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A) Amazon's inventory control system

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________ is an example of e-business. A) Amazon's inventory control system B) The Amazon.com website C) An Amazon mobile app D) Amazon's Pinterest page

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B) digital commerce

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Which of the following terms is synonymous with e-commerce? A) e-business B) digital commerce C) the Internet D) the Web

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B) Users still spend less time using apps than they do using desktops or mobile websites.

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Which of the following is not true about the use of apps? A) The average U.S. consumer spends over three hours a day using apps. B) Users still spend less time using apps than they do using desktops or mobile websites. C) Apps are easier to control and monetize than websites. D) Around 280 million people worldwide launch a smartphone app more than 60 times a day.

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A) Social e-commerce generates more revenue than mobile e-commerce.

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Which of the following statements about e-commerce in the United States in 2016 is not true? A) Social e-commerce generates more revenue than mobile e-commerce. B) Over 210 million U.S. consumers use mobile apps. C) On-demand service firms are fueling the growth of local e-commerce. D) Growth rates for retail e-commerce are higher in Europe than in the United States.

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B) Small businesses and entrepreneurs are hampered by the rising cost of market entry caused by increased presence of industry giants.

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Which of the following is not a major business trend in e-commerce in 2016-2017? A) Mobile e-commerce continues to grow. B) Small businesses and entrepreneurs are hampered by the rising cost of market entry caused by increased presence of industry giants. C) On-demand service companies garner multi-billion dollar valuations. D) Mobile advertising continues to grow at astronomical rates.

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D) Computing and networking component prices increase dramatically.

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Which of the following is not a major technology trend in e-commerce in 2016-2017? A) Mobile messaging services become popular with smartphone users. B) Firms are turning to business analytics to make sense out of big data. C) The mobile computing and communications platform creates an alternative platform for online transactions, marketing, advertising, and media viewing. D) Computing and networking component prices increase dramatically.

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C) the refusal of online retailers to accept taxation of Internet sales.

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All of the following are major social trends in e-commerce in 2016-2017 except for: A) concerns about the flood of temporary, low paying jobs without benefits being generated by on-demand service companies. B) the continuing conflict over copyright management and control. C) the refusal of online retailers to accept taxation of Internet sales. D) the growth of government surveillance of Internet communications.

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B) the weakening revenues of B2B e-commerce

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Which of the following is not a major business trend in e-commerce in 2016-2017? A) the growth of a mobile app ecosystem B) the weakening revenues of B2B e-commerce C) the emergence of social e-commerce D) the growth of the on-demand service firms

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A) The Web is the technology upon which the Internet is based.

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Which of the following statements about the Web is not true? A) The Web is the technology upon which the Internet is based. B) The Web was the original "killer app." C) The Web provides access to pages written in HyperText Markup Language. D) The Web is both a communications infrastructure and an information storage system.

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The Web

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Which of the following was the original "killer app" that made the Internet commercially interesting and extraordinarily popular?

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C) information asymmetry

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Which of the following is not a unique feature of e-commerce technology? A) interactivity B) social technology C) information asymmetry D) richness

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A) richness

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Which of the following features of e-commerce technology enables merchants to market and sell "complex" goods and services to consumers via marketing messages that can integrate video, audio, and text? A) richness B) ubiquity C) information density D) personalization

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D) social technology

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Which of the following features of e-commerce technology allows users to participate in the creation of online content? A) ubiquity B) global reach C) information density D) social technology

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B) the cost of participating in a market

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Which of the following is the best definition of transaction cost? A) the expense of changing national or regional prices B) the cost of participating in a market C) the cost of finding suitable products in the market D) the cost merchants pay to bring their goods to market

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C) universal standards

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Which of the following features of e-commerce technology is related to the concept of network externalities? A) richness B) interactivity C) universal standards D) information density

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C) The larger the audience reached, the less rich the message.

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Which of the following statements is true about the traditional tradeoff between the richness and reach of a marketing message prior to the development of the Web? A) Marketing messages had little richness. B) The smaller the audience reached, the less rich the message. C) The larger the audience reached, the less rich the message. D) Richness was unrelated to reach.

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D) the enabling of two-way communication between consumer and merchant

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Interactivity in the context of e-commerce provides which of the following functionalities? A) the ability to physically touch and manipulate a product B) complexity and content of a message C) the ability of consumers to create and distribute content D) the enabling of two-way communication between consumer and merchant

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B) menu costs.

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The costs incurred by merchants changing product prices (such as the costs of reentering prices into computer systems) are referred to as: A) subscription costs. B) fixed costs. C) menu costs. D) variable costs.

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B) marketplace

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Which of the following is a physical place you visit to conduct business? A) marketspace B) marketplace C) social network D) the Internet

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C) Reach

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The total number of users or customers an e-commerce business can obtain is called: A) ubiquity. B) interactivity. C) reach. D) information density.

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C) Ubiquity

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E-commerce is available just about everywhere and anytime. This is known as ________. A) richness B) information density C) ubiquity D) reach

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C) mobile e-commerce

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Which type of e-commerce is distinguished by the type of technology used in the transaction rather than by the nature of the market relationship? A) consumer-to-consumer (C2C) B) social e-commerce C) mobile e-commerce D) business-to-business (B2B)

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A) has grown at double-digit rates between 2010 and 2016.

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Business-to-consumer (B2C) e-commerce in the United States: A) has grown at double-digit rates between 2010 and 2016. B) has less revenue than C2C e-commerce. C) now constitutes over 50% of the overall U.S. retail market. D) is growing more slowly as it confronts its own fundamental limitations.

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D) Maintain a basic, static website depicting the firm's brand.

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Which of the following describes the basic web policy of large firms during the Invention period? A) Integrate social networks and the mobile platform with website marketing. B) Emphasize the necessity of the Web to generate profits. C) Use the Web to sell complex goods and services online. D) Maintain a basic, static website depicting the firm's brand.

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A) the development of the smartphone.

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All of the following are considered a precursor to e-commerce except: A) the development of the smartphone. B) Baxter Healthcare's PC-based remote order entry system. C) the French Minitel. D) the development of Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) standards.

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C) the French Minitel

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Which of the following was the first large-scale digitally enabled transaction system in the B2C arena? A) Telex B) the Baxter Healthcare system C) the French Minitel D) EDI

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C) disintermediation

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Which of the following is a characteristic of e-commerce during the Invention period? A) mobile technology B) earnings and profit emphasis C) disintermediation D) extensive government surveillance

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D) auction sites.

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All of the following are examples of Web 2.0 sites and applications except: A) photo-sharing sites. B) blogs. C) wikis. D) auction sites.

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A) one competitor has an advantage others cannot purchase.

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Unfair competitive advantages occur when: A) one competitor has an advantage others cannot purchase. B) market middlemen are displaced. C) information is equally distributed and transaction costs are low. D) firms are able to gather monopoly profits.

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A) an emphasis on exploiting traditional distribution channels.

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The early years of e-commerce were driven by all of the following factors except: A) an emphasis on exploiting traditional distribution channels. B) a huge infusion of venture capital funds. C) an emphasis on quickly achieving very high market visibility. D) visions of profiting from new technology.

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C) a stunning technological success as the Internet and the Web increased from a few thousand to billions of e-commerce transactions per year.

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The early years of e-commerce are considered: A) the most promising time in history for the successful implementation of first mover advantages. B) an economist's dream come true, where for a brief time consumers had access to all relevant market information and transaction costs plummeted. C) a stunning technological success as the Internet and the Web increased from a few thousand to billions of e-commerce transactions per year. D) a dramatic business success as 85% of dot-coms formed since 1995 became flourishing businesses.

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A) They were a technological success but a mixed business success.

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Which of the following best describes the early years of e-commerce? A) They were a technological success but a mixed business success. B) They were a technological success but a business failure. C) They were a technological failure but a business success. D) They were a mixed technological and business success.

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D) Expansion of e-commerce to include services as well as goods

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Which of the following is a characteristic of the Reinvention phase of e-commerce? A) massive proliferation of dot-com start-ups B) widespread adoption of broadband networks C) rapid growth of search engine advertising D) expansion of e-commerce to include services as well as goods

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C) brand extension and strengthening becomes more important than creating new brands

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Which of the following is a characteristic of the Consolidation phase of e-commerce? A) predominance of pure online strategies B) emphasis on revenue growth versus profits C) brand extension and strengthening becomes more important than creating new brands D) shift to a technology-driven approach

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D) The market middlemen disappeared.

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Which of the following is not true regarding e-commerce today? A) Economists' visions of a friction-free market have not been realized. B) Consumers are less price-sensitive than expected. C) There remains considerable persistent price dispersion. D) The market middlemen disappeared.

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C) Overall transaction costs have dropped dramatically

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Which of the following statements is not true? A) Information asymmetries are continually being introduced by merchants and marketers. B) Intermediaries have not disappeared. C) Overall transaction costs have dropped dramatically. D) Brands remain very important in e-commerce.

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B) eToys

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Which of the following is an example of an e-commerce first mover that failed? A) Etsy B) eToys C) eBay D) E*Trade

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D) webrooming

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Which of the following refers to the practice of researching a product online before purchasing it at a physical store? A) zooming B) grazing C) showrooming D) webrooming

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B) disintermediation

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Which of the following refers to the displacement of market middlemen and the creation of a new direct relationship between producers and consumers? A) network effect B) disintermediation C) friction-free commerce D) first mover advantage

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B) Transaction costs are high.

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Which of the following is not an element of friction-free commerce? A) Information is equally distributed. B) Transaction costs are high. C) Prices can be dynamically adjusted to reflect actual demand. D) Unfair competitive advantages are eliminated.

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B) inability to retain users.

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All of the following are issues facing Pinterest except: A) copyright infringement. B) inability to retain users. C) spam. D) scams.

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A) technology driven

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Above all, e-commerce is a ________ phenomenon. A) technology driven B) finance-driven C) sociological D) government-driven

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D) workgroup automation (e.g., document sharing)

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Which business application is associated with the technological development of local area networks and client/server computing? A) transaction automation (e.g., payroll) B) desktop automation (e.g., word processing) C) industrial system automation (e.g., supply chain management) D) workgroup automation (e.g., document sharing)

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D) intellectual property

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Which of the following is one of the three primary societal issues related to e-commerce? A) liability B) anonymity C) equity D) intellectual property

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B) Economists take a purely technical approach to e-commerce.

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Which of the following statements is not true? A) No one academic perspective dominates research about e-commerce. B) Economists take a purely technical approach to e-commerce. C) There are two primary approaches to e-commerce: behavioral and technical. D) Management scientists are interested in e-commerce as an opportunity to study how business firms can exploit the Internet to achieve more efficient business operations.

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B) Value proposition; revenue model

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________ and ________ are typically the most easily identifiable aspects of a company's business model. A) Market strategy; market opportunity B) Value proposition; revenue model C) Competitive advantage; competitive environment D) Revenue model; market opportunity

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B) eHarmony.

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All of the following use a subscription revenue model for music except: A) Spotify. B) eHarmony. C) Rhapsody. D) Pandora.

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D) value proposition

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Which element of the business model addresses what a firm provides that other firms cannot? A) competitive environment B) competitive advantage C) market strategy D) value proposition

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B) competitive environment

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Which element of the business model refers to the presence of substitute products in the market? A) value proposition B) competitive environment C) competitive advantage D) market opportunity

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B) selection and convenience

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Which of the following represent Amazon's primary value proposition(s)? A) personalization and customization B) selection and convenience C) reduction of price discovery cost D) management of product delivery

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B) revenue model

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A firm's ________ describes how a firm will produce a return on invested capital. A) value proposition B) revenue model C) market strategy D) competitive advantage

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A) Scribd

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Which of the following is an example of the subscription revenue model? A) Scribd B) eBay C) E*Trade D) Twitter

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A) advertising revenue model

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Stickiness is an important attribute for which of the following revenue models? A) advertising revenue model B) subscription revenue model C) transaction fee revenue model D) affiliate revenue model

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B) E*Trade

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Which of the following companies use a transaction fee revenue model? A) Yahoo B) E*Trade C) Twitter D) Birchbox

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D) MyPoints

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Which of the following is an example of the affiliate revenue model? A) Scribd B) eBay C) L.L. Bean D) MyPoints

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C) freemium strategy

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Which of the following involves a company giving away a certain level of product or services without charge, but then charging a fee for premium levels of the product or service? A) advertising revenue model B) subscription revenue model C) freemium strategy D) transaction fee revenue model

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C) the availability of supportive organizational structures

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Which of the following is not a significant influence on a company's competitive environment? A) how many competitors are active B) the market share of each competitor C) the availability of supportive organizational structures D) how competitors price their products

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B) the market is saturated.

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The existence of many competitors in any one market segment may indicate: A) an untapped market niche. B) the market is saturated. C) no one firm has differentiated itself within that market. D) a market that has already been tried without success.

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D) Priceline.

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All of the following can be considered a direct or indirect competitor of Amazon except: A) eBay. B) Apple's iTunes Store. C) Walmart. D) Priceline.

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A) there are no competitive advantages or asymmetries because all firms have equal access to all the factors to production.

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A perfect market is one in which: A) there are no competitive advantages or asymmetries because all firms have equal access to all the factors to production. B) one firm develops an advantage based on a factor of production that other firms cannot purchase. C) one participant in the market has more resources than the others. D) competition is at a minimum, as each niche market within an industry is served by the company with the greatest competitive advantage.

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C) incubators.

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Organizations that typically provide an array of services to start-up companies along with a small amount of funding are referred to as: A) angel investors. B) crowdfunders. C) incubators. D) venture capital investors.

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D) market strategy

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A ________ specifically details how you plan to find customers and sell your product. A) sales analysis B) business plan C) competitive strategy D) market strategy

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D) Baremetrics

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Which of the following was not able to successfully implement a freemium business model? A) Pandora B) Dropbox C) LinkedIn D) Baremetrics

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C) fewer products.

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All of the following may lead to a competitive advantage except: A) less expensive suppliers. B) better employees. C) fewer products. D) superior products.

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A) brand name

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Which of the following is an unfair competitive advantage? A) brand name B) access to global markets C) lower product prices D) superior technology

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A) the firm's management team

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Which of the following gives a business model the most credibility with outside investors? A) the firm's management team B) the firm's value proposition C) the firm's market opportunity D) the firm's market strategy

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D) In 2016, Foursquare decided to refocus its effort on developing a subscription-based revenue

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Which of the following statements about Foursquare is not true? A) Foursquare combines a social network business model with location-based technology. B) Foursquare has struggled to find profitability. C) Foursquare's business model raises significant privacy concerns. D) In 2016, Foursquare decided to refocus its effort on developing a subscription-based revenue

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D) venture capital investors

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Which type of investor typically becomes interested in a start-up company after it has begun generating revenue? A) incubators B) angel investors C) crowdfunders D) venture capital investors

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C) financial model

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Which of the following is another name for a revenue model? A) business model B) business strategy C) financial model D) financial statements

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D) Amazon.

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All of the following use a social network marketing strategy except: A) Twitter. B) YouTube. C) Pinterest. D) Amazon.

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C) leverage

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The use of a company's competitive advantage to penetrate surrounding markets is known as ________. A) market strategy B) differentiation C) leverage D) focus

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B) angel investor

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A wealthy individual who invests personal funds in a start-up in exchange for an equity share in the business is referred to as a(n) ________. A) incubator B) angel investor C) venture capital investor D) crowdfunder

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C) legal structure

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Which of the following is not a key element of an elevator pitch? A) exit strategy B) growth metrics C) legal structure D) market opportunity

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C) Blue Nile

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Which of the following is not a community provider? A) LinkedIn B) Facebook C) Blue Nile D) Pinterest

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C) market creator

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Which of the following is not a variation of the e-tailer business model? A) bricks-and-clicks B) virtual merchant C) market creator D) manufacturer-direct

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B) Rhapsody.

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An example of a company using the content provider model is: A) Priceline. B) Rhapsody. C) Dell. D) eBay.

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C) Bluefly

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Which of the following is not an example of the bricks-and-clicks e-tailing business model? A) Walmart B) Sears C) Bluefly D) Staples

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A) own the content being provided.

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In general, the key to becoming a successful content provider is to: A) own the content being provided. B) own the technology by which content is created, presented, and distributed. C) provide online content for free. D) provide other services as well as online content.

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A) e-distributors.

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The business model of e-tailers is similar to that of: A) e-distributors. B) transaction brokers. C) exchanges. D) service providers.

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D) Amazon.

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All of the following use an advertising revenue model except: A) Twitter. B) Yahoo. C) Google. D) Amazon.

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C) Amazon

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Which of the following is not considered a portal? A) Yahoo B) MSN C) Amazon D) AOL

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C) sales of goods.

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Portals primarily generate revenue in all of the following ways except: A) charging advertisers for ad placement. B) collecting transaction fees. C) sales of goods. D) charging subscription fees.

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A) they offer a fast, convenient one-stop site where users can focus on their most important concerns and interests.

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The basic value proposition of community providers is: A) they offer a fast, convenient one-stop site where users can focus on their most important concerns and interests. B) they offer consumers valuable, convenient, time-saving, and low cost alternatives to traditional service providers. C) they create a digital electronic environment for buyers and sellers to meet, agree on a price, and transact. D) they increase customers' productivity by helping them get things done faster and with less expense.

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C) content provider.

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eBay uses all of the following business models except: A) B2C market creator. B) C2C market creator. C) content provider. D) e-commerce infrastructure provider.

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B) peer-to-peer streaming.

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All of the following are business models employed in the online music industry except: A) subscription. B) peer-to-peer streaming. C) download-and-own. D) cloud streaming.

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B) transaction broker

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The financial services, travel services, and job placement services industries typically use the ________ business model. A) community provider B) transaction broker C) market creator D) e-tailer

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A) market creator

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In the ________ business model, a web-based business builds a digital environment in which buyers and sellers can meet, display products, search for products, and establish prices. A) market creator B) community provider C) e-tailer D) portal

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D) portals.

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All of the following are examples of business-to-business (B2B) business models except: A) e-distributors. B) e-procurement. C) exchanges. D) portals.

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A) sales

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What is the primary revenue model for an e-distributor? A) sales B) transaction fee C) advertising D) subscription

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C) e-distributor

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Amazon is an example of which of the following business models? A) B2B service provider B) exchange C) e-distributor D) industry consortia

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C) E-procurement firms

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________ create and sell access to digital markets. A) E-distributors B) Portals C) E-procurement firms D) Market creators

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B) e-procurement companies

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Which of the following may offer its customers value chain management software? A) e-distributors B) e-procurement companies C) exchanges D) community providers

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B) diminished sharply.

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Over the past decade, the number of exchanges has: A) greatly increased. B) diminished sharply. C) stayed about the same. D) increased slowly but steadily.

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C) industry consortium.

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TheSeam is an example of a(n): A) private industrial network. B) exchange. C) industry consortium. D) e-distributor.

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D) vertical

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A ________ marketplace supplies products and services of interest to particular industries. A) perfect B) differentiated C) horizontal D) vertical

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A) strategy of cost competition

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Which business strategy involves implementing a new, more efficient set of business processes that other firms cannot yet obtain? A) strategy of cost competition B) scope strategy C) customer intimacy strategy D) focus/market niche strategy

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A) global reach

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Which of the following features of e-commerce technology changes industry structure by lowering barriers to entry but greatly expands the market at the same time? A) global reach B) richness C) interactivity D) personalization

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B) finance/accounting

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Which of the following is not a primary activity in a firm value chain? A) outbound logistics B) finance/accounting C) operations D) after-sales service

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C) value web

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A ________ is a networked business ecosystem that coordinates a firm's suppliers, distributors, and delivery firms with its own production needs using an Internet-based supply chain management system. A) value chain B) value system C) value web D) business strategy

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A) enable individual customization of the product by consumers.

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If you wished to leverage the ubiquitous nature of the Web to differentiate your product, you would: A) enable individual customization of the product by consumers. B) implement a strategy of commoditization. C) adopt a strategy of cost competition. D) develop a scope strategy to compete within a narrower market segment.

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D) focus

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A strategy designed to compete within a narrow market or product segment is called a ________ strategy. A) scope B) differentiation C) commoditization D) focus

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A) Sustaining

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________ technologies are technologies that enable the incremental improvement of products and services. A) Sustaining B) Differentiating C) Disruptive D) Commodity

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C) disruptors

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Innovative entrepreneurs and their business firms that destroy existing business models are referred to as ________. A) crowdfunders B) venture capitalists C) disruptors D) angel investors

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C) 1975-1995

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During which period of time did the Institutionalization phase of Internet development take place? A) 1950-1960 B) 1961-1974 C) 1975-1995 D) 1995-through the present

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D) NSF privatized the operation of the Internet's backbone.

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Which of the following occurred during the Commercialization phase of Internet development? A) The fundamental building blocks of the Internet were realized in actual hardware and software. B) Personal computers were invented. C) The Domain Name System (DNS) was introduced. D) NSF privatized the operation of the Internet's backbone.

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B) Institutional

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During which phase of the development of the Internet was the Domain Name System (DNS) introduced? A) Commercialization B) Institutional C) Innovation D) Consolidation

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B) FTP

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Which of the following is not one of the basic technological foundations of the Internet? A) client/server computing B) FTP C) TCP/IP D) packet switching

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C) packet switching.

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The process of slicing digital messages into parcels, sending them along different communication paths as they become available, and reassembling them at the destination point is called: A) routing. B) the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP). C) packet switching. D) the File Transfer Protocol (FTP).

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C) TCP/IP

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Which of the following is the core communications protocol for the Internet? A) Telnet B) FTP C) TCP/IP D) TLS

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C) domain name system

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The ________ allows a natural language expression, such as Google.com, to represent a numeric IP address. A) uniform resource locator system B) Internet protocol addressing schema C) domain name system D) assigned numbers and names system

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B) a uniform resource locator.

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The address used by a browser to identify the location of content on the Web is called: A) a domain name. B) a uniform resource locator. C) an IP address. D) a file path.

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B) Each client added to the network increases the network's overall capacity and transmission speeds.

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Which of the following is not an advantage of client/server computing over centralized mainframe computing? A) It is easy to expand capacity by adding servers and clients. B) Each client added to the network increases the network's overall capacity and transmission speeds. C) Client/server networks are less vulnerable, in part because the processing load is balanced over many powerful smaller computers rather than concentrated in a single huge computer. D) There is less risk that a system will completely malfunction because backup or mirror servers can pick up the slack if one server goes down.

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D) Cloud computing

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________ is a model of computing in that computer processing, storage, software, and other services are provided as a shared pool of virtualized resources over the Internet. A) Client/server computing B) P2P computing C) Mobile computing D) Cloud computing

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A) A public cloud is typically used by companies with stringent privacy and security requirements.

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Which of the following statements about cloud computing is not true? A) A public cloud is typically used by companies with stringent privacy and security requirements. B) Dropbox is an example of a public cloud. C) Hybrid clouds offer both public and private cloud options. D) A private cloud hosted internally or externally.

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A) Telnet

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________ is used to allow remote login on another computer. A) Telnet B) FTP C) HTTP D) SSL

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A) Ping

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________ is a utility program that allows you to check the connection between your client and a TCP/IP network. A) Ping B) Telnet C) Tracert D) Finger

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D) client/server computing

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Which of the following technologies has enabled the Internet to grow exponentially to support millions of users, without overloading the network architecture? A) fiber optics B) Wi-Fi C) IPv6 D) client/server computing

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A) routers

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Which of the following are specialized computers that transmit message parcels along available Internet communication paths and on to their destinations? A) routers B) web servers C) IP servers D) packet servers

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A) protocol

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Which of the following is a set of rules for transferring data? A) protocol B) packet C) router D) IP address

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D) FiOS

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Which of the following is not a basic type of cloud computing service? A) IaaS B) PaaS C) SaaS D) FiOS

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B) to link large mainframe computers on different college campuses

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Which of the following was the original purpose of the Internet? A) to provide a network that would allow businesses to connect with consumers B) to link large mainframe computers on different college campuses C) to develop military communications systems that could withstand nuclear war D) to enable government agencies to track civilian communications

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D) multiple duplicate devices and paths in a network built so that data can be rerouted if a breakdown occurs.

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When talking about the physical elements of the Internet, the term redundancy refers to: A) transmitting multiple copies of a single packet to safeguard against data loss. B) the use of tiered high-speed switching computers to connect the backbone to regional and local networks. C) delays in messages caused by the uneven flow of information through the network. D) multiple duplicate devices and paths in a network built so that data can be rerouted if a breakdown occurs.

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D) Internet Society (ISOC)

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The ________ is a consortium of corporations, government agencies, and nonprofit organizations that monitors Internet policies and practices. A) Internet Engineering Steering Group (IESG) B) World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) C) Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) D) Internet Society (ISOC)

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A) Most smartphones use Intel chips.

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Which of the following is not true about the mobile platform? A) Most smartphones use Intel chips. B) The number of cell phones worldwide exceeds the number of PCs. C) Over a third of the world's cell phones are smartphones. D) Smartphones use flash memory chips.

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A) the high cost of sensors

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Which of the following is not a concern about IoT? A) the high cost of sensors B) interoperability C) security D) privacy

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B) drones

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What type of Internet access technology are Google and Facebook hoping to use to provide Internet access to remote parts of the world? A) Bluetooth B) drones C) WLANs D) DSL

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D) the difficulty in expanding capacity by adding servers and clients

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Which of the following is not a limitation of the current Internet? A) the continued reliance on cables and wires for connectivity B) limited bandwidth, which causes congestion and cannot adequately handle video and voice traffic C) architectural restrictions, which stipulate that numerous requests for the same file must each be answered individually, slowing network performance D) the difficulty in expanding capacity by adding servers and clients

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C) As of 2016, a majority of U.S. homes have fiber connections.

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Which of the following statements about fiber-optic cable is not true? A) It transmits more data at faster speeds than coaxial or twisted pair cable. B) It is thinner and lighter than coaxial or twisted pair cable. C) As of 2016, a majority of U.S. homes have fiber connections. D) Telecommunications firms have made substantial investments in cross-country fiber optic systems in the last decade.

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A) Wi-Fi and Bluetooth.

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The major technologies used with wireless local area networks are: A) Wi-Fi and Bluetooth. B) Wi-Fi and WiMax. C) Bluetooth and 3G. D) WiMax and 3G.

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B) latency

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Which of the following refers to delays in messages caused by the uneven flow of information packets through the network? A) redundancy B) latency C) Net neutrality D) QOS

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B) Sri Lanka

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What country intends to be the first to use Project Loon to provide universal Internet access? A) New Zealand B) Sri Lanka C) Ghana D) Australia

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B) Mosaic.

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The first web browser to make it possible to view documents on the Web with colored background, images, and animations was: A) Netscape Navigator. B) Mosaic. C) Mozilla. D) Internet Explorer.

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A) .com

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In the address http://www.company.com/clients.html, which of the following is the top-level domain? A) .com B) company.com C) www D) http

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D) an RSS aggregator.

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You could expect to find the following services in a web server software package except: A) security services. B) FTP. C) search engine. D) an RSS aggregator.

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C) Chrome

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Which of the following is currently the most popular web browser? A) Internet Explorer B) Safari C) Chrome D) Firefox

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B) online forum

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Which of the following enables Internet users to communicate with each other, although not in real time? A) mobile messaging B) online forum C) SMS messaging D) VoIP

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D) Feedly

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Which of the following is not a mobile messaging application? A) Kik B) WhatsApp C) Viber D) Feedly

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A) wiki

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A(n) ________ allows users to easily add and edit content on a web page. A) wiki B) podcast C) blog D) RSS feed

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A) VoIP.

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The protocol that enables the transmission of voice and other forms of audio communication over the Internet is called: A) VoIP. B) IPTP. C) VTP. D) IP.

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A) privacy.

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Confidentiality is sometimes confused with: A) privacy. B) authenticity. C) integrity. D) nonrepudiation.

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A) Nonrepudiation

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________ refers to the ability to ensure that e-commerce participants do not deny their online actions. A) Nonrepudiation B) Authenticity C) Availability D) Integrity

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B) Authenticity

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________ refers to the ability to identify the person or entity with whom you are dealing on the Internet. A) Nonrepudiation B) Authenticity C) Availability D) Integrity

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D) An unauthorized person intercepts an online communication and changes its contents.

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Which of the following is an example of an integrity violation of e-commerce security? A) A website is not actually operated by the entity the customer believes it to be. B) A merchant uses customer information in a manner not intended by the customer. C) A customer denies that he or she is the person who placed the order. D) An unauthorized person intercepts an online communication and changes its contents.

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C) Availability

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________ refers to the ability to ensure that an e-commerce site continues to function as intended. A) Nonrepudiation B) Authenticity C) Availability D) Integrity

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B) your online purchasing history being sold to other merchants without your consent

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Which of the following is an example of an online privacy violation? A) your e-mail being read by a hacker B) your online purchasing history being sold to other merchants without your consent C) your computer being used as part of a botnet D) your e-mail being altered by a hacker

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A) Confidentiality

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________ refers to the ability to ensure that messages and data are only available to those authorized to view them. A) Confidentiality B) Integrity C) Privacy D) Availability

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C) Amazon.

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All of the following experienced high-profile data breaches in 2015 except: A) CVS. B) Walgreens. C) Amazon. D) Experian.

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A) digital cash.

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Bitcoins are an example of: A) digital cash. B) virtual currency. C) a stored value payment system. D) an EBPP system.

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C) Adobe Flash

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Which of the following has the Internet Advertising Bureau urged advertisers to abandon? A) HTML B) HTML5 C) Adobe Flash D) Adobe Acrobat

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B) cloud security issue

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Accessing data without authorization on Dropbox is an example of which of the following? A) social network security issue B) cloud security issue C) mobile platform security issue D) sniffing

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D) Avid Life.

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All of the following are prominent hacktivist groups except: A) Anonymous. B) LulzSec. C) Impact Team. D) Avid Life.

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B) worm.

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Conficker is an example of a: A) virus. B) worm. C) Trojan horse. D) botnet.

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C) hackers

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Which of the following is the leading cause of data breaches? A) theft of a computer B) accidental disclosures C) hackers D) DDoS attacks

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A) spyware

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Software that is used to obtain private user information such as a user's keystrokes or copies of e-mail is referred to as: A) spyware. B) a backdoor. C) browser parasite. D) adware.

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A) a high-profile data breach

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In 2016, Yahoo revealed that it had experienced which of the following? A) a high-profile data breach B) a DDoS attack that shut down its website C) a hacktivist attack to protest its employment policies D) a browser parasite

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B) the hacking and looting of corporate servers storing credit card information

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What is the most frequent cause of stolen credit cards and card information today? A) lost cards B) the hacking and looting of corporate servers storing credit card information C) sniffing programs D) phishing attacks

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C) integrity and authenticity

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Which dimension(s) of security is spoofing a threat to? A) integrity B) availability C) integrity and authenticity D) availability and integrity

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D) A sniffer

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________ is not an example of malicious code. A) Scareware B) A Trojan horse C) A bot D) A sniffer

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C) DDoS attack

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The attack on Dyn, Twitter, Amazon, and other major organizations in October 2016, is an example of which of the following? A) SQL injection attack B) browser parasite C) DDoS attack D) MitM attack

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B) an exploit kit.

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Angler is an example of: A) a worm. B) an exploit kit. C) phishing. D) hacktivism.

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C) drive-by download.

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Malware that comes with a downloaded file requested by a user is called a: A) Trojan horse. B) backdoor. C) drive-by download. D) PUP.

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C) drive-by download

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Which of the following is not an example of a PUP? A) adware B) browser parasite C) drive-by download D) spyware

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A) Stuxnet

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Which of the following was designed to cripple Iranian nuclear centrifuges? A) Stuxnet B) Flame C) Snake D) Storm

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C) pharming.

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Automatically redirecting a web link to a different address is an example of: A) sniffing. B) social engineering. C) pharming. D) DDoS attack.

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B) software vulnerability

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Shellshock is an example of which of the following? A) mobile malware B) software vulnerability C) botnet D) Trojan horse

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D) botnets

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According to Ponemon Institute's 2015 survey, which of the following was not among the causes of the costliest cybercrimes? A) malicious insiders B) malicious code C) denial of service D) botnets

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D) Hacktivists

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________ typically attack governments, organizations, and sometimes individuals for political purposes. A) Crackers B) White hats C) Grey hats D) Hacktivists

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C) the ability to automatically update applications with security patches.

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Next generation firewalls provide all of the following except: A) an application-centric approach to firewall control. B) the ability to identify applications regardless of the port, protocol, or security evasion tools used. C) the ability to automatically update applications with security patches. D) the ability to identify users regardless of the device or IP address.

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B) public key cryptography ensures authentication of the sender.

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All of the following statements about public key cryptography are true except: A) public key cryptography uses two mathematically related digital keys. B) public key cryptography ensures authentication of the sender. C) public key cryptography does not ensure message integrity. D) public key cryptography is based on the idea of irreversible mathematical functions.

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A) subject's private key.

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A digital certificate contains all of the following except the: A) subject's private key. B) subject's public key. C) digital signature of the certification authority. D) digital certificate serial number.

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B) availability

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Which of the following dimensions of e-commerce security does not involve encryption? A) confidentiality B) availability C) message integrity D) nonrepudiation

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A) firewall

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A ________ is a hardware or software component that acts as a filter to prevent unwanted packets from entering a network. A) firewall B) virtual private network C) proxy server D) PPTP

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C) dual home systems.

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Proxy servers are also known as: A) firewalls. B) application gateways. C) dual home systems. D) packet filters.

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D) packet filters.

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All of the following are used for authentication except: A) digital signatures. B) certificates of authority. C) biometric devices. D) packet filters.

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D) blocking suspicious activity.

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An intrusion detection system can perform all of the following functions except: A) examining network traffic. B) setting off an alarm when suspicious activity is detected. C) checking network traffic to see if it matches certain patterns or preconfigured rules. D) blocking suspicious activity.

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C) digital signatures

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Which of the following is not an example of an access control? A) firewalls B) proxy servers C) digital signatures D) login passwords

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A) Apple's Touch ID stores a user's actual fingerprint.

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Which of the following statements is not true? A) Apple's Touch ID stores a user's actual fingerprint. B) Biometric devices reduce the opportunity for spoofing. C) A retina scan is an example of a biometric device. D) Biometric data stored on an iPhone is encrypted.

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A) biometrics

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A fingerprint scan is an example of which of the following? A) biometrics B) encryption C) IDS D) firewall

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C) Perform a risk assessment.

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What is the first step in developing an e-commerce security plan? A) Create a security organization. B) Develop a security policy. C) Perform a risk assessment. D) Perform a security audit.

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B) an authorization management system.

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To allow lower-level employees access to the corporate network while preventing them from accessing private human resources documents, you would use: A) access controls. B) an authorization management system. C) security tokens. D) an authorization policy.

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C) The Cybersecurity Information Sharing Act was strongly supported by most large technology companies and privacy advocates.

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Which of the following statements is not true? A) Most states require companies that maintain personal data on their residents to publicly disclose when a security breach affecting those residents has occurred. B) The USA Patriot Act broadly expanded law enforcement's investigative and surveillance powers. C) The Cybersecurity Information Sharing Act was strongly supported by most large technology companies and privacy advocates. D) The Federal Trade Commission has asserted that it has authority over corporations' data security practices.

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B) Bill Me Later.

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All of the following are examples of social/mobile peer-to-peer payment systems except: A) Venmo. B) Bill Me Later. C) Square Cash. D) Google Wallet.

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A) Apple Pay is subject to recent regulations issued by the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection applicable to GPR transactions.

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All of the following statements about Apple Pay are true except which of the following? A) Apple Pay is subject to recent regulations issued by the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection applicable to GPR transactions. B) Apple Pay is based on Touch ID biometric fingerprint scanning. C) Apple Pay can be used for mobile payments at the point of sale at a physical store. D) Apple Pay relies on NFC chip technology.

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A) online stored value payment system.

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PayPal is an example of a(n): A) online stored value payment system. B) digital checking system. C) accumulating balance system. D) digital credit card system

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B) the credit card industry

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PCI-DSS is a standard established by which of the following? A) the banking industry B) the credit card industry C) the federal government D) the retail industry

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A) Mobile retail payment volume decreases.

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Which of the following is not a major trend in e-commerce payments in 2016-2017? A) Mobile retail payment volume decreases. B) PayPal remains the most popular alternative payment method. C) Google refocuses Google Wallet solely on sending and receiving money. D) Payment by credit and/or debit card remains the dominant form of online payment.

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B) cost to consumers.

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All of the following are limitations of the existing online credit card payment system except: A) poor security. B) cost to consumers. C) cost to merchant. D) social equity.

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B) virtual currency.

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Linden Dollars, created for use in Second Life, are an example of: A) digital cash. B) virtual currency. C) EBPP. D) peer-to-peer payment systems.

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D) e-mail

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Which of the following online advertising formats involved the least amount of spending in 2016? A) search B) classifieds C) rich media D) e-mail

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D) conversation

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Which of the following is not one of the main stages of the online purchasing process? A) post-purchase service and loyalty B) awareness C) engagement D) conversation

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D) targeted banner ads.

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All of the following are online communications that are used to support the evaluation of alternatives stage of the consumer decision process except: A) search engines. B) online catalogs. C) social networks. D) targeted banner ads.

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C) knowledge consumers have about how to conduct online transactions.

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In modeling online consumer behavior, the concept of "consumer skills" refers to the: A) education level of the consumer. B) communication skills of the consumer. C) knowledge consumers have about how to conduct online transactions. D) product evaluation skills of the consumer.

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C) Panda

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Google introduced ________ to its search algorithm to weed out low-quality sites from search results. A) Penguin B) Hummingbird C) Panda D) Knowledge Graph

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D) rich media

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Which of the following forms of online advertising is expected to grow the fastest between 2016 and 2020? A) paid search B) sponsorships C) search engines D) rich media

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A) Nielsen ratings

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Which of the following is not one of the four main methods advertisers use to behaviorally target ads? A) Nielsen ratings B) data collected from social networks C) integration of online data with offline data D) clickstream data

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C) Hummingbird

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Which of the following search engine algorithm updates enables Google's search engine to evaluate an entire sentence rather than just a key word? A) Panda B) Penguin C) Hummingbird D) Graph Search

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D) Search engine advertising is the fastest growing type of online advertising.

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Which of the following is not true about search engine advertising? A) Spending on search engine advertising constitutes over 45% of all online advertising spending. B) The top three search engine providers supply over 95% of all online searches. C) The click-through rate for search engine marketing has been steady over the years. D) Search engine advertising is the fastest growing type of online advertising.

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A) social search

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Which of the following is not a practice that degrades the results and usefulness of search engines? A) social search B) link farms C) content farms D) click fraud

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C) affiliate marketing

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Amazon's Associates program is an example of which of the following? A) viral marketing B) local marketing C) affiliate marketing D) lead generation marketing

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B) firewalls

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Ad blockers operate in a manner similar to which of the following? A) anti-virus software B) firewalls C) Flash cookies D) anonymous browsing

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D) native advertising that is displayed on a social media site

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Which of the following is not a primary source of ad fraud? A) browser extensions that insert ads into a premium publisher's website and then list the ads as available on a programmatic ad exchange B) ad targeting firms that create bots that imitate the behavior of real shoppers and then charge advertisers C) botnets hired by publishers to click on web pages to create phony traffic D) native advertising that is displayed on a social media site

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B) CAN-SPAM prohibits unsolicited e-mail (spam).

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Which of the following statements about CAN-SPAM is not true? A) CAN-SPAM went into effect in January 2004. B) CAN-SPAM prohibits unsolicited e-mail (spam). C) CAN-SPAM prohibits the use of deceptive subject lines and false headers. D) Large spammers are among CAN-SPAM's biggest supporters.

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B) The law has no impact on companies located within the United States.

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Which of the following statements about Canada's anti-spam law is not true? A) Canada's law is based on an opt-in model. B) The law has no impact on companies located within the United States. C) The first phase of the law went into effect in 2014. D) The law applies to e-mail, texts, and social media messaging.

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A) company website

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Which of the following is the most important tool in establishing a relationship with the customer? A) company website B) company CRM system C) Facebook D) search engine display ads

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C) social marketing.

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All of the following are "traditional" online marketing tools except: A) affiliate marketing. B) e-mail and permission marketing. C) social marketing. D) sponsorship marketing.

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D) online retailers.

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All of the following are among those most frequently affected by ad-blocking except: A) gaming sites. B) newsgroup/forums. C) social network sites. D) online retailers.

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A) customer co-production

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The Nike iD program is an example of which of the following marketing techniques? A) customer co-production B) transactive content C) price discrimination D) permission marketing

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C) marginal cost.

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The incremental cost of building the next unit of a good is called the: A) Law of One Price. B) variable cost. C) marginal cost. D) fixed cost.

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B) The free pricing strategy was born in the early days of the Web.

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Which of the following statements about a free pricing strategy is false? A) Free products and services can knock out potential and actual competitors. B) The free pricing strategy was born in the early days of the Web. C) It is difficult to convert free customers into paying customers. D) Free products and services can help build market awareness.

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D) versioning.

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Creating multiple variations of information goods and selling these to different market segments at different prices is called: A) bundling. B) customization. C) dynamic pricing. D) versioning.

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D) yield management.

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All of the following are fixed price strategies except: A) bundling. B) versioning. C) free pricing. D) yield management.

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B) viral marketing

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Which of the following involves getting customers to pass along a company's marketing message to friends, family, and colleagues? A) affiliate marketing B) viral marketing C) native advertising D) lead generation marketing

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A) context advertising

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Google's AdSense is an example of which of the following? A) context advertising B) SEO C) programmatic advertising D) viral marketing

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A) the Law of One Price

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Which of the following is based on the idea of complete price transparency in a perfect information marketplace? A) the Law of One Price B) dynamic pricing C) price discrimination D) versioning

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B) retail

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Which of the following industries accounts for the highest percentage of spending on online advertising? A) financial services B) retail C) automotive D) entertainment

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B) Native advertising is a new form of advertising found only online.

answer

Which of the following statements about native advertising is not true? A) Native advertising is controversial. B) Native advertising is a new form of advertising found only online. C) Native advertising is growing rapidly, especially on social networks. D) Consumers look at native ads much more frequently than display ads.

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C) programmatic advertising

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Which of the following is an automated, auction-based method for matching supply and demand for online display ads? A) retargeting B) behavioral targeting C) programmatic advertising D) keyword advertising

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B) Hadoop

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Which of the following would you use as a framework for working with your company's big data sets? A) data warehouse B) Hadoop C) SQL D) profiling

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B) The Internet has decreased the impact of brands

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Which of the following statements about the Internet's impact on marketing is not true? A) The Internet has broadened the scope of marketing communications. B) The Internet has decreased the impact of brands. C) The Internet has increased the richness of marketing communications. D) The Internet has expanded the information intensity of the marketplace.

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D) universal standards

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Which of the following features of e-commerce technology has reduced the cost of delivering marketing messages and receiving feedback from users? A) ubiquity B) richness C) information density D) universal standards

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B) information density

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Which of the following features of e-commerce technology allows fine-grained, highly detailed information on consumers' real-time behavior to be gathered and analyzed? A) personalization/customization B) information density C) ubiquity D) interactivity

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C) It allows video, audio, and text to be integrated into a single marketing message and consuming experience.

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The richness made possible by e-commerce technologies does which of the following? A) It reduces the cost of delivering marketing messages and receiving feedback from users. B) It allows consumers to become co-producers of the goods and services being sold. C) It allows video, audio, and text to be integrated into a single marketing message and consuming experience. D) It enables worldwide customer service and marketing communications.

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B) the data typically stored in cookies includes a unique ID and e-mail address

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All of the following statements about cookies are true except: A) cookies can be used to create cross-site profiles of users. B) the data typically stored in cookies includes a unique ID and e-mail address. C) cookies make shopping carts possible by allowing a site to keep track of a user's actions. D) the more cookies are deleted, the less accurate ad server metrics become.

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D) a tiny graphics file embedded in an e-mail or web page.

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A web beacon is: A) a cookie that carries a virus. B) an executable cookie. C) an automated applet for performing web searches. D) a tiny graphics file embedded in an e-mail or web page.

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B) CRM system

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A ________ is a repository of customer information that records all of the contacts a customer has with a firm, and generates a customer profile that is available to appropriate individuals in the firm. A) customer service chat system B) CRM system C) data warehouse D) transactive content system

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B) flash marketing

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The marketing technique known as ________ involves merchants offering products or services for a very low price for a short period of time. A) long tail marketing B) flash marketing C) yield management D) bait-and-switch

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A) query-driven

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To answer a question such as "At what time of day does our company sell the most products?" you would use ________ data mining. A) query-driven B) customer profiling C) model-driven D) behavioral

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B) unique visitors.

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If you want to determine the size of your website's audience, the metric you will use for the most accurate measurement will be: A) page views. B) unique visitors. C) hits. D) reach.

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B) number of times an ad is served.

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Impressions are a measure of the: A) number of times an ad is clicked. B) number of times an ad is served. C) number of http requests. D) number of pages viewed.

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D) 30-day

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View-through rate measures the ________ response rate to an ad. A) 30-minute B) 24-hour C) 7-day D) 30-day

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C) surge pricing

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Uber has been criticized for using which of the following? A) flash marketing B) bundling C) surge pricing D) freemium

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C) number of HTTP requests.

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Hits are a measure of the: A) number of times an ad is clicked. B) number of times an ad is served. C) number of HTTP requests. D) number of pages viewed.

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C) pays only for those users who perform a specific action, such as registering, purchasing, etc.

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Purchasing an online ad on a CPA basis means that the advertiser: A) pays for impressions in 1,000 unit lots. B) pays a pre-negotiated fee for each click an ad receives. C) pays only for those users who perform a specific action, such as registering, purchasing, etc. D) exchanges something of equal value for the ad space.

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C) the total number of impressions in thousands

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eCPM measures the ROI of an ad by dividing the total earnings of the ad by which of the following? A) the total number of impressions B) the total number of impressions in hundreds C) the total number of impressions in thousands D) the total number of impressions in millions

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B) stickiness

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Which of the following measures the average length of stay at a website? A) loyalty B) stickiness C) page views D) retention rate

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A) percentage of visitors who indicate an interest in a site's products by registering or visiting a product's pages.

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Acquisition rate is a measure of the: A) percentage of visitors who indicate an interest in a site's products by registering or visiting a product's pages. B) percentage of visitors who become customers. C) percentage of existing customers who continue to buy on a regular basis. D) percentage of shoppers who do not return within a year after their initial purchase.

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B) time elapsed since the last visit made by a customer.

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Recency refers to the: A) percentage of customers who do not return during the next year after an initial purchase. B) time elapsed since the last visit made by a customer. C) percentage of existing customers who continue to buy on a regular basis. D) percentage of customers who return to the site within a year to make additional purchases.

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B) percentage of visitors who become customers.

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Conversion rate is a measure of the: A) percentage of visitors who indicate an interest in a site's products by registering or visiting a product's pages. B) percentage of visitors who become customers. C) percentage of existing customers who continue to buy on a regular basis. D) percentage of shoppers who do not return within a year after their initial purchase.

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C) browse-to-buy ratio

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Which of the following measures the ratio of items purchased to product views? A) conversion rate B) cart conversion rate C) browse-to-buy ratio D) view-to-cart ratio

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C) completion rate

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Which of the following is the most meaningful metric for video ads? A) view time B) click-through rate C) completion rate D) skip rate

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B) attrition rate

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Which of the following measures the percentage of customers who purchase once, but never return within a year? A) retention rate B) attrition rate C) loyalty rate D) conversion rate

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C) social technology

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Which of the following e-commerce technology dimensions creates greater opportunities for cyberbullying? A) information density B) interactivity C) social technology D) ubiquity

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D) global reach

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Which of the following e-commerce technology dimensions has the potential to reduce cultural diversity in products? A) ubiquity B) interactivity C) information density D) global reach

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B) privacy

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Which of the following is not one of the four basic principles shared by ethical schools of thought in western culture? A) accountability B) privacy C) responsibility D) liability

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D) Identify and describe the facts.

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What is the first step in analyzing an ethical dilemma? A) Define the conflict or dilemma and identify the higher-order values involved. B) Identify the potential consequences of your opinions. C) Identify the options you can reasonably take. D) Identify and describe the facts.

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C) the Collective Utilitarian principle

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Which ethical principle states that, when confronted with an ethical dilemma, individuals should take the action that achieves the greater value for all of society? A) the Golden Rule B) Risk Aversion C) the Collective Utilitarian principle D) the Social Contract rule

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A) the Golden Rule

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Which ethical principle emphasizes putting oneself into the place of others and thinking of oneself as the object of the decision? A) the Golden Rule B) Universalism C) the Collective Utilitarian principle D) the Social Contract rule

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D) No Free Lunch

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Which ethical principle asks you to assume that virtually all tangible and intangible objects are owned by someone else unless there is a specific declaration otherwise? A) the Golden Rule B) the Slippery Slope C) the Social Contract rule D) No Free Lunch

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B) the Slippery Slope

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Which ethical principle states that if an action cannot be taken repeatedly, then it is not right to take at all? A) Universalism B) the Slippery Slope C) the Social Contract rule D) the Golden Rule

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D) the Social Contract rule

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Which ethical principle asks you to consider the impact of your decision if the principles underlying your decision became an organizing principle of the entire society? A) the Golden Rule B) Risk Aversion C) the Slippery Slope D) the Social Contract rule

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B) the New York Times test

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Which ethical principle tells you it's wise to assume perfect information markets? A) the Golden Rule B) the New York Times test C) the Social Contract rule D) the Collective Utilitarian principle

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B) Risk Aversion

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Which ethical principle states that when confronted with an ethical dilemma, an individual should take the action that produces the least harm, or the least potential cost? A) the Slippery Slope B) Risk Aversion C) No Free Lunch D) the Collective Utilitarian principle

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C) very persuasive messages might reduce the need for multiple independent sources of information.

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A social consequence of the richness of Internet information is: A) an increase in shallowness. B) an increase in the ease of creating misleading information. C) very persuasive messages might reduce the need for multiple independent sources of information. D) an increase in vulnerability to hacking attacks.

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B) copyright law.

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Downloading a music track owned by a record company without paying for it is an example of a violation of: A) patent law. B) copyright law. C) trademark law. D) privacy law.

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B) ubiquity

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Which of the following features of e-commerce technology can result in work and shopping invading family life? A) interactivity B) ubiquity C) information density D) global reach

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D) due process

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Which of the following basic ethical concepts plays an important role in defining privacy? A) responsibility B) accountability C) liability D) due process

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D) USA Freedom Act

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Which of the following is not aimed at strengthening the ability of law enforcement agencies to monitor Internet users without their knowledge? A) USA PATRIOT Act B) Homeland Security Act C) Communications Assistance for Law Enforcement Act D) USA Freedom Act

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C) search engines

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Which of the following tools can companies use to trace user statements and views on newsgroups, chat groups, and other public forums? A) cookies B) digital wallets C) search engines D) shopping carts

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C) Spyware

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________ can be used to record all keyboard activity of a user. A) Shopping carts B) Trusted computing environments C) Spyware D) DRM

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D) The NAI's privacy policies have established the TRUSTe seal.

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Which of the following statements about industry self-regulation regarding privacy is not true? A) OPA members are required to implement the OPA's privacy guidelines. B) The primary focus of industry efforts has been the use of online "seals" that attest to the site's policies. C) Industry efforts have not so far succeeded in reducing American fears of privacy invasion. D) The NAI's privacy policies have established the TRUSTe seal.

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A) Fair Credit Reporting Act

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The Spokeo case involved a claim for damages based on which of the following? A) Fair Credit Reporting Act B) Digital Millennium Copyright Act C) Anticybersquatting Consumer Protection Act D) Defend Trade Secrets Act

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B) Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act

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Which of the following requires financial institutions to inform consumers of their privacy policies and permits consumers some control over their records? A) Freedom of Information Act B) Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act C) COPPA D) HIPAA

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A) Choice/Consent

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Which of the following is a core Fair Information Practices (FIP) principle? A) Choice/Consent B) Access/Participation C) Security D) Enforcement

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A) Notice/Awareness

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Which of the FTC's Fair Information Practices (FIP) principles requires identification of the collector of data? A) Notice/Awareness B) Choice/Consent C) Access/Participation D) Security

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B) Choice/Consent

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Which of the FTC's Fair Information Practices (FIP) principles requires opt-in or opt-out policies to be in place? A) Notice/Awareness B) Choice/Consent C) Access/Participation D) Security

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A) Require firms to have consumers affirmatively opt-in before PII is collected.

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What is the FTC recommendation regarding choice as it relates to personally identifiable information (PII)? A) Require firms to have consumers affirmatively opt-in before PII is collected. B) Require firms to allow consumers to opt-out before PII is collected. C) Make collection of PII illegal. D) Require robust notice only before PII is collected.

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B) Simplified Choice

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"Do Not Track" falls under which of the following principles in the FTC's new privacy framework? A) Privacy by Design B) Simplified Choice C) Greater Transparency D) Scope

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C) Anonymous remailers

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________ allow(s) you to send e-mail without a trace. A) Anonymous surfing B) P3P C) Anonymous remailers D) Public key encryption

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C) Facebook's privacy policy became easier to understand.

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Which of the following is not true about the evolution of Facebook's privacy policies between 2005 and 2015? A) The amount of information gathered and monitored by Facebook increased. B) Facebook's privacy policies improved from 2005 to 2009. C) Facebook's privacy policy became easier to understand. D) Facebook's privacy policies have steadily declined since 2009.

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C) cleared web browser history and cookies

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According to data from Pew Research Center, which of the following is the action which the highest percentage of Internet users has taken to preserve their privacy online? A) used an anonymous web browsing service B) encrypted their communications C) cleared web browser history and cookies D) posted comments online anonymously

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C) The GDPR eliminates the right to be forgotten.

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Which of the following statements about the E.U. General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is not true? A) The GDPR replaces the E.U.'s existing Data Protection Directive. B) The GDPR applies to any firm operating in any E.U. country. C) The GDPR eliminates the right to be forgotten. D) The GDPR limits the ability of companies to use data for purposes other than those for which it was collected.

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B) Reputation.com

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________ is not a privacy advocacy group. A) EPIC B) Reputation.com C) CDT D) EFF

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B) Acxiom

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________ operates the largest private personal database in the world. A) Experian B) Acxiom C) TransUnion Corporation D) Apple

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C) it must be unique.

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All of the following are required in order for information to be considered a trade secret except: A) it must have commercial value to its owner. B) the owner must have taken steps to protect it. C) it must be unique. D) it must be something that others do not know.

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A) The CAS

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________ is a tiered notice and response system aimed at reducing copyright infringement over P2P networks. A) The CAS B) FIP C) Surfright D) The Open Internet Order

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A) the ability to make perfect copies of digital works at little cost

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What is the major reason the Internet has such potential for destroying traditional conceptions and implementations of intellectual property law? A) the ability to make perfect copies of digital works at little cost B) the anonymous nature of the Internet C) the support for instant peer-to-peer communication D) the use of standards for file formats

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B) Copyright law

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________ protects original forms of expression in a tangible medium. A) Trade secret law B) Copyright law C) Patent law D) Trademark law

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D) 95 years

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How long does copyright protection extend for corporate-owned works? A) 25 years B) 50 years C) 75 years D) 95 years

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C) A student copies a photograph of his favorite band from a website created by the band's record label and places it on the student's personal website.

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Which of the following situations would not qualify for the fair use exception to U.S. copyright law? A) A professor clips a newspaper article just before class and distributes copies of it to his class. B) A journalist quotes a paragraph from a book in a review of the book. C) A student copies a photograph of his favorite band from a website created by the band's record label and places it on the student's personal website. D) Google posts thumbnail images of books in the Google Book Search Project.

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D) free availability of the work on the Web.

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All of the following are factors that will be considered in determining whether use of copyrighted material is "fair use" except the: A) nature of the work used. B) amount of the work used. C) market effect of the use. D) free availability of the work on the Web.

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A) up to ten years' imprisonment for a first offense.

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All of the following are possible penalties for violating the Digital Millennium Copyright Act (DMCA) except: A) up to ten years' imprisonment for a first offense. B) fines up to $500,000 for a first offense. C) fines up to $1 million for a repeat offense. D) restitution to the injured parties for any losses due to infringement.

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B) the DMCA makes Internet Service Providers (ISPs) responsible and accountable for hosting websites or providing services to infringers regardless of whether the ISP is aware of infringement.

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All of the following statements about the Digital Millennium Copyright Act (DMCA) are true except: A) the DMCA makes it illegal to circumvent technological measures to protect works. B) the DMCA makes Internet Service Providers (ISPs) responsible and accountable for hosting websites or providing services to infringers regardless of whether the ISP is aware of infringement. C) the DMCA requires search engines to block access to infringing sites. D) the DMCA allows libraries to make digital copies of works for internal use only.

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C) Patent law

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________ allows someone to obtain an exclusive monopoly on the ideas behind an invention for 20 years. A) Copyright law B) Trade secret law C) Patent law D) Trademark law

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A) it is more difficult to obtain a copyright than it is to obtain a patent.

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All of the following statements about patents are true except: A) it is more difficult to obtain a copyright than it is to obtain a patent. B) the four types of inventions protected by patent law are machines, manmade products, compositions of matter, and processing methods. C) computer programs can be patented. D) to be patented, an invention must be nonobvious.

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B) State Street Bank & Trust Co. v. Signature Financial Group, Inc.

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Which case was instrumental in paving the way for Internet business methods patents? A) Brown Bag v. Symantec B) State Street Bank & Trust Co. v. Signature Financial Group, Inc. C) Alice Corporation Pty. Ltd. v. CLS Bank International D) Ticketmaster Corp. v. Tickets.com

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C) one-click purchasing.

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Amazon has a patent on: A) download-based sales. B) display of third-party advertisements in floating windows. C) one-click purchasing. D) hyperlinks.

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D) infringement

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Disputes over federal trademarks involve establishing: A) underlying ideas. B) intent. C) piracy. D) infringement

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A) cybersquatting.

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Registering a domain name similar or identical to trademarks of others to extort profits from legitimate holders is an example of: A) cybersquatting. B) cyberpiracy. C) framing. D) metatagging.

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C) WIPO

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Which of the following handles cybersquatting cases under its Uniform Dispute Resolution procedures? A) ICANN B) FTC C) WIPO D) USPTO

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B) cyberpiracy.

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Registering a domain name similar or identical to trademarks of others to divert web traffic to their own sites is an example of: A) cybersquatting. B) cyberpiracy. C) framing. D) metatagging.

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B) typosquatting.

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Registering the domain name Faceboik.com with the intent to divert web traffic from people misspelling Facebook.com is an example of: A) cybersquatting. B) typosquatting. C) metatagging. D) linking.

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C) framing.

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The display of a third-party's website or page within your own website is called: A) cybersquatting. B) metatagging. C) framing. D) deep linking.

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A) The courts have decided that Apple does not have a valid patent on the iPhone's user interface.

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Which of the following statements about the patent battle between Apple and Samsung is not true? A) The courts have decided that Apple does not have a valid patent on the iPhone's user interface. B) The courts have ruled that Samsung has infringed on some of Apple's patents. C) Analysts believe the cost to Apple of this litigation is at least equal to the damage award it may ultimately be paid. D) Over the last five years of litigation, Samsung has changed its interface and functionality to greatly reduce its infringement.

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A) copyright infringement

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Megaupload's founder, Kim Dotcom, was arrested in connection with which of the following? A) copyright infringement B) patent infringement C) trademark infringement D) privacy violation

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D) deep linking

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Which of the following involves bypassing the target site's home page and going directly to a content page? A) cybersquatting B) metatagging C) framing D) deep linking

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A) The FCC now regulates ISP pricing.

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Which of the following statements about net neutrality is not true? A) The FCC now regulates ISP pricing. B) The FCC ruled that Internet broadband service providers should be viewed as public utilities similar to telephone companies. C) The FCC overruled state laws that made it difficult for cities to operate their own broadband networks. D) ISPs can no longer discriminate against users on the basis of protocol or amount of usage.

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D) regulation of taxation

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Which of the following is not a major e-commerce public safety and welfare issue? A) regulation of gambling B) regulation of cigarette sales C) regulation of pornography D) regulation of taxation

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Econ 139A UCSC Midterm 1 Singh – Flashcards

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