFR 12.121(a)(2)(ii)(A)
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54. Entries subject to payment of Anti-dumping/Counter-vailing duties (AD/CVD) and various fees must indicate the applicable fees and collection codes on the CBP Form 7501. What are the collection codes for the following fees: Pecan, Potato, Blueberry, and Avocado? A. 499, 496, 311, and 500 B. 501, 500, 496, and 311 C. 107, 106, 090, and 057 D. 108, 106, 103, and 090 E. 104, 079, 057, and 056
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54 C CF 7501 Instructions, Page 20
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55. When the U.S. International Trade Commission finds that a bond that is used in conjunction with the entry of merchandise involves unfair practices or methods of competition, the bond limit shall be fixed in what amount? A. Three times the total entered value of the merchandise. B. Ten percent of the total entered value of the merchandise. C. Fixed at an amount to cover the accelerated payment of duty, taxes, and fees. D. At the whim of the Commission. E. Two hundred percent of the total entered value of the merchandise.
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55 D CD 3510-004:
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56. Jack Sprat Imports, a nominal consignee, desires to generate an entry for a shipment. Which of the following is the appropriate entry processing procedure? A. Jack Sprat Imports can file an entry as a nominal consignee. B. Jack Sprat Imports can file an entry as a nominal consignee for the importer of record. C. Jack Sprat Imports can have a broker file an entry for them, listing Jack Sprat Imports as importer of record. D. Jack Sprat Imports can file an entry as the importer of record. E. Jack Sprat Imports can have a broker file an entry for them if the broker is listed as the importer of record.
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56 E CD 3530-002A, 5.1.3
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57. Who is the ultimate consignee for merchandise that is released but not sold or consigned? A. The overseas shipper B. The storage facility administrator C. The carrier D. The broker E. The importer
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57 B CD 3550-079A, 6.3
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58. What is the bond limit for imported flammable fabrics? A. Three times the total of the duty, taxes, and fees. B. Three times the value of the merchandise. C. Three time the value of the merchandise plus the total of the duty taxes, and fees. D. The entered value of the merchandise plus the total of the duty, taxes, and fees. E. The bond limit shall be fixed in an amount the port director may deem necessary.
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58 B CD 3510-004, Page 4, item f
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59. Which of the following surety codes is utilized in the preparation of an entry when government securities are used? A. 000 B. 001 C. 888 D. 998 E. 999
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59 D 7501 Instructions, Block 4 (Surety No.)
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60. An in-bond transaction consists of three mandatory air-in-bond initiation/deletion (QX) records. The in-bond records that make up the transaction must be transmitted to CBP in ascending order, with certain segments repeated as often as necessary. Which of the following conditions must be met before an in-bond will be accepted? A. The carrier must have transmitted the bill prior to the transmission of QX data. B. The QX filer must be set to operational for entry summary. C. Brokers may participate if they establish the required communication link. D. Freight forwarders may participate if they procure suitable software. E. Non-brokers may participate if they are able to extract QX records.
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60 A CATAIR, Air In-Bond Initiation/Deletion All received credit
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61. A Courtesy Notice is issued when what occurs? A. A protest is resolved. B. Insufficient funds are received for an entry summary. C. A rejected entry/entry summary is received in proper form. D. Liquidation of an entry. E. Closure of a temporary importation under bond (TIB) entry.
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61 D CATAIR Courtesy Notice
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25. When can a broker be listed as an ultimate consignee on a formal entry? A. The ultimate consignee has not been determined the importer, and the broker is not the owner of the merchandise B. The delivery destination of the merchandise has not yet been determined by the importer C. There is no known U.S. buyer and the accompanying documentation shows the broker's premises as the delivery location for the merchandise D. The merchandise is owned by a foreign company and the location of the delivery for the merchandise is unknown E. The merchandise is going be exported through another port
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C CD 3550 079A (section 7.1)
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26. What is the correct entry type code for a warehouse withdrawal with a quota/visa and antidumping/countervailing duty (AD/CVD) combination? A. 02 B. 03 C. 22 D. 38 E. 23
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D 7501 instructions block 22
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27. Which one of the following nonresident principals may import their merchandise into the U.S. Customs territory? A. A Brazilian corporation importing electronic generators through the port of Laredo, Texas. B. A Cuban exile, residing in Dominican Republic and importing cigars (of Cuban origin) into the district limits of Miami, Florida. C. A U.S. corporation that is incorporated in the state of Delaware, importing automobile parts. D. A German corporation that has provided to their agent (a Customs broker) a power of attorney absent the service of process statement. E. A Chinese vendor, a legal partnership, importing medical supplies into the U.S. Virgin Islands.
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A 19 CFR 141.13, 101.1, 141.31, 141.36, 141.3, and HTS GN2
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28. What information is not required on a commercial invoice furnished with the entry, before release of the merchandise is authorized? A. A description of the merchandise B. The value of the merchandise C. The name and complete address of the foreign individual or firm responsible for invoicing the merchandise D. The in-bond number assigned at the U.S. port of unlading E. Quantities of the merchandise
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D CFR 19 142.6
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29. An importer places an order for beer steins in Germany on January 1, with a manufacturer, Gregor International GmbH ("Gregor"), who demands payment in Euros. The Euros are wire transferred to Gregor in Germany and received by Gregor on January 3. The steins are exported to the United States on January 4, by ship, and arrive at the CBP Port of Entry in New York on January 10. An entry summary is filed on January 17. Which date is used for conversion of the Euros into U.S. dollars for CBP purposes? A. January 1 B. January 3 C. January 4 D. January 10 E. January 17
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C 152.1(c) and 159.32
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30. Which of the following is not an acceptable format for reporting an IRS, social security, or a Custom and Border Protection (CBP) assigned number for the consignee on CBP Form 7501? A. NN-NNNNNNN B. YYDDPP-NNNNN C. NNN-NN-NNNN D. NNNNN-YYDDPP E. NN-NNNNNNNXX
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7501 instrustions block 22
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28. Transfers of merchandise to the Customs territory for transportation to and exportation from a different port of importation will be made using which Customs and Border Protection Form? A. CBP Form 7512 B. CBP Form 301 C. CBP Form 3461 D. CBP Form 3499 E. CBP Form 6043
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28. A 19 CFR 146.67(c)
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30. When a commercial sales transaction is quoted in a foreign currency, the date used for conversion purposes is: A. the date the goods were sold. B. the date the goods were packaged. C. the date payment is transferred from the buyer to the seller. D. the date the goods were exported from the country of export to the U.S. E. the date the goods were imported into the U.S.
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30. D 19 CFR 152.1(c) & 19 CFR 159.32
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31. Your client intends to submit an Importer Security Filing (ISF). You advise them that the ___________, ____________, and ___________ must be linked to one another at the line item level for shipments intended to be entered into the U.S. Customs territory. A. vessel name, country of lading the vessel, and the tenth digit harmonized tariff schedule number B. unique Customs Trade Partnership Against Terrorism identifier, country of exportation, and buyer C. Standard Carrier Alpha Code (SCAC Code), city code, and entry summary number D. manufacturer (or supplier), country of origin, and the sixth digit harmonized tariff schedule number E. manufacturer identification number, importer of record number, and consignee number
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31. D 19 CFR 149.3 (a)
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32. Which of the following is NOT an invoice requirement? A. An adequate description of the merchandise B. The quantities of the merchandise C. The values or approximate values of the merchandise D. An attached sample of the merchandise E. The name and complete address of the foreign individual or firm who is responsible for invoicing
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32. D 19 CFR 142.6 & 19 CFR 141.86
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36. Broker A has permits in the Districts of Los Angeles, New York, and Dallas. Broker A services a Chinese widget manufacturer that ships merchandise subject to antidumping duties to its affiliated U.S. incorporated selling agent that is located at the Port of Long Beach, California. The selling agent has no financial interest in the commercial transaction. At the nominal consignee's request, the shipment of widgets is diverted to San Diego for entry. Broker A is in possession of a valid power of attorney (POA) from the Grantor, authorizing other Customs brokers to make entry. Broker A creates a sub agency POA to Broker B who is only permitted in the District of New York. Who would be the importer of record? A. Broker A B. Broker B C. the nominal consignee D. U.S. selling agent E. none of the parties
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36. E 19 CFR 143.43(b), Directive 3530-002A
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37. Merchandise subject to a countervailing duty order for which entry is required must be entered within: A. five working days after landing from an ocean vessel. B. five calendar days after arriving from an aircraft. C. ten calendar days after arriving from a vehicle. D. seven calendar days after arriving from a railroad car. E. fifteen calendar days after arrival at the port of destination in the case of merchandise transported in bond.
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37. E 19 CFR 141.5
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38. A broker may be listed as an ultimate consignee on a formal entry if: A. the ultimate consignee has not been determined by importer, and the broker is not the owner of the merchandise. B. the delivery destination of the merchandise has not yet been determined by the importer. C. they own the merchandise, or there is no known U.S. buyer and the accompanying. documentation shows the broker premises as the location to which the merchandise is to be delivered. D. the merchandise is owned by a foreign company and the location of the delivery for the merchandise is unknown. E. the merchandise is going be exported through another port.
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38. C Directive 3550-079A
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39. Which of the following is required for the importation of raw cane sugar from the Dominican Republic? A. Special Indicator "E" B. Special Indicator "J" C. Certificate of Quota Eligibility D. Certificate of Origin E. Centrifugal Form
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39. C HTSUS Chapter 17, Additional U.S. Notes 5(b)(iv)
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40. Fish are caught by a Norwegian flagged vessel in international waters off the coast of Portugal. The fish are kept either whole or filleted on board. The fillets are sent to England, where they are seasoned, battered, and pre-fried. What is the country of origin of the battered fillets? A. Portugal B. England C. Norway D. European Union E. Spain
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40. B 19 CFR 134.1(b)
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41. Using the information below, construct the manufacturer identification number. Sanford and Sons Junkyard 114 Fender Avenue Unit 1490 Cashew City, Bermuda A. BMSANSON114CAS B. BMSANSON1490CAS C. SANSON114CASBM D. CASSANSON1490BM E. BMSANAND1490CAS
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41. B Directive 3550-055
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42. The underscoring of a NAFTA trade classification rule subdivision designation in General Note (GN) 12(t) indicates which of the following: A. The underscoring in GN 12(t) should be disregarded if the good is a motor vehicle of chapter 87 or will be used in a motor vehicle of chapter 87. B. If the underscore applies to the classification of your goods then the valuation rules that apply are those found in Title 19 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 181 Appendix Section 6. C. The underscoring bears no significance unless it is found that the goods do not qualify for NAFTA. D. If the good is a motor vehicle of chapter 87 or will be used in a motor vehicle of chapter 87 then the valuation rules that apply are those found in 19 CFR 181 Appendix Section 9 or Section 10. E. If the good is a motor vehicle of chapter 87 or will be used in one, then the GN 12(c) valuation rules must be used.
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42. D 19 CFR Appendix Sections 9 & 10 GN 12(d) and GN 12(t)
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43. Metal eyeglass frames are manufactured in Korea. The manufacturing process includes production of all metal parts, welding the parts together and polishing the eyeglass frames. The products from Korea are assembled and shaped metal eyeglass frames, including the temple tips and nose pads. All items are then shipped to Germany where the frames are plated, the country of origin is printed on the temple, the temple tips and nose pads are assembled onto the frame and the frame (without lenses) is packaged and prepared to be shipped to the United States. What is the country of origin and appropriate marking of metal eyeglass frames manufactured in Korea? A. Country of Origin Korea / "Made in Korea" B. Country of Origin Germany / "Frames made in Germany" C. Country of Origin Korea / "Frames made in Korea" D. Country of Origin Germany / "Made in Germany" E. Country of Origin Korea / "Frames made in Germany"
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43. C 19 CFR 134.41(b)
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44. Which of the following is NOT an additional commercial invoice requirement? A. Aluminum and alloys of aluminum classifiable in 7601.10.60, 7601.20.60, 7601.20.90 or 7602.00.00 require a statement about the amount of percentages by weight of any metallic element contained in the article. B. Copper articles classifiable in 7404.00.60, 7408.19.00, 7412.10.00 or 7410.11 require a statement of percentage of the copper content and all other elements by weight to articles classifiable according to the copper content. C. Steel classifiable in heading 7308 requires a mill test certificate. D. Ferrosilicon manganese requires a mill test certificate. E. Used aluminum beverage container scrap is subject to the requirements of additional invoice requirements.
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44. C 19 CFR 141.89
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45. The importation of goods into the U.S. Virgin Islands is governed by the: A. Virgin Islands law B. U.S. Customs and Border Protection C. U.S. Department of the Navy D. U.S. Department of the Interior E. Secretariat of the Caribbean Community (CARICOM)
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45. A 19 CFR 7.2(c)
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46. What is the timeframe for merchandise permitted for removal from a foreign trade zone for importation? A. Within 5 business days B. Within 30 business days C. Within 90 business days D. Within 120 business days E. None of the above
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46. A 19 CFR 146.71(c)
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1. A shipment of barley seeds arrives to the United States from Canada. The seeds are to be sold and exported to Mexico however Mexico refuses entry and the importer of record abandons the seeds. The barley seed shipment is stored in a bonded warehouse for six months without an entry being filed. The seeds are inspected by the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) and are found to be not in compliance with USDA laws/regulations. The warehouse proprietor must take the following action: A. Move the shipment to a foreign trade zone. B. Make arrangements to destroy the seeds. C. Advise the importer to sell the shipment immediately and forfeit any profit to U.S. Customs and Border Protection for any expenses incurred. D. Enter the seeds for use in a spice marinade for Memphis barbeque. E. Plant the seeds at the back of the warehouse and add fertilizer.
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1. B 127.28(a) and 158.41
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2. When there is a net difference of less than ______ between the total amount of estimated duties, fees, taxes and interest assessed in the liquidation of any entry (other than an informal, mail, or baggage entry) and the total amount of estimated duties, fees, and taxes deposited, including any supplemental deposit, the difference shall be disregarded and the entry will be endorsed "as entered." In the case of an informal, mail, or baggage entry, the amount of duties, fees, and taxes computed by a CBP officer when the entry is prepared by, or filed with, him/her shall be considered the liquidated assessment. A. $20.00 B. $25.00 C. $30.00 D. $40.00 E. $50.00
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2. A 159.6(a)
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3. Which date is used when converting foreign currency? A. Date the merchandise is imported B. Date the merchandise is sold C. Date the monies are transferred from the buyer to the seller D. Date the entry summary is filed and duties are paid E. Date the merchandise is exported
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3. E 159.35 and 159.1(c)
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4. Input the data received from a prospective client's completed CBP Form 5106 into U.S. Customs and Border Protection databases in conformance with Customs Directive 5610-002 Standard Guidelines for the Input of Names and Addresses into the Automated Commercial System (ACS) Files. The relevant data is: Far East Exports, L.L.C. doing business as Oriental Surprise 1040 Sugar Maple Drive Suite 200A Davidsonville, Maryland U.S.A. 21035 A. Far East Exports LLC dba Oriental Surprise 1040 Sugar Maple Dr/#200A Davidsonville MD 21035 B. Oriental Surprise 1040 Sugarmaple Dr./200A Davidsonville MD 21035 C. Far East Exports LLC dba Oriental Surprise 1040 Sugar Maple Dr Ste 200-A 21035 Maryland Davidsonville D. Far East Exports dba Oriental Surprise 1040 Sugar Maple Dr/200A Davidsonville MD 21035 E. Far East LLC 1040 Sugar Maple Dr/#200-A Davidsonville MD 21035
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4. A Customs Directive 5610-002
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5. Imported cargo arrives at the Port of Mobile on January 28th. The importer files proper entry documentation on January 30th, without making requests on the entry documentation. The entry was processed on January 31st and merchandise was authorized for release on July 1st. The entry summary must be filed within ______ : A. 10 working days after the date of arrival. B. 10 calendar days after the date of entry documentation filing. C. 10 calendar days after the date of filing the CBP Form 3461. D. 10 calendar days after the date of processing the entry. E. 10 working days after the date of CBP's release authorization.
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5. E 142.12(b) and 142.23
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6. If an importer submits duties and fees to a broker for payment to CBP after the monies are due, the broker must do which of the following? A. Submit the monies to CBP the same day. B. Submit the monies to CBP within 5 working days of receipt from the importer. C. Submit the monies within 5 calendar days of receipt from the importer. D. Submit the monies within 10 calendar days of receipt from the importer. E. Advise the importer that he/she is no longer liable for duties and fees owed CBP.
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6. B 111.29(a)
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7. ___________ are eligible for drawback. A. Antidumping duties B. Countervailing duties C. Liquidated damages D. Voluntary tenders of duties after liquidation. E. Merchandise Processing Fees.
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7. D 191.3(b) and 191.3(A)(1)(a)(4)
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8. When ball or roller bearings are classified under subheading 8482.10.50 through 8482.80.00 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States what additional information is required on the invoice? A. certificate of origin B. breakdown on component materials C. type of bearing D. the production lot number E. grams per circumference
answer
8. C 141.89(a)
question
9. Imported cargo arrives at the Port of Mobile on January 28th. The importer files proper entry documentation on January 30th, without making requests on the entry documentation. The entry was processed on January 31st and merchandise was authorized for release on July 1st. The entry summary must be filed within ______ : A. 10 working days after the date of arrival. B. 10 calendar days after the date of entry documentation filing. C. 10 calendar days after the date of filing the CBP Form 3461. D. 10 calendar days after the date of processing the entry. E. 10 working days after the date of CBP's release authorization.
answer
9. E 142.12(b) and 142.23
question
10. A customs broker may be listed as an ultimate consignee on a formal entry if ________. A. The ultimate consignee has not been determined by importer, and the broker is not the owner of the merchandise B. The delivery destination of the merchandise has not yet been determined by the importer C. They own the merchandise, or there is no known U.S. buyer and the accompanying documentation shows the broker premises as the location to which the merchandise is to be delivered D. The merchandise is owned by a foreign company and the location of the delivery for the merchandise is unknown E. The merchandise is going be exported through another port
answer
10. C Customs Directive 3550-079A
question
11. Polyethylene retail carrier bags (plastic bags) are manufactured and shipped from the People's Republic of China (PRC) to Panama. The bags do not undergo any manufacturing or processing in Panama. Subsequently, the bags are shipped via air to Miami, Florida. What duties, taxes and/or fees will be due when the entry summary is filed within the Miami District when the plastic bags are subject to an antidumping duty order from the PRC? A. Only the merchandise processing fee (MPF) because Panama qualifies for duty exemption under the Caribbean Basin Economic Recovery Act (CBERA). B. Zero. C. The MPF, ad valorem duty and the assigned antidumping duty cash deposit rate. D. Only the harbor maintenance fee (HMF). E. The MPF and the assigned antidumping duty cash deposit rate for the exporter/manufacturer.
answer
11. C 10.195 and 24.24
question
12. The correct classification of the aforementioned plastic bags in question 11 is ___________ A. 3901.20.1000 B. 3921.90.4000 C. 3923.21.0085 D. 3925.90.0000 E. 3926.90.2100
answer
12. C Eo Nominee
question
13. The Toxic Substance Control Act (TSCA) is __________: A. used to control all toxic substances B. used to govern the importation of chemical substances in consultation with the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) C. regulated by the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) D. is no longer in effect E. has not been established by Congress yet.
answer
13. B 12.118
question
14. The TSCA requires a certificate to be filed ___________ . A. at the convenience of the importer B. with the entry summary C. after summary is accepted D. prior to the importation of the merchandise with the Customhouse broker E. with the director of the port of entry prior to the release of the shipment
answer
14. E 12.121
question
15. NBC Bonded warehouse has had a final warehouse withdrawal of merchandise relating to a specific warehouse entry on December 3, 2010. The warehouse proprietor must review the permit file folder to ensure that all necessary documentation is in the file folder accounting for the merchandise covered by the entry; notify CBP of any merchandise covered by the warehouse entry, general order or seizure that has not been withdrawn or removed; and file the permit file folder with CBP no later than________, unless there is an exemption to the submission requirement granted at the discretion of the port director. A. January 2, 2011 B. January 19, 2011 C. December 08, 2010 D. December 17, 2010 E. December 31, 2010
answer
15. A 19.12(c ) and (d)
question
16. The licensed individual qualifying a corporation's broker license leaves the corporate brokerage. What is the maximum period before which the corporate brokerage must replace the licensed individual before the corporation's broker license will be revoked? A. 60 days B. 90 days C. 120 days D. 150 days E. 180 days
answer
16. C 111.45(a)
question
17. Bills resulting from dishonored Automated Clearinghouse House transactions are due within ____ days of the date of the issuance of the bill. A. 10 B. 15 C. 30 D. 45 E. 90
answer
17. B 24.3(e)
question
18. How long after the date of entry for consumption is an importer of record required to retain records normally kept in the ordinary course of business pertaining to the importation of merchandise? A. 180 days B. 1 year C. 2 years D. 4 years E. 5 years
answer
18. E 163.4(a)
question
1. If the merchandise has not been sold or consigned to a U.S. party at the time of entry or release, then the ultimate consignee at the time of entry or release is defined as _____ . A. The exporter B. The proprietor of the U.S. premises to which the merchandise is to be delivered C. The resident agent D. The shipper E. The freight forwarder
answer
1 B CD 3550-079A
question
2. Which is the CORRECT timeframe for an abatement or refund of duties to be made in the case of injury to, or destruction of, merchandise in a bonded warehouse due to accidental fire or other casualty? The accidental fire or other casualty must occur within: A. 1 year from the date of importation B. 1 year from the date of the warehouse entry C. 3 years from the date of importation D. 3 years from the date of the warehouse entry E. 5 years from the date of importation
answer
2 C 19 CFR 158.21(a)
question
3. All of the following classes of merchandise, classifiable under the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States require additional information on invoices presented at the time of entry summary, EXCEPT: A. Bags manufactured of plastic sheeting B. Earthenware or crockeryware C. Gloves D. Spirits and vinegar E. Wearing apparel
answer
3 D 19 CFR 141.89(a)
question
4. In general, merchandise forwarded under a Customs and Border Protection (CBP) Form 7512 may be diverted to any port other than the port named in the entry _____. A. at the option of the consignee or agent B. prior approval from the Port Director at the originating port C. prior approval from the Port Director at the intended port of diversion D. only after the carrier reports the in-bond arrival at the original port of destination E. only if the intended diverted in-bond shipment contains textiles or textile products
answer
4 A 19 CFR 18.5(a)
question
5. A shipment of fresh cheddar cheese, classified under HTS 0406.10.2400, arrives in Los Angeles on December 28, 2010. An immediate transportation entry was accepted at Los Angeles on December 29, 2010. The merchandise arrives at Dallas/Ft. Worth on December 31, 2010. The entry is filed in Dallas/Ft. Worth, without entry summary, on December 31, 2010, and no entry date is requested on the submitted entry documentation. Customs and Border Protection authorized the release of the merchandise on January 3, 2011. The entry summary is submitted in proper form, with duties attached, on January 10, 2011. What is the date of entry? A. December 28, 2010 B. December 29, 2010 C. December 31, 2010 D. January 3, 2011 E. January 10, 2011
answer
5 E 19 CFR 132.1, 141.68(d), Chptr. 4, Additional U.S. Note 18
question
6. Which entry type code is excepted from liquidation? A. 01 B. 02 C. 11 D. 21 E. 23
answer
6 E 19 CFR 159.2
question
7. Transit air cargo traveling to a final port of destination in the United States shall be delivered to Customs and Border Protection at its destination within ___ days from the date the receiving airline gives the receipt for the cargo at the port of arrival. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 E. 30
answer
7 C 19 CFR 122.119(b)
question
8. A broker receives a written demand from Customs and Border Protection for the production of certain entry records. The demand is not being made in connection with a determination regarding the admissibility or release of merchandise. The broker shall produce the entry records within ______ of receipt of the demand. A. 5 working days B. 10 business days C. 30 calendar days D. 35 calendar days E. 90 calendar days
answer
8 C 19 CFR 163.6(a)
question
9. Which criteria below is NOT an eligibility requirement for remote location filing (RLF)? A. RLF entry must be secured with a continuous bond B. The licensed broker must have a national permit C. The licensed broker or importer of record must be operational in the Electronic Invoice Program prior to applying for RLF D. The licensed broker must submit line release or immediate deliver entries under RLF E. The licensed broker or importer of record must be operational on the Automated Broker Interface (ABI)
answer
9 D 19 CFR 143.44(e)
question
10. A shipment of merchandise valued at $3,000 arrived from Toronto to port code 5210. The consignee wants to admit this merchandise into a Foreign-Trade Zone at district port code 5203. Which Customs and Border Protection (CBP) Form would be the proper document to file in order to move this merchandise? A. CBP Form 214 (Application for Foreign-Trade Zone Admission and/or Status Designation) B. CBP Form 7512 (Transportation Entry and Manifest of Goods Subject to CBP Inspection and Permit) C. CBP Form 6043 (Delivery Ticket) D. CBP Form 7523 (Entry and Manifest of Merchandise Free of Duty) E. CBP Form 434 (North American Free Trade Agreement Certificate of Origin)
answer
10 B 19 CFR 143.23(d) and 18.10
question
11. A domestic express consignment courier, who is an unlicensed person and possesses no financial interest of the imported merchandise, may engage in which of the following role and/or responsibility? A. Engage in "Customs business" B. Serve as the ultimate consignee C. Act as the nonresident importer of record D. Act as the Customs broker E. Obtain a valid power of attorney from an importer
answer
11 E CD 3550-079A
question
12. Quick Freight Logistics, Inc. is an express consignment operator who is also a licensed person and only permitted within the Customs and Border Protection (CBP) Districts of Dallas, Houston, and El Paso. Quick Freight Logistics, Inc. intends to make entry for its customer, West Texas Drilling, of a shipment from Mexico subject to an antidumping duty order at the Port of Laredo. Using the aforementioned narrative, Which of the following is the CORRECT way to advise the broker? A. A remote location filing of the entry may be made at the Port of Dallas instead of Laredo B. Quick Freight Logistics, Inc. may act as the importer of record and make entry on its behalf at the Port of Laredo C. Quick Freight Logistics, Inc. may file a CBP Form 7501 with CBP at the Port of Laredo D. Quick Freight Logistics, Inc. may be identified as the importer of record on CBP Form 3461 and not on the CBP Form 7501 E. As the licensed broker, Quick Freight Logistics, Inc. may not file a CBP Form 3461 within the District limits of Laredo
answer
12 E 19 CFR 111.19
question
13. An incorporated and physically domiciled internet company in the United States specializes in purchasing patio furniture. The company places consolidated orders with its overseas vendor to fill orders placed by the internet's individual customers located throughout the United States. The ultimate consignee is _____. A. The overseas vendor B. The overseas shipper C. The internet company D. An individual customer of the internet company E. The U.S. freight forwarder
answer
13 C CD 3550-079A
question
14. A foreign business entity may NOT be the ultimate consignee _____. A. For entries wherein the entered merchandise is valued at $1,999 B. When the vehicle registered by and used on behalf of the entity takes part in races in Daytona, Florida, is temporarily imported under the Harmonized Tariff Schedule 9813.00.35 C. And the nonresident importer of record when the U.S. agent is not authorized to accept service of process against the nonresident importer by means of the power of attorney D. When the commercial invoice identifies the merchandise as new pneumatic tires, of rubber for use on motor cars with a value of $2,000 E. When a Customs assigned number is used on a temporary importation entry for contest sail boats
answer
14 D CD 3550-079A
question
15. What is the entry type code for a duty deferral entry? A. 04 B. 05 C. 08 D. 09 E. 12
answer
15 C CBP Form 7501 Instructions1
question
16. A proprietor of a bonded warehouse may be required to furnish a new bond on Customs Form 301 on how many days notice from the port director? A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 30 E. 45
answer
16 A 19 CFR 19.2(e)
question
1. Which article is an exception from the requirements of country of origin marking? A. Screw driver B. Ceramic cups C. Christmas trees D. Paper book E. Plastic picket fence
answer
1 C 19 CFR 134.33
question
2. Entry summaries subject to anti-dumping and/or countervailing duty cases (ABI and nonABI) may be rejected _____ without supervisory approval following the summary filing date. A. Up to 10 business days B. Up to 30 calendar days C. Up to 30 business days D. Up to 60 calendar days E. Up to 90 calendar days
answer
2 D Customs Directive 3550-067
question
3. For purposes of determining country of origin, all of the following are considered to be "textile or apparel product" except: A. 3005.90.1000 B. 6302.51.3000 C. 6406.10.7200 D. 6502.00.4000 E. 6601.10.0000
answer
3 C 19 CFR 102.21(a), 19 CFR 102.21(b)(5), 19 CFR 102.22(a)
question
4. Which form shall be presented to CBP to obtain release of a shipment of pesticides? A. DS form 2031 B. EPA form 3520-1 C. DOT form HS-7 D. EPA form 3540-1 E. FCC form 740
answer
4 D 19 CFR 12.112-113
question
5. U.S. Company A places an order with an overseas shipper and then sells the goods to U.S. Company B in a domestic transaction prior to the importation. The invoice issued by the overseas shipper states "sold to: U.S. Company A" and "ship to: U.S. Company B." The consignee on the bill of lading is U.S. Company B. Who is the ultimate consignee for this formal entry? A. The overseas shipper B. The broker C. The carrier D. U.S. Company A E. U.S. Company B
answer
5 D Customs Directive 3550-079A
question
6. When must a Toxic Substances Control Act ("TSCA") certification be filed for a bulk shipment of chemical substances? A. The first business day of the month B. At entry summary C. A TSCA certificate is no longer required for any shipment D. Before release of the shipment E. Anytime after release but before entry summary
answer
6 D 19 CFR 12.121(a)(1) and (a)(2)(i)
question
7. Which of the following would satisfy the country of origin marking requirement for an importation of a food product labeled "Spanish Tortilla," which is made in Spain and distributed by an importer in Los Angeles, California?A. Distributed by Importer, Los Angeles, California - Spain B. Made in Espana C. Product of the USA D. Distributed by Importer, Los Angeles, California - Product of Spain E. Spanish Tortilla's distributed by Importer, Los Angeles, California
answer
7 D 19 CFR 134.46
question
8. What Federal government entity is responsible for issuing laws and regulations governing merchandise prohibited by economic sanctions? A. Department of State B. Customs & Border Protection C. Office of Foreign Assets Control D. Foreign Claims Settlement Commission E. Department of Commerce
answer
8 C 19 CFR 12.150
question
9. _____ will establish locations at which exporters must present the required documentation and the vehicles for inspection, and will also publicize these locations, including their hours of operation. A. Supervisory Import Specialists B. Supervisory CBP Officers C. Port Directors D. Supervisory Entry Specialists E. Assistant Directors of Trade
answer
9 C 19 CFR 192.2(d)
question
10. If an importer of record would like to have bills, refunds, and notices of liquidations (including notices of extension or suspension of liquidation) mailed in care of his/her agent, an accepted identification number for the agent should appear in the box labeled _____ on the CBP Form 7501.A. Importer Number B. Broker/Filer Information C. Consignee Number D. Reference Number E. Ultimate Consignee Name and Address
answer
10 D 19 CFR 141.61 (d) (3), CBP Form 7501 Instructions
question
11. Prior to release of the merchandise under the Temporary Importation Bond (TIB) procedure, the importer must post a bond in the amount of: A. Nothing, it is free of duty. B. The total amount of duties, including fees, which it is estimated would accrue had the articles been entered under an ordinary consumption entry. C. The amount of taxes and fees only based on the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the U.S. (HTSUS) article description. D. Twice the total amount of duties, including fees, which it is estimated would accrue had the articles been entered under an ordinary consumption entry, or such larger amount as the port director deems necessary. E. $50,000, the minimum amount of a continuous importation bond.
answer
11 D 19 CFR 10.31(f)
question
12. Identify the Manufacturer I.D. using the following information: Colenso Ladysmith Incorporated 222 Schoeman Street Pretoria, South Africa A. COLLADINC222PRE B. COLLAD222PRESA C. COLLAD222SCHSA D. ZACOLLAD222SCH E. ZACOLLAD222PRE
answer
12 E CBP Form 7501 Instructions Customs Directive 3550-055
question
13. A vessel with foreign cargo consisting of widgets arrived into the United States on Monday, June 1st. On the same day, a broker files CBP Form 7512 to move the freight in bond from Port Everglades to Miami. On June 9th, a bonded carrier picks up the merchandise at Port Everglades. On July 15th, the bonded carrier delivers the merchandise to a bonded are house in Boca Raton. On July 30th, the Transportation and Exportation Entry ("T&E") is presented to CBP at the port of West Palm Beach. Based on the above, how many violations have occurred? A. No violations have occurred. B. One violation has occurred. C. Two violations have occurred. D. Three violations have occurred. E. Four violations have occurred.
answer
13 D 19 CFR 18.2
question
14. What CBP form is used for the entry for transportation and exportation for each transfer of merchandise to the Customs territory for transportation to and exportation from a different port? A. 301 B. 3461 C. 3499 D. 7501 E. 7512
answer
14 E 19 CFR 146.67(c)
question
15. What is the date of entry for goods imported and entered under a Special Permit for Immediate Delivery? A. The date the merchandise is authorized for release by the CBP Officer. B. The date the entry summary (live entry) is filed in proper form. C. The date the entry summary is filed in proper form with estimated duties attached. D. The date the entry documentation is filed if requested by the importer. E. The date the merchandise arrives in the U.S.
answer
15 C 19 CFR 141.68(c), and 19 CFR 142.23
question
16. Except for certain merchandise covered by an entry for immediate transportation or retained by the carrier and returned to the port of entry, the rates of duty applicable to merchandise shall be those in effect on which date? A. The date of exportation. B. The date of importation. C. The date of entry or withdrawal for consumption. D. The date of clearance by CBP. E. The date of delivery of the merchandise.
answer
16 C 19 CFR 152.12 and 141.69
question
17. What is the International Standard Country Code (ISO Code) for Georgia? A. GA B. GR C. GI D. GE E. US
answer
17 D HTS Statistical Annex B
question
18. What is the amount of time an importer identification number remains in CBP's files before it is removed due to inactivity? A. 3 months from the date it was filed with CBP. B. 3 months from the date it was last used on Customs Form 7501 or a request for services. C. 6 months from the date it was filed with CBP. D. 1 year from the date it was last used on Customs Form 7501 or a request for services. E. 12 months from the date it was filed with CBP.
answer
18 D 19 CFR 24.5(e)
question
19. With the exception of bulk and certain bulk-break cargo, Importer Security Filings (ISF) for Immediate Export (IE) or Transportation and Exportation (T&E) in-bond shipments must be submitted no later than 24 hours _____ via a CBP-approved electronic interchange system. A. Prior to arrival of cargo from a foreign port B. Before cargo is laden aboard the vessel at the foreign port C. After the cargo is laden aboard a vessel destined to the United States D. Prior to departure of a vessel from foreign port E. After departure of a vessel from foreign port
answer
19 B 19 CFR 149.2(b)(5)
question
20. Which of the following is false in regards to construction of the manufacturer identification code (MID)?A. In situations where a single entry is filed for products of more than one manufacturer, the products must be separately identified. B. Ignore all punctuation, such as commas, periods and ampersands. C. If there are two or more initials together, treat them as a single word. D. Use the first two letters from the city name. E. The MID may be up to 15 characters in length.
answer
20 D 19 CFR 102.23(a) and 19 CFR Appendix to Part 102
question
21. Which one of the following CBP Forms is for "The Declaration of Unaccompanied Articles?" A. 255 B. 3461 C. 6043 D. 4647 E. 7501
answer
21 A 19 CFR 148.114
question
22. What is the maximum period of validity from the date of issue for an Admission Temporaire/Temporary Admission (A.T.A.) carnet? A. 6 months B. 1 year C. 2 years D. 5 years E. Valid indefinitely
answer
22 B 19 CFR 114.23(a)
question
1. Which of the below-identified statements concerning Powers of Attorney (POA) is false? A. A POA for engaging in "Customs business" may be on CBP Form 5291. B. A freight forwarder may obtain a POA from a resident principal, and the freight forwarder can assign the POA to a broker to make entry on behalf of the resident principal (i.e., importer of record) only if the resident principal granted the freight forwarder the power to "authorize other Customs brokers to act as grantor's agent" . C. A POA from a nonresident principal requires language whereby the agent is authorized to accept service of process against such nonresident. D. An individually licensed broker must be in possession of a POA prior to the broker making entry on behalf of the importer of record. E. A Customs broker does not need to be in possession of a POA where the importer of record is the Department of Justice and the broker is making entry on behalf of the Department of Justice.
answer
1 E 19 CFR 141.32
question
2. What type of entry is required on an air shipment of textile articles valued at $1,500 and subject to quota and visa restraints? A. consumption entry using an A.T.A. Carnet B. inward foreign manifest C. formal entry D. temporary importation under bond (T.I.B.) entry E. informal entry
answer
2 C 19 CFR 102.24(a)
question
3. Which of the following may be identified as the importer of record whereby the U.S. Customs broker is authorized to accept service of process on the Power of Attorney? A. A corporate manufacturer located in the People's Republic of China. B. Mr. Chang, a U.S. citizen, residing in Hereford, Texas and Assistant Vice President for a medium size domestic incorporated importer. C. A U.S. freight forwarder (i.e., nominal consignee) that does not have a financial interest in the entered merchandise. D. A foreign common carrier located in the United Arab Emirates where a container is reladen and the merchandise is destined to be consumed and entered in Italy. E. Customs and Border Protection
answer
3 A 19 CFR 141.36
question
5. What type of liquidation occurs when CBP fails to liquidate, extend or suspend, a consumption entry or a warehouse entry on which all merchandise was withdrawn for consumption, within one year? A. Automatic liquidation B. Deemed liquidation C. No Change liquidation D. Change liquidation E. Involuntary liquidation
answer
5 B 19 CFR 159.11
question
6. Which of the following imported items are goods subject to the provisions of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule? A. Software imported via the internet B. Telecommunication transmissions C. Tulips accompanying corpses D. Samples for soliciting orders E. Articles exported from the U.S. which are returned within 45 days after such exportation from the U.S. as undeliverable and which have not left the custody of the carrier or foreign customs service.
answer
6 D Harmonized Tariff Schedule (HTS) General Note 3(e)
question
7. What is the retention period for a Power of Attorney (POA) by a Customs broker? A. The POA must be returned to client 1 year after revocation. B. The POA must be sent to CBP immediately after revocation. C. The POA must be retained for 1 year after revocation. D. The POA must be retained until revoked and must be retained for 5 years after the date of revocation or for 5 years after the date the client ceases to be an active client. E. There is no specific retention period for a POA.
answer
7 D 19 CFR 111.23(a)(2)
question
8. When a commercial transaction and subsequent entry is in foreign currency, the date that should be considered for conversion purposes is the date the goods were _____. A. imported into the U.S. B. sold C. exported from the country of export D. packed E. intended to be shipped to the U.S.
answer
8 C 19 CFR 152.1(c); 159.32
question
9. A U.S. resident importer and manufacturer sends electrical conduit for processing to Mexico with the intention to return the conduit to the U.S. for entry under HTSUS subheading 9802.00.60. It is determined that additional proof of exportation is required to prove actual exportation of the articles from the U.S. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable document? A. Foreign customs entry B. Foreign customs invoice C. Bill of lading D. Airway bill E. Manufacturers affidavit
answer
9 E 19 CFR 10.9(b
question
10. Which of the following is NOT a valid Column 1 "Special" symbol denoting a current trade program or agreement? A. IT B. PE C. T D. SG E. K
answer
10 A&C Credit will be granted to those that answered A and C; HTS General Note 3(c)
question
11. Which Special Program Indicators (SPI) may be EXEMPT from the merchandise processing fee (MPF)? A. J B. C C. MA D. A E. Z
answer
11 D HTS General Note 3(c)
question
12. The Automated Broker Interface status indicator must be recorded in block _____ of CBP Form 7501. A. 2 B. 9 C. 13 D. 19 E. 23
answer
12 A Instructions for Preparation of CBP Form 7501 (8-30-2005)
question
13. A shipment valued at $175 arrives by a commercial carrier. The shipment qualifies for informal entry and meets the requirements of 19 CFR 10.151 and 10.152. The bill of lading representing the entry must contain all of the following EXCEPT: A. Country of origin of the merchandise. B. Value. C. Shipper name, address and country. D. Quantity. E. Harmonized tariff number.
answer
13 E 19 CFR 142.23(j)
question
14. Quick Imports, a Customs broker incorporated in Texas, is purchased by an unlicensed person (i.e., freight forwarder). The freight forwarder dissolves the corporate Customs broker, and reincorporates in Delaware. The dissolution of Quick Imports, Inc. requires that a new federal identification number be obtained. The new owners intend to conduct "Customs businesses" under the name of East West Imports, Inc. All of the below-identified answer are correct EXCEPT. A. Quick Imports, Inc. shall notify CBP of the changes in the Articles of Incorporation. B. A corporate Customs broker applicant shall be empowered under its Articles of Incorporation to transact Customs business as a broker. C. Mr. Lee, a Korean citizen and president of the freight forwarder, may not be the officer to qualify East West Imports corporate Customs broker's license. D. East West Imports, Inc. may engage in "Customs business" using Quick Imports, Inc. former Customs broker's license, filer code and permits. E. East West Imports, Inc. may not obtain a district permit in the State of Texas.
answer
14 D 19 CFR 111.11
question
15. A Government Agency establishes an ultimate consignee number with CBP by filing a properly executed: A. CBP Form 19 B. CBP Form 3461 C. CBP Form 5106 D. CBP form 5291 E. Internal Revenue Service Schedule Form 1099
answer
15 C 19 CFR 24.5(a)
question
16. A broker files a temporary importation under bond entry in January 2009. In February of 2010 he calls Customs and Border Protection to find out if the entry has liquidated. Which of the following is correct? A. Temporary importation under bond entries do not liquidate. B. Temporary importation under bond entries liquidate 1 year from the date of entry. C. Temporary importation under bond entries liquidate within 180 days from the date of entry. D. Temporary importation under bond entries are valid for 1 year and then may be converted into a consumption entry and therefore liquidate within 2 years. E. Temporary importation under bond entries are valid for 1 year and then may be converted into a transportation in bond and therefore liquidate within 3 years.
answer
16 A 19 CFR 159.2
question
17. 17. A consumption entry has not been liquidated by CBP, and the time for liquidation has not been extended or suspended. When will this entry be deemed liquidated by operation of law? A. 1 year from the date of entry. B. 90 days from the date of importation. C. 1 year from the date of importation. D. 3 years from the date of entry. E. 3 years from the date of importation.
answer
17 A 19 CFR 159.11(a)
question
18. Which one of the following is NOT a requirement for proper country of origin marking of Native American imitation jewelry? A. The article must be marked in a conspicuous place. B. The article must be marked using die stamping, cast-in-the-mold lettering, etching, or engraving. C. The article must be marked with the English name of the country of origin. D. The article must be legibly marked. E. The article must be marked as permanently as the nature of the article will permit.
answer
18 B, C & E Credit will be granted to those that answered B, C and E
question
19. What is the merchandise processing fee for a shipment of strawberry jam from England and is valued at $10,000? A. $ 485.00 B. $ 125.00 C. $ 75.00 D. $ 25.00 E. zero
answer
19 D 19 CFR 24.23(b)(1)(i)(B)
question
20. A shipment of merchandise arrives within the Customs territory of the U.S. on December 22, and is unloaded on December 23. The broker advises the client to take advantage of the immediate delivery procedures to secure the lower duty rate which will be effective January 1. The client agrees, and the merchandise is released under a special permit for immediate delivery on December 28. An entry summary is filed on January 3, with estimated duties attached. What is the date of entry for this shipment? A. December 22 B. December 23 C. Decemember 28 D. January 1 E. January 3
answer
20 E 19 CFR 141.68(c)
question
21. To comply with manufacturing drawback (direct identification and substitution), the use of domestic merchandise taken in exchange for imported merchandise of the same kind and quality shall be treated as use of the imported merchandise if no certificate of delivery is issue covering the transfer of the imported merchandise. This provision is known as a/an _____? A. interchange B. fungibility C. trade good D. exchange merchandise. E. tradeoff
answer
21 E 19 CFR 191.11(a)
question
22. If conditionally released merchandise must be examined, inspected, or appraised, CBP has up to _____ days after the end of the conditional release period to issue a demand for redelivery? A. 14 B. 30 C. 90 D. 180 E. 314
answer
22 B 19 CFR 113.62(d)
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23. Who is the ultimate consignee for a formal entry when U.S. Company (1) places an order with an overseas shipper and then sells the goods to U.S. Company (2) in a domestic transaction prior to the importation? The invoice issued by the overseas shipper states "sold to: U.S. Company (1)" and "ship to: U.S. Company (2)." The consignee on the bill of lading is U.S. Company (2). A. The overseas shipper B. U.S. Company 2 C. The U.S. Customs broker D. U.S Company 1 E. The domestic common carrier
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23 D Customs Directive 3550-079A (Ultimate Consignee at Time of Entry Release) 6.3 and 8.4
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24. 24. The entry of livestock, exported for temporary exhibition and returned and claimed to be exempt from duty under subheading 9801.00.60 shall be supported with a _____. A. CBP Form 3311 or equivalent export documentation, and a CBP Form 4455. B. CBP Form(s) 3495 and 4455. C. CBP Form 4455 or equivalent export documentation, and a CBP Form 3311. D. CBP Form(s) 5106 and 3311. E. CBP Form(s) 7512 and 7501.
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24 A 19 CFR 10.66(a)
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25. An entry is made on February 1, 2010 of food product merchandise. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) issues a notice of sampling on February 5, 2010, but does not issue a "Notice of Refusal" nor "Notice that Merchandise May Proceed" within 30 days of release. For the "Notice to Redeliver" (CBP Form 4647) to be considered timely, when is the latest the CBP Form 4647 must be issued by CBP? A. March 3, 2010 B. March 5, 2010 C. March 7, 2010 D. April 2, 2010 E. CBP cannot issue the Notice to Redeliver because it is not considered timely
answer
25 D 19 CFR 141.113(c)
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26. Numeric code 21, entered in Block 9 of the CBP Form 7501 refers to which mode of transportation by which the imported merchandise entered the U.S. port of arrival from the last foreign country? A. Rail, non-container B. Rail, container C. Truck, container D. Truck, non-container E. Passenger, hand-carried
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26 B Instructions for Preparation of CBP Form 7501 (8-30-2005)
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27. With the exception of bulk and certain bulk-break cargo, the Importer Security Filings for immediate export or transportation and exportation in-bond shipments must be submitted no later than 24 hours _____. A. prior to arrival of laden cargo from foreign port B. after the cargo is laden aboard vessel destined to the U.S. C. before the cargo is laden aboard a vessel destined to the U.S. D. prior to departure of vessel from foreign port E. after departure of vessel from foreign port
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27 C 19 CFR 149.2
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28. If the entry type code, in block 2 of CBP Form 7501 begins with the number '5', the general category code is identified as a/an _____ entry. A. consumption B. government C. transportation D. warehouse E. informal
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28 B Instructions for Preparation of CBP Form 7501 (8-30-2005)
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29. On mail shipments of internet purchases, what information must be provided on the Customs declaration supplied by a foreign post office? A. Country of origin of the merchandise B. Reason for the purchase C. Value of the merchandise D. Website address used to make the purchase E. A declaration form is not required for internet purchases
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29 C 19 CFR 145.11(a)
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30. Which one of the below-identified related document identifiers is authorized to certify a source document for Remote Location Filing? A. U.S. / Israeli Free Trade Agreement Certificate of Origin (C94) B. Textiles, Visa Waivers (C80) C. Proof of Actual Use (Various Commodities) (C63) D. Declarants Reference Number (C36) E. Certificate of Repacking (C85)
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30 D CATAIR, Appendix B, Pages B-14 and B-15
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31. A corporate broker continually misuses their license, permit and filer code. Which of the below-identified actions may CBP NOT pursue against the broker? A. CBP may refuse to allow continued use of the filer code by the broker. B. If the misuse is nonegregious in nature, CBP may provide "informed compliance" to the broker through oral consultations, written guidance or a visit to the broker's facility. C. CBP may pursue monetary penalties against the corporate broker. D. CBP may immediately revoke the corporate broker's permit. E. CBP may pursue monetary penalties against the license qualifier and the corporate brokerage.
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31 D 19 CFR 111 Subpart D
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32. A _____ shall be presented to CBP to obtain release of a shipment of pesticides. A. Department of State form 2031 B. Environmental Protection Agency form 3520-1 C. Department of Transportation form HS-7 D. Environmental Protection Agency form 3540-1 E. Consumer Product Safety Commission form 740
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32 D 19 CFR 12.112 & 12.113
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1. CBP will NOT reject an entry summary whose duties, taxes and fees total $550 merely because _____. A. the CBP Form 7501 Block 39 Summary is missing or incorrect B. there is not a duty check attached and there is not a letter from the broker stating that the entry summary is submitted without payment C. the check submitted is made payable to CBP in the amount of $556, and no authorization to collect excess monies is attached D. a single transaction bond for $55 is attached to the entry E. payment is tendered with an uncertified check drawn on a bank in Guam
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1 E 19 CFR 24.1(a)(3)(i); Directive 3550-067 (Entry Summary Acceptance and Rejection Policy)
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2. When the importing carrier receives less than the manifested quantity, the importer may file an entry summary for consumption for less than the invoiced and manifested quantity provided that the_____. A. merchandise is unconditionally duty free B. importer files with his entry summary a CBP Form 5931 in triplicate and the dock receipt or other documents evidencing nonreceipt of the merchandise C. carrier had to discard portions of perishable merchandise because it presented health hazards D. importer submits evidence that he changed his purchase order after the invoice was prepared and before the shipment was laden on the importing vessel E. carrier files a CBP Form 4315 in triplicate with the entry/immediate delivery for release of nonperishable merchandise
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2 B 19 CFR 158.2
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3. An importer imports integrated circuits for use in various network and computer equipment. The component circuit chips are "substantially transformed" in either Singapore, China, Great Britain, or Mexico. The finished integrated circuits are shipped to the importers distribution center in Texas, commingled into large receiving bins, tested, and repackaged for consumers in the United States. The outermost container for the ultimate purchaser should state _____. A. Repackaged in the United States of America of foreign components B. English integrated circuits C. Made in one or more of the following countries: Singapore, China, Great Britain, Mexico D. Made in one or more of the following countries: SG, CN, EN, MX E. Made in the United States of foreign and domestic parts
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3 C 19 CFR 134.32(d).
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4. What is the reporting quantity on the CBP Form 7501 for a shipment of polyester woven fabric, classified as 5407.74.0060, that is imported on 430 rolls, each measuring 52 inches in width by 60 yards in length? (Note: One meter = 39.37 inches.) A. 655 square meters B. 866 square meters C. 31,160 square meters D. 34,077 square meters E. 37,266 square meters
answer
4 C 19 CFR 159.3
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5. The ad valorem merchandise processing fee is assessed on which one of the following? A. Products of the insular possessions of the United States B. Merchandise originating in Germany that is released under a special permit for immediate delivery and then formally entered C. Goods originating in Mexico within the meaning of General Note 12, HTSUS, where such goods qualify to be marked as goods of Mexico pursuant to Annex 311 of the North American Free Trade Agreement and without regard to whether the goods are marked D. Merchandise imported by mail E. Articles exported from the United States, which are returned within 45 days after such exportation from the United States as undeliverable and which have not left the custody of the carrier or foreign customs service
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5 B 19 CFR 24.23(a) and (c)
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6. What is the proper amount of drawback per unit due to a U.S. producer who imports material from Japan, pays $2 per unit in duty, deposits $1 in antidumping duties per unit, and then uses the material as a component in the manufacture of a NAFTA-originating product he exports to Canada? (Note: The product is entered in Canada at a FREE rate of duty.) A. $0 B. $1 C. $2 plus the portion of the Merchandise Processing Fee apportioned to the material D. $2 E. $3
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6 A 19 CFR 181.44(a)
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7. Which statement is TRUE for an ocean shipment of merchandise, valued at $18,000, which is unladen in San Francisco and sent inbond by air to Laredo for entry? A. Harbor maintenance fees are not due on the shipment because it was sent by air to the port of entry B. The minimum value of the Harbor Maintenance Fee is $25 C. Harbor maintenance fees assessed on the value of commercial cargo are due when entry is made in Laredo D. Neither merchandise processing fees nor harbor maintenance fees are due on this shipment E. Harbor maintenance fees assessed on the value of commercial cargo must be paid to CBP in San Francisco
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7 C 19 CFR 24.24(e)(2)
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8. CBP Form _____ shall be used for merchandise formally entered for consumption. The entry summary for merchandise which may be entered free of duty may be on CBP Form _____. A. 3311; 5106 B. 3461; 5106 C. 7501; 3311 D. 7501; 3461 E. 7501; 5106
answer
8 C 19 CFR 142.11(a)
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10. A shipment of bananas arrives in the U.S. on October 1. Entry is attempted on October 3, but the Food and Drug Administration's Prior Notice requirement has not been satisfied. When does the merchandise become eligible for General Order? A. 1 day after entry attempted B. 3 days after public notice C. 5 days after the shipment arrives in the U.S. D. 15 business days after the shipment arrives in the U.S. E. Whenever the port director determines entry cannot be made
answer
10 E 19 CFR 127.1(c)
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11. Merchandise may be transferred from one bonded warehouse to another at the same port under CBP supervision with concurrence of which one of the following? A. The cartman and the receiving warehouse B. The proprietor of the receiving warehouse C. The Port Director and the proprietor of the delivering warehouse D. The Port Director, the cartman and the proprietor of the receiving warehouse E. The proprietors of the delivering and receiving warehouses
answer
11 E 19 CFR 144.34(a)
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12. Which statement is FALSE when referring to filer codes? A. The broker shall use the assigned filer code as the beginning three characters of the number for all CBP entries filed in only the ports, which are listed and approved on the initial filer code application B. CBP will assign a unique 3 character (alphabetic, numeric or alpha numeric) entry filer code to all licensed brokers filing CBP entries C. CBP shall make available electronically a listing of filer codes and importers, and Customs brokers assigned those filer codes D. If an importer does not have an assigned entry filer code, or if the port director refuses to allow use of an assigned entry filer code, the importer or broker shall obtain forms with a CBP assigned pre-printed machine readable entry number with a computed check digit E. The Assistant Commissioner, Office of International Trade may refuse to allow use of an assigned entry filer code if it is misused by the importer or broker
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12 A 19 CFR 142.3a(b)(1)
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13. The filing of one entry summary for merchandise released under multiple entries is PRECLUDED when the merchandise _____. A. is consigned to one consignee B. is quota-class merchandise C. crosses the border by land on several trucks D. is exported from Mexico E. country of origin is Honduras
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13 B 19 CFR 142.17
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14. A bona fide gift worth $90, sent by means other than the mail, is entered by presenting the bill of lading. Which one of the following categories of information is NOT required to be filed as a part of such entry? A. Country of origin B. Quantity C. Shipping weight D. Harmonized tariff number to the sixth digit E. Value
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14 D 19 CFR 143.23(j)
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15. Which is NOT a requirement for a broker to participate in Remote Location Filing? A. Having a National Permit B. Having a certificate to obtain a distribution of dumping offsets for the entry he intends to file using Remote Location Filing C. Being operational on the Automated Broker Interface D. Having a District Permit E. Being operational on the Automated Clearing House 30 days before applying for Remote Location Filing
answer
15 B RLF Eligibility Requirements
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1. Which of the following is NOT true regarding a blanket Toxic Substances Control Act certification? A. An importer or authorized agent may certify a shipment is subject to TSCA and complies with the requirements, or is not subject to TSCA. B. The blanket certificate must list the products covered by name. C. A blanket certificate must include the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States subheading number of the products covered. D. A blanket certificate must identify the foreign supplier by name and address. E. An approved blanket certification is valid for two years.
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1 E 19 CFR 12.121(a)
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2. Which of the following is NOT an additional invoice requirement for footwear classified in headings 6401 through 6405 of the HTSUS? A. Manufacture's style number B. Specific size of the footwear C. Percent by area of the external surface area of the upper by material D. Importers style number and/or stock number E. Percent by area of external surface area of outersole by material
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2 B 19 CFR 141.89(a)
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3. Which would be the correct amount of duty for 7200 liters of red wine made in Spain having an alcohol strength by volume of 14.72% and a value of $47,912? A. $121.68 B. $453.60 C. $1216.80 D. $3018.46 E. Free
answer
3 C Harmonized Tariff Schedule (HTS) 2204.21.8060
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4. For the purpose of determining whether the country of origin of textiles and textile products subject to the provisions of 19 CFR 102.21 or 19 CFR 102.22, has been accurately represented to CBP, the release of any such textiles from CBP custody is conditional during the _____ day period following the date of release. A. 30 B. 60 C. 90 D. 180 E. 314
answer
4 D 19 CFR 141.113(b)
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5. What is the date of exportation for the following? Oil was produced in Algeria on June 4 and was shipped via pipeline to a storage facility in Morocco on June 6. On June 20, the owners of the oil found a buyer in Houston Texas. On June 28 the oil was loaded onto a U.S. bound tanker and the ship set sail from Casablanca on June 30. A. June 4 B. June 6 C. June 20 D. June 28 E. June 30
answer
5 E 19 CFR 152.1(c); HTS General Statistical Note 1(b)(i)
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7. When the transaction is in foreign currency, the date that should be considered for conversion purposes is the date the _____. A. goods were exported from the country of export for the U.S. B. goods were sold C. goods were imported into the U.S. D. goods were packed E. payment is transferred from the buyer to the seller
answer
7 A 19 CFR 152.1(c); 159.32
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8. Which statement is INCORRECT regarding the processing of a single entry for a single shipment that was split by the carrier into multiple portions that arrived into the U.S. separately? A. The CBP Form 3461 must be annotated that the shipment was split at the initiative of the carrier and that an election is made to file a single entry for all portions of the shipment B. In Box 29 of CBP Form 3461, the filer will enter the carrier code, voyage/flight/trip number, arrival date and piece count for each portion of the split shipment covered by the single entry C. There are two procedures by which to file a single entry for a split shipment: "hold-all" procedure and "incremental release" procedure D. Any portion of a split shipment that does not arrive at the port of entry within 15 calendar days of the arrival of the first portion must be entered separately E. Any merchandise subject to quota and/or visa requirements is excluded from the incremental release procedure
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8 D 19 CFR 141.57
question
9. If a CBP Form 214 is designated as a Temporary Deposit due to incomplete documentation, a complete and accurate CBP Form 214 must be submitted within _____ days, unless an extension is granted by the port director. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 E. 30
answer
9 A 19 CFR 146.35(e)
