Delegation and Prioritization Practice (Neuro) – Flashcards
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What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a client experiencing a migraine headache? A) Acute Pain related to biologic and chemical factors. B) Anxiety related to change in or threat to health status. C) Hopelessness related to deteriorating physiologic condition. D) Risk for Injury related to side effects of medical therapy.
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Answer: A Rationale: The priority for interdisciplinary care for the client experiencing a migraine headache is pain management. All of the other nursing diagnoses are accurate, but none of them is urgent like the issue of pain, which is often incapacitating.
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You are creating a teaching plan for a client with newly-diagnosed migraine headaches. Which key items will you include in the teaching plan? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY) A) Foods that contain tyramine, such as alcohol and aged cheese, should be avoided. B) Drugs such as nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) and nifedipine (Procardia) should be avoided. C) Abortive therapy is aimed at eliminating the pain during the aura. D) A potential side effect of medications is rebound headache. E) Complementary therapies such as biofeedback and relaxation may be helpful. F) Estrogen therapy should be continued as prescribed by your physician.
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Answer: A, B, C, D, E Rationale: Medications such as estrogen supplements may actually trigger a migraine headache attack. All of the other statements are more accurate.
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After a client has a seizure, which action can you delegate to the UAP? A) Documenting the seizure. B) Performing neurologic checks. C) Taking the client's vital signs. D) Restraining the client for protection.
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Answer: C Rationale: Measurement of vital signs is within the education and scope of practice of UAPs. The nurse should perform neurologic checks and document the seizure. Clients with seizures should not be restrained; however, the nurse may guide the client's movements if necessary.
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You are preparing to admit a client with a seizure disorder. Which actions can you delegate to an LPN? A) Completing the admission assessment. B) Setting up oxygen and suction equipment. C) Placing a padded tongue blade at the bedside. D) Padding the side rails before the client arrives.
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Answer: B Rationale: The LPN can set up the equipment for oxygen and suctioning. The RN should perform the complete initial assessment. Controversy exists as to whether padded side rails actually provide safety, and blades should not be at the bedside and should never be inserted into the client's mouth after a seizure begins.
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A nursing student is teaching a client and family about epilepsy before the client's discharge. For which statement should you intervene? A) "You should avoid consumption of all forms of alcohol." B) "Wear your medical alert bracelet at all times." C) "Protect your loved one's airway during a seizure." D) "It's OK to take over-the-counter medications."
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Answer: D Rationale: A client with a seizure disorder should not take OTC medications without consulting with a health care provider first. The other three statements are appropriate teaching points for clients with seizure disorders and their families.
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A client with Parkinson's disease has received a nursing diagnosis of Impaired Physical Mobility r/t neuromuscular impairment. You observe the UAP performing all of the following actions. For which action must you intervene? A) Helping the client ambulate to the bathroom and back to bed. B) Reminding the client not to look at his feet when he is walking. C) Performing the client's complete bathing and oral care. D) Setting up the client's tray and encouraging the client to feed himself.
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Answer: C Rationale: The UAP should help the client with morning care as needed, but the goal is to keep this client as independent and mobile as possible. The client should be encouraged to perform as much morning care as possible. Assisting the client with ambulating, reminding the client not to look at his feet (to prevent falls), and encouraging the client to feed himself are all appropriate to the goal of maintaining independence.
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You are preparing to discharge a client with chronic low back pain. Which statement by the client indicates the need for additional teaching? A) "I will avoid exercise because the pain gets worse." B) "I will use heat o rice to help control the pain." C) I will not wear high-heeled shoes at home or work." D) "I will purchase a firm mattress to replace my old one."
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Answer: A Rationale: Exercises are used to strengthen the back, relieve pressure on compressed nerves, and protect the back from re-injury. Ice, heat, and firm mattresses are appropriate interventions for back pain. People with chronic back pain should avoid wearing high-heeled shoes at all times.
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A client with a spinal cord injury (SCI) reports sudden severe throbbing headache that started a short time ago. Assessment of the client reveals increased blood pressure (169/94 mmHg) and decreased heart rate (48 bpm), diaphoresis, and flushing of the face and neck. What action should you take first? A) Administer the ordered acetaminophen (Tylenol). B) Check the Foley tubing for kinks or obstruction. C) Adjust the temperature in the client's room. D) Notify the physician about the change in status.
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Answer: B Rationale: The signs and symptoms are characteristic of autonomic dysreflexia, a neurologic emergency that must be promptly treated to prevent a hypertensive stroke. The cause of this syndrome is noxious stimuli, most often a distended bladder or constipation, so checking for poor catheter drainage, bladder distention, and fecal impaction is the first action that should be taken. adjusting the room temperature may be helpful, because too cool a temperature in the room may contribute to the problem. Acetaminophen will not decrease the autonomic dysreflexia that is causing the client's headache. Notifying the physician may be necessary if nursing actions do not resolve symptoms.
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Which client should you, as the charge nurse, assign to the new RN graduate who is on orientation to the neurologic unit? A) 28-year-old newly-admitted client with an SCI. B) 67-year-old who had a stroke 3 days ago and has left-sided weakness. C) 85-year-old with dementia who is to be transferred to long-term care today. D) 54-year-old with Parkinson's disease who needs assistance with bathing.
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Answer: B Rationale: The new RN graduate who is on orientation to the unit should be assigned to care for clients with stable, noncomplex conditions, such as the client with stroke. The task of helping the client with Parkinson's disease to bathe is best delegated to the UAP. The client being transferred to the nursing home and the newly-admitted client with SCI should be assigned to experienced nurses.
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A client with an SCI at level C3-C4 is being cared for in the emergency department (ED). What is the priority assessment? A) Determine the level at which the client has intact sensation. B) Assess the level at which the client has retained mobility. C) Check blood pressure and pulse for signs of spinal shock. D) Monitor respiratory effort and oxygen saturation level.
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Answer: D Rationale: The first priority for the client with an SCI is assessing respiratory patterns and ensuring an adequate airway. A client with a high cervical injury is at risk for respiratory compromise, because spinal nerves C3 through C5 innervate the phrenic nerve, which controls the diaphragm. The other assessments are also necessary but are not as high a priority.
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You are floated from the ED to the neurologic floor. Which action should you delegate to the UAP when providing nursing care for a client with an SCI? A) Assessing the client's respiratory status every 4 hours. B) Taking the client's vital signs and recording every 4 hours. C) Monitoring the client's nutritional status, including calorie count. D) Instructing the client how to turn, cough, and breathe deeply every 2 hours.
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Answer: B Rationale: The UAPs training and education covers measuring and recording vital signs. The UAP may help with turning and repositioning the client and may remind the client to cough and deep breathe, but he or she does not teach the client how to perform these actions. Assessing and monitoring clients require additional education and are appropriate to the scope of practice of professional nurses.
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You are helping a client with an SCI to establish a bladder retraining program. Which strategies may stimulate the client to void? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY) A) Stroking the client's inner thigh. B) Pulling on the client's pubic hair. C) Initiating intermittent straight catheterization. D) Pouring warm water over the client's perineum. E) Tapping the bladder to stimulate the detrusor muscle.
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Answer: A, B, D, E Rationale: All of the strategies except straight catheterization may stimulate voiding in clients with an SCI. Intermittent bladder catheterization can be used to empty the client's bladder, but it will not stimulate voiding.
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A client with a cervical SCI has been placed in fixed skeletal traction with a halo fixation device. When caring for this client, the nurse may delegate which actions to an LPN? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY) A) Checking the client's skin for pressure from the device. B) Assessing the client's neurologic status for changes. C) Observing the halo insertion sites for signs of infection. D) Cleaning the halo insertion sites with hydrogen peroxide. E) Developing the nursing plan of care for the client.
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Answer: A, C, D Rationale: Checking and observing for signs of pressure or infection is within the scope of practice of the LPN. The LPN also has the appropriate skills for cleaning the halo insertion sites with hydrogen peroxide. Neurologic examination and care plan development require additional education and skill appropriate to the professional nurse.
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You are preparing a nursing care plan for a client with an SCI for whom the nursing diagnoses of Impaired Physical Mobility and Toileting Self-Care Deficit have been identified. The client tells you, "I don't know why we're doing all this. My life's over." Based on this statement, which additional nursing diagnosis takes priority? A) Risk for Injury r/t altered mobility. B) Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements. C) Impaired Individual Resilience r/t spinal cord injury. D) Disturbed Body Image r/t immobilization.
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Answer: C Rationale: The client's statement indicates impaired individual resilience in adjusting to the limitations of the injury and the need for additional counseling, teaching, and support. The other three nursing diagnoses may be appropriate for a client with SCI but are not related to the client's statement.
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Which client should be assigned to the traveling nurse, new to neurologic nursing care, who has been on the neurologic unit for 1 week? A) 34-year-old with newly diagnosed multiple sclerosis (MS). B) 68-year-old with chronic amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). C) 56-year-old with Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) in respiratory distress. D) 25-year-old admitted with a C4-level SCI.
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Answer: B Rationale: The traveling nurse is relatively new to neurologic nursing and should be assigned clients whose condition is stable and not complex, such as the client with chronic ALS. The newly-diagnosed client with MS will need a lot of teaching and support. The client with respiratory distress will need frequent assessments and may need to be transferred to the ICU. The client with a C4-level SCI is at risk for respiratory arrest. All three of these clients should be assigned to nurses experienced in neurologic nursing care.
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A client with MS tells the UAP after physical therapy that she is too tired to take a bath. What is the priority nursing diagnosis at this time? A) Fatigue r/t disease state. B) Activity Intolerance r/t generalized weakness. C) Impaired Physical Mobility r/t neuromuscular impairment. D) Bathing Self-Care Deficit r/t fatigue and neuromuscular weakness.
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Answer: D Rationale: At this time, based on the client's statement, the priority is Bathing Self-Care Deficit related to fatigue after physical therapy. The other three nursing diagnoses are appropriate to a patient with MS but are not related to the client's statement.
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An LPN, under your supervision, is providing nursing care for a client with GBS. What observation should you instruct the LPN to report immediately? A) Reports of numbness and tingling. B) Facial weakness and difficulty speaking. C) Rapid heart rate of 102 bpm. D) Shallow respirations and decreased breath sounds.
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Answer: D Rationale: The priority intervention for a client with GBS is maintaining adequate respiratory function. Clients with GBS are at risk for respiratory failure. which requires urgent intervention. The other findings are important and should be reported to the nurse. but they are not life threatening.
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The UAP reports to you, the RN, that a client with myasthenia gravis has an elevated temperature (102.2 degrees Fahrenheit), an increased heart rate (120 bpm), and a rise in blood pressure (158/94 mmHg) and was incontinent of urine and stool. What is your best first action at this time? A) Administer an acetaminophen suppository. B) Notify the physician immediately. C) Recheck vital signs in 1 hour. D) Reschedule the client's physical therapy.
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Answer: B Rationale: The changes that the UAP is reporting are characteristic of myasthenic crisis, which often follows some type of infection. The client is at risk for inadequate respiratory function. In addition to notifying the physician, the nurse should carefully monitor the client's respiratory status. The client may need intubation and mechanical ventilation.
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You are providing care for a client with an acute hemorrhagic stroke. The client's spouse tells you that he has been reading a lot about strokes and asks why his wife has not received alteplase (Activase). What is your best response? A) "Your wife was not admitted within the time frame that alteplase is usually given." B) "This drug is used primarily for client's who experience an acute heart attack." C) "Alteplase dissolves clots and may cause more bleeding into your wife's brain." D) "Your wife had gallbladder surgery just 6 months ago, and this prevents the use of alteplase."
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Answer: C Rationale: Alteplase is a clot buster. In a client who has experienced hemorrhagic stroke, there is already bleeding into the brain. A drug such as alteplase can worsen the bleeding. The other statements about the use of alteplase are accurate but are not pertinent to this client's diagnosis.
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You are supervising a senior nursing student who is caring for a client with a right hemisphere stroke. Which action by the student nurse requires that you intervene? A) Instructing the client to sit up straight. B) Moving the client's food tray to the right side of his over-bed table. C) Assisting the client with passive ROM exercises. D) Combing the hair on the left side of the client's head when the client always combs his hair on the right side.
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Answer: A Rationale: Clients with right cerebral hemisphere stroke often manifest neglect syndrome. They lean to the left and, when asked, respond that they believe they are sitting up straight. They often neglect the left side of their bodies and ignore food on the left side of their food trays. The nurse needs to remind the student of this phenomenon and discuss the appropriate interventions.
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Which actions should you delegate to an experienced UAP when caring for a client with a thrombotic stroke who has residual left-sided weakness? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY) A) Assisting the client to reposition every 2 hours. B) Reapplying pneumatic compression boots. C) Reminding the client to perform active ROM exercises. D) Assessing the extremities for redness and edema. E) Setting up meal trays and assisting with feeding.
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Answer: A, B, C, E Rationale: An experienced UAP would know how to reposition the client, reapply compression boots, and feed a client, and would remind the client to perform activities the client has been taught to perform. Assessing for redness and swelling (signs of DVT) requires additional education and skill, appropriate to the professional nurse.
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A client who had a stroke needs to be fed. What instruction should you give to the UAP who will feed the client? A) Position the client sitting up in bed before you feed him. B) Check the client's gag and swallowing reflexes. C) Feed the client quickly, because there are three more that need to be fed. D) Suction the client's secretions between bites of food.
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Answer: A Rationale: Positioning the client in a sitting position decreases the risk of aspiration. The UAP is not trained to assess gag or swallowing reflexes. The client should not be rushed during feeding. A client who needs suctioning performed between bites of food is not handling secretions and is at risk for aspiration. Such a client should be assessed further before feeding.
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You have just admitted a client with bacterial meningitis who reports a severe headache with photophobia and has a temperature of 102.6 degrees F orally. Which prescribed intervention should be implemented first? A) Administer codeine 15 mg orally for the client's headache. B) Infuse ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 2000 mg IV to treat the infection. C) Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg orally to reduce fever. D) Give furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV to decrease ICP.
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Answer: B Rationale: Bacterial meningitis is a medical emergency, and antibiotics are administered even before the diagnosis is confirmed (after specimens have been collected for culture). The other interventions will also help to reduce CNS stimulation and irritation and should be implemented as soon as possible, but are not as important as starting antibiotic therapy.
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You are mentoring a student nurse in the ICU while caring for a client with meningococcal meningitis. Which action by the student requires that you intervene most rapidly? A) Entering the room without putting on PPE. B) Instructing the family that visits are restricted to 10 minutes. C) Giving the client a warm blanket when he says he feels cold. D) Checking the client's pupil response to light every 30 minutes.
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Answer: A Rationale: Meningococcal meningitis is spread through contact with respiratory secretions, so use of a mask and gown is required to prevent transmission of the infection to staff members or other clients. The other actions ma not be appropriate but do not require intervention as rapidly. The presence of a family member at the bedside may decrease client confusion and agitation. Clients with hyperthermia frequently report feeling chilled, but warming the client is not an appropriate intervention. Checking the pupils response to light is appropriate but is not needed every 30 minutes and is uncomfortable for a client with photophobia.
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A 23-year-old with a recent history of encephalitis is admitted to the medical unit with new-onset generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Which nursing activities included in the client's care will be best to delegate to an LPN whom you are supervising? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY) A) Observing and documenting the onset and duration of any seizure activity. B) Administering phenytoin (Dilantin) 200 mg PO TID. C) Teaching the client about the need for frequent tooth brushing and flossing. D) Developing a discharge plan that includes referral to the Epilepsy Foundation. E) Assessing for adverse effects caused by new anti- seizure medications.
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Answer: A, B Rationale: Any nursing staff member who is involved in caring for the client should observe for the onset and duration of any seizures (although a more detailed assessment of seizure activity should be done by the RN). Administration of medications is included in LPN education and scope of practice. Teaching, discharge planning, and assessment for adverse effects of new medications are complex activities that require RN-level education and scope of practice.
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Which nursing action will be implemented first if a client has a generalized tonic-clonic seizure? A) Turn the client to one side. B) Give lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IV. C) Administer oxygen via nonrebreather mask. D) Assess the client's LOC.
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Answer: A Rationale: The priority action during a generalized tonic-clonic seizure is to protect the airway by turning the client to one side. Administering lorazepam should be the next action, because it will act rapidly to control the seizure. Although oxygen may be useful during the postictal phase. the hypoxemia during tonic-clonic seizures is caused by apnea, which cannot be corrected by oxygen administration. Checking level of consciousness is not appropriate during the seizure, because generalized tonic-clonic seizures are associated with a loss of consciousness.
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A client who recently started taking phenytoin to control simple partial seizures is seen in the outpatient clinic. Which information obtained during her chart review and assessment will be of greatest concern. A) The gums appear enlarged and inflamed. B) The WBC count is 2300/mm3. C) The client sometimes forgets to take the phenytoin until the afternoon. D) The client wants to renew her driver's license in the next month.
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Answer: B Rationale: Leukopenia is a serious adverse effect of phenytoin therapy and would require discontinuation of the medication. The other data indicate a need for further assessment and/or client teaching but will not require a change in a medical treatment for the seizures.
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After you receive the change-of-shift report at 7:00am, which client will you assess first? A) 23-year-old with a migraine headache who reports severe nausea associated with retching. B) 45-year-old who is scheduled for a craniotomy in 30 minutes and needs preoperative teaching. C) 59-year-old with Parkinson's disease who will need a swallowing assessment before breakfast. D) 63-year-old with MS who has an oral temperature of 101.8 F and flank pain.
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Answer: D Rationale: UTIs are a frequent complication in clients with MS because of the effect of the disease on bladder function, and UTIs may lead to sepsis in these clients. The elevated temperature and flank pain suggest that this client may have pyelonephritis. The physician should be notified immediately so that IV antibiotic therapy can be started quickly. The other clients should be assessed as soon as possible, but their needs are not as urgent as those of this client.
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All of these nursing activities are included in the care plan for a 78-year-old man with Parkinson's disease who has been referred to your home health agency. Which activities will you delegate to the UAP? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY) A) Checking for orthostatic changes in pulse and blood pressure. B) Assessing for improvement in tremor after levodopa (L-dopa [Larodopa]) is given. C) Reminding the client to allow adequate time for meals. D) Monitoring for signs of toxic reactions to anti- Parkinson medications. E) Assisting the client with prescribed strengthening exercises. F) Adapting the client's preferred activities to his level of function.
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Answer: A, C, E Rationale: UAP education and scope of practice include taking pulse and blood pressure measurements. In addition, UAPs can reinforce previous teaching or skills taught by the RN or personnel in other disciplines, such as speech or physical therapists. Evaluating client response to medications and developing and individualizing the plan of care require RN-level education and scope of practice.
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You are in charge of developing a standard plan of care in an Alzheimer disease care facility and are responsible for delegating and supervising resident care given by LPNs and UAPs. Which activity is best to delegate to the LPN team leaders? A) Checking for improvement in resident memory after medication therapy is initiated. B) Using a Mini-Mental State Examination to assess residents every 6 months. C) Assisting residents in using the toilet every 2 hours to decrease risk for urinary incontinence. D) Developing individualized activity plans for consulting with residents and family.
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Answer: A Rationale: LPN education and team leader responsibilities include checking for the therapeutic and adverse effects of medications. Changes in the residents' memory would be communicated to the RN supervisor, who is responsible for overseeing the plan of care for each resident. Assessing for changes in score on the Mini-Mental State Examination and developing the plan of care are RN responsibilities. Assisting residents with personal care and hygiene would be delegated to UAPs working at the long-term care facility.
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A client who has Alzheimer disease is hospitalized with new-onset angina. Her husband tells you he does not sleep well because he needs to be sure she does not wander during the night. He insists on checking each of the medications you give the client to be sure they are "the same pills she takes at home." Based on this information, which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for this client? A) Decreased Cardiac Output r/t poor myocardial contractility. B) Caregiver Role Strain r/t continuous need for providing care. C) Risk for Falls related to client wandering behavior during the night. D) Ineffective Family Therapeutic Regimen Management r/t poor client memory.
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Answer: B Rationale: The husband's statement about lack of sleep and anxiety about whether his wife is receiving the correct medications are behaviors that support this diagnosis. There is not evidence that the client's cardiac output is decreased. The husband's statements about how he monitors the client and his concern with medication administration indicate that the risk for ineffective family therapeutic regimen management and falls are not priority diagnoses at this time.
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You are caring for a client with a glioblastoma (brain tumor) who is receiving dexamethasone (Decadron) 4 mg IV every 6 hours to relieve symptoms of right arm weakness and headache. Which assessment information will concern you the most? A) The client no longer recognizes family members. B) The blood glucose level is 234 mg/dL. C) The client reports a continuing headache. D) The daily weight has increased 1 kg.
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Answer: A Rationale: The inability to recognize family members is a new neurologic deficit for this client and indicates a possible increase in ICP. This change should be communicated to the health care provider immediately so that treatment can be initiated. The continuing headache also indicates that the ICP may be elevated but is not a new problem. The glucose elevation and weight gain are common adverse effects of dexamethasone that may require treatment but are not emergencies.
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A 70-year-old alcoholic client who has become lethargic, confused, and incontinent during the last week is admitted to the ED. His wife tells you that he fell down the stairs about a month ago, but that "he didn't have a scratch afterward." Which collaborative interventions will you implement first? A) Place the client on the hospital alcohol withdrawal protocol. B) Transport the client to the radiology department for a CT scan. C) Make a referral to the social services department. D) Give the client phenytoin 100 mg PO.
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Answer: B Rationale: The client's history and assessment data indicate that he may have a chronic subdural hematoma. The priority goal is to obtain a rapid diagnosis and send the client to surgery to have the hematoma evacuated. The other interventions also should be implemented as soon as possible, but the initial nursing activities should be directed toward diagnosis and treatment of any intracranial lesion.
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Which client in the neurologic ICU will be best to assign to an RN who has been floated from the medical unit? A) 26-year-old with a basilar skull fracture who has clear drainage coming out of the nose. B) 42-year-old admitted several hours ago with a headache and a diagnosis of a ruptured berry aneurysm. C) 46-year-old who was admitted 48 hours ago with bacterial meningitis and has an antibiotic dose due. D) 65-year-old with an astrocytoma (brain tumor) who has just returned to the unit after undergoing craniotomy.
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Answer: C Rationale: Of the clients listed, the client with bacterial meningitis is in the most stable condition. An RN from the medical unit would be familiar with administering IV antibiotics. The other clients require assessments and care from RNs more experience in caring for clients with neurologic diagnoses.