question

What are the 3 IBM Curam Solutions?

answer

ICI, 1. Income Support, 2. Income Support for Medical Assistance, 3. Child Welfare

question

What are the 9 IBM Curam Enterprise Modules?

answer

SAVE-LO-PUB, 1. Social Enterprise Collaboration, 2. Appeals, 3. Verification Engine, 4. Evidence Broker, 5. Life Event Management, 6. Outcome Management, 7. Provider Management, 8. Universal Access, 9. Business Intelligence & Analysis

question

What are the 3 tiers of the Curam Social Program Management?

answer

SES, 1. Solutions, 2. Enterprise Modules, 3. Social Program Management Platform (focus of our course is on the platform)

question

What does SPM stand for?

answer

Social Program Management (SPM)

question

What does UI stand for?

answer

User Interface

question

What does TANF stand for?

answer

Temporary Assistance for Needy Families

question

What does EIS stand for?

answer

Early Intervention Services

question

What are Social Enterprises?

answer

Social Enterprises are organizations responsible for the delivery of essential services

question

What is Curam SPM designed to do?

answer

Curam SPM is designed to help a range of SPM orgaqnizations to manage and delivery their producuts and services.

question

What is Curam Social Program Management (SPM)?

answer

Curam SPM is a business and technology blueprint that supports the transformation from a program-driven business model to a client-centered, integrated service delivery model.

question

What are 5 types of SPM organizations?

answer

1. Labor, 2. Human Services, 3. Health, 4. Social Security and Pensions, 5. Military and Veterans' Affairs

question

What are the 5 SPM Platform Components?

answer

CABAT, 1. Case Management, 2. Administration Suite, 3. Business Services, 4. Application Development Environment, 5. Technical Services,

question

What are the 5 areas of SPM Case Management?

answer

PEFEC, 1. Participant Management, 2. Evidence Management, 3. Financial Management, 4. Eligibility and Entitlement (Rules), 5. Common Intake

question

What are the 5 areas of SPM Business Services?

answer

1. Search, 2. Task Management, 3. Calendar Scheduling, 4. Case Audit, 5. Correspondence

question

What are the 6 areas of SPM Technical Services?

answer

SEW-WIM, 1. Security, 2. EAI, 3. Workflow, 4. Web Services, 5. IEG, 6. Multi-Channel Access

question

Who uses the SPM Administration Suite?

answer

The System Administrator performs online configuration in the SPM Administration Suite

question

Who uses the Application Development Environment?

answer

The Developer performs compliant customization in the Application Development Environment

question

What is the purpose of Curam Appeals Enterprise Module?

answer

The Curam Appeals Enterprise Module manages the processes around appeals and legal actions

question

What is the purpose of Curam Business Intelligence ; Analytics Enterprise Module?

answer

The Curam Business Intelligence and Analytics Enterprise Module provides data warehousing, embedded analytics, adhoc reporting, interactive dashboards, and reports.

question

What is the purpose of Curam Evidence Broker Enterprise Module?

answer

The Curam Evidence Broker Enterprise Module enables flexible data (evidence) sharing between different case types, as well as between agencies.

question

What is the purpose of Curam Life Event Management Enterprise Module?

answer

The Curam Life Event Management Enterprise Module enables the caseworker to collect evidence and provide guidance that is based on a client's life event, such as birth of a child, marriage, divorce, or change in employment. This module works with other Curam Enterprise Modules and Solutions.

question

What is the purpose of Curam Outcome Management Enterprise Module?

answer

The Curam Outcome Management Enterprise Module uses Outcome Plans to manage assessments, objectives, activities, and multi-disciplinary teams to help a client achieve a specific outcome, rather than simply deliver benefits.

question

What is the purpose of Curam Provider Management Enterprise Module?

answer

The Curam Provider Management Enterprise Module manages the interactions between the agency and its outside providers, such as foster families, housing facilities, and other vendors.

question

What is the purpose of Curam Social Collaboration Enterprise Module?

answer

The Curam Social Collaboration Enterprise Module facilitates collaboration between agencies and other interested parties.

question

What is the purpose of Curam Universal Access Enterprise Module?

answer

The Curam Universal Access Enterprise Module provides public access that enables citizens to screen for programs, apply online for benefits, and manage their Citizen Account.

question

What is the purpose of Curam Verification Engine Enterprise Module?

answer

The Curam Verification Engine Enterprise Module enables organizations to dynamically define and manage the data elements, as well as the means by which evidence can be verified. For example, the system can inform the user that they must collect a birth certificate to verify a client's date of birth.

question

Curam Solutions contains 9 pre-built what?

answer

Curam Solutions contains 9 pre-built:, 1. Processes, 2. Flows, 3. Functionality, Including: 4. Intake, 5. Triage, 6. Investigation, 7. Evaluation, 8. Benefit Delivery, 9. Reporting (depending on the module)

question

Identify the 3 major components of the IBM Curam Social Program Management Platform User Interface (UI)

answer

The Curam SPM 6.05 User Interface consists of the following major components:, ASA, 1. Application Banner, 2. Shortcuts Panel, 3. Application Tabs

question

Where is the Application Banner found?

answer

The Application Banner always appears at the top of the screen.

question

What are the 3 menu items in the Application Banner's Application Menu?

answer

The 3 menu items in the Application Banner's Application Menu are:, 1. Preferences, 2. Log Out, 3. Help

question

What are the 5 main items in an Application Tab?

answer

The 5 main items in an Application Tab are:, 1. Tab Title Bar, 2. Context Panel (optional), 3. Navigation Bar, 4. Page Group Navigation Bar, 5. Tab Content Page

question

What does IEG stand for?

answer

Internal Evidence Gathering (IEG)

question

What does EAI stand for?

answer

Enterprise Application Integration

question

What acts as a repository for the SPM functionality provided by Curam?

answer

The IBM Curam Social Program Management (SPM) Platform acts as a repository for the SPM functionality provided by Curam

question

What houses the foundational infrastructure and functionality at the heart of Curam Social Program Management?

answer

The SPM Platform houses the foundational infrastructure and functionality at the heart of Curam Social Program Management

question

In the Applications Tab, what does the Tab Title Bar contain?

answer

The Tab Title Bar contains the tab name, close button, tab title, tab actions menu, and context panel drop-down toggle.

question

In the Applications Tab, what does the Context Panel contain?

answer

The Context Panel is an optional component of the tab. The Context Panel shows the most important information regarding the object.

question

In the Applications Tab, what does the Navigation Bar contain?

answer

The Navigation bar shows one or more pages for the Application Tab.

question

In the Applications Tab, what does the Page Group Navigation Bar contain?

answer

The Page Group Navigation Bar is used to represent a group of related pages

question

In the Applications Tab, what does the Tab Content Page contain?

answer

The Tab Content Page is the main information area of the tab. Pagers contain several components, such as Page Title Bar, Clusters, and Lists.

question

What is the Shortcuts Panel used for?

answer

The Shortcuts Panel contains links to commonly used actions and pages. Note: The available options are dependent on the user's role and security. The content of the shortcuts panel is divided into categories. The Shortcuts panel is on the left side of the interface.

question

When are Modal Dialogs used?

answer

Modal Dialogs are shown whenever a user executes an action. For example: New, Edit, Delete.

question

What are Wizards used for?

answer

Wizards are shown whenever an action or process requires multiple modal dialogs for completion.

question

What are the components of a Wizard?

answer

TPCB, 1. Title Bar, 2. Progress Bar, 3. Content Area, 4. Button Bar

question

What does the Smart Panel contain?

answer

The Smart Panel contains 2 components:, 1. Advisor - contains recommendations and suggestions; it aids the user to work through the process at hand, 2. Quick Notes - enables the user to take notes while working through the task at hand."

question

In the Smart Panel, what is the Advisor component used for?

answer

The Advisor component is used to aid the user to work through the process at hand. It provides recommendations & suggestions.

question

In the Smart Panel, what is the Quick Notes component used for?

answer

The Quick Notes component is used to enable the user to take notes while working through the task at hand.

question

What are Home Pages used for?

answer

Upon logging in, the user is shown the Home Page dashboard. It contains several pods that are designed to provide the user with access to their most important and relevant activities.

question

What are Pods used for?

answer

Pods are displayed on the user's Home Page dashboard. Pods that are designed to provide the user with access to their most important and relevant activities. 3 pods are common to most applications: Quick Links, My Appointments, and My Tasks.

question

What 3 pods are common to most Curam applications?

answer

3 pods common to most applications are: , 1. Quick Links, 2. My Appointments, 3. My Tasks.

question

Name some common Icons and Buttons on the Curam SPM Platform User Interface.

answer

Some common Icons and Buttons on the Curam SPM Platform User Interface are:, 1. Action Menus, 2. Magnifying Glass (Search), 3. Clear Entry, 4. Calendar, 5. Refresh, 6. Help, 7. Dropdown toggle

question

On the SPM Platform User Interface, what is the Action Menus buttons used for?

answer

The Action Menus buttons is used to display the most commonly used actions that apply to the object.

question

There are 3 types of action menus in the Curam interface:

answer

1. Tab, 2. Page, 3. List

question

On the SPM Platform User Interface, what is the Magnifying icon used for?

answer

The Magnifying icon is used to search for a value to populate the field.

question

On the SPM Platform User Interface, what is the Clear Entry icon used for?

answer

The Clear Entry icon is used to erase the value in the field

question

On the SPM Platform User Interface, what is the Calendar icon used for?

answer

The Calendar icon is used to select a specific date to populate the field

question

On the SPM Platform User Interface, what is the Drop-down toggle icon used for?

answer

The Drop-down toggle icon is an arrow. Clicking the arrow allows you to show or hide the content under the specific object. The arrow appears at several levels of the UI, including context panel, cluster, list, and pod.

question

What are the 3 major components of the IBM Curam Social Program Management Platform User Interface?

answer

The 3 major components of the IBM Curam Social Program Management Platform User Interface are:, ASA, 1. Application Banner, 2. Shortcuts Panel, 3. Application Tabs

question

What are the 11 Curam participant roles types?

answer

The 11 Curam Participant Role Types are:, PEER-PUPPIES, 1. Person, 2. Employer, 3. External Party, 4. Representative, 5. Prospect Person, 6. Utility, 7. Prospect Employer, 8. Product Provider, 9. Information Provider, 10. Educational Institute, 11. Service Supplier

question

What is a participant?

answer

A participant is a party that has direct or indirect interaction with the organization and about which the organization needs to record information. Note: Curam enables you to assign multiple participant role types to a single participant.

question

What is a participant role?

answer

A participant role is a category based on the interaction the participant has with the organization. Each participant needs to be stored on the system in the context of the roles that they play. Participants can play more than one role.

question

In the IBM Curam Reference Model -- aka: Entity Relationship Diagram --, entities related to participant management are color-coded in what color?

answer

In the IBM Curam Reference Model -- aka: Entity Relationship Diagram --, entities related to participant management are color-coded in yellow

question

In the IBM Curam Reference Model, what is the entity for participant management?

answer

The Concern Role entity is the key participant management entity in the Curam Reference Model -- aka: Entity Relationship Diagram.

question

What is the participant management area of the Curam Reference Model called?

answer

The participant management area of the Curam Reference Model is called CONCERN

question

In Curam, what term is interchangeable with participant?

answer

In Curam, Concern and Participant are interchangeable terms.

question

In Curam, what term is interchangeable with Concern?

answer

In Curam, Concern and Participant are interchangeable terms.

question

What entity is the key entity in the Curam Reference Model for participant management

answer

The Concern Role entity is the key participant management entity in the Curam Reference Model -- aka: Entity Relationship Diagram.

question

What is the Concern Role?

answer

The Concern Role is an entity that enables you to care for situations where a single participant has several different participant roles in an organization or several different interactions with the organization.

question

What is another word for Concern role?

answer

Participant

question

What is another word for Participant?

answer

Concern role

question

What are some common Participant Elements?

answer

Some common Participant Elements are: Address, Administrator, Alternative ID, Attachments, Bank Account, Communications, Communication Exceptions, Contacts, Email Address, Financials, Interactions, Notes, Phone Number, Roles, Tasks, and Web Addresses.

question

The common Participant Element "Administrator" is used to store what information?

answer

The common Participant Element "Administrator" is the user that is assigned to manage the interactions between the organization and a participant.

question

The common Participant Element "Alternative ID" is used to store what information?

answer

The common Participant Element "Alternative ID" is a form of identification. For example, SIN. Note: Each participant has a primary alternative IS that is displayed on all participant pages. The system generates a reference number that servers as a participant's alternative ID.

question

The common Participant Element "Communication Exception" is used to store what information?

answer

The common Participant Element "Communication Exception" is used to indicate that a participant does not want to receive communications in a specific format (i.e. letter, fax, email, phone)

question

The common Participant Element "Interactions" is used to store what information?

answer

The common Participant Element "Interactions" is a system-generated list of interactions on all of a participant's communications and payments.

question

The common Participant Element "Roles" is used to store what information?

answer

The common Participant Element "Roles" is used to indicate the Participant Roles of the individual or entity that interacts with the organization. For example, if a registered person is also registered as an employer, a role record is stored for both the person and the employer.

question

The common Participant Element "Tasks" is used to store what information?

answer

The common Participant Element "Tasks" shows instructions to carry out an item of work. Tasks can be automatically or manually generated.

question

What is a Task?

answer

A task is an instruction to carry out an item of work. Usually the system automatically creates tasks, but a user can also manually create them.

question

Define a Participant

answer

A participant is any entity that has direct or indirect interaction with the organization, and about which the organization needs to record information.

question

True or False: Only the Product Provider, Service Supplier and Person participant types play a role in the delivery or receipt of benefits and services.

answer

False. All participant types play a role in the delivery or receipt of benefits and services.

question

Name the 11 Participant Types. Think PEER PUPPIES

answer

The 11 Curam Participant Role Types are:, 1. Person, 2. Employer, 3. External Party, 4. Representative, 5. Prospect Person, 6. Utility, 7. Prospect Employer, 8. Product Provider, 9. Information Provider, 10. Educational Institute, 11. Service Supplier

question

The user assigned to manage the interaction between the organization and a participant is the _________

answer

The user assigned to manage the interaction between the organization and a participant is the Administrator

question

"The following would be examples of what Person-Specific data: "A report of child neglect or abuse, or a work place accident."

answer

This is Incident data.

question

What is participant management?

answer

Participant Management provides an extensive range of functionality to allow organizations to register, maintain, and manage all parties involved in cases such as clients, service providers, and employees.

question

What is a Person Participant?

answer

A Person is an individual who is registered with the organization, usually to apply for benefits.

question

What is some Person-specific data?

answer

Curam stores the following Person-specific data:, 1. Alternative Names, 2. Cases, 3. Citizenships, 4. Deductions, 5. Education, 6. Employment, 7. Foreign Residencies, 8. Incidents, 9. Insurance Contribution Line Items and Consolidations, 10. Relationships, 11. Special Cautions

question

What is the Person data used for?

answer

The information that is stored for a person is used to manage the person's interaction with the organization.

question

What does the "Alternative Name" data contain?

answer

The Alternative Name is any name that is recorded for a person or prospect person. (Person data)

question

What does the "Incidents" data contain?

answer

Incidents are events that have, or could have, a direct negative effect on the health and safety of a person participant. For example, a report of child neglect or workplace accident. (Person data)

question

What does the "Insurance Contribution Line Items and Consolidations" data contain?

answer

Insurance Contribution Line Items and Consolidations data contains contributions from, or on behalf of, the person for such purposes as unemployment insurance or workers' compensation insurance. (Person data)

question

What does the "Special Cautions" data contain?

answer

Special Cautions are warning and alerts that are related to the participant. Categories include behavioral alerts, such as runaway, escapee, suicide risk; health alerts, such as allergies or contagious diseases; and safety issue alerts, such as criminal history, violent, or sexual offender

question

What is a Prospect-Person participant?

answer

A Prospect Person is an individual who:, a) Supplied insufficient information to be registered as a Person, or b) The organization does not want to register as a Person

question

This participant type can be deleted at set intervals outlined by the organization.

answer

Prospect Person types can be deleted at set intervals outlined by the organization

question

This participant type offers products to persons or employers on behalf of the organization.

answer

Product Providers offer products to persons or employers on behalf of the organization.

question

This participant type interacts with the organization on behalf of another participant.

answer

Representatives interacts with the organization on behalf of another participant.

question

This Participant type is paid by the organization on behalf of the client for essential commodities such as gas, and electricity.

answer

The Utility participant type is paid by the organization on behalf of the client for essential commodities such as gas, and electricity.

question

This Participant type supplies the organization with relevant information regarding other participants.

answer

Information Provider participants supply the organization with relevant information regarding other participants.

question

This Participant type offers services to individuals on behalf of the organization.

answer

Service Suppliers offers services to individuals on behalf of the organization.

question

What are the three common search criteria for participants.

answer

Reference Number, Name, and Address

question

True or False: Cúram does not allow users to search by nickname

answer

FALSE, Cúram does allow users to search by nickname

question

What is the Cúram wildcard symbol used when searching?

answer

The % sign is the Cúram wildcard symbol used when searching

question

This participant type can submit information on behalf of a Person known to the system.

answer

External Party participants can submit information on behalf of a Person known to the system.

question

List 6 components of the application banner

answer

6 components of the application banner are:, Application Name, User Role, Application Sections, Welcome Message, Application Menu, and Application Search

question

List 5 components of an application tab.

answer

5 components of an application tab are:, Tab Title Bar, Context Panel, Navigation Bar, Tab Content Page, Page Group Navigation Bar

question

Which UI component appears on the screen when you perform an action such as New, Edit, or Delete?

answer

The Modal Dialog component appears on the screen when you perform an action

question

Which UI component is used to take you through a process that involves multiple screens?

answer

The Wizard is used to take you through a process that involves multiple screens

question

Which three pods are common to most applications?

answer

Quick Links, My Appointments, and My Tasks are the pods that are common to most applications. Note: These will be on anyone's homepage regardless of role

question

True or False: Users can change the screen position of their pods.

answer

TRUE, Users can change the screen position of their pods.

question

Define action menu.

answer

Action Menus display the most commonly used actions that apply to the object.

question

What is the name for the arrows that allow you to show or hide content under a specific object on the screen?

answer

Drop-down toggles allow you to show or hide content under a specific object on the screen

question

List three examples of an Alternative ID.

answer

Alternative ID can include: Passport #, SIN/SSN, and Case #.

question

List three common search criteria for participants.

answer

3 common search criteria for participants are: reference number, name, and address

question

What is the name of the data model entity that connects to all participant type entities?

answer

The Concern Role Entity is the name of the data model entity that connects to all participant type entities

question

True or False: John Smith can be registered in Curam as both a person and an employer.

answer

TRUE; a person can be registered as more than one type of participant

question

Define the term Administrator.

answer

In Participant Management, the Administrator is the user assigned to manage the interactions between the organization and a participant.

question

True or False: The user can enter a nickname when searching for a Person.

answer

TRUE; The user can enter a nickname when searching for a Person.

question

Define the term special caution.

answer

Special Caution is used to alert users of special issues such as behavioral alerts.

question

What is the purpose of an investigation case.

answer

An Investigation Case is used to manage the investigation of an incident or allegation.

question

Which case type is used to capture and manage differences in evidence or information received from a claimant and a third party

answer

An Issue case is used to capture and manage differences in evidence or information received from a claimant and a third party

question

What is the other term for the Events case element?

answer

Calendar is the other term for the Events case element

question

In the Curam logical data model, what is the name of the main entity (database table) that stores summary information about a case?

answer

In the Curam logical data model, the Case Header Entity is the name of the main entity -- aka: database table -- that stores summary information about a case

question

Who is the default nominee for a Product Delivery case?

answer

The Primary Client is the default nominee for a Product Delivery case

question

Once a Product Delivery case is unsuspended, what is its status?

answer

Once a Product Delivery case is unsuspended, its status is Open

question

If a caseworker suspects fraud on a Product Delivery case, what action would they take to prevent future payments from being issued

answer

The Suspend action prevents payments from being issued

question

What is the status of a Product Delivery case immediately after it has been reactivated?

answer

Open is the status of a Product Delivery case immediately after it has been reactivated

question

Name the two types of Product Delivery case.

answer

Benefit and Liability

question

An evidence record must be associated with a __________ and a ______________.

answer

An evidence record must be associated with a Case and a Participant

question

What is the most common evidence relationship type?

answer

Parent-Child is the most common evidence relationship type

question

True or False: Having evidence relationships is optional in Curam.

answer

TRUE; Having evidence relationships is optional in Curam

question

Which evidence workspace uses stacks

answer

The Evidence Flow workspace uses stacks

question

Which Enterprise Module must be installed in order to use the incoming evidence list functionality?

answer

The Enterprise Module, Curam Evidence Broker, must be installed in order to use the incoming evidence list functionality

question

Which piece of evidence functionality displays the user who changed an evidence record as well as the date it was changed?

answer

Evidence Change History displays the user who changed an evidence record as well as the date it was changed

question

What two functions does authentication perform?

answer

Authentication, 1., establishes that a user is authentic, and 2.,Verifies the user's account is enabled.

question

What are rate tables used for

answer

Rate tables are used o maintain rates that vary over time

question

True or False: You can clone an organization structure.

answer

TRUE; You can clone an organization structure.

question

How many organization structures can be active at one time?

answer

One organization structure can be active at one time

question

How many root units are allowed in an organization structure?

answer

One root unit is allowed in an organization structure

question

List the five types of the Financial Processing Calendar administration elements.

answer

Cash, Check, EFT, Voucher, and Invoice are the Financial Processing Calendar administration elements. These are also known as the Delivery Methods.

question

True or False: In the Curam data model, Jobs are directly linked to Users.

answer

False - Jobs are linked to positions

question

True or False: Locations represent the workplaces of your clients.

answer

False - Locations represent the workplaces of the users

question

List the two types of communication templates

answer

The two types of communication templates are:, 1. XSL - Extensible style language, and 2. Microsoft Word

question

What is a pay slip?

answer

A Pay Slip is a record of the ILIs -- the Instruction Line Items.

question

What is the most basic financial processing element in Curam?

answer

An ILI -- an Instruction Line Item -- is the most basic financial processing element in Curam

question

Define delivery pattern.

answer

The Delivery Pattern indicates the Delivery Method and Delivery Frequency -- the How and How Often.

question

What could cause a payment to become suspended?

answer

A payment could become suspended when it exceeds a maximum amount that your agency has determined

question

Your organization has received a payment for $80 but it's not clear what the payment is for. While you investigate, you record the payment in a _____________________________.

answer

While you determine what the payment is for, you record the payment in a Suspense Account.

question

True or False: The batch jobs in the Financial Batch Suite must be run in a specific order.

answer

TRUE: The batch jobs in the Financial Batch Suite must be run in a specific order.

question

What do you call money subtracted from a benefit payment to be used for another purpose.

answer

A Deduction is money subtracted from a benefit payment to be used for another purpose.

question

This indicates the order in which deductions are processed when payments are generated for a case.

answer

Priority indicates the order in which deductions are processed when payments are generated for a case

question

This deduction type is always a specific monetary value

answer

The Fixed deduction type is always a specific monetary value

question

This deduction type is a percentage of the benefit payment amount.

answer

The Variable deduction type is a percentage of the benefit payment amount.

question

Which Curam Enterprise Module is used in the creation of question scripts used in the assessment questionnaire?

answer

Internal Evidence Gathering (IEG) is the Enterprise Module used in the creation of question scripts used in the assessment questionnaire

question

What are the two Curam tools used to determine the assessment results?

answer

The two Curam tools used to determine the assessment results are:, 1. Curam Decision Assist -- aka: CDA , 2. Curam Express Rules -- aka: CER

question

What type of date must be specified for each goal in an outcome plan?

answer

An expected end date must be specified for each goal in an outcome plan

question

True or False: The CER editor has both a business and a technical view

answer

TRUE: The CER editor has both a business and a technical view

question

Which participant type can choose to remain anonymous?

answer

A Prospect Person can choose to remain anonymous

question

What is the Prospect Person used for.

answer

The Prospect Person participant role type is used to screen an individual for potential eligibility

question

How does the system show that it is a Prospect Person?

answer

The Prospect Person is identified in the system by a watermark that reads PROSPECT

question

What participant roles can be merged

answer

1. Person record can be merged to another Person record, 2. Prospect Person record can be merged to a Person record

question

What happens in the system when you unmark a duplicate record?

answer

By unmarking a duplicate you break the links between the two individuals. Any details that were selected during the merge process will need to be manually removed. Example for duplicate records: Registered under both maiden and married name.

question

Merging information for Persons and Prospect Persons consists of what 3 stages

answer

Merging includes:, 1. Marking a record as a duplicate of another record, 2. Merging information from the duplicate record to the master record, 3. Completing the merge., Optionally, duplicate records can be unmarked and a merge can be quit and resumed.

question

Can a duplicate record, after being merged, be unmarked and unmerged?

answer

Duplicate records can be unmarked and a merge can quit and resumed. By unmarking a duplicate you break the links between the two individuals and any details that were selected during the merge process need to be manually removed.

question

What information can be merged from a duplicate record to the master record?

answer

Key information, such as addresses, phone numbers, and bank accounts, can be merged from the duplicate record to the master record where appropriate. Organizations can configure which key information can be merged as part of the merge process, via several client-merge application property settings.

question

What is an employer in Curam?

answer

An employer is a Participant record. An employer employs one or more persons, prospects, or other individuals.

question

What are the 3 kinds of Employer-specific data?

answer

3 kinds of Employer-specific data are:, 1. Insurance Contributions, 2. Related Companies, 3. Trading Status

question

How is an Employer linked to a Person?

answer

An Employer can be linked to a Person's employment record.

question

What is an Employer's "Insurance Contribution"?

answer

Employer Insurance Contributions are recorded as insurance returns. Insurance returns are records of an employer's contributions on behalf of its employees during a specified insurance return period.

question

What is an Employer's "Related Companies"?

answer

A related company is a registered employer that is related to another registered employer. For example, a registered employer can be the parent company of a subsidiary company that is also a registered employer.

question

What is an Employer's "Trading Status"?

answer

An employer's trading status is a record of whether an Employer or Prospect Employer is trading -- or "open for business". An Employer or Prospect Employer's trading status can be actively trading, ceased trading, or liquidated.

question

What is a Prospect Employer participant

answer

A Prospect Employer is an employer who, 1. supplied sufficient information to be registered as an Employer and, 2. the organization does not want to register as an Employer.

question

True or False: A Prospect Employer can later be registered as an Employer participant

answer

TRUE. A Prospect Employer can later be registered as an Employer participant

question

How does the system differentiate between an Employer and a Prospect Employer to the user

answer

The Prospect Employer is identified in the system by a watermark that reads PROSPECT

question

Can individuals be registered as Employers or Prospect Employers

answer

YES. You can register individuals or companies as Employers or Prospect Employers.

question

Can you merge Prospect Employers with Employers

answer

No. Once the organization gains more information on a Prospect Employer after registration, you can register them as an Employer. The Register an Employer from a Prospect Employer functionality is located as an option on the Prospect Employer home page.

question

How do you register an Employer from a Prospect Employer?

answer

The "Register an Employer from a Prospect Employer" functionality is located as an option on the Prospect Employer home page.

question

What is a Product Provider participant

answer

A Product Provider participant offers products to persons or employers on behalf of the organization.

question

What data is specific to the Product Provider participant

answer

Curam stores 2 Product Provider specific data: 1. Products, 2. Locations

question

A Product is either a _________ or a _________ that is issued to a participant.

answer

Benefit or Liability - A Product is either a BENEFIT or a LIABILITY that is issued to a participant.

question

What are some examples of Product -- offered by a Product Provider

answer

Examples of products include disability allowance, sickness benefits, income support, etc.

question

Can the organization be a Product Provider

answer

YES. The organization itself can be a Product Provider.

question

What is a Representative participant

answer

A Representative participant is an individual who interacts with the organization on behalf of another participant. Representatives can be CONTACTS for participants, CORRESPONDENTS for participants or cases, or NOMINEES who receive benefits on behalf of persons.

question

What are 3 types of Representatives?

answer

3 types of Representatives are: 1. Contact, 2. Correspondent, 3. Nominee. Representatives are a Participant Type.

question

Is there a home page for Representatives?

answer

There is no home page in Curam for Representatives, as they are always associated with other participant types or cases.

question

How are Representatives registered?

answer

Representatives are registered as part of creating other roles, rather than as an independent business process. These other roles are: contacts for participants, correspondents for participants, correspondents for cases, and case nominees.

question

What are Representative Nominees?

answer

Representative Nominees receive benefits on behalf of person participants.

question

What is a Service Supplier participant

answer

A Service Supplier participant offers services to individuals on behalf of the organization. The Service Supplier role allows the organization to outsource services that it does not perform.

question

What are some kinds of Service Supplier-specific data?

answer

Curam stores the following Service Supplier specific data: 1. Services, 2. Returns -- aka: Invoices

question

What are some examples of services provided by a Service Supplier participant?

answer

Examples of services include: eye examinations, court translations, medical examinations, etc.

question

What is an Information Provider participant?

answer

An Information Provider participant supplies the organization with information about other participants. This information is generally used in the prevention of fraud.

question

What are some kinds of Information Provider participants?

answer

Providers can include private individuals, government agencies, and registered data brokers.

question

True or False: Curam stores a significant amount of data about Information Provider participants

answer

FALSE. Curam stores limited details about Information Providers because they play a peripheral role and do not directly deliver or receive products or services.

question

What is an example of an Information Provider participant

answer

An example of an Information Provider participant would be an individual who reports alleged fraud against a benefit product recipient.

question

What is a Utility participant

answer

A Utility participant is an external organization that is paid by the organization on behalf of a participant for such essential commodities such as electricity, gas, or water.

question

What Curam areas handle the processing of utility transactions?

answer

Case and financial processing handles utility transactions.

question

What is an Educational Institute participant

answer

An Educational Institute participant provides educational services to participants.

question

What is an External Party participant?

answer

An External Party participant interacts with the agency on behalf of another participant -- for example, the Red Cross and Women's Shelters.

question

What participant type can submit an application and supporting materials on behalf of another participant?

answer

The External Party participant can submit an application and supporting materials on behalf of another participant

question

What are some kinds of External Participant-specific data?

answer

External Participant-specific data includes: 1. Office and, 2. Office Member.

question

What type of participant may be set up to log on to the agency's application through an external portal?

answer

The External Party participant may be allowed to log on to the agency's application through an external portal and view information specific to them. They could manage their own users, and each user can carry out certain functions, for example, verification.

question

What are the individuals that are associated with an external party office called?

answer

The individuals that are associated with an External Party office are called Office Members. They can become external users of the system.

question

What are 3 common search criteria for participants?

answer

3 common search criteria for participants includes: 1. Reference Number or Alternate ID, 2. Name, 3. Address

question

What is an example of specific search criteria for a Person participant?

answer

Date of Birth is an example of specific search criteria for a Person participant

question

When searching for participants, can caseworkers perform nickname or phonetic searching?

answer

For Person searches, caseworks can use nickname and phonetic searching -- provided it has been configured.

question

When searching for participants, are wildcard searches allowed?

answer

YES. The wildcard % character can be used to refine searches.

question

When searching for participants, where can a quick search be accessed in the application?

answer

A quick search can be accessed from anywhere in the application.

question

What happens when a nickname search is performed on a Person participant?

answer

When a nickname search is performed, the search returns a list of all persons and prospect persons that are registered under the nickname and the name that is associated with the nickname.

question

True or False: When searching, the wild card charter % can be substituted for zero or more characters.

answer

TRUE

question

When using the quick search, what value is searched?

answer

The quick search can be accessed from anywhere in the application. It allows a user to enter a reference number and search across all cases, participants, investigations, and incidents.

question

What in Curam is searched by using the Quick Search?

answer

Quick search searches Cases, Participants, Investigations, and Incidents.

question

What are the 7 core Case types?

answer

The 7 Core Case Types are: 1. Screening Case , 2. Assessment Case , 3. Application Case , 4. Integrated Case , 5. Product Delivery Case , 6. Issue Case , 7. Investigation Case

question

What 3 core Case types include rule sets?

answer

Assessment Case, Application Case, Product Deliver Case

question

What 4 core Case Types are associated only with the Person participant?

answer

Integrated Case, Product Delivery Case, Issue Case, Investigation Case

question

What are the only 3 core Case Types that can be associated with a Prospect Person participant?

answer

Screening Case, Assessment Case, Application Case

question

What core Case Type is contained within the Screening Case?

answer

Assessment Case

question

What core Case Types are contained within the Integrated Case?

answer

Product Delivery Case, Issue Case, Investigation Case

question

What is a Case?

answer

A Case contains interactions between a participant and the organization. You use cases to manage the interactions that a participant has with the organization. The Case becomes a folder for all the information that is needed to manage the participants and the benefits or services they receive from the organization.

question

What does a typical Case contain?

answer

A typical Case contains information about the participants that want to receive a benefit or service, information about other participants that are involved in the case, evidence that is used to make the determination, eligibility decision information, and a record of all financial transactions that are made on the Case. It also contains information about communications between the organization and participants, any notes that are recorded for the case, and events that occurred as part of Case processing.

question

What is the Screening Case type used for?

answer

The Screening Case type is a container for one or more assessments for one or more members of the same household.

question

What is the Assessment Case type used for?

answer

The Assessment Case type performs an initial evaluation to determine whether a person or prospect person is potentially eligible for an individual program (product) or service.

question

What is the Application Case type used for?

answer

The Application Case type houses and processes an initial application for benefits. The Application Case captures the initial application for benefits or services.

question

What is the Integrated Case type used for?

answer

The Integrated Case type is used as a master container for cases related to specific clients or households (person participants).

question

What is the Product Delivery Case type used for?

answer

The Product Delivery Case type determines actual eligibility and entitlements to benefits, and delivers those benefits (and liabilities).

question

What is the Issue Case type used for?

answer

The Issue Case type is used to capture and manage differences in evidence or information that is received from a claimant and a third party.

question

What is the Investigation Case type used for?

answer

The Investigation Case type is used to manage the investigation of an incident or allegation.

question

What Case Type(s) do you use to determine whether an applicant is eligible for certain programs?

answer

The Screen and Assessment Case types are used to determine whether an applicant is eligible for certain programs

question

What Case Type(s) do you use to formally apply for and receive benefits?

answer

The Application Case and Product Delivery Case Types would be used to formally apply for and receive benefits. In addition, the Integrated Case type may be used to store the Product Delivery Case type.

question

When do you use a Screening Case?

answer

You use a Screen Case to handle and store several program-specific Assessment Cases.

question

What is an advantage of using a Screening Case?

answer

One of the advantages of a Screening Case is that evidence for multiple assessments can be entered at the screening case level.

question

What does the Screening Case process allow?

answer

The Screen Case process allows the organization to get an immediate evaluation of a client's potential eligibility for multiple programs.

question

When do you use an Assessment Case?

answer

You use an Assessment Case to perform an initial evaluation to determine wither a person or prospect person is eligible for benefits or services. The Assessment Case enables the organization to determine potential eligibility for an individual program without creating a Product Deliver Case.

question

Each Assessment Case represents a ____________

answer

Each Assessment Case represents a program/product

question

Each Assessment Case has a ______________ assigned to it.

answer

Each Assessment Case has a rule set assigned to it.

question

How many program/product availabilities are evaluated in one Assessment Case?

answer

One. Each Assessment Case represents a program/product

question

One Assessment Cases evaluates how many program/product availabilities?

answer

One. Each Assessment Case represents a program/product

question

True or False: A lot of evidence is required to evaluate an Assessment Case?

answer

FALSE. In general, Screening and Assessment cases use a relatively small amount of evidence to produce a decision. This process is because the decision is a determination only of potential eligibility and not actual eligibility.

question

What are the 2 ways that an Application Case can be created?

answer

The Application Case can be created by a caseworker or via an online application (using Universal Access)

question

After checking eligibility, what can the Application Case trigger?

answer

The Application Case can trigger the creation of an Integrated Case and one or more Product Delivery cases

question

What Case Type can result in the creation of an Integrated Case and one or more Product Delivery Cases?

answer

The Application Case can trigger the creation of an Integrated Case and one or more Product Delivery cases

question

True or False: The Application Case has a Rule Set assigned to it.

answer

TRUE. Each Application Case has a Rule Set assigned to it.

question

What is Universal Access?

answer

Universal Access is a Curam Enterprise Module that allows citizens to interact with an agency via the internet. Using Universal Access, citizens can check their eligibility and apply for benefits and services.

question

In Curam SPM 6.0.5, are organizations required to use the Application Case mechanism?

answer

NO. Organizations do not have to use the Application Case mechanism. Curam 6.0.5 still supports the traditional/prior case processing.

question

What is the purpose of the Integrated Case type?

answer

The purpose of the Integrated Case is to consolidate Case information for one or more participants. An Integrated Case is a folder to store and manage multiple cases (of any type) for one or more members of the same household or family.

question

What are the 2 stages of the Integrated Case lifecycle?

answer

Integrated Case lifecycle consists of two stages: (1) Open and, (2) Closed.

question

What two Case types are considered containers for other Case types?

answer

An Integrated Case type is similar to a Screening Case type in that both act as containers for consolidating information.

question

Is Evidence stored at the Integrated Case level or the Product Deliver Case level?

answer

Evidence can be maintained at the Integrated Case level.

question

Is Evidence stored at the Screening Case level or the Assessment Case level?

answer

Evidence can be maintained at the Screening Case level.

question

When you create an Integrated Case, what is the status value?

answer

When you create an Integrated Case, it has a status of OPEN

question

What does a Product Delivery Case determine?

answer

A Product Delivery Case determines whether a participant meets the actual eligibility criteria for a single benefit or a liability product.

question

What functionality resides within a Product Delivery Case?

answer

The Product Delivery Case contains the functions required to manage the delivery of a benefit or a liability product, including the determination and recording of financial transactions.

question

In a Product Delivery Case, what does an eligibility determination usually result in?

answer

An eligibility determination usually results in the benefit being delivered in the form of a payment or a bill for liability.

question

Each Product Deliver Case has a ______________ assigned to it.

answer

Each Product Deliver Case has a Rule Set assigned to it.

question

In what form are benefits usually delivered to participants?

answer

Benefits are usually delivered to persons in the form of ongoing monetary payments.

question

In what form are liabilities usually delivered to participants?

answer

Liabilities are delivered to persons or employers in the form of a bill.

question

What is the difference between Rule Sets for Assessment Case Types and Product Delivery Case Types?

answer

Rule Sets assigned to Product Delivery Cases are used to determine actual eligibility, while rules sets assigned to Assessment Cases are used to determine potential eligibility.

question

What is the Issue Case used for?

answer

The Issue Case is used to capture and manage differences in evidence or information that is received from a participant or third party.

question

What are the 3 processes contained in the Issue Case type to help track and resolve discrepancies?

answer

The 3 processes contained in the Issue Case type are: 1. Issue Types, 2. Issue Resolutions, 3. Issue Resolution Approval Checks

question

How might a customer trigger a reassessment of program eligibility?

answer

When a customer applies for assistance or advises of changes of circumstance (evidence change) during ongoing case maintenance, they supply information to help the organization determine or reassess their eligibility.

question

In an Issue Case, what is an Issue Resolution?

answer

Issue Resolutions mark the end point or decision at the conclusion of the issue case. For example, "Agree with Client" or "Agree with Employer"

question

In an Issue Case, what is an Issue Resolution Approval Check?

answer

You can configure the Issues Cases for automatic resolution approval or to require manual approvals.

question

What are Investigation Cases used for?

answer

Investigation Cases are used to investigate allegations and incidents, such as Benefit Fraud, Child Abuse, and Criminal Activity. Investigation Cases are used to inquire into circumstances that surround an allegation or incident.

question

What are the 8 features and functionality of the Investigation Case?

answer

The 8 features and functionality of the Investigation Case are: (1) Allegations, (2) Findings, (3) Resolutions, (4) Action Plans), (5) Milestones, (6) Contact Logs, (7) Translation Requirements, and (8) History.

question

What types of information are stored in an Investigation Case?

answer

Investigation Cases record all relevant data to the investigation, such as: interviews, assessments, notes, communications, etc.

question

What are the 2 types of Findings in an Investigation Case?

answer

Findings are either Founded or Unfounded.

question

What are the 8 steps required to deliver benefits via the Product Delivery Case?

answer

To deliver benefits via the Product Delivery Case: 1. Register Participants, 2. Create Integrated Case, 3. Create Product Delivery Case, 4. Enter and Activate Evidence, 5. Check Eligility, 6. Submit Case for Approval, 7. Activate Product Delivery Case, 8. Issue Payment / Deliver Benefit

question

What are the different statuses of an Evidence Set?

answer

An Evidence Set can of: In Edit, Active, Superseded, or Cancelled

question

What's the most important state of an Evidence Set?

answer

ACTIVE, because benefit payments can only beissued on an active Evidence Set

question

What is a Case Owner responsible for?

answer

A Case Owner is responsible for case information and maintenance.

question

What organizational objects can a Case Owner be?

answer

A Case Owner can be any of the following organizational objects: 1. User, 2. Position, 3. Organization Unit, 4. Work Queue

question

What is a Case Supervisor responsible for?

answer

A Case Supervisor is responsible for reviewing and approving cases that are submitted for approval.

question

What is a Case Review responsible for?

answer

A Case Reviewer is responsible for periodic review of Product Delivery Cases

question

What Case User Role is responsible for period reviews of Product Delivery Cases?

answer

A Case Reviewer is responsible for periodic review of Product Delivery Cases

question

What Case User Role is responsible for reviewing and approving Cases?

answer

A Case Supervisor is responsible for reviewing and approving cases that are submitted for approval.

question

What Case User Role is responsible for Case information and maintenance?

answer

A Case Owner is responsible for case information and maintenance.

question

When a Case is created, who assigns the case owner?

answer

When you create a case, Curam automatically assigns a case owner. The default case owner for all case types -- apart from issues -- is the same user who registered the first participant added to the case, namely, the primary case participant.

question

Who is assigned to be default case owner for all cases, except Issues?

answer

The default case owner for all case types -- apart from issues -- is the same user who registered the first participant added to the case, namely, the primary case participant.

question

What are the 3 types of Case User Roles?

answer

The 3 types of Case User Roles are: 1. Case Owner, 2. Case Supervisor, 3. Case Reviewer

question

Which Case User Role has ownership rights to the Case?

answer

The assigned Case Owner has ownership rights to the Case

question

Which type of Curam user can associate a Case type with a Case-Ownership Strategy process?

answer

An administrator can associate a Case type with a Case-Ownership Strategy process

question

When a Case is being created, if a case-ownership strategy workflow process is associated with the case type, the initial case owner is determed by using the _____________.

answer

When a Case is being created, if a case-ownership strategy workflow process is associated with the case type, the initial case owner is determed by use the WORKFLOW PROCESS.

question

When a Case is being created, if a case-ownership strategy workflow process is NOT associated with the case type, the initial case owner is determed by using the _____________.

answer

When a Case is being created, if a case-ownership strategy workflow process is NOT associated with the case type, the initial case owner is determed by using the OUT-OF-THE-BOX ALGORITHM.

question

Can a Case Supervisor role be assigned manually?

answer

A Case Supervisor role can be assigned manually or automatically.

question

Why is a Case Supervisor role assigned to a Case?

answer

The purpose of assigning a Case Supervisor role is so that they can take action on approval requests for the Case.

question

What determines the automatic assignment of a Case Supervisor?

answer

The Reporting Hierarchy in the organization, as defined in the Curam Administration Manager, determines the automatic assignment of a Case Supervisor to a Case.

question

When is a Case Supervisor dynamically assigned to a Case?

answer

A Case Supervisor is dynamically assigned to a Case when an action that requires the intervention of a supervisor on a task or notification is performed on the case.

question

What organizational objects can a Case Owner be? ***

answer

A Case Owner can be any of the following organization objects: 1. User, 2. Position, 3. Organization Unit, 4. Work Queue

question

How are Case Reviews determined?

answer

Case Reveiws can be set manually as a case event, or scheduled at a regular frequency, as determined by a setting in Product Administration.

question

By default, which Case User Roles is set as the Case Reviewer?

answer

By default, the Case Owner is the Case Reviewer

question

What are the 7 Core Case Types? ***

answer

1. Screening Case , 2. Assessment Case, 3. Application Case, 4. Integrated Case, 5. Product Delivery Case, 6. Issue Case, 7. Investigation Case

question

What are the 3 types of Representative participants?

answer

1. Contact, 2. Correspondent, 3. Nominee

question

A Product is either a ________ or a _______. ***

answer

A Product is either a Benefit or a Liability that is issued to a participant.

question

What are the 11 Participant Role Types? ****

answer

PEER-PUPPIES, 1. Person, 2. Employer, 3. External Party, 4. Representative, 5. Prospect Person, 6. Utility, 7. Prospect Employer, 8. Product Provider, 9. Information Provider, 10. Educational Institute, 11. Service Supplier

question

What are the 3 IBM Curam Solutions? ***

answer

ICI: 1. Income Support, 2. Income Support for Medical Assistance, 3. Child Welfare

question

What are the 9 IBM Curam Enterprise Modules? ***

answer

SAVE-LO-PUB: 1. Social Enterprise Collaboration, 2. Appeals, 3. Verification Engine, 4. Evidence Broker, 5. Life Event Management, 6. Outcome Management, 7. Provider Management, 8. Universal Access, 9. Business Intelligence & Analysis

question

What are the 3 tiers of the Curam Social Program Management? ***

answer

SES: 1. Solutions, 2. Enterprise Modules, 3. Social Program Management Platform (focus of our course is on the platform)

question

What are the 7 Curam Case Elements 1 (sections & information)?

answer

Curam Case Elements 1 contains the following sections and information: 1. Home -- aka: Case Header Entity, 2. Participants, 3. Contact, 4. Event (Calendar), 5. Tasks, 6. Issues and Proceedings, 7. Administration

question

What does the "Home" Case Element contain?

answer

The "Home" Case Element contains Case Details and recent transactions. It displays summary details about a case. It is aka Case Header Entity

question

Case Header is the name of the _______________________ that stores high-level information about a case.

answer

Case Header is the name of the Data Model Entity (database table) that stores high-level information about a case.

question

Which Case Element represents all of the participants who play a role in a Case?

answer

Case Participants represent all of the participants who play a role in a Case.

question

What is the most common Participant type in a Case?

answer

The Person participant is the most common Participant type in a Case and usually plays the role of Primary Case Participant.

question

Can a Participant play more than one role in a Case?

answer

YES. Each participant can play more than one role in a case.

question

What does the Contact Case Element contain?

answer

The Contact tab in a Case can contain the details of user-entered notes, attachments, records of meeting minutes, and records of communication.

question

What is an Event in a Case?

answer

An Event is an individual milestone of significance to a case. The system can automatically create events, which are a result of case processing, or they can be manually created by a user.

question

How are Events, in a Case, created?

answer

Events, in a Case, can be automatically created by the system -- a result of processing -- or manually created by a user.

question

What is an example of a system create Case Event?

answer

The Case Closure Event is an example of an event that the system creates.

question

What are some examples of Case Events that can be created manually?

answer

The following Events can be created manually: Meetings, Reviews, Referrals, and Activities.

question

How are Case Events displayed?

answer

Case Events are displayed in a List or Calendar view.

question

What is a Case Task?

answer

A Case Task is an instruction to carry out an item of work. A user manually creates tasks or the system can automatically create tasks.

question

How are Case Tasks created?

answer

A user manually creates Tasks or the system can automatically create Tasks.

question

From where are Case Tasks viewed and Maintained?

answer

Tasks that relate to a Case can be viewed and maintained from the Case Task List.

question

What can Issues and Legal Proceedings include?

answer

Issues and Legal Proceedings can include Issue Cases with evidence, Investigation Cases into allegations, the appeal of cases or determinations, legal actions by courts, and special cautions or warnings about participants.

question

The Case Administration tab provides links to what kind of information?

answer

The Case Administration tab provides links to information on related cases, transaction history, and user roles for the case.

question

What are the 2 Curam Case Elements 2?

answer

Curam Case Elements 2 contains: 1. Integrated Case, 2. Product Delivery Case, Integrated Case specific elements include Evidence, Services, Referrals, and Outcome Plans. Product Delivery Case specific elements include Determinations and Financials

question

What are Integrated Case elements?

answer

Integrated Case specific elements are: 1. Evidence, 2. Services, 3. Referrals, 4. Outcome Plans

question

What are Product Delivery Case elements?

answer

Product Delivery Case specific elements are: 1. Determinations and, 2. Financials -- which includes: Transactions, Certifications, Deductions, Components, Delivery Patterns, Nominees, Over & Under Payments, and Payment Simulations.

question

What is an Evidence case element?

answer

The Product Delivery Case within the Integrated Case uses Evidence that is associated with an Integrated Case.

question

What is a Services case element?

answer

The Services section lists all the service records on the specified case and provides links to view and edit these records.

question

What is a Referrals case element?

answer

The Referrals section allows you to display a list of referalls that include the clients that were referred, the provider they were referred to, who referred them, and the referral date.

question

What is an Outcome Plan case element?

answer

Outcome Plans are used to manage the activites that are designed to address the client's particular circumstance in order to achieve a specific goal, such as self-sufficiency, or reunification of the family.

question

What is a Determinations case element?

answer

A Determination contains one or more decisions, each one defining the client's eligibility and entitlement for one or more components within a product.

question

What is a Financials case element?

answer

A Financials case element includes: Transactions, Certifications, Deductions, Components, Delivery Patterns, Nominees, Over & Under Payments and, Payment Simulations

question

In a Case, what are the elibility periods for products called?

answer

Certifications are the elibility periods for the products

question

In a Case, what represents various categories of payment for a product?

answer

Components represent various categories of payment for a product.

question

In a Case, what is a Delivery Pattern?

answer

Delivery Patterns consist of the delivery method (e.g. cash, EFT) and delivery frequency (weekly, monthly) of benefit payments. (The how and how often)

question

In a Case, who are the recipients of benefit payments?

answer

Nominees are the recipients of benefit payments

question

In a Case, what do Nominees receive?

answer

Nominees are the recipients of benefit payments

question

What Case element allows a caseworker to see all payments and deductions due to a participant for a specific date before the payment is issued?

answer

Payment simulation allows a caseworker to see all payments and deductions due to a participant for a specific date before the payment is issued.

question

What are payment simulations used for?

answer

Payment simulation allows a caseworker to see all payments and deductions due to a participant for a specific date before the payment is issued.

question

What are the 6 Product Deliver Case Lifecycle Stages?

answer

The 6 Product Delivery Case Lifecycle Stages are: 1. Creation 2. Approval 3. Activation 4. Suspension 5. Closure 6. Reactivation

question

What are the 8 Product Delivery Case Lifecycle Statuses?

answer

The 8 Product Delivery Case Lifecycle Statuses are: 1. Open 2. Submitted 3. Approved 4. Active 5. Suspended 6. Pending Closure 7. Closed 8. Delayed Process Pending

question

Each Product Delivery Case Lifecycle Stage is assigned what?

answer

Each Product Delivery Case Lifecycle Stage is assigned a Status

question

What is the first status of a Product Deliver Case?

answer

The first status of a Product Deliver Case is Open

question

What is the status if a Case is in between Case Processes?

answer

If a Case is in between Case Processes, the status is Delayed Process Pending

question

What does the Case Status indicate in the cases's lifecycle?

answer

The Case Status indicates the current Stage in the case lifecycle. It also dictates the stage or stages a case can proceed to next.

question

What is maintained for a Product Delivery Case throughout its entire lifecycle?

answer

A Case Status History is maintained for a Product Delivery Case throughout its lifecycle.

question

What Produce Delivery Case Status is required for a benefit to be provided?

answer

A benefit is only sent when the Product Delivery Case status is Active (or Pending Closure)

question

Why is a Product Delivery Case Status set to Suspended?

answer

A status of Suspended is usually set when a Product Delivery Case is associated with an active Investigation.

question

Which case participant is usually the Product Delivery Case nominee?

answer

The Primary Client is usually the Product Delivery Case nominee.

question

True or False: A Product Delivery Case can only have one nominee

answer

FALSE. A Product Delivery Case can have multiple nominees. For example, a Utility participant could be a nominee -- for when the organization pays a utility (e.g. power) on behalf of the participant.

question

What case participant is defaulted as the Product Delivery Case nominee?

answer

The default case nominee for all Product Delivery Case components is the Primary Client.

question

What is the primary objective of a Product Delivery Case nominee?

answer

A nominee is assigned to a case component, which is usually a financial objective in Product Delivery Cases. A Case can have multiple components and you can assign more than one component to a nominee.

question

What is a Product Delivery Case nominee?

answer

A nominee is a case participant who receives payments or bills from the organization.

question

What are Case components for product delivery cases?

answer

Units of Entitlement, typically financial units of entitlement, which are available with a benefit.

question

In a Product Delivery Case, what are Units of Entitlement?

answer

Units of Entitlement are Product Delivery Case components. They are typically financial units of entitlement, which are avilable with a benefit.

question

True or False: A Case participant other than the Primary Client can be nominated to receive benefits for a Case Compontent.

answer

TRUE. A Case participant other than the Primary Client can be nominated to receive benefits for a Case Compontent.

question

In a Product Delivery Case, what are Nominee Delivery Patterns used for?

answer

Nominee Delivery Patterns are used to create financial schedules for each case component. A nominee can have the same or a different delivery pattern for each of the components.

question

What is a Case Component?

answer

Case components are the result of successful eligibility determination. In other words, case components define what the primary client is entitled to if found to be eligible. Case components can have a financial or a non-financial objective.

question

In a Product Delivery Case, what is called the result of a successful eligibility determination?

answer

Case components are the result of successful eligibility determination. In other words, case components define what the primary client is entitled to if found to be eligible. Case components can have a financial or a non-financial objective.

question

What effect does setting the status of a Product Delivery Case have?

answer

Suspending a Product Delivery Case prevents future payments from being issued until the case is unsuspended.

question

When a Product Delivery Case is unsuspended, what is the status set to?

answer

Unsuspending a suspended case changes the status back to Open. The caseworker must progress the case back to Active in order for payments to resume.

question

When a Product Delivery Case is unsuspended, what must happen before future payments can be issued again.

answer

After a suspension, future payments are only issued after the Case is approved and activated again.

question

When can the system automatically close a Product Delivery Case?

answer

The system can automatically close a Product Delivery Case when its Certification Period expires, or if it is found to be ineligible.

question

What is a Certification Period?

answer

Certifications are the elibility periods for the receipt of products -- a benefit eligibility term.

question

True or False: You can only manually close a Case once the certification period is over?

answer

FALSE. You can manually close a Case at any point in its lifecycle, or set it to close on a specific future date.

question

True or False: You can pre-set a future closure date on a Case?

answer

TRUE. You can set a Case to close on a specific future date.

question

When you set a Case to close on a date in the future, the status is set to ______________.

answer

When you set a Case to close on a date in the future, the status is set to Pending Closure

question

You can only reactivate cases that have a status of ___________ or ______________.

answer

You can only reactivate cases that have a status of CLOSED or PENDING CLOSURE.

question

When a Case is reactivated, it is defaulted with a status of _______________.

answer

When a Case is reactivated, it is defaulted with a status of OPEN. To deliver benefits on the Case, it must go through the Approval and Activation stages again.

question

What is Case Reassessment?

answer

Case Reassessment is the re-evaluation of payments or bills.

question

What does the system do during a Case Reassessment?

answer

The system compares the existing set of decisions for a specific period with a new set generated by the evidence changes.

question

Can a Case Reassessment result in an automatic change in payments or bills?

answer

If the decision sets are unequal, reassessment compares what was paid and calculates an overpayment or underpayment amount.

question

When is a payment correction case created?

answer

When a Product Delivery Case Reassessment is performed, the system may automatically create a payment correct case, linking it to the product delivery case that triggered the overpayment or underpayment.

question

When is a reassessment triggered?

answer

A reassessment is triggered when there is: 1. A change in circumstances -- evidence or certification period -- on a product delivery case, 2. Closure of a product delivery case, 3. Manual reassessment by a caseworker

question

Reassessment of a liability Product Delivery Case can result in ____________ or _________.

answer

Reassessment of a liability Product Delivery Case can result in over-billing or under-billing.

question

What are the types of Product Delivery cases?

answer

1. Benefit 2. Liability

question

What is Product Delivery Case Administration responsible for?

answer

Product Administration includes the maintenance of benefit and liability products, as well as the delivery methods for these products.

question

In a Product Delivery Case, what is a benefit?

answer

A benefit is money or services that are being distributed from the agency to the client.

question

In a Product Delivery Case, what is a liabiity?

answer

Money is being collect from the client.

question

Who performs Product Delivery Case Administration?

answer

A SYSTEM ADMINISTRATOR performs product administration

question

In a Product Delivery Case, what information is common to both benefits and liabilities?

answer

1. HOME - Details, Processing, Participants, Security, 2. APPROVAL CHECKS - Cases and Evidence, 3. EVIDENCE TYPES, 4. FINANCIAL - Patterns and Provisions, 5. Ongoing Case Management - Time constraints, Absence reasons, 6. RULES SETS

question

What are Rule Sets?

answer

Rule sets are used to determine eligibility and entitlement to a product.

question

What organizational objects can a Case Owner be? ***

answer

A Case Owner can be any of the following organization objects: 1. User, 2. Position, 3. Organization Unit, 4. Work Queue

question

How are Case Reviews determined?

answer

Case Reveiws can be set manually as a case event, or scheduled at a regular frequency, as determined by a setting in Product Administration.

question

By default, which Case User Roles is set as the Case Reviewer?

answer

By default, the Case Owner is the Case Reviewer

question

What are the 7 Core Case Types? ***

answer

1. Screening Case , 2. Assessment Case, 3. Application Case, 4. Integrated Case, 5. Product Delivery Case, 6. Issue Case, 7. Investigation Case

question

What are the 3 types of Representative participants?

answer

1. Contact, 2. Correspondent, 3. Nominee

question

A Product is either a ________ or a _______. ***

answer

A Product is either a Benefit or a Liability that is issued to a participant.

question

What are the 11 Participant Role Types? ****

answer

PEER-PUPPIES: 1. Person, 2. Employer, 3. External Party, 4. Representative, 5. Prospect Person, 6. Utility, 7. Prospect Employer, 8. Product Provider, 9. Information Provider, 10. Educational Institute, 11. Service Supplier

question

What are the 3 IBM Curam Solutions? ***

answer

ICI: 1. Income Support, 2. Income Support for Medical Assistance, 3. Child Welfare

question

What are the 9 IBM Curam Enterprise Modules? ***

answer

SAVE-LO-PUB: 1. Social Enterprise Collaboration, 2. Appeals, 3. Verification Engine, 4. Evidence Broker, 5. Life Event Management, 6. Outcome Management, 7. Provider Management, 8. Universal Access, 9. Business Intelligence & Analysis

question

What are the 3 tiers of the Curam Social Program Management? ***

answer

SES: 1. Solutions, 2. Enterprise Modules, 3. Social Program Management Platform (focus of our course is on the platform)

question

What are 7 the Curam Case Elements 1 (sections & information)?

answer

Curam Case Elements 1 contain the following sections and information: 1. Home (Case Header Entity), 2. Participants, 3. Contact, 4. Event (Calendar), 5. Tasks, 6. Issues and Proceedings, 7. Administration

question

What is Evidence?

answer

Evidence is information that is supplied by participants that can be used to make an assessment or determination (e.g. DOB, income). Each piece of evidence is a discrete unit of information that can change over time.

question

How is a decision produced?

answer

The Rules Engine runs the rules against the evidence and procures a decision, for example, eligible, ineligible, or the amount of money to which a Person is entitled.

question

Do Evidence Records have effective dates?

answer

YES. The Curam Evidence Framework allows each evidence record to have its own effective dates.

question

What are Evidence Types?

answer

Evidence Types are essentially groupings of evidence. Evidence Types represent the events and circumstances that must be captured for case assessment purposes. (e.g. Income, Address, Expenses, Employment). Evidence can be maintained in small, manageable units called evidence types.

question

What is an Evidence Record?

answer

An evidence record is a set of saved information that is entered for an evidence type. For example, James had an income of $20,000 in 2013.

question

What is an Evidence Object?

answer

An evidence object is a collection of evidence records that show how a piece of information varies over time. For example, James had an income of $20,000 in 2013, an income of $18,000 in 2012, and an income of $16,000 in 2011.

question

True or False: Each evidence type can have several evidence objects associated with it.

answer

TRUE. For example, if a person has 2 jobs then 2 different evidence objects are stored.

question

What are the 2 types of Changes to Evidence?

answer

The 2 types of Changes to Evidence are: (1) Evidence Correction and, (2) Change in Circumstance

question

True or False: Events that change circumstances (e.g. new child, lose job) trigger changes to evidence.

answer

TRUE.

question

What are 4 examples of Events that change circumstances?

answer

4 examples of events that change circumstances: new child, lose job, move, get older

question

Changes to evidence divide the case lifecycle into a series of ___________________________.

answer

Changes to evidence divide the case lifecycle into a series of TIME SLICES

question

The ______________ of each piece of evidence marks the start or end of a time-slice.

answer

The EFFECTIVE DATE of each piece of evidence marks the start or end of a time-slice, that is, the date on which a decision might change. On any specific date, each piece of evidence is either in-effect or not.

question

Where are the 3 areas that Evidence is located? ***

answer

Evidence is located in the (1) Person or Prospect Person tab, (2) Application Case, and, (3) Integrated and Product Delivery Cases (often referred to as Case Evidence here).

question

What role maintains evidence?

answer

Caseworkers

question

Evidence that is configured for an _________________________ would include all of the information that is captured during an intake process.

answer

Evidence that is configured for an APPLICATION CASE would include all of the information that is captured during an intake process.

question

True or False: Application case evidence has in-edit or active statuses as part of evidence maintenance

answer

FALSE. Evidence in the Application Case does NOT have in-edit or actives statuses. This is because the evidence is deemed to be in an editable state until all programs that are being applied for are complete.

question

True or False: Person or Prospect Person evidence has in-edit or active statuses as part of evidence maintenance

answer

FALSE. Person or Prospect Person Evidence does NOT have in-edit or actives statuses. The system immediately applies evidence that is maintained in the Person tab to the Person or Prospect Person evidence.

question

True or False: Integrated or Product Delivery case evidence has in-edit or active statuses as part of evidence maintenance

answer

TRUE. Case Evidence, where the creation of new evidence or modifications to existing evidence, cause the evidence to become in-edit until it is applied.

question

Case evidence can be associated with either a __________ case or an _______________ case.

answer

Case evidence can be associated with either a PRODUCT DELIVERY case or an INTEGRATED case.

question

Each Case Evidence record is associated with a ________________ or a ___________________ participant

answer

Each Case Evidence record is associated with a PERSON or a PROSPECT PERSON participant for whom the evidence relates, and with a case for which the evidence is used to determine entitlement.

question

Once evidence is associated with an Integrated Case, it can be shared across multiple _________________ within that Integrated Case.

answer

Once evidence is associated with an Integrated Case, it can be shared across multiple PRODUCT DELIVERY CASES within that Integrated Case.

question

What is the Curam Verification Engine?

answer

The Curam Verification Engine is one of the Curam Enterprise Modules. It enables a casework to check the accuracy of evidence. For example, The applicant might need to submit a passport to prove their date of birth and citizenship.

question

What is the Evidence Broker?

answer

The Evidence Broker is one of the Curam Enterprise Modules. It enables evidence to be shared across multiple cases. For example, if a client has two cases, evidence from the first case can be shraed with the second case, reducing data entry.

question

When managing Evidence, what state is the evidence in when it is newly added?

answer

New evidence is stored in a In-Edit state -- except when it is Person or Prospect Person evidence or is in an Application Case.

question

When managing Evidence, what state must the evidence be in to be modified?

answer

Evidence must be either Active or In-Edit for it to be modified. Once updated, it is in an In-Edit state -- except when it is Person or Prospect Person evidence or is in an Application Case.

question

When managing Evidence, what does the Apply Changes action do?

answer

The Apply Changes action activates In-Edit evidence, setting the status to Active. It also removes or cancels active evidence that is Pending Removal.

question

What is the purpose of putting evidence into In-Edit when added or modified?

answer

The purpose of an In-Edit evidence record is to allow users to work on the evidence updates without affecting case processing, as the Active Evidence remains intact.

question

True or False: Pending Removal evidence records are still used for assessment until evidence changes are applied and the evidence records are cancelled.

answer

TRUE. Pending Removal evidence records are still used for assessment until evidence changes are applied and the evidence records are cancelled.

question

Separating the removal and cancellation functions on evidence prevents _______________________.

answer

Separating the removal and cancellation functions on evidence prevents EVIDENCE RECORDS FROM BEING CANCELLED IN ERROR.

question

What are the 7 screens from which to view Evidence?

answer

There are 7 screens from which to view Evidence: 1. Dashboard 2. Evidence Flow 3. Active Evidence 4. In Edit Evidence 5. Verifications 6. Issues 7. Incoming Evidence

question

How does the Evidence flow view help caseworkers?

answer

The Evidence Flow view is a tool that allows caseworkers to quickly navigate through evidence and see any missing or required information.

question

What is an Evidence Stack?

answer

Evidence types are grouped in "stacks". A Stack is a group of evidence types. A stack is automatically displayed for each evidence category that the organization configures, in the form of an accordion within the Evidence Flow view.

question

In what view is an Evidence Stack displayed?

answer

In the Evidence Flow View, evidence types are grouped in "stacks" and automatically displayed for each evidence category that the organization configures.

question

From what list can active evidence records be viewed, updated, and deleted?

answer

From the Active Evidence list, active evidence records can be viewed, updated, and deleted. In addition, pending updates that are set on active records can be discarded, and pending removals that are set on active evidence records can be undone.

question

What is shown in the Active Evidence list?

answer

The Active Evidence list provides caseworkers with a view of all active evidence on a case.

question

What is shown in the In-Edit evidence list?

answer

The In-Edit evidence list provides caseworkers with a view of all the in-edit evidence on a case. From this list, in-edit evidence records can be viewed, edited, and discarded.

question

What is shown in the evidence Verifications list?

answer

The verification list displays all of the verifications, both outstanding and captured, that are currently associated with participant or case evidence. A user can view the outstanding verifications and add a verification item to verify.

question

Where can a user view outstanding evidence verifications?

answer

A user can view the outstanding evidence verifications and add a verification item to verify in the Verification list.

question

True or False: Evidence verification is part of the basic Curam application

answer

FALSE. Evidence can be verified only if the Curam Verification Engine Enterprise Module is installed.

question

In relation to Evidence, what information does the Issues screen provide?

answer

In relation to Evidence, the Issues screen highlights missing information that is required before eligibility can be determined. The Issues List displays all of the issues that are associated with the evidence on a case.

question

For what would caseworkers use the evidence Issues screen?

answer

Caseworkers can use the Issues screen to resolves issues with missing information that is required before eligibility can be determined.

question

What, in Curam, determines the information that is shown in the evidence Issues screen?

answer

The rules that are configured within the Smart Panel's Advisor, determine the evidence Issues.

question

What is the Smart Panel used for?

answer

The Smart Panel contains 2 components: 1. Advisor - contains recommendations and suggestions; it aids the user to work through the process at hand 2. Quick Notes - enables the user to take notes while working through the task at hand."

question

What screen is used to share evidence from other systems and cases to the case at hand?

answer

The Incoming Evidence list provides caseworkers with a list of evidence that is shared (broadcasted) from other systems and cases to this case. Evidence from difference sources can be compared to existing evidence on the case, allowing caseworkers to make an informed decision about whether to accept it.

question

Evidence can only be shared from other systems and cases when _________________ is installed.

answer

Evidence can only be shared from other systems and cases when the CURAM EVIDENCE BROKER ENTERPRISE MODULE is installed.

question

True or False: Only active Evidence is used by the rules to determine eligibility for product delivery

answer

TRUE

question

What is the most common Evidence relationship?

answer

Parent-Child

question

Can there be more than one level of evidence relationshiops?

answer

YES. For example, Parent - Child - Grandchild

question

True or False: Evidence Relationships are optional

answer

TRUE. Using evidence relationships is optional

question

True or False: Do Evidence Relationshiops affect Evidence Maintenance?

answer

TRUE. The evidence type list for child evidence types is filtered to display only those evidence records that are related to the relationshiop requirments. For example, it might not be possible remove a parent evidence record if there are any active child evidence records related to it.

question

True or False: When a user tries to activate or remove evidence, the system determines whether the evidence change requires supervisor approval

answer

TRUE. When a user tries to activate or remove evidence, the system determines whether the evidence change requires supervisor approval

question

What are the 4 levels of Approval checks on evidence, in the Curam Administration Manager?

answer

The 4 levels of Approval checks on evidence, in the Curam Administration Manager are: 1. User 2. Position 3. Organization Unit 4. Evidence Type

question

What allows you to specifiy that manual approval is required for a percentage of changes to a particular evidence type.

answer

The EVIDENCE FRAMEWORK allows you to specifiy that manual approval is required for a percentage of changes to a particular evidence type. E.g., a value of 80% for Income means that 80% of all Income evidence records must be manually approved by a case supervisor before they are activated or removed.

question

Evidence approval checks do not apply to evidence maintained in __________________.

answer

Evidence approval checks do not apply to evidence maintained in the PERSON TAB. This is because the evidence in the Person tab does not have an in-edit state and means that there is no way to approve or reject the evidence before it is applied.

question

Where is the comprehensive Evidence Change History maintained?

answer

A comprehensive Change History is maintained for Person or Prospect Person and Case Evidence (Integrated and Product Delivery Cases). This history is started when a new evidence record is inserted and is added to whenever a change occurs, such as a modification or cancellation.

question

When does Evidence Change History start?

answer

Evidence Change History starts when a new evidence record is inserted and grows when a modification or cancellation event occurs.

question

What information is stored in an Evidence Change History record?

answer

Each entry in an Evidence Change History records contains the type of change, the date, the time, and the user who made the change.

question

What is the functionality of the IBM Curam evidence framework?

answer

At a high level, the Cúram Evidence Framework is an evidence pattern consisting of evidence entities for storing data, screens for capturing data, and business processes for maintaining evidence.

question

What are the 5 Evidence Maintenance functions that the evidence framework provides?

answer

The 5 Evidence Maintenance functions that the evidence framework provides are: 1. New 2. Modify 3. Apply Change 4. Discard In Edit 5. Remove Active

question

What are the 3 basic units of financial management?

answer

1. Payment 2. Liability 3. Payment Received

question

What is a financial payment?

answer

A payment is an issue of funds from the organization to a participant who is eligible for a liability product. A payment based on case eligibility or from a previous underpayment.

question

What is a financial liability?

answer

A liability is a charge for funds from the organizatino to a participant who is eligible for a liability product. A bill for overpayment to a participant or an invoice for an employer to pay.

question

What is a financial payment received?

answer

A payment received is an amount of money that the organization receives, usually sent in responsible to a bill. Payments received are used to pay off liabilities.

question

True or False: Cases generate payments received?

answer

FALSE. Payments received are not generated as part of case processing. Instead, they are recorded on the system either manually by a user or via a batch process that records payments received. Payments received are in response to a liability that was generated by the system.

question

What are the 6 core building blocks of Financial Management?

answer

The 6 core building blocks of Financial Management are: FIF-PFP: 1. Financial Component, 2. Instruction Line Item (ILI), 3. Financial Instruction, 4. Payment Group, 5. Financial Instrument 6. Payslip

question

What is a Financial Component?

answer

A Financial Component is a Schedule to pay or bill in relation to a case.

question

What information is included in a Financial Component?

answer

A Financial Component consists of: 1. Category -- either payment or liability, 2. Primary Client, 3. Case Nominee, 4. Amount, 5. Delivery Pattern -- which consists of a Delivery Method & Delivery Frequency, 6. Start and End Dates

question

What is a Delivery Pattern?

answer

A Delivery Pattern is part of the Financial Component. It holds the delivery method and frequency related to the payment (how ; how often)

question

In the Financial Component, who is the Case Nominee?

answer

The Case Nominee is the Recipient of the payment or bill

question

In the Financial Component, who is the Primary Client?

answer

The Primary Client is the client for whom entitlement of payment or liability was calculated -- not the recipient of the payment or bill

question

What are the 2 Categories of a Financial Component?

answer

Payment and Liability

question

In Financial Management, what is this an example of: "John Smith should receive $25 per week in payments by checque".

answer

Delivery Pattern -- Delivery Method & Delivery Frequency (how & how often)

question

What is a Case Component?

answer

Case Components are the benefits or liabilities that a primary client might be eligible for.

question

When are Financial Components created?

answer

Financial Components are created during the Assessment and Re-Assessment processing.

question

Are Financial Components created for over and underpayments?

answer

YES

question

Who is the default case nominee for all Case Components?

answer

The default case nominee for all case components is the primary client.

question

Who can be a Case Nominee

answer

A case nominee can be any individual or party that is designated to receive a case component on behalf of the primary client.

question

What is an offset?

answer

An offset determines the numbers of days before the due date that a financial transaction needs to be processed for the payment to reach the participant on time. An offset can be defined for a delivery pattern.

question

What are Secondary Financial Components?

answer

Secondary Financial Components are schedules to make deductions from payments. They are created when deductions are setup for benefit cases. Secondary financial components are processed when case payments are issued.

question

What is an Instruction Line Item (ILI)?

answer

It is a payment or bill. The Instuction Line Item (ILI) represents a single payment or bill for an individual financial component of a specific product delivery. Note: It is the second building block of Financial Management. It is the most basic financial processing element in Curam.

question

How are Financial Components and Instruction Line Items (ILI) related?

answer

A Financial Components is a schedule to pay or bill while an ILI is one instance of that schedule. A Financial Component is processed into a financial ILI. A financial ILI is created for the duration, frequency, and amount defined in the Financial Component.

question

What is created when a payment is received and allocated toward a liability?

answer

An ILI can be manually created outside of case processing, for example: when a payment received is allocated toward a liability.

question

What is a Financial Instruction?

answer

A Financial Instruction is a consolidation of Instruction Line Items (ILI) into a single tranctional unit of financial processing. It allows for a single payment issuance of multiple product components.

question

What are 2 participants for which Financial Instructions are useful?

answer

Financial Instructions are especially useful for bulk payments or billing, such as for: Utility Companies and Service Providers

question

What is this an example of: "Pay Jane Smith $185 ($200 benefit minus $15 deduction"?

answer

Financial Instruction

question

In Financial Management, what does rolling-up refer to?

answer

Rolling-up refers to the process of conslidating serveral ILIs of the same category, nominee, delivery method, currency, and cover period. A financial instruction is a rolled-up view of one or more Instruction Line Items.

question

What is a Payment Group?

answer

Payment groups provide the ability to group products/programs for which the payments should be rolled up during financial processing. The system will roll up the payments of products belonging to a payment group into a single payment, provided the conditions for roll up are satisfied.

question

If Payment Groups are not defined, what happens to the payments?

answer

If no payment groups are defined, all products are rolled up in a single financial instruction.

question

Payments in a payment group are rolled up into one _____________ when processing occurs.

answer

Payments in a payment group are rolled up into one PAYMENT INSTRUCTION when processing occurs.

question

What is a Financial Instrument?

answer

Financial Instruments are the records of actual payments, liabilities, or payments received that the organization issued or received. They are recorded for financial instructions. Data from financial instruments can be used to interface with external financial systems.

question

In Financial Management, data from _________ can be used to interface with external financial systems.

answer

In Financial Management, data from FINANCIAL INSTRUMENTS can be used to interface with external financial systems.

question

What is the 1st building block of Financial Management?

answer

The Financial Component is the 1st building block of Financial Management. A Financial Component is a Schedule to pay or bill in relation to a case.

question

What is the 2nd building block of Financial Management?

answer

The Instuction Line Item (ILI) represents a single payment or bill for an individual financial component of a specific product delivery.

question

What is the 3rd building block of Financial Management?

answer

Financial Instruction - is a consolidation of Instruction Line Items (ILI) into a single tranctional unit of financial processing

question

What is the 4th building block of Financial Management?

answer

Payment Group - provides the ability to group products/programs for which the payments should be rolled up during financial processing

question

What is the 5th building block of Financial Management?

answer

Financial Instruments are the the record of actual payments, liabilities, or payments received that the organization issued or received.

question

What is a Payslip?

answer

A Payslip is a record of the Instuction Line Items (ILI) that pertain to a particular payment or liability instruction. Payslips can be issued to a client, case nominee, or 3rd party for record keeping purposes.

question

To whom can payslips be issued?

answer

Payslips can be issued to a client, case nominee, or 3rd party for record keeping purposes.

question

Payslips contain what 3 components?

answer

Payslips contain the following components: 1. A header with recipient details 2. Payment or Liability details 3. A section that contains details of each ILI in the payment or liability

question

What is the 6th building block of Financial Management?

answer

Payslip - is a record of the Instuction Line Items (ILI) that pertain to a particular payment or liability instruction.

question

What does CER stand for?

answer

Curam Express Rules (CER)

question

What are 3 application areas that use CER?

answer

CER is used by a number of application areas, including (but not limited to): ACE: 1. Advisor, 2. Cúram's Universal Access Module, 3. Eligibility and Entitlement Engine

question

What is a Rule Session?

answer

A rule session controls the running of rules. For example, your application might create a rule session to determine John Smith's eligibility for child benefit, by invoking the appropriate rule set and asking eligibility questions about John's personal circumstances.

question

What is a Rule Set?

answer

A rule set is a collection of rule classes, typically centered around a specific purpose. A new rule set can be created in the Rules and Evidence section of the Administration Interface.

question

In Rules, what is an Expression?

answer

An expression is a calculation step that can be used to answer a question, e.g. a ""sum"" expression may be used to calculate the total income and then use a ""compare"" expression to compare that total with the threshold amount.

question

What is a rule attribute?

answer

A rule attribute is a question that can be asked. It is defined on a Rule Class and might be asked of any Rule Object of that class. A new Attribute can be created for the selected rule class in the CER Editor.

question

What is a Rule Object?

answer

A rule object is an instance of a Rule Class, for example, John Smith (a Person), John Smith's income from a part-time job (Income), or John Smith's application for child support benefits (Claim).

question

What is a Rule Class?

answer

A rule class is a type of "thing" that has data, such as a Person, an Income, or a Claim. A new rule class can be created in the CER Editor. See Technical View

question

A product delivery case status is "open" when?

answer

A product delivery case status is "open" when the case is first created on the system. Performing certain processes will cause a product delivery status to return to "open" from another status. Unsuspending, reactivating, and rejecting a product delivery case will cause its status to revert to "open".

question

A product delivery case status is "submitted" when?

answer

A product delivery case status is "submitted" when it is submitted for approval.

question

A product delivery case status is "approved" when?

answer

A product delivery case status is "approved" when the case is approved by an authorized user, e.g., a case supervisor.

question

A product delivery case status is "active" when?

answer

A product delivery case status is "active" when the case is activated online by a system user or offline by the batch launcher.

question

A product delivery case status is "suspended" when?

answer

A product delivery case status is "suspended" when the case is suspended. Case suspension prevents the generation of future financial payments for the case.

question

A product delivery case status is "Pending Closure" when?

answer

When a closure date is entered later than today's date, the system sets the status of the case to "pending closure" so it can be closed when the closure date is reached.

question

A product delivery case is "closed" when?

answer

A product delivery case is "closed" when normal business is complete for that case. A case can be manually closed by a system user. The system will automatically close the case when the Evaluate Certification Grace Period or Close Cases Pending Closure batch process is run if the certification grace period expires or if the closure date for a case "pending closure" is reached, respectively. The application can also be configured to automatically close any cases which are found to be ineligible during activation (by default this is turned off).

question

True or False: Payslips can be created from a Payment Group

answer

TRUE. Payslips can be created from a Payment Group

question

What are the 4 batch processes that generate Payments and Liabilities? ***

answer

4 batch processes that generate Payments and Liabilities are: DGGG (DG-cubed):, 1. Determine Product Delivery Eligibility, 2. Generate Instruction Line Items (ILI), 3. Generate Instruments, which includes the generation of Instructions and Instruments, 4. Generate Payslips

question

In Financial Management, the Generate Instruments batch process consists of which 2 sub-processes? ***

answer

The Generate Instruments batch process consists of a. generate Instructions and b. generate Instruments

question

True or False: Payments and liabilities can be generated automatically or manually.

answer

TRUE

question

In Financial Management, which batch process is associated with Financial Components?

answer

Determine Product Delivery Eligibility batch process creates Financial Components -- aka: the Schedule

question

In Financial Management, which batch process is associated withPayment and Liability ILIs?

answer

Generate Instruction Line Items (ILI) batch process creates ILIs

question

In Financial Management, which batch process is associated with Payment and Liability Instructions?

answer

Generate Instruments batch process' "Generate Instructions" sub-process creates Instructions

question

In Financial Management, which batch process is associated with Payment and Liability Instruments?

answer

Generate Instruments batch process' "Generate Instruments" sub-process creates Instruments

question

In Financial Management, which batch process is associated with Payslips?

answer

Generate Payslips batch process creates Payslips

question

What status must a Product Delivery case be in for it to result in payments?

answer

Payments and liabilities are generated for active cases

question

After what set of processes are payments and liabilities generated?

answer

Payments and liabilities due for active cases are automatically generated when the Financial Batch Suite runs.

question

Can the processes in the Financial Batch Suite be run in any order

answer

No. They must be run in the following order: 1. Determine Product Delivery Eligibility batch process, 2. Generate Instruction Line Items batch process, 3. Generate Instruments batch process and, 4. Generate Payslips batch process

question

What set of processes automates payment and liability generation and ensures that eligible participants are paid or billed according to their delivery frequency

answer

The Financial Batch Suite is the set of processes that automate payment and liability generation.

question

The Determine Product Delivery Eligibility batch process generates _____________.

answer

The Determine Product Delivery Eligibility batch process generates FINANCIAL COMPONENTS

question

The Generate Instructions Line Items batch process runs second and generates ____________.

answer

The Generate Instructions Line Items batch process runs second and generates ILIs

question

The Generate Instruments batch process runs third to generate _______________________.

answer

The Generate Instruments batch process runs third to generate FINANCIAL INSTRUCTIONS and FINANCIAL INSTRUMENTS.

question

The Generate Payslips process runs fourth (last) to generate ______________.

answer

The Generate Payslips process runs fourth (last) to generate PAYSLIPS for all financial instruments.

question

If there are 10 Financial Instruments, how many Payslips will there be?

answer

10. The Generate Payslips process runs fourth (last) to generate PAYSLIPS for all financial instruments.

question

If there are 10 Payslips, how many Financial Instruments were generated?

answer

10. The Generate Payslips process runs fourth (last) to generate PAYSLIPS for all financial instruments.

question

Can payments be generated without the Financial Batch Suite?

answer

YES. Payments can be generated online for a single benefit case without the Financial Batch Suite having to be called. This may be necessary if the primary client is in need of emergency assistance.

question

Can payments be generated online for all Product Delivery Cases?

answer

NO. Payments can be generated online ONLY for Active Cases.

question

What are the 3 categories of deductions?

answer

Three deduction categories are: 1. Applied 2. Unapplied 3. Third Party

question

The __________ process means that taxes are applied to all payments for the benefit.

answer

The TAX ADJUSTMENT process means that taxes are applied to all payments for the benefit.

question

When Financial Components are created for a benefit, information that specifies whether tax adjustment processing is required is saved on each of the _______________________.

answer

When Financial Components are created for a benefit, information that specifies whether tax adjustment processing is required is saved on each of the FINANCIAL COMPONENTS

question

What are Surcharges?

answer

Surcharges are extra charges that are applied to liabilities that are not processed within an appropriate time period. For example, suppose that an employer is issued a bill for employment contributions and does not pay all or a portion of this bill within the appropriate time period. A surcharge is applied to the outstanding amount. The employer is issued a new bill for the surcharge.

question

What is an Applied Deduction?

answer

An Applied Deduction is an amount that is deducted form a Person's benefit payment and used to pay off an outstanding liability that is owed to the organization.

question

Applied deductions can be allocated to __________________.

answer

Applied deductions can be allocated to LIABILITIES INCURRED BY THE PRIMARY CLIENT OR BY ANY OTHER PARTICIPANT.

question

What is an Unapplied Deduction?

answer

An Unapplied Deduction is a stand-alone deduction amount that is not applied toward a specific liability.

question

An ___________________ is a stand-alone deduction amount that is not applied toward a specific liability.

answer

An UNAPPLIED DEDUCTION is a stand-alone deduction amount that is NOT applied toward a specific liability.

question

True or False: Deductions are not applied to existing liabilities.

answer

TRUE. Deductions can only be applied to benefit payments.

question

True or False:Failure to provide all required information can rigger a punitive reduction of the benefit amount.

answer

TRUE. The unapplied deduction is used as a penalty until the claimant provides the information that the organization needs. Once the information is provided, the unapplied deduction can be removed.

question

What is a Third-Party Deduction?

answer

A Third-Party Deduction is an amount that is deducted from a Person's benefit payment and used to pay off charges, costs, or debts that are owed to another participant (not the organization).

question

Third-Party Deduction can be issued to what kinda of Participant Types?

answer

"Third-Party Deduction can be issued to the following Participants Types: Person; Employer; Representative; Product Provider; Utility; Information Provider; Service Supplier (PER-PUPS)"

question

What are some examples of Third-Party Deductions?

answer

A Person can allocate part of their benefit payment toward an electricity bill. Third-Party Deductions can be used to pay-off unpaid fines, compensation orders, or child-support orders (for example).

question

TRUE or FALSE: Deducations are automatically deducted from Case Payments?

answer

FALSE. Deductions cannot be deducted from case payments unless a user specifically (manually) creates the deduction on the case.

question

Can a user set up one or more deductions on an individual case?

answer

YES.

question

What dictates the order in which the deduction is processed when payments are generated for the case?

answer

The DEDUCTION PRIORITY dictates the order in which the deduction is processed when payments are generated for the case

question

What are the 2 types of deductions?

answer

Two Types of Deductions are: 1. Fixed (specific monetary amount) 2. Variable (percentage)

question

A __________ deduction must be assigned to a single nominee.

answer

A FIXED deduction must be assigned to a single nominee.

question

A __________ deduction must be assigned to a signgle nominee, all nominees, or a case component.

answer

A VARIABLE deduction must be assigned to a signgle nominee, all nominees, or a case component.

question

A Fixed Deduction must be assigned to _________________.

answer

A FIXED deduction must be assigned to a single nominee.

question

A Variable Deduction must be assigned to ____________________________________.

answer

A VARIABLE deduction must be assigned to a signgle nominee, all nominees, or a case component.

question

What are the 4 deduction statuses:

answer

Each deduction has a status that describes its process. The 5 deduction statuses are: 1. Inactive, 2. Active, 3. Processed, 4. Skipped, 5. Cancelled

question

Deductions are processed in the specified order of ________________.

answer

Deductions are processed in the specified order of PRIORITY

question

If an insufficient amount remains on the benefit payment to process the full deduction amount, what 2 options are available?

answer

"If an insufficient amount remains on the benefit payment to process the full deduction amount, the following 2 options are available: 1. Deduct Nothing (Skip), 2. Deduct Remaining

question

True or False: Recurring Deductions are schedule?

answer

FALSE. Recurring Deductions occur on a per-payment basis rather than a temporal basis, such as weekly or monthly

question

List 5 Other Payment Functions

answer

5 Other Payment Functions are: 1. Cancelling a payment, 2. Invalidating a payment, 3. Regenerating a payment, 4. Approving a Suspended payment, 5. Capturing a manual payment

question

Under what circumstances can you cancel a payment?

answer

You can cancel a payment that is issued in error, or that is not yet received.

question

When should a payment be Invalidated?

answer

A payment should be Invalidated to allow for the regeneration of a replace payment.

question

Can a Cancelled Payment be regenerated?

answer

YES

question

When a payment is regenerated, what is created by the Financial Management functionality?

answer

A Cancelled payment can be regenerated, which creates a new ILI and a new Payment Instruction.

question

Can a maximum payment amount be configured into the Financial Management functionality?

answer

YES. The System Administrator can set a maximum payment amount for a delivery pattern.

question

What happens to payments that exceed the maximum payment amount, defined in the Financial Management functionality?

answer

Payments exceeding the maximum payment amount are suspended, that is, they are not automatically issued. A user with appropriate security can approve a suspended payment, which overrides this limitation and allows the payment to be issued.

question

What is a manual payment?

answer

A manual payment is a payment to a case nominee that is issued outside of Curam. When capturing the manual payment, processes are called to re-create all the elements of a payment. These elments include any relevent deduction or tax ILIs, the Financial Instruction, and the Financial Instrument.

question

What does Reversing a Liability mean for the nominee?

answer

Reversing a Liability means that the nominee is no longer responsible for the Liability Amount.

question

What does Writing-Off a Liability mean to the participant?

answer

Writing-off a Liability means that the participant is unable to pay.

question

True or False: When a liability Instruction Line Item (ILI) is reversed, the liability amount is deleted from the system

answer

FALSE. When a liability Instruction Line Item (ILI) is reversed, the liability amount is negated rather than deleted from the system. This process is for accountability and traceability purposes.

question

What does the system do when a liability Instruction Line Item (ILI) is reversed?

answer

When a liability Instruction Line Item (ILI) is reversed, the system automatically creates a new reversal instruction line item. The reversal instruction line item is automatically allocated toward the liability Instruction Line Item.

question

Into what are Reversal Instruction Line Items (ILI) are rolled up?

answer

Reversal Instruction Line Items (ILI) are rolled up into a Reversal Instruction

question

What does the system do when a liability Instruction Line Item (ILI) is written-off?

answer

When a liability Instruction Line Item (ILI) is written-off, a write-off Instruction Line Item (ILI) is created to reflect the write-off amount.

question

Write-off Instruction Line Items (ILI) are automatically allocated toward what kind of Instruction Line Item (ILI)?

answer

Write-off Instruction Line Items (ILI) are automatically allocated toward the Liabililty Instruction Line Item (ILI). This task reduces the outstanding amount of the Liability Instruction Line Item by the amount of the Write-Off.

question

Payments can be received from what 3 sources?

answer

Payments can be received from: 1. Persons 2. Employers 3. Unknown Sources

question

Payments from Unknown Sources are temporarily recorded in what kind of account? ***

answer

Payments from Unknown Sources are temporarily recorded in a Suspense Account

question

Payments that are received are usually allocated to ________________.

answer

Payments that are received are usually allocated to Liabilities

question

Does Curam allow for all or portions of a payment to be refunded?

answer

YES. All or part of the unallocated amount of a payment that is received can be refunded to the person or employer from whome the payment was received.

question

Payments can be received on behalf of what 2 participant types?

answer

Persons and Employers

question

Are payments received manually or in a batch mode?

answer

Payments can be received manually into the system or in a batch.

question

When capturing payment details for an employer or person, what kinds of information does the sytem require?

answer

When capturing payment details for an employer or person, the system requires the amount, date the payment was received, and the effective date of the payment. It can also capture the method of receipt, type of currency, a reference number, and issuer details.

question

What is an allocation?

answer

IN Curam, an allocation is a funds transfer to an outstanding liability.

question

What organizational objects can a Case Owner be? ***

answer

A Case Owner can be any of the following organization objects: 1. User, 2. Position, 3. Organization Unit, 4. Work Queue

question

What are the 7 Core Case Types? ***

answer

The 7 Core Case Types are: 1. Screening Case , 2. Assessment Case, 3. Application Case, 4. Integrated Case, 5. Product Delivery Case, 6. Issue Case, 7. Investigation Case

question

What are the 11 Participant Role Types? ****

answer

The 11 Participant Role Types are: PEER-PUPPIES: 1. Person, 2. Employer, 3. External Party, 4. Representative, 5. Prospect Person, 6. Utility, 7. Prospect Employer, 8. Product Provider, 9. Information Provider, 10. Educational Institute, 11. Service Supplier

question

What are the 3 IBM Curam Solutions? ***

answer

The 3 IBM Curam Solutions are: ICI: 1. Income Support, 2. Income Support for Medical Assistance, 3. Child Welfare

question

What are the 9 IBM Curam Enterprise Modules? ***

answer

The 9 IBM Curam Enterprise Modules are: SAVE-LO-PUB: 1. Social Enterprise Collaboration, 2. Appeals, 3. Verification Engine, 4. Evidence Broker, 5. Life Event Management, 6. Outcome Management, 7. Provider Management, 8. Universal Access, 9. Business Intelligence & Analysis

question

What are the 3 tiers of the Curam Social Program Management? ***

answer

The 3 tiers of the Curam SPM are: SES: 1. Solutions, 2. Enterprise Modules, 3. Social Program Management Platform (focus of our course is on the platform)

question

What are the 4 batch processes that generate Payments and Liabilities? ***

answer

The 4 batch processes that generate Payments and Liabilities are: 1. Determine Product Delivery Eligibility , 2. Generate Instruction Line Items (ILI) , 3. Generate Instruments batch process and, 4. Generate Payslips batch process

question

In Financial Management, the Generate Instruments batch process consists of which 2 sub-processes? ***

answer

The Generate Instruments batch process consists of a. generate Instructions and b. generate Instruments

question

Payments from Unknown Sources are temporarily recorded in what kind of account? ***

answer

Payments from Unknown Sources are temporarily recorded in a Suspense Account

question

True or False: Curam Administration allows you to define and manage all areas of the Curam application.

answer

TRUE

question

What are the 2 main categories of Security Administration?

answer

The 2 main categories of Security Administration are: 1. Authentication 2. Authorization

question

In Security Administration, what is Authentication?

answer

Authentication ensures that only valid users can access the application by requiring them to provide a valid user name and password.

question

In Security Administration, what is Authorization?

answer

Authorization secures the application once a valid user is successfully logged in. Authorization evaluates user access to secured elements in the application that is based on their user security profile, which the user's security roles define.

question

What ensures that only valid users can access the application by requiring them to provide a valid user name and password?

answer

Authentication ensures that only valid users can access the application by requiring them to provide a valid user name and password.

question

What secures the application once a valid user is successfully logged in?

answer

Authorization secures the application once a valid user is successfully logged in.

question

What are the 5 verifications performed by Authentication?

answer

1. Username and Password, 2. Account and/or Password Expiry, 3. User name synchronization with security cache, 4. Break-in Detection - Checks unsuccessful logins, 5. Access restrictions

question

What are 3 User Security Profiles?

answer

The 3 User Security Profiles are: 1. Security Role (e.g. Caseworker_Role) 2. Security Groups (e.g. Caseworker_Group) 3. Security IDs (e.g. Create_Case, Modify_Case)

question

What are Security Identifiers (SID)? **

answer

A Security Identifier (SID) represents a protected resource. Every security element in Curam is given a unique SID.

question

To what items can Security Identifiers (SID) be assigned?

answer

Security Identifiers (SID) can be assigned to: business processes, specific fields on a screen, organization units, locations, case audits, and products that are offered by the organization.

question

What is the most common type of Security Identifiers (SID)?

answer

The most common type of SID is the Functional SID, also knows as a function identifier (FID)

question

What is a Function Identifier (FID)?

answer

The most common type of SID is the Functional SID, also knows as a function identifier (FID)

question

What are Function Identifiers (FID) used for?

answer

Function Identifiers (FID) are used to secure business processes. For example, an FID is assigned to the Register Person business process.

question

What are Security Groups?

answer

A Security Group is the grouping of security identifiers into logical, manageable groups.

question

What are Security Roles?

answer

A user has only one security role. A security role may consist of multiple security groups, which specify the SIDs that a user can access. This can include FIDs, as well as field, product, and other SIDs.

question

What is Cúram security?

answer

Curam Security is the Authentication (access to the system) and Authorization (access to processes, functionality, fields) of users to and in the system.

question

For what does the Advisor use CER rules?

answer

The Advisor uses CER rules to compute advice to display to users. This advice is automatically updated when circumstances change.

question

What does Cúram Universal Access Module rely on CER to determine?

answer

The Cúram Universal Access Module relies on CER to determine potential eligibility for social services programs when citizens use the self service module to perform self-screening.

question

Based on the data captured, ________ determines for which programs the citizen is potentially eligible.

answer

Based on the data captured, CER determines which programs the citizen is potentially eligible for, and provides a textual explanation (in the citizen's language) of why that citizen is or is not potentially eligible.

question

What tightly integrates with CER to provide determinations of a case's eligibility and entitlement across the full lifetime of the case?

answer

CURAM'S CASE ELIGIBILITY AND ENTITLEMENT ENGINE tightly integrates with CER to provide determinations of a case's eligibility and entitlement (and explanations of how these were derived) across the full lifetime of the case.

question

The Case Eligibility and Entitlement Engine relies on the integration between CER and the ______________ to identify when to recalculate a case's determination.

answer

The Case Eligibility and Entitlement Engine relies on the integration between CER and the DEPENDENCY MANAGER to identify when to recalculate a case's determination, either due to case-specific changes such as evidence data, or from wider data changes such as changes to personal data or product-wide rate data.

question

What results in the recalculation of a case's determination?

answer

The Case Eligibility and Entitlement Engine relies on the integration between CER and the Dependency Manager to identify when to recalculate a case's determination, either due to case-specific changes or from wider data changes.

question

True or False: A user can be assigned to multiple Security Roles.

answer

FALSE. A user has only one security role.

question

True or False: A Security Roles may consist of multiple Security Groups.

answer

TRUE. A security role may consist of multiple security groups

question

True or False: A Security Group may consist of multiple Security Identifiers (SID)

answer

TRUE. Security groups specify the SIDs that a user can access.

question

True or False: A Security Role can be assigned to multiple users.

answer

TRUE. For example, a Caseworker_Role could be assigned to all the Caseworker users.

question

What are Locations?

answer

Locations are the workplaces of the users, including the public offices where citizens can interact with the organization.

question

True or False: Locations are the addresses of the Participants.

answer

FALSE. Locations are the workplaces of the users.

question

State -> Regina -> County -> Local Office is an example of what kind of hierarchy?

answer

Location Hierarchy

question

__________ Location Structure can be active at a given time.

answer

Only ONE Location Structure can be active at a given time.

question

True or False: An organization can have only one Location Structure.

answer

FALSE. Multiple Location Structures can be created in the system. But only ONE Location Structure can be ACTIVE at a given time.

question

True or False: All Locations have an address

answer

TRUE: All Locations have an address

question

True or False: There can be multiple Locations at the same address.

answer

TRUE. There can be multiple Locations at the same address.

question

Each Location is organized into a hierarchical Location relationship structure with one ____________.

answer

Each Location is organized into a hierarchical Location relationship structure with one ROOT LOCATION.

question

What is a Location Structure?

answer

The location structure maintains the locations of an organization and the parent/ child relationship between the locations. The first component added to the location structure is the root location. Further child locations can then be added to the root location.

question

What is the purpose of the Operating Status of a Location?

answer

All locations have an operating status which indicates whether or not the location is in use.

question

Can Locations have security applied to them?

answer

Locations can be secured. Location security limits user access to case and client information based on a comparison of a user's location, the location of their position or positions, and the location of the case/client information. The location of a case is taken as the location of the primary client in the case.

question

What are the 4 Location Data Security Options?

answer

1. OFF - Users can read/maintain all cases and clients, regardless of location 2. ON - Users can read/maintain only those cases and clients in the user's Location and Sub-Locations 3. RESTRICTED VIEW - User can see that cases and clients exist in other Locations but they cannot read or maintain details. 4. READ ONLY - User can read details of cases and clients in other Locations but they cannot maintain details. (Review Page 108)

question

On what screen can you find the Location Data Security field?

answer

You find the Location Data Security field on the Organization home page.

question

What Location Data Security options allow users to read/maintain cases and clients in the user's location and sublocations?

answer

Restricted View and Read Only, Location Data Security Options, allow users to read/maintain cases and clients in the user's location and sublocations

question

In addition to the Location Data Security options, what can be used to allow users to gain access to other specified locations?

answer

An Administrator can grant ADDITIONAL LOCATION ACCESS to a specific location. This action provides users with access to data in certain other locations that are not sublocations of their assigned location.

question

What checks a user's rights to access information that is based on the location of case and client information?

answer

LOCATION SECURITY checks a user's rights to access information that is based on the location of case and client information?

question

What is Sensitivity Security? ***

answer

Sensitivity security provides a means of securing high profile or risky data that should be reserved for viewing to a small number of users. This is done by assigning a sensitivity level to the sensitive data. Users will only be permitted to view the secured data if their sensitivity level is higher the data's sensitivity level.

question

What are the 4 main objects that can be assigned a Sensitivity Level? ***

answer

Curam enables you to assign a sensitivity level to the following main objects:, W-PUN:, 1. Work Queues 2. Participant 3. Users 4. Notes - Curam enables you to assign a sensitivity level to the following main objects:

question

What are the 5 Sensitivity Levels?

answer

The 5 Sensitivity Levels are 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 with 5 being the highest level of sensitivity

question

What must a user's sensitivity level be in order to view a secured object?

answer

Users are permitted to view the secured object only if their sensitivity level is equal to or greater than the sensitivity level of the object.

question

True or False: All users, participants, notes, and work queues are assigned a sensitivity level.

answer

TRUE. All users, participants, notes, and work queues are assigned a sensitivity level.

question

If a user has a Sensitivity Level of 3, can they see the homepage of a Participant with a level of 4?

answer

NO. (4 is a higher level than 3)

question

What is the highest-level organization unit in an Organization Structure?

answer

ROOT UNIT

question

What components are defined below the Organization Structure's Root Unit?

answer

The following 3 components are defined below the root unit: 1. Other Organization Units, 2. Positions and Jobs, 3. Users

question

Organization units represent the Operational Units of an Organization. What are some examples of Operational Units.

answer

Departments, Teams, Groups

question

In the Organization Structure, you must create the ___________________ before adding any other Organization Units.

answer

ROOT UNIT

question

How many Child Organization Units can an Organization Unit have?

answer

One or more

question

What does the relationship between organization units represent?

answer

The relationship between organization units represents the way in which the groups within the organization interact. An organization unit is the parent element to the positions it contains.

question

In the Organization Structure, Positions are placeholders for _________________ in the organization structure.

answer

Positions are placeholders for USERS in the organization structure.

question

True or False: Each position is assigned to an Organization Unit

answer

TRUE. Each position is assigned to an Organization Unit

question

In the Organization Structure, you can assign one or more ______ to a Position

answer

You can assign one or more USERS to a Position

question

In the Organization Structure, what do Positions define?

answer

Positions define the type of work that the users in that position perform, because each position is assigned a job from the Organization's list of Jobs. Positions are placeholders for Users in the Organization Structure.

question

In the Organization Structure, what do Jobs define?

answer

Jobs are the functional roles within the Organization. Many Positions can have the same Job.

question

In the Organization Structure, what is a Lead Position used for?

answer

The Lead Positions are used to define the organization reporting hierarchy. The Lead Position assigned to the root unit is known as the Primary Lead Position for the organization.

question

In the Organization Structure, what is the Primary Lead Position?

answer

The Primary Lead Position for the organization is the Lead Position that is assigned to the Root Unit.

question

What is the hierarchy of the 5 units in the Organization Structure?

answer

1. Organization, -> 2. Org Structure, -> 3. Org Unit, -> 4. Position, -> 5a. Job, & 5b. User

question

In the Organization Structure, can a User fill more than one Positions in the Organization Structure?

answer

YES. A User can fill more than one Positions in the Organization Structure

question

In the Organization Structure, can a Position be filled by more than one User?

answer

YES. A Position can be filled by more than one User

question

Can a user be created without being assigned a Position?

answer

YES. However, a User without a Position is not represented in the Organization Structure and does not have a place in the Organization Reporting Hierarchy. In addition, the user's functional role within the organization is not defined.

question

What is a real-life example of an Organization?

answer

e.g. Ministry of Social Services

question

Each member of an organization has a set of ________________ that can be graded according to experience and performance.

answer

Each member of an organization has a set of SKILLS and COMPETENCIES that can be graded according to experience and performance.

question

In Curam, what are these examples of: Counseling, Computer competence, and Sign-Language

answer

A member's SKILLS and COMPETENCIES

question

What in Curam enables agencies to maintain a database of user skills and abilities that can be linked directly to each user's profiles?

answer

The Curam ORGANIZATION STRUCTURE enables agencies to maintain a database of user skills and abilities that can be linked directly to each user's profiles?

question

What can a database of users' skills and abilities be used for?

answer

The Organization can facilitate work allocation to the most appropriate user.

question

In SPM Administration, what is the Organization Reporting Hierarchy?

answer

The Reporting Hierarchy is the chain of command that determines the supervisors in the organization structure and the users that report to them.

question

In the Organization Structure, Reporting Hierarchy is based on the relationship between ______________ and _____________________.

answer

Reporting Hierarchy is based on the relationship between POSITIONS and their LEAD POSITIONS.

question

All Positions, except the Primary Lead Position in the root unit, report to _____________________.

answer

All Positions, except the Primary Lead Position in the root unit, report to LEAD POSITIONS.

question

The Lead Position that is assigned to the Root Organization Unit is the _______________.

answer

The Lead Position that is assigned to the Root Organization Unit is the PRIMARY LEAD POSITION.

question

What is the main purpose of the Primary Lead Position.

answer

The Primary Lead Position ensures that there is at least one reporting positions for all other positions.

question

True or False: It is possible for a Position to not have a specified Lead Position assigned to it.

answer

TRUE. If a position does not have a specified lead position, it reports to a Lead Position based on the Organization Structure. If none are found then the Position reports to the Primary Lead Position.

question

A user's ________ determines to whom that user reports.

answer

A user's POSITION determines to whom that user reports.

question

In general, if a Position reports to the Lead Position of its Organization Unit. If the Organization Unit has no Lead Position or if the Lead Position is vacant, the Position reports to the Lead Position in the _________________.

answer

In general, if a Position reports to the Lead Position of its Organization Unit. If the Organization Unit has no Lead Position or if the Lead Position is vacant, the Position reports to the Lead Position in the PARENT ORGANIZATION UNIT.

question

What is the purpose of the Supervisor role?

answer

The supervisor role is designed for work supervision and has access to the Cúram Supervisor Workspace and its workload management functionality. This role is assigned to a user at administration level. The supervisor account is used for workload management rather than casework.

question

Every user reports to at least one other user who monitors their work. What is the position of this other user?

answer

User Supervisor

question

What is the Supervisor Workspace functionality used for?

answer

The Supervisor Workspace functionality allows Supervisors to directly manage work for users.

question

What users can a Supervisor monitor?

answer

A supervisor can monitor the following users: a. User in organization units in which the supervisor holds a lead role b. Users in child units of the units in which the supervisor holds a lead role c. Users in a position that reports directly to the supervisor's positionA supervisor can monitor the following users:

question

What are Working Patterns?

answer

An Organization's Working Pattern represents the standard working hours for a 14 day period which starts on a Monday and ends on the second Sunday. For example, a Working Pattern can be Mon to Fri, 9:00 AM to 5:00 PM. The Organization's working pattern is the default working patterns for the system users. However, these defaults can be overridden by an individual user's working pattern.

question

Are End Dates required on Working Plans?

answer

An end date does not have to be set for a working pattern. In which case, the 14 day period will repeat indefinitely.

question

Can you have more than one Organization Structure defined in the system?

answer

YES. You can have multiple Organization Structures in the system. The last Organization Structure that was activated will supersede the previous organization structure.

question

Curam maintains an __________________ for the scheduled activities of the organization

answer

Curam maintains an ACTIVITY CALENDAR for the scheduled activities of the organization

question

Curam's Financial Administration services enable you to manage which 5 organization components?

answer

1. Banks, 2. Bank Accounts, 3. Exchange Rates, 4. Financial Processing Calendar, 5. Insurance Return Period

question

The organization calendar is used to record what 2 types of activities?

answer

The organization calendar is used to record ONCE-OFF and RECURRING activities for the organization.

question

True or False: Organization activities apply to all system users

answer

TRUE. Organization activities apply to all system users and thus displays on the organization activity calendar, as well as on a user's individual calendar.

question

There is a separate ____________ for each financial delivery method.

answer

There is a separate FINANCIAL PROCESSING CALENDAR for each payment delivery method.

question

What are the 5 different financial delivery methods.

answer

1. Cash, 2. Cheque, 3. EFT , 4. Voucher, 4. Invoice

question

The Financial Processing Calendar stores the on which the organization __________ make payments by using the particular delivery method. These dates are called _______________________.

answer

The Financial Processing Calendar stores the on which the organization WILL NOT make payments by using the particular delivery method. These dates are called PAYMENT EXCLUSION DATES.

question

What is an Insurance Return Period?

answer

An Insurance Return Period is the period for which the organization bills for contributions from participants.

question

What is a Financial Processing Calendar?

answer

A Financial Processing Calendar stores the on which the organization will NOT make payments by using the particular delivery method.

question

What is an Activity Calendar

answer

An Activity Calendar is used to maintain scheduled activities for the Organization.

question

Production Administration includes the maintenance of ________ and ___________ products.

answer

Production Administration includes the maintenance of BENEFIT and LIABILITY products.

question

Benefit and Liability Product Administration includes the maintenance of each product's ________, ________, and ________________.

answer

Benefit and Liability Product Administration includes the maintenance of each product's PROVISIONS, RULES SETS, and DELIVERY PATTERNS.

question

Product Administration contains the information necessary for the maintenance of various _________, _________, and _________________.

answer

Product Administration contains the information necessary for the maintenance of various CASE TYPES, EVIDENCE PAGES, and DELIVERY PATTERNS.

question

What contains information necessary for the maintenance of the various case types, evidence pages, and services available?

answer

Product Administration contains information necessary for the maintenance of the various case types, evidence pages, and services available

question

What type of user can configure new pods, and can select which pods should be displayed for a specific user type?

answer

Administrators can configure new pods, and can select which pods should be displayed for a specific user type

question

What type of user can select which Quick Links are displayed for a specific application view?

answer

Administrators can select which Quick Links are displayed for a specific application view

question

What's a Pod?

answer

A Pod is a user interface widget that can be placed on a client page.

question

What's a Quick Link?

answer

Quick links are a collection of links to frequently used application pages, which allow users to complete common actions.

question

True or False: In Curam, administration maintains Nicknames.

answer

TRUE

question

True or False: In Curam, administration maintains Batch Processes

answer

TRUE

question

True or False: In Curam, administration maintains Code Tables

answer

TRUE

question

True or False: In Curam, administration maintains Properties

answer

TRUE

question

True or False: In Curam, administration maintains Rate Tables

answer

TRUE

question

True or False: In Curam, administration maintains Communication Templates

answer

TRUE

question

What is the Nicknames tool?

answer

The Nicknames tool is part of SPM Administration. If configured, when a nickname search is performed, the results will include records that match the entered name as we as any associated nicknames. To configure nicknames, you must enter names and their associated nicknames (e.g. William == Bill, Billy, Will, Willy)

question

What are Batch Processes?

answer

Batch Processes are executables files or mini-programs that process many records according to set parameters.

question

What does the DetermineProductDeliveryEligibility batch process do?

answer

The DetermineProductDeliveryEligibility batch process checks eligibility and activates a product delivery case

question

What organizes batch processes into logical groups?

answer

Batch Process Groups organize batch processes into logical groups

question

What are Code Tables?

answer

Code Tables store items that are displayed in Curam Drop-Down Lists. Code Table items consist of codes and their corresponding descriptions.

question

Can Code Tables be defined in a hierarchy?

answer

Parent-child relationships between code tables can be established (code table hierarchy)

question

What is required for newly added code table items to display in their associated drop-down lists?

answer

Newly added code table items must be PUBLISHED in order to display their associated drop-down lists.

question

What are Application Properties?

answer

Application Properties are variables that configure the system to suit the organization's needs (e.g. date format, default currency, database type)

question

What are Rate Tables used for?

answer

Rate Tables are used to store and maintain Rates. Rates are values that can vary over time, for example: Age Limits, Maximum Income Amounts. Rate tables contain effective dates.

question

In SPM Administration, what are Rates?

answer

Rates are values that can vary over time, for example: Age Limits, Maximum Income Amounts.

question

In SPM Administration, what use Rate Tables?

answer

Rule Sets use Rate Tables

question

Can you clone a Rate Table?

answer

YES

question

Each Rate table must have these 2 fields

answer

Each Rate table has a type and effective date.

question

What are Communication Templates used for?

answer

You can create Communication Templates to standardize the communications that are issued to correspondents.

question

What are the 2 types of Communication Templates?

answer

1. Extensible Style Language (XSL) (non-editable by the user) 2. Microsoft Word (editable by the user)

question

Communication Templates can be associated with specific types of ________ and ________.

answer

Communication Templates can be associated with specific types of PARTCIPANTS and CASES.

question

When are XSL Communication Templates used?

answer

XSL templates are used to automatically generate bulk communications, often through batch processing. They can be populated with standard text and existing data (via variables).

question

When are Word Communication Template used?

answer

Word Communication template are manually created. They can be populated with standard text and existing data. They can also be manually modified before being issued.

question

What are the elements that are used to determine a user's security profile?

answer

User security profiles are defined by a hierarchy of security elements called security identifiers (SIDs). These SIDs are the building blocks of application security.

question

What is Organization Structure functionality?

answer

The organization structure is a representation of the organization's users and functional areas. It partitions administration functionality that is related to an organization's hierarchy structure across many lines. Organization users, structures, reporting hierarchies and financial services can be administratively maintained.

question

What is Location Structure functionality?

answer

A location structure provides a means of managing the organization's locations in a dynamic and logical fashion.

question

What are the 3 major components of the Curam User Interface? ****

answer

1. Application Banner 2. Application Tabs 3. Shortcuts Panel

question

List 4 components of the Applciation Banner ****

answer

1. Application Name 2. User Role 3. Application Sections 4. Home 5. Welcome Message 6. Application Menu

question

List 3 compontents fo the Application tab ****

answer

1. Tab Title Bar 2. Context Panel 3. Navigation Bar 4. PageGroup Navigation Bar 5. Tab Content Page

question

Which UI Component appears on the screen when an action is performed, such as New, Edit, or Delete? ****

answer

Modal Dialogs

question

Which UI component takes you through a process that involves multiple modal dialogs? ****

answer

A Wizard

question

The Smart Panel displays which two pieces of Curam functionality? ****

answer

1. Advisor 2. Quick Notes

question

Which 3 pods are common to most applciations? ****

answer

1. Quick Links 2. My appointsments 3. My Tasks

question

True or False: Users can change the screen position of their pods ****

answer

TRUE

question

Define "Action Menu". What are the 3 types of Action Menus? ****

answer

Action Menus display the most commonly used actions that apply to the object. 1. TAB action menu 2. PAGE action menu 3. LIST action menu

question

What is the name of the arros that allow you to show or hide content under a specific object on the screen? ****

answer

Drop-down Toggles

question

An individual who interacts with the organization on behalf of another participant is? ****

answer

Representative

question

A role that allows the organization to outsource services that it does not perform is? ****

answer

Service Supplier

question

A role that can include private indivudals, government agencies, and registered date is? ****

answer

Information Provider

question

A participant that supplied insufficient information to be registered as an employer is? ****

answer

Prospect Employer

question

A participant that can choose to remain anonymous is? ****

answer

Prospect Person

question

An individual who is registered with the organization is? ****

answer

Person

question

The participant who uses the RELATED COMPANIES and TRADING STATUS attributes is? ****

answer

Employer

question

An external organization that the Human Services organizations pays on belaf of a participant for such essential commodities as electricit, gas, or water is? ****

answer

Utility

question

This participant offers products to persons or employers on behalf of the organization ****

answer

Product Provider

question

Examples of this participant includes elementary schools, junior schools, open universities, and vocation training institutes. ****

answer

Educational Institute

question

This participant can submit an applicatino and supporting materials on behalf of another participant ****

answer

External Party

question

List the data elements that are unique to the Product Provider participant type. ****

answer

1. Products 2. Locations

question

List 3 examples of an Alternative Id ****

answer

Passport #; SIN; Driver's License

question

List 3 common search criteria for participoants ****

answer

Reference #; Name; Address

question

Describe one of the 3 ways a Representative becomes registered in the system ****

answer

1. Contact 2. Correspondent 3. Nominee

question

What is the name of the data model entity that connects to all participant type entities? ****

answer

Concern Role

question

True or False: John Smith can be registered in Curam as both a Person and an Employer ****

answer

TRUE

question

Define the term Administrator ****

answer

An administrator is a user that is assigned to manage the interactions between the organization and a participant

question

True or False: A user can enter a nickname when searching for a Person ****

answer

TRUE

question

Which 2 participant types can have their records merged? ****

answer

Person and Prospect Person

question

Define the term special caution ****

answer

Warning and alerts that are related to the participant

question

Which Case Types have an associated Rules Set? ****

answer

1. Assessment Case, 2. Application Case, 3. Product Delivery Case

question

Describe the purpose of an Investigation Case ****

answer

An investigation case is used to investigate allegations and incidents

question

Which case type is used to capture and manage differences in evidence or information that is received from a claimant and a third party? ****

answer

Issue Case

question

What is the other term for the Events case element? Then list 2 types of events. ****

answer

A) Calender B) Meetings, Reviews, Referrals, Activities

question

In the Curam logical data model, what is the name of the main entity (database table) that stores summary information about a case? ****

answer

Case Header Entity

question

Name the 4 possible types of case owner ****

answer

1. User, 2. Position, 3. Organizational Unit, 4. Work Queue

question

Who is the default nominee for a Product Delivery case? ****

answer

The Primary Client

question

Once a Product Delivery case is unsuspended, what is its status? ****

answer

Open

question

Which case type can be configured to trigger the creation of an Integrated case and one or more Product Delivery cases? ****

answer

Application Case

question

List some of the features and functionality of an Investigation Case ****

answer

Allegations; Findings; Resolutions; Action Plans; Milestones; Contact Logs; Translation Requirements; History

question

If a caseworker suspects fraud on a Product Delivery case, what action would they take to prevent further payments from being issued> ****

answer

Set Status to Suspended

question

List two actions that can cause Curam to reassess a Product Delivery case? ****

answer

1. Change to Evidence, 2. Change to Certification Period, 3. Closure of the Product Delivery Case, 4. Before a payment is issued, 5. Manual Reassessment is performed

question

What is the status of a Product Delivery case immediately after it is reactivated? ****

answer

OPEN

question

Name the 2 types of Product Deliver case ****

answer

Benefits and Liabilities

question

List 2 examples of evidence types ****

answer

Addresses; Birth & Detail details; Gender details

question

List 3 locations where evidence is maintained ****

answer

1. Person Participant, 2. Prospect Person Participant, 3. Integrated Case, 4. Product Delivery Case, 5. Application Case

question

List the 2 types of evidence changes ****

answer

Corrections and Changes in Circumstance

question

True or False: Pending Removal evidence records are still used for assessment until evidence changes are applied, and the evidence records are cancelled ****

answer

TRUE

question

Which Enterprise Module enables evidence to be shared amongst multiple cases? ****

answer

Curam Evidence Broker module

question

What is the most common evidence relationshiop type? ****

answer

Parent-Child relationship

question

True or False: Having evidence relationshiops is optional in Curam ****

answer

TRUE

question

Which evidence workspace uses stacks? ****

answer

The Evidence Flow workspace uses stacks

question

List the 4 levels where evidence approval checks can be configured ****

answer

1. User, 2. Position, 3. Organizational Unit, 4. Work Queue

question

Which Enterprise Module must be installed in order to use the income evidence list? ****

answer

The Evidence Broker module must be installed in order to use the income evidence list

question

List 3 examples of Person or Prospect Person evidence ****

answer

Addresses; Names; Phone Numbers

question

What is the term for something that highlights missing information that is required before eligibility can be determined? ****

answer

ISSUES

question

True or False: Evidence that is created or updated form the Person or Prospect Person tab must manually activate ****

answer

FALSE

question

Which piece of evidence functionality displays the user who changed an evidence record, as well as the date it was changed? ****

answer

Evidence Change History

question

List the 3 basic units of Curam Financial Management ****

answer

1. Payment, 2. Liability, 3. Payment Received

question

What is a payslip? ****

answer

A payslip is a record of all ILIs that make a payment or liability instruction

question

What is the most basic financial processing element in Curam? ****

answer

Instruction Line Item (ILI) is the most basic financial processing element in Curam

question

Name the batch process that generates the financial components for a case ****

answer

The Determine Product Delivery Eligibility batch process generates the financial components for a case

question

Define Delivery Pattern ****

answer

The Delivery Pattern indicates the delivery method and frequency

question

What could cause a payment to become suspended? ****

answer

Maximum payment amount for a delivery pattern is exceeded

question

Your organization received a payment for $80, but it is not clear what the payment is for. While you investiaget, you record the payment in a ? ****

answer

Suspense Account

question

A financial component is a schedule to pay or bill. What is the term for a single instance of a financial components? and What is the term for a consolidation or "roll-up" of these single instances? ****

answer

A) Instruction Line Item (ILI) B) Financial Instruction

question

True or False: The batch jobs in the Financial Batch Suite must be run in a specific order ****

answer

TRUE

question

Defined what it means to capture a manual payment in Curam ****

answer

A manual payment is a record of a payment to a Case Nominee that was issued outside of Curam. It calls processes that re-create all elements of a payment (i.e. ILI)

question

Money that is subtracted from a benefit payment to be used for another purpose is a ? ****

answer

Deduction

question

This deduction type is used to pay off an outstanding liability that is owed to the organization ****

answer

Applied deduction

question

This indicates the order in which deductions are processed when payments are generated for a case ****

answer

Priority deduction

question

This deduction type is always a specific monetary value ****

answer

Fixed deduction

question

A stand-alone deduction amount that is not applied toward a specific liability is a ? ****

answer

Unapplied deduction

question

If a person (participoant) owed money to their employer (also a participant in the system), the caseworder could set up this type of deduction on the person's product delivery case in order to pay off the debit ****

answer

Third Party deduction

question

This deduction is a percentage of the benefit payment amount ****

answer

Variable deduction

question

What 2 functions does authentication perform? ****

answer

1. Validate user name and password 2. Verify user's account is enabled

question

Which organization structure lement (organization unit, position, job, or user) is used to determine who a caseworker reports to? ****

answer

A user's POSITION assignment

question

What are rate tables used for? ****

answer

Rate tables are used to define common values that vary over time and are used by Rules Sets for Evaluation.

question

True or False: You can clone an organization structure ****

answer

TRUE

question

How many organization structures can be active at one time? How many root units are allowed in an organization structure? ****

answer

One and One

question

Which Administration components is used to record payment exclusion dates? The list the 4 types of this components. ****

answer

A) Financial Processing Calendar B) 1. Cash, 2. Cheque, 3. EFT, 4. Voucher, 5. Invoice

question

True or False: In the Curam Data Model, Jobs are directly linked to Users ****

answer

FALSE. Positions are directly linked to users

question

Sensitivity security is applied to which 4 areas? ****

answer

WPUN: 1. Work Queues, 2. Participants, 3. Users, 4. Notes

question

True or False: Locations represent the workplaces of the agentcy's clients ****

answer

FALSE. Locations are the workplaces of the users.

question

What must you be sure to do in order to see or use changes that are made to code table values? ****

answer

PUBLISH the code table

question

List the 2 types of communication tempaltes ****

answer

1. Extensible Style Language (XSL) 2. Microsoft Word

question

List 2 resource types that can be assigned a security identifier ****

answer

1. Protected Resource 2. specific fields on a screen 3. Organization Units 4. Locations 5. Case Audits 6. Products 7. Business Processes

question

Mary and Kevin are caseworkers assigned to different locations within the organization. When Mary can see that the client is registered in the system but she cannot see the client's address or another other info about the client. What is the Location Data Security setting for the system? ****

answer

Restricted View

question

What are application properties? ****

answer

Application Properties are variables that configure the system for the organization.

question

A Working Pattern covers how many days? ****

answer

A Working Pattern defines the standard working hours over a 14 day period

question

What are the 3 main components of the Curam Verification Engine? ****

answer

1. Administration, 2. Case, 3. Participant

question

True or False: The only acceptable verifications are paper document or electronic images of a document ****

answer

FALSE

question

Define Verifiable Data Item ****

answer

A Verifiable Data Item is a piece of evidence that requires verification -- it corresponds to a single attribute within a specific evidence entity (table)

question

An evidence record cannot be _____________ until its associated verification requirement is satisfied ****

answer

An evidence record cannot be ACTIVATED until its associated verification requirement is satisfied

question

Which verification element links the verification configuration to the appropriate case types? ****

answer

Verification Requirement Usage

question

Which verification element provides the ruels of verification for a piece of data? ****

answer

Verification Requirements

question

What official document might be used to verify a client's age, that is, the evidence? This document is an example of which verification element? ****

answer

A) Birth Certificate B) Is an example of a Veritification Item

question

Which element is at the top of the verification elements hierarcy? ****

answer

Verification Categories

question

Specific pieces of evidence that have a direct influence on the verification of a related data item are known as ______________ ****

answer

Specific pieces of evidence that have a direct influence on the verification of a related data item are known as Dependent Data Items

question

Which verification element is used when a user can submit variable combinations of verification items to verify a piece of evidence? ****

answer

Verification Groups

question

What are the 2 categories of evidence sharing? ****

answer

1. Identical 2. Non-Identical

question

True or False: Evidence Broker can share evidence from a case to a Person or Prospect Person record ****

answer

TRUE. Evidence Broker can share evidence from a case to a Person or Prospect Person record

question

What is main function of the Evidence Broker? ****

answer

The Evidence Broker acts as a conduit that enables the sharing of evidence across cases.

question

Name the 2 main configuration settins when sharing verification items ****

answer

1. Always, 2. If Applicable

question

True or False: Evidence sharing is unidirectional and per evidence type ****

answer

TRUE

question

What are the 3 main business functions that trigger a broadcast by the Evidence Broker? ****

answer

1. New Person (to a Target case) 2. Evidence Changes (to a Source case) 3. New Target Case

question

True or False: The caseworker must activate the incoming evidence before it can be accepted

answer

FALSE. The caseworker doesn't have to activate the incoming evidence. The system can be configured to activate evidence automatically or not.

question

An SPM agency shares information about its clients across which 3 areas? ****

answer

1. Internal Systems, 2. Programs & Cases, 3. Other agencies

question

True or False: Evidence Broker can be configured to allow manual acceptance or rejection of shared evidence ****

answer

TRUE

question

What type of evidence must be accepted manually ****

answer

Non-Identical evidence must be accepted manually

question

What are the four main user roles or positions associated with Provider Management? ****

answer

1. CPM Administrator, 2. Resource Manager, 3. Facility Manager, and 4. Financial User

question

Which Curam component determines eligibility for a product? ****

answer

Case Management

question

Which Curam component manages the contractual terms between the agency and the Product Provider? ****

answer

Provider Management

question

Which position enrolles a Product Provider as a Provider? ****

answer

Resource Manager

question

The Product Provider recently complete renovations that increased their in-patient capacity from 30 to 40 patients. Which positions enter this updated information into Curam Provider Management? ****

answer

Facility Manager

question

In addition to one kind of service the Product Provider now wants to offer a second kind of service. Which position authorizes the addition of this new service to the provider's offerings? ****

answer

Resource Manager

question

List 4 examples of data that can be maintained for a provider. ****

answer

1. Contacts, 2. Approved Service Offerings, 3. Approval Criteria, 4. Financial Terms & Contracts

question

True or False: A provider inquiry must be created before the provider can be enrolled ****

answer

FALSE. A provider can be enrolled without a prior provider inquiry

question

Based on data that the agency collections, it seems that one of its providers is not maintaining a sufficiently high level of service. The agency does not want to use this provider until the situation is corrected. What action in the Provider Lifecycle does the Resource Manager take? ****

answer

Suspends the provider

question

True or False: The agency can define its own approval criteria for new providers

answer

TRUE

question

Name the 2 major functional components of Outcome Management ****

answer

1. Assessment, 2. Outcome Planning

question

Which Curam component is used to create the question scripts contained in the assessment questionaire? ****

answer

Intelligent Evidence Gather (IEG) component is used to create the question scripts contained in the assessment questionaire

question

True or False: A factor can have only one classification ****

answer

FALSE

question

What are the 2 Curam tools used to determine the assessment results? ****

answer

1. CDA = Curam Decision Analyst (matrix), 2. CER = Curam Express Rule

question

A factor is typically categorized as a ___________ or a _________________. ****

answer

A factor is typically categorized as a NEED or a BARRIER.

question

True or False: There must be at least one role that is specified for an assessment before it can be run. ****

answer

TRUE. There must be at least one role that is specified for an assessment before it can be run.

question

What type of date must be specified for each goal in an outcome plan? ****

answer

Expected End Date

question

Name the 3 activity types in an outcome plan ****

answer

SAR:, 1. Services, 2. Actions, 3. Referrals

question

What is the name of the central area (screen) for developing and maintaining outcome plans? ****

answer

Activity Workspace is the name of the central area (screen) for developing and maintaining outcome plans

question

List 3 elements of an outcome plan that can be shared with members of the associated multi-disciplinary team (MDT). ****

answer

Services; Actions; Attachments; Referrals; Notes

question

What does MDT Stand for?

answer

Multi-Disciplinary Team

question

The eligibility rules that an SPM agency uses are drawn from which two main soruces? ****

answer

1. Legislation; 2. Business Policy

question

True or False: The business team should build the framework of the rule set in the Rules Editor before they analyze the source documents. ****

answer

FALSE

question

Name the 4 types of CER rules ****

answer

1. Determination/Eligibility Rules, 2. Display Rules, 3. Advisor Rules, 4. Validation Rules

question

Boolean, String, Number, and Date are examples of? ****

answer

Data Types

question

When working in the Rules Editor, the graphical representation of the rules is visible in the ? ****

answer

Diagram Area

question

True or False: The CER editor has both a business and a technical view. ****

answer

TRUE

question

A caseworker is viewing a Curam screen that indicates that the client passed seven rules, failed two rules, and is eligible for a benefit of $500 per month. Which type of CER rules produced the information on this screen? ****

answer

Display Rules

question

True or False: When creating a CER rule set, the business analyst must know exactly where in the database the evidence resides ****

answer

FALSE

question

The benefit to be awarded is equal to 20% of the total net expenses. This statement is an example of which CER concept? ****

answer

Expression

question

Name the 4 main components of Curam Workflow ****

answer

1. Process Definition Toll (PDT), 2. Workflow Engine, 3. User Inbox, 4. Workflow Administration

question

What are the 10 workflow activity types? ****

answer

The 10 Workflow Activities are: "AMPLE DRESS", 1. Automatic, 2. Manual (creates a task), 3. Parallel, 4. Loop, 5. Event Wait, 6. Decision (creates a task), 7. Route, 8. End, 9. Start, 10. Subflow

question

True or False: The Workflow Engine uses process definitions to create Workflow Process Instances ****

answer

TRUE. The Workflow Engine uses process definitions to create Workflow Process Instances

question

Define the term ALLOCATION TARGET and name the 6 kinds of allocation targets. ****

answer

A) An allocation target is a place where tasks get assigned, B) User; Position; Job; Org Unit; Work Queue; Combo of all five

question

True or False: A WDO defines the data that passes through a workflow. ****

answer

TRUE. A Workflow Data Object (WDO) defines the data that passes through a workflow

question

Define Work Queue ****

answer

A Work Queue is an Allocation Target to which users can subscribe

question

List the 2 types of workflow notifications ****

answer

1. Alerts; 2. Emails

question

When a task is completed, the application raises an _______________ to signal the Workflow Engine to continue the process instance. ****

answer

When a task is completed, the application raises an EVENT to signal the Workflow Engine to continue the process instance.

question

When viewing a workflow process isntance, which 3 actions can a workflow administrator perform on that process instance? ****

answer

1. Suspend, 2. Resume , 3. Abort

question

Which Workflow structural element connects one activity to another activity? ****

answer

Transition

question

Which processes, supported by Universal Access, asks questions that are designed to determine clients' immediate needs and direct them to service and programs? ****

answer

Triage

question

Name the 2 types of screen supported by Universal Access and explain the difference between them. ****

answer

1. Filtered Screening - is used to reduce the number of programs for which a citizen might want to screen., 2. Eligibility Screening - typically involves collecting answers to several more-detailed questions via an Intelligent Evidence Gather (IEG) script

question

True or False: A client can skip the screenign process and directly apply for benefits ****

answer

TRUE. A Workflow Data Object (WDO) defines the data that passes through a workflow

question

True or False: A client must create a Citizen Account before completing the screening Process. ****

answer

FALSE; Citizen Account is not required to complete the screening Process.

question

List 5 of the functional components of the Citizen Account ****

answer

1. Home Page, 2. My Screenings, 3. My Activities, 4. Life Events, 5. My Applications, 6. My Payments, 7. Contact Information

question

The submission of the application through Universal Access, triggers the creation of an _________. ****

answer

Application Case

question

In which section of the Citizen Home Page does the client inform the agency that they are recently divorced? ****

answer

Life Events

question

In order to use the Citizen Account functionality, the client's Universal Access account must be linked to their? ****

answer

Participant record

question

What are the 3 options provided by Universal Access for submitting an application for benefits? ****

answer

1. Online; 2. Phone; 3. PDF; 4. In Person

question

Universal Access provides a _____________ that specifies how many services are preselected in the mapping of the traige results. ****

answer

SYSTEM PROPERTY

question

What is a Citizen Account?

answer

The citizen account is a facility within IBM Cúram Universal Access which provides the client with a fast and convenient way to securely apply for programs and for the worker to perform triages and screenings. It also provides the client with access to his or her home page, applications, screenings, triages, life events, referrals, activities, and contact information. CCI provides the facility for the internal worker to create a citizen account on behalf of the client and link the account to the person's home page.

question

What is the purpose of the Curam Provider Management (CPM) Enterprise Module?

answer

Manage the interactions and relationship between the organization and its Third-Party Providers. Organizations use Curam Provider Management (CPM) to control the Provider Lifecycle and maintain information about the individual Providers.

question

What kinds of information are managed about a Provider?

answer

Information managed by the Curam Provider Management (CPM) Enterprise Module about Providers include: (a) services the provider offers, (b) the facilities in which these services are delivered, (c) the contracts that specify the terms under which service delivery takes place. It might also include details of any (d) licenses, (e) accreditations, and (f) certifications that are held by the people who work for the provider. In addition, CPM can be used to manage the (g) tasks associated with the delivery of services, (h) recording details of incidents and investigations, and (i) monitoring the effectives of the services delivered.

question

True or False: Curam Provider Management (CPM) is not responsible for authorizing service delivery.

answer

TRUE

question

True or False: In Curam, clients are authorized to receive services in the context of a Case

answer

TRUE. In Curam, clients are authorized to receive services in the context of a Case

question

True or False: Curam Provider Management (CPM) does not manage clients and cases directly, but is leveraged by other components of the solution that do.

answer

TRUE. Curam Provider Management (CPM) does not manage clients and cases directly, but is leveraged by other components of the solution that do.

question

Curam Provider Management (CPM) supports the maintenance of information about __________ and the management of tasks that arise as a result of the delivery services by them.

answer

Curam Provider Management (CPM) supports the maintenance of information about PROVIDERS and the management of tasks that arise as a result of the delivery services by them.

question

A foster care provider is managed in which module?

answer

Curam Provider Management (CPM)

question

Does Curam Provider Management (CPM) perform authorization of foster care for a child in distress?

answer

NO. Curam Provider Management (CPM) manages the information about Providers.

question

What are the 4 key CPM Positions? ***

answer

1. CPM Manager, 2. Resource Manager, 3. Facility Manager, 4. Financial User

question

What does the CPM Administrator do?

answer

1. Manages the Services that the agency offers. 2. Configures Service Offerings and maintains Services in the Services Registry 3. Responsible for Services Taxonomy

question

What is the CPM Services Registry?

answer

Registry of Services offered by the Provider. Services must be registered before the service can be delivered.

question

What is CPM Services Taxonomy?

answer

This is the classification of Services that are arranged in a hierarchical structure.

question

What does the CPM Resource Manager do?

answer

1. Manage Providers who deliver services on behalf of the agency **; 2. Manage Provider Inquiries, Enroll Providers, Create & Maintain Provider Groups; 3. Approve Providers to deliver specific Services

question

What is the primary position in CPM?

answer

CPM Resource Manager -- because they manage Providers who deliver services on behalf of the agency

question

Which CPM position has full access rights to all the Provider management functionality, include Curam Provider Management (CPM)?

answer

CPM Resource Manager

question

Which CPM position maintains the Provider Groups?

answer

CPM Resource Manager

question

Which position is responsible for ensuring that there are enough providers registered to provide the services being offered? ***

answer

CPM Resource Manager

question

What does the CPM Facility Manager do?

answer

Manage placements and placement facilities -- note: they each usually only work with a single provider

question

What does the CPM Financial Manager do?

answer

1. Controls the creation and processing of Service Invoices, 2. Approves Service Invoice when then generate payments to the providers

question

What are the key positions that are associated with Curam Provider Management (CPM)?

answer

1. CPM Manager, 2. Resource Manager, 3. Facility Manager, 4. Financial User1. CPM Manager

question

What are some examples of Provider Data?

answer

(a) Contact Information; (b) Approved Service Offerings; (c) Facility capacity and layout; (d) Training requirements and records; (e) Financial terms and contracts; (f) Placements, wait lists, and reservations; (g) Incidents and Investigations; (h) Performance Measures; (i) Approval criteria, such as accreditation, licensing, background checks, home studies, etc.

question

What steps are involved in the Provider Lifecycle?

answer

1. Provider Inquiry (optional step), 2. Provider (Enrolled), 3a. Provider (Rejected) , 3b. Provider (Approved), 4. Provider (Suspended), 5. Provider (Closed)

question

True or False: There are no requirements to create a provider inquiry

answer

TRUE. There are no requirements to create a provider inquiry and providers can be registered or enrolled directly, without the need to create a provider inquiry first

question

True or False: The 1st step in the Provider Lifecycle, Provider Inquiry, is not a required step

answer

TRUE. There are no requirements to create a provider inquiry and providers can be registered or enrolled directly, without the need to create a provider inquiry first

question

Can you reopen a Provider that has been closed?

answer

YES, but the have to be re-approved.

question

What does IEG stand for?

answer

Intelligence Evidence Gathering (IEG)

question

What does MDT stand for?

answer

Multi-Disciplinary Teams (MDT)

question

What does CER stand for?

answer

Curam Express Rules (CER)

question

What are the 8 Curam Outcome Management Steps?

answer

1. Client, 2. Assessment Questionnaires, 3. Results, 4. Recommendations, 5. Outcome Plans (Services, Referrals, Actions), 6. Agreement, 7. Monitor Progress (e.g. Reassess), 8. Desired Outcome

question

What is Outcome Management?

answer

Outcome Management is a citizen-centric approach to service delivery that targets the results that a citizen needs to achieve, rather than simply listing the available services. Outcome Management adopts a collaborative approach between the citizen, the agencies, and possibly third party services.

question

_____________ measures the effectiveness of services in terms of citizen outcomes

answer

Outcome Management

question

___________ enables the organization to run different types of assessments in order to identify the root causes of a client's issues and needs.

answer

Outcome Management

question

____________ focuses on the benefits of the services provided to citizens

answer

Outcome Management

question

____________ uses collaborative planning to create a clear result

answer

Outcome Management

question

____________ is a citizen-centric approach to service delivery that targets the results that a citizen needs to achieve, rather than simply listing the available services.

answer

Outcome Management

question

Which Curam Enterprise module is involved with the delivery of services to a citizen via a multi-agency, multi-disciplinary management approach?

answer

Outcome Management

question

Which Curam Enterprise module requires collaborative planning towards a clearly defined result?

answer

Outcome Management

question

How does Curam Outcome Management help an SPM agency to achieve better outcomes for its clients?

answer

Outcome Management focuses on the benefits of the services to the citizen (outcomes) instead of the inputs and processes of the services themselves. It fits services to citizens, rather than than citizens to services. In addition, it measures the effectiveness of service delivery by the achievement of citizen successes or changes (citizen outcomes)

question

What does SEM stand for?

answer

Social Enterprise Management (SEM)

question

What does SPM stand for?

answer

Social Program Management (SPM)

question

What are the 2 major functional components of Outcome Management?

answer

1. Assessment, 2. Outcome Planning

question

A Desired Outcome, in Outcome Management is a combination of which 2 functional components?

answer

Desired Outcome = Assessment + Outcome Planning

question

What does the Assessment component, in Outcome Management, provide to agencies?

answer

Assessment provides SPM agencies with a mechanism for managing the identification of citizen needs. Assessments are used to identify the root cause of a citizen's issues and needs ***

question

__________________ provides tools to facilitate the identification, scheduling, and maintenance of appropriate activities to achieve citizen goals and objectives.

answer

Outcome Planning

question

Outcome Planning provides an environment in which the caseworker can create a __________ that identifies and delivers the precise set of activities that are required to achieve the wanted outcomes for one or more citizens

answer

Outcome Planning provides an environment in which the caseworker can create a STRUCTURED PLAN that identifies and delivers the precise set of activities that are required to achieve the wanted outcomes for one or more citizens

question

How are assessments used to provide a picture of a client's circumstances and to make recommendations?

answer

Assessments are used to identify the root cause of a citizen's issues and needs. From the assessment, an Outcome Plan can be created to identify and define a set of activities needed for the citizen to achieve a desired outcome.

question

What is used to identify the root cause of a citizen's issues and needs? ***

answer

The Assessment component, in Outcome Management

question

What are Assessment also known as?

answer

Questionnaires

question

Are Assessments Individual or Group based?

answer

Both. Assessment can be either Individual or Group based

question

What is an Assessment Definition?

answer

An Assessment Definition is an Assessment Template that the agency uses to develop different assessment types. For each Assessment Definition, configuration enables the adminsitrator to specify how the assessment data is collected and how assessment results are determined.

question

What are some Assessment Definition configuration settings?

answer

How the assessment data is collected How assessment results are determined Whether the setting of priority factors is applicable to an assessment Whether re-assessment is allowed How the assessment results are displayed Whether the assessment is used to assess a group or household of citizens or assess citizen individuallyHow the assessment data is collected

question

Can Assessments be associated with Cases

answer

Yes they can (but they don't have to be)

question

Assessments consist of what 3 things?

answer

1. Assessment TYPES 2. Assessment FACTORS - Categories and Classifications 3. Assessment ROLES

question

Different types of assessments are used to identify the _________ of a client's needs

answer

Different types of assessments are used to identify the ROOT CAUSE of a client's needs

question

What is an Assessment Factor?

answer

AN Assessment Factor is an aspect of client circumstances of interest to the organization.

question

Citizen needs are assessed by using _____________

answer

Citizen needs are assessed by using ASSESSMENT FACTORS

question

What are the 2 categories of an Assessment Factor?

answer

1. Need (e.g. Parenting Skills, Eduction), 2. Barrier (e.g. Domestic Violence, Mental Health)1. Need (e.g. Parenting Skills, Eduction)

question

What are the 4 Classifications of an Assessment Factor Category?

answer

1. Safe, 2. Progressing, 3. Engaged, 4. Vulnerable

question

Can you assign ranges to Assessment Factor Categories?

answer

NO. You can assigned ranges to Assessment Factor CLASSIFICATIONS

question

Typically, an Assessment Factor is categorized as either a __________ or a ______________

answer

Typically, an Assessment Factor is categorized as either a NEED or a BARRIER

question

What are Assessment Factor Needs?

answer

Needs are things that a client or family required to be self-sustaining but currently lack

question

What are Assessment Factor Barriers?

answer

Barriers are conditions that prevent or complicate a client's ability to obtain or achieve something.

question

____________ are assigned to a category and therefore adopt the category classification.

answer

Assessment FACTORS are assigned to a category and therefore adopt the category classification.

question

Can an Assessment Factor include an Assessment Definition?

answer

NO. Assessment Definition can have one or more Assessment Factors, but not the other way around.

question

Can an Assessment Factor include a Classification?

answer

YES. An Assessment Factor can have one or more Classifications

question

Can a Category have one or more Assessment Factors?

answer

NO. An Assessment Factor can have one Category, but not the other way around

question

Do all Assessment Factors have a Category?

answer

YES. All Assessment Factors must fall into a particular category (need or barrier)

question

Can you enter Classifications at the Assessment Factor level?

answer

NO. At the Assessment Factor level, you cannot enter different classifications. All Assessment Factors fall into a category and all classification that are defined for that category are applicable for the Assessment Factor.

question

What is an Assessment Role? ***

answer

An Assessment Role is the part that a Citizen plays in an assessment

question

What is an example of an Assessment Role?

answer

Primary Caregiver Role; Focus Child Role; Secondary Caregiver Role; etc.

question

What is an example of an Assessment?

answer

Family Strengths & Needs; etc.

question

What is an example of Assessment Factors for a Family Strengths & Needs Assessment?

answer

Substance Abuse; Parenting Skills; Mental Health; etc.

question

What is an example of Classifications for a Domestic Violence Factor?

answer

Safe; Progressing; Engaged; Vulnerable; etc.

question

What is required to be specified for an Assessment before it can be run?

answer

There must be at least one ROLE that is specified for an Assessment before it can be run

question

Who provides configuration in Outcome Management?

answer

Administrator

question

What is an example of an Assessment Factor?

answer

Employment; Education; Child Care; Transportation; Housing; Substance Abuse; etc.

question

Once the clients and roles are selected for the assessment, what is the next step?

answer

The next step in running the assessment is to capture information about the client's situation.

question

How is information, about a client's situation, captured?

answer

The information is captured by using a predefined question script that is specfic to the type of assessment that is being run.

question

What is used to create the Question Scripts?

answer

The Question Scripts are created by using Intellent Evidence Gathering (IEG). IEG is part of the IBM Curam SPM Platform and enables the information to be gathered interactively by displaying a script of questions that a caseworker can provide answers to.

question

What Curam SPM Platform enables assessment information to be gathered interactively by displaying a script of questions that a caseworker can provide answers to?

answer

The Intellent Evidence Gathering (IEG) SPM Platform enables the information to be gathered interactively by displaying a script of questions that a caseworker can provide answers to.

question

What is used to determine a client's circumstances by producing a set of results that defines the client's circumstances for one or more Assessment Factors?

answer

ASSESSMENTS are used to determine a client's circumstances by producing a set of results that defines the client's circumstances for one or more Assessment Factors

question

__________ or _________ is used as the "assessment engine" to determine the assessment results.

answer

CURAM DECISION ASSIST (CDA) or CURAM EXPRESS RULES (CER) is used as the "assessment engine" to determine the assessment results.

question

What does CDA stand for?

answer

CURAM DECISION ASSIST (CDA)

question

When is the Curam Decision Assist (CDA) used, in Outcome Management?

answer

Curam Decision Assist (CDA) is used to perform simple Assessments

question

When is the Curam Express Rules (CER) used, in Outcome Management?

answer

Curam Express Rules (CER) is used to perform complex Assessments

question

In practice _____________ is used to collect data in the format of a question script.

answer

In practice, INTELLIGENT EVIDENCE GATHERING (IEG) is used to collect data in the format of a question script.

question

In Outcome Management, what is Range used for?

answer

When using Scoring, the Range is used to map the Score to the appropriate Classification

question

__________________ outcomes can be mapped directly to Assessment Factor classifications, when scoring is not used.

answer

CURAM DECISION ASSIST (CDA)

question

True or False: The Assessment results are automatically displayed when the assessment script is completed.

answer

TRUE.

question

Depending on configuration, the Assessment results are displayed in either a _______ or as a _________.

answer

Depending on configuration, the Assessment results are displayed in either a LIST or as a GRAPH.

question

What are Recommendations?

answer

In Outcome Management, Recommendations are suggested activities (i.e. services, referrals, actions) to address a client's specific circumstances.

question

What are created based on Assessment Results?

answer

RECOMMENDATIONS

question

Where, on the Outcome Plan page does a caseworker see the system Recommendations?

answer

In developing an outcome plan, the casweworker can see the System Recommendations for the client on the ACTIVITY WORKSPACE tab of the Outcome Plan page.

question

How do Recommendations become scheduled Recommendations in a client's Outcome Plan?

answer

The caseworker can drag a Recommendation from the Recommendations panel to the Activity Calendar to schedule the recommended activity into the Outcome Plan.

question

What are Outcome Plans used for?

answer

Outcome Plans are used to manage the provision of activities to address the client's particular circumstances in order to achieve a specific goal.

question

What are the 11 components of an Outcome Plan?

answer

Components of an Outcome Plan include: 1. Goals, 2. Objectives, 3. Factors, 4. Activities, 5. Participation, 6. Recommendations, 7. Activity Workspace, 8. Agreements, 9. Reviews, 10. Associated Multi-Disciplinary Teams -- aka: MDT, 11. Collaboration

question

What does MDT stand for?

answer

Multi-Disciplinary Teams (MDT)

question

Outcome Plans are created from _________________ or _______________

answer

Outcome Plans are created from an INTEGRATED CASE or in a STAND-ALONE fashion

question

A natural place for an Outcome Plan to exist is in ____________________

answer

A natural place for an Outcome Plan to exist is in an INTEGRATED CASE

question

What is used to configure an Outcome Plan?

answer

The Administration Suite is used to configure Outcome Plans.

question

What kind of template must be defined before a casework can create the actual plans to identify and address citizen needs?

answer

Outcome Plan Templates must be defined before a casework can create the actual plans to identify and address citizen needs

question

What are 3 Outcome Plan Goals for a client?

answer

1. Self-sufficiency 2. Reunification 3. Adoption

question

A goal can be specfied for an ______________ or for each _________________________.

answer

A goal can be specfied for an OUTCOME PLAN or for each CITIZEN in an OUTCOME PLAN.

question

Where in Curam are Goals defined then associated with types of Outcome Plans?

answer

Goals are defined by using the CURAM ADMINISTRATION SUITE and associated with types of Outcome Plans

question

Who defines goals and then shares them across multiples types of outcome plan templates

answer

Administrator

question

Who adds a goal to an outcome plan?

answer

Caseworker

question

What is the primary objective of a Goal?

answer

The goal represents the primary objective that a citizen is working towards to become independent of the organization

question

Who can view, edit, or update the progress of a goal?

answer

Caseworker

question

What are Objectives, in Curam Outcome Management?

answer

Objectives are items that, if achieved, help to achieve a Goal. *** Objectives are small steps that a citizen undertakes in order to achieve the outcome plan goal. "

question

True or False: The objectives that can be selected are configured as part of Outcome Plan Administration

answer

TRUE

question

Can caseworkers create their own objectives? ***

answer

YES

question

Who defines objectives in Curam Outcome Management?

answer

Adminstrator

question

Where are Objectives defined, in Curam Outcome Management?

answer

Objectives are defined in the Administration application

question

Who adds objectives to an Outcome Plan?

answer

Caseworker

question

Are Objectives associated with Factors?

answer

YES. Objectives are associated with factors, which enable the caseworker to identify the activities that are being undertaken to achieve the objective.

question

What is an Outcome Plan Factor?

answer

An Outcome Plan Factor is an aspect of client circumstances that an associated rating can define.

question

Can Outcome Plan Factors be added to an Outcome Plan?

answer

YES

question

Can Outcome Plan Factors have Priority Ratings?

answer

Caseworkers can set Priority Ratings for Factors

question

Why would one add a Priority Rating to an Outcome Plan Factor?

answer

Giving a priority rating to a factor helps to identify where the most serious and pressing issues lie, or where the most can be gained by applying resources to the problems, or even to the strengths.

question

What are the 3 types of Outcome Plan Activities?

answer

1. Services, 2. Referrals, 3. Actions

question

Who defines Activities into Curam?

answer

Administrator

question

Why are activities added to an Outcome Plan?

answer

Activities are added to an Outcome Plan to address the issues or needs identified during assessment.

question

In Outcome management, are Services always delivered by a third-party?

answer

YES. In Outcome management, Services are always delivered by a third-party

question

In Outcome management, are Services always paid for and tracked by the agency? ***

answer

YES. In Outcome management, Services are always paid for and tracked by the agency

question

In Outcome management, where are Services defined? ***

answer

Services are defined in the Curam Provider Management (CPM) SERVICE REGISTRY

question

Do Services require approvals?

answer

NO. However, Services can be configured to require approval.

question

What is a Service?

answer

A Service is an activity that is provided to a client by a third-party provider but paid for and tracked by the SPM agency.

question

Services need to be defined in the _______________ before they can be added to an Outcome Plan

answer

Services need to be defined in the SERVICE REGISTRY before they can be added to an Outcome Plan

question

What is a Referral?

answer

A Referral is a facility that is provided to a client by a third-party provider, but not paid for by the agency (e.g. physiotherapy sessions). It is similar to a Service except that it is a hand-off by the agency to a third party, is not paid for, and is rarely tracked by the SPM agency.

question

Referrals must be defined in the _________________ before they can be added to an Outcome Plan.

answer

Referrals must be defined in the Curam Provider Management (CPM) SERVICE REGISTRY before they can be added to an Outcome Plan.

question

Do Referrals require approval?

answer

YES

question

Is a Wizard used to set up Referrals in Curam Outcome Management?

answer

YES

question

If an Outcome Plan Activity is not a Service or a Referral, then it is _____________________

answer

An Outcome Plan Activity is an ACTION, if it is not a Service or a Referral.

question

In relation to Outcome Plan Activities, what is an Action?

answer

An Action is an activity that is deemed not be a service or a referral that can be added to an Outcome Plan. For example, Daily exercise, read a book, etc. (It is something clients can do for themselves.)

question

Where, in Curam Outcome Management, are Actions defined?

answer

Actions need to be defined in Outcome Management Administration before they can be added to an Outcome Plan.

question

Can caseworkers add an Action of their own creation to an Outcome Plan?

answer

YES

question

Is a Wizard used to set up Actions in Curam Outcome Management?

answer

YES

question

What is the Participation component, of an Outcome Plan, used for?

answer

The Participation component, of an Outcome Plan, is used to a) Specify whether participation is appropriate for a particular Activity b) Record the number of hours a client spends on an activity c) project expected participation for an activity, defined by the caseworker

question

What is the Activity Workspace component, of an Outcome Plan, used for?

answer

The Activity Workspace component, of an Outcome Plan, is the central area for developing and maintaining the Outcome Plan.

question

What are the 3 areas in the Activity Workspace component, of an Outcome Plan?

answer

1. Timeline Panel - Calender view of activities; Analysis view of the Outcome Plan 2. Recommendations Panel - Contains plan and factor-level recommended activities and recently added activities 3. Activity Workspace Panel - Displays details of an activity that is selected in the timeline or recommendations panel

question

Client Agreements are between one or more _________ and the SPM agency.

answer

Client Agreements are between one or more CLIENTS and the SPM agency.

question

What are 3 ways to monitor Client progress?

answer

1. Reassessment - rerun of Assessment in order to identify current needs and monitor progress over time 2. Reviews - Allow the caseworker to assess the suitability and appropriateness of Activities, Goals, and Objectives 3. Outcome Plan Analysis View - Displays the Outcome Plan's clients, objectives, factors, activities, and relationships between these elements. It presents a holistic view of all of the elements of an Outcome Plan

question

Multi-Disciplinary Teams (MDTs) are drawn from _____ and _____ the organization and are equipped to identify the optimal course of action.

answer

Multidisciplinary teams (MDTs) are drawn from INSIDE and OUTSIDE the organization and are equipped to identify the optimal course of action.

question

Do Multi-Disciplinary Teams (MDTs) work with caseworkers?

answer

YES

question

True or False: Multi-Disciplinary Teams (MDTs) help the client, provide support, and collaborate with the agency.

answer

TRUE

question

What is allowed when Collaboration is Enabled, in Curam? ***

answer

When Collaboration is Enabled, a Multi-Disciplinary Team (MDT) can be associated with the Outcome Plan

question

What information can be shared with a Multi-Disciplinary Team (MDT)?

answer

In relation to Outcome Management Collaboration, the following information is shareable: 1. Services, 2. Referrals, 3. Actions, 4. Notes, 5. Attachments

question

In relation to Outcome Management Collaboration, can a Multi-Disciplinary Team (MDT) be set up with a "portal view" into Curam?

answer

YES

question

In Curam Rules, what are rules?

answer

Rules are the conditions that lead to a decision or determination, usually dealing with eligibility and entitlement.

question

From where are most rules taken?

answer

1. Legislation 2. Business Policy

question

In Curam Rules, what is evidence?

answer

Evidence is data that you need to record as proof of eligibility or ineligibility. It is the client data or information on which a decision is based.

question

What is used to validate a rule?

answer

Data and Evidence Elements

question

What does CER stand for? ***

answer

Curam Express Rules (CER)

question

What Curam framework is the primary rules framework for any new implementation into Curam (v6 or later)?

answer

Curam Express Rules (CER)

question

In Curam Rules, what is a business rule?

answer

(a) A business rule is a formulation of logical checks that is the result of analysis and reason. (b) Business Rules are the logic or set of constraints that govern some aspect of how a business behaves. (c) They provide the power to take an action that is based on a decision. (d) A business rules is a thought-through response to a set of data. (e) note: Flow charts can often be used to diagram business rules -- with logical questions and related results

question

In Curam Rules, can you design rules to enable users to influence a decision?

answer

YES. In Curam Rules, you can design rules to enable users to influence a decision

question

When are Rules used?

answer

Rules are used wherever you want to make a decision about something by using a system rather than a person.

question

What are the 4 items in the Rules Definition Process and who performs them?

answer

Rules Definition Process 1. Analyze the source document and defined the rules -- performed by the Business Team 2. Build the foundational logic of the rules in the Rules Editor (CER) -- Business Team (with Technical Team assistance) 3. Build the technical connections in the Rules Editor -- Technical Team 4. Test and Validate the rules -- Business/Test Team

question

What is Curam Express Rules (CER)?

answer

a) CER is a rules LANGUAGE that is aimed at providing a clear expression of business rules b) CER is a DEVELOPMENT ENVIRONMENT c) CER is a RUNTIME ENVIRONMENT in the Curam application infrastructure

question

What is the CER runtime environment responsible for?

answer

Running Rule Sets

question

Who uses Curam Express Rules (CER) to generate rule sets?

answer

Developers and Business Analysts

question

Why are Curam Express Rules (CER) used?

answer

1. Screening, 2. Determination, 3. Display (Rules), 4. Validation (Screens)

question

With Curam Express Rules (CER), re-assessment of Cases occurs automatically when and data that affect client eligibility _______________.

answer

With Curam Express Rules (CER), re-assessment of Cases occurs automatically when and data that affect client eligibility CHANGES.

question

What are Rules Categories used for?

answer

Agencies can configure Categories of Rules that determine how eligibility results are displayed

question

Can explanations of eligibility results be configured in Curam Rules?

answer

YES

question

What are the 4 types of CER Rules Types? ***

answer

1. Determination or Eligibility Rules, 2. Display Rules, 3. Advisor Rules, 4. Validation Rules

question

What are Determination or Eligibility Rules?

answer

Determination or Eligibility Rules determine the eligibility of an applicant for a benefit or product/program

question

What are Display Rules?

answer

Display Rules display the decisions of eligibility determination to a user (e.g. which rules passed, which failed, periods of eligibility)

question

What are Advisor Rules?

answer

Advisor Rules use CER to determine the advice and advice text to display to the user

question

What are Validation Rules?

answer

Validation Rules are used by Dynamic UIM to validate Evidence records

question

What does UIM stand for?

answer

User Interface Metadata (UIM)

question

Why is Dyanmic User Interface Metadata (UIM) used?

answer

Dynamic User Interface Metadata -- aka: UIM -- enables agencies to create special screens for gathering evidence.

question

Can CER Rule Sets be built without knowledge of where the evidence comes from?

answer

YES. However, once the Rule Sets are ready, developers add in functionality to identify where the evidence comes from.

question

In CER, does the order in which you define questions matter?

answer

NO. CER language supports building relatinshiops between rule elements, independent of when you define them.

question

What language is used to build Dyanmic UIM screens?

answer

XML. However users do not directly touch the XML Code. Instead, users work in the CER Editor.

question

Does the CER language require on a Rule Set being technical complete in order to be valid?

answer

NO. The CER lanauage supports a two stage process: 1st the BA configures the business logic and 2nd the developer provides the code to supply the various data attributes from the system.

question

In Curam Rules, what is the CER Editor?

answer

The CER Editor is a flex-based editor that is used to create, edit, and validate CER Rule Sets.

question

What are the 2 views in the CER Editor?

answer

1. Business View and 2. Technical View

question

What does the CER Editor allow business users to do?

answer

The CER Editor enables business users to create and edit the logical structure of their rules by using diagrams that provide a logical view of the underlying rules implementation. The user can edit rules. Dialogs and Wizards can be used to complete any extra information required.

question

Does the CER Editor have Wizards?

answer

YES. Dialogs and Wizards can be used to complete any extra information required.

question

What in the CER Editor is used to provide a logical view of the underlying rules implementation?

answer

Diagrams

question

What in the CER Editor is used to complete any extra informatin required?

answer

Dialogs and Wizards

question

The CER Editor is part of the _____________ functionality that the IBM Curam SPM Platform provides

answer

The CER Editor is part of the ADMINISTRATION functionality that the IBM Curam SPM Platform provides

question

What language are Rules Sets written in?

answer

CER Language -- this neans that users do not need to be familiar with XML, XML schemas, or any of the intricacies of editing technical code

question

What do you use to work on a Rule Set?

answer

CER Editor

question

What are the 6 main terms in CER?

answer

1. Rules Class, 2. Rule Object, 3. Rule Attribute, 4. Expression, 5. Rule Set, 6 Rule Session,

question

What is a Rule Class?

answer

A Rule Class is a type of thing that has data, such as a Person class, an Income class, or a Claim class

question

What is a Rule Object?

answer

A Rule Object is an Instance of a Rule Class

question

What is a Rule Attribute?

answer

A Rule Attribute is a question that can be assked. It is defined on a Rule Class and can be asked of any Rule Object of that class.

question

What is an Expression, in Rules?

answer

An Expression is a calculation step that can be used to answer a question.

question

What is a Rule Set?

answer

A Rule Set is a collection of Rule Classes, typically centered around a specific purpose.

question

What is a Rule Session?

answer

A Rule Session controls the running of the rules

question

In Curam Rules, what is a type of thing that has data, such as a Person, an Income, or a Claim?

answer

A Rule Class

question

In Curam Rules, what is a question that can be asked?

answer

A Rule Attribute

question

In Curam Rules, what is a calculation step that can be used to answer a question?

answer

An Expression

question

In Curam Rules, what is a collection of Rule Classes, typically centered around a specific purpose?

answer

A Rule Set

question

In Curam Rules, what controls the running of the rules?

answer

A Rule Session

question

In Curam Rules, what is an Instance of a Rule Class?

answer

A Rule Object

question

What is an example of a Rule Class?

answer

Rule Class - a Person class, an Income class, a Claim class

question

What is an example of a Rule Object?

answer

Rule Object - John Smith (Person class), John Smith's income from his part-time job (Income class), John Smith's application for child support benefits (Claim class)

question

What is an example of a Rule Attribute?

answer

Rule Attribute - The Person rule class can define the DateOfBirth rule attribute. So the John Smith rule object can be asked its DateOfBirth.

question

What is an example of an Expression, in Rules?

answer

Expression - If the eligibility claim depends on a person's total income being below a specific threshold then you can use a "sum" expression to calculate the total income.

question

What is an example of a Rule Set? ***

answer

Rule Set - A rule set for a child benefit determination might include the Claim, Person, and Income classes.

question

What is an example of a Rule Session?

answer

Rule Session - Your application might create a rule session to determine John Smith's eligibility for child benefit. The application invokes the appropriate rule set and asks eligibility questions about John's personal circumstances.

question

What are CER Element Palettes used for?

answer

CER Element Palettes are used to build Rule Expressions. They contain standard expressions, data types, and technical functions. (e.g. When, Min, Max, Sum, String, Boolean, Concat)

question

What are the 2 CER Editor Perspectives?

answer

1. Business View and 2. Technical View (note: they are also know as the 2 views in the CER Editor)

question

Which perspective/view in the CER Editor is most likely to be used by BAs?

answer

Business View -- The Business view contains Diagram and/or Diagram folders

question

Which perspective/view in the CER Editor is most likely to be used by Developers?

answer

Technical View -- The Technical view displays the actual code objects that correspond to the logic of the Rule Set

question

What are the 10 Workflow Activities? ***

answer

The 10 Workflow Activities are: "AMPLE DRESS", 1. Automatic, 2. Manual (creates a task), 3. Parallel, 4. Loop, 5. Event Wait, 6. Decision (creates a task), 7. Route, 8. End, 9. Start, 10. Subflow

question

What are the 3 major components of the Curam User Interface? ****

answer

Major User Interface Components are: 1. Application Banner, 2. Application Tabs, 3. Shortcuts Panel

question

List 4 components of the Application Banner ****

answer

Application Banner Components 1. Application Name 2. User Role 3. Application Sections 4. Home 5. Welcome Message 6. Application Menu

question

List 3 components of the Application tab ****

answer

Application Tab Components 1. Tab Title Bar 2. Context Panel 3. Navigation Bar 4. Page Group Navigation Bar 5. Tab Content Page

question

Which UI Component appears on the screen when an action is performed, such as New, Edit, or Delete? ****

answer

Modal Dialogs

question

Which UI component takes you through a process that involves multiple modal dialogs? ****

answer

A Wizard

question

The Smart Panel displays which two pieces of Curam functionality? ****

answer

Smart Panel functionality: 1. Advisor, 2. Quick Notes

question

Which 3 pods are common to most applications? ****

answer

Common Pods: 1. Quick Links, 2. My appointments, 3. My Tasks

question

True or False: Users can change the screen position of their pods ****

answer

TRUE

question

Define "Action Menu". What are the 3 types of Action Menus? ****

answer

Action Menus display the most commonly used actions that apply to the object. Action Menus 1. TAB action menu 2. PAGE action menu 3. LIST action menu

question

What is the name of the arrows that allow you to show or hide content under a specific object on the screen? ****

answer

Drop-down Toggles

question

An individual who interacts with the organization on behalf of another participant is? ****

answer

Representative

question

A role that allows the organization to outsource services that it does not perform is? ****

answer

Service Supplier

question

A role that can include private individuals, government agencies, and registered date is? ****

answer

Information Provider

question

A participant that supplied insufficient information to be registered as an employer is? ****

answer

Prospect Employer

question

A participant that can choose to remain anonymous is? ****

answer

Prospect Person

question

An individual who is registered with the organization is? ****

answer

Person

question

The participant who uses the RELATED COMPANIES and TRADING STATUS attributes is? ****

answer

Employer

question

An external organization that the Human Services organizations pays on behalf of a participant for such essential commodities as electricity, gas, or water is? ****

answer

Utility

question

This participant offers products to persons or employers on behalf of the organization ****

answer

Product Provider

question

Examples of this participant includes elementary schools, junior schools, open universities, and vocation training institutes. ****

answer

Educational Institute

question

This participant can submit an application and supporting materials on behalf of another participant ****

answer

External Party

question

List the data elements that are unique to the Product Provider participant type. ****

answer

Product Provider Participant data elements 1. Products 2. Locations"Product Provider Participant data elements

question

List 3 examples of an Alternative Id ****

answer

Passport #; SIN; Driver's License

question

List 3 common search criteria for participants ****

answer

Reference #; Name; Address

question

Describe one of the 3 ways a Representative becomes registered in the system ****

answer

A Representative can be registered as a: 1. Contact, 2. Correspondent, 3. Nominee

question

What is the name of the data model entity that connects to all participant type entities? ****

answer

CONCERN ROLE

question

True or False: John Smith can be registered in Curam as both a Person and an Employer ****

answer

TRUE

question

Define the term Administrator ****

answer

An administrator is a user that is assigned to manage the interactions between the organization and a participant

question

True or False: A user can enter a nickname when searching for a Person ****

answer

TRUE

question

Which 2 participant types can have their records merged? ****

answer

Person and Prospect Person

question

Define the term special caution ****

answer

Warning and Alerts that are related to the participant

question

Which Case Types have an associated Rules Set? ****

answer

Case Types with Rule Sets 1. Assessment Case 2. Application Case 3. Product Delivery Case

question

Describe the purpose of an Investigation Case ****

answer

An investigation case is used to investigate allegations and incidents

question

Which case type is used to capture and manage differences in evidence or information that is received from a claimant and a third party? ****

answer

Issue Case

question

What is the other term for the Events case element? Then list 2 types of events. ****

answer

Events: A) Calendar , B) Meetings, Reviews, Referrals, Activities

question

In the Curam logical data model, what is the name of the main entity (database table) that stores summary information about a case? ****

answer

Case Header Entity

question

Name the 4 possible types of case owner ****

answer

Case Owner Types: 1. User, 2. Position, 3. Organizational Unit, 4. Work Queue

question

Who is the default nominee for a Product Delivery case? ****

answer

The Primary Client

question

Once a Product Delivery case is unsuspended, what is its status? ****

answer

Open

question

Which case type can be configured to trigger the creation of an Integrated case and one or more Product Delivery cases? ****

answer

Application Case

question

List some of the features and functionality of an Investigation Case ****

answer

Allegations; Findings; Resolutions; Action Plans; Milestones; Contact Logs; Translation Requirements; History

question

If a caseworker suspects fraud on a Product Delivery case, what action would they take to prevent further payments from being issued> ****

answer

Set Status to Suspended

question

List to actions that can cause Curam to reassess a Product Delivery case? ****

answer

Product Deliver Case Reassessment 1. Change to Evidence 2. Change to Certification Period 3. Closure of the Product Delivery Case 4. Before a payment is issued 5. Manual Reassessment is performed

question

What is the status of a Product Delivery case immediately after it is reactivated? ****

answer

OPEN

question

Name the 2 types of Product Deliver case ****

answer

Benefits and Liabilities

question

List 2 examples of evidence types ****

answer

Addresses; Birth & Detail details; Gender details

question

List 3 locations where evidence is maintained ****

answer

Evidence is Maintained at: 1. Person Participant, 2. Prospect Person Participant, 3. Integrated Case, 4. Product Delivery Case, 5. Application Case

question

List the 2 types of evidence changes ****

answer

Correction and Change in Circumstance

question

True or False: Pending Removal evidence records are still used for assessment until evidence changes are applied, and the evidence records are cancelled ****

answer

TRUE

question

Which Enterprise Module enables evidence to be shared amongst multiple cases? ****

answer

Curam Evidence Broker module

question

What is the most common evidence relationship type? ****

answer

Parent-Child relationship

question

True or False: Having evidence relationships is optional in Curam ****

answer

TRUE

question

Which evidence workspace uses stacks? ****

answer

Evidence Flow

question

List the 4 levels where evidence approval checks can be configured ****

answer

Evidence Approval Check configuration 1. User 2. Position 3. Organizational Unit 4. Work Queue

question

Which Enterprise Module must be installed in order to use the income evidence list? ****

answer

Curam Evidence Broker module

question

List 3 examples of Person or Prospect Person evidence ****

answer

Addresses; Names; Phone Numbers

question

What is the term for something that highlights missing information that is required before eligibility can be determined? ****

answer

ISSUES

question

True or False: Evidence that is created or updated form the Person or Prospect Person tab must manually activate ****

answer

FALSE

question

Which piece of evidence functionality displays the user who changed an evidence record, as well as the date it was changed? ****

answer

Evidence Change History

question

List the 3 basic units of Curam Financial Management ****

answer

Financial Management's 3 Basic Units are: 1. Payment, 2. Liability, 3. Payment Received

question

What is a payslip? ****

answer

A payslip is a record of all ILIs that make a payment or liability instruction

question

What is the most basic financial processing element in Curam? ****

answer

Instruction Line Item (ILI)

question

Name the batch process that generates the financial components for a case ****

answer

Determine Product Delivery Eligibility batch process

question

Define Delivery Pattern ****

answer

The Delivery Pattern indicates the delivery method and frequency

question

What could cause a payment to become suspended? ****

answer

Maximum payment amount for a delivery pattern is exceeded

question

Your organization received a payment for $80, but it is not clear what the payment is for. While you investigate, you record the payment in a ? ****

answer

Suspense Account

question

A financial component is a schedule to pay or bill. What is the term for a single instance of a financial components? What is the term for a consolidation or "roll-up" of these single instances? ****

answer

A) Instruction Line Item (ILI) B) Financial Instruction

question

True or False: The batch jobs in the Financial Batch Suite must be run in a specific order ****

answer

TRUE

question

Defined what it means to capture a manual payment in Curam ****

answer

A manual payment is a record of a payment to a Case Nominee that was issued outside of Curam. It calls processes that re-create all elements of a payment (i.e. ILI)

question

Money that is subtracted from a benefit payment to be used for another purpose is a ? ****

answer

Deduction

question

This deduction type is used to pay off an outstanding liability that is owed to the organization ****

answer

Applied deduction

question

This indicates the order in which deductions are processed when payments are generated for a case ****

answer

Priority deduction

question

This deduction type is always a specific monetary value ****

answer

Fixed deduction

question

A stand-alone deduction amount that is not applied toward a specific liability is a ? ****

answer

Unapplied deduction

question

If a person (participant) owed money to their employer (also a participant in the system), the caseworker could set up this type of deduction on the person's product delivery case in order to pay off the debit ****

answer

Third Party deduction

question

This deduction is a percentage of the benefit payment amount ****

answer

Variable deduction

question

What 2 functions does authentication perform? ****

answer

1. Validate user name and password 2. Verify user's account is enabled

question

Which organization structure element (organization unit, position, job, or user) is used to determine who a caseworker reports to? ****

answer

A user's POSITION assignment

question

What are rate tables used for? ****

answer

Rate tables are used to define common values that vary over time and are used by Rules Sets for Evaluation.

question

True or False: You can clone an organization structure ****

answer

TRUE

question

How many organization structures can be active at one time? How many root units are allowed in an organization structure? ****

answer

One and One

question

Which Administration components is used to record payment exclusion dates? The list the 4 types of this components. ****

answer

A) Financial Processing Calendar; B) 1. Cash, 2. Cheque, 3. EFT, 4. Voucher, 5. Invoice

question

True or False: In the Curam Data Model, Jobs are directly linked to Users ****

answer

FALSE. Positions are directly linked to users

question

Sensitivity security is applied to which 4 areas? ****

answer

Sensitivity security (W-PUN): 1. Work Queues, 2. Participants, 3. Users, 4. Notes

question

True or False: Locations represent the workplaces of the agency's clients ****

answer

FALSE. Locations are the workplaces of the users.

question

What must you be sure to do in order to see or use changes that are made to code table values? ****

answer

PUBLISH the code table

question

List the 2 types of communication templates ****

answer

1. Extensible Style Language (XSL) 2. Microsoft Word

question

List 2 resource types that can be assigned a security identifier ****

answer

1. Protected Resource, 2. specific fields on a screen, 3. Organization Units, 4. Locations, 5. Case Audits, 6. Products, 7. Business Processes

question

Mary and Kevin are caseworkers assigned to different locations within the organization. When Mary performs a search for one of Kevin's clients, she can see that the client is registered in the system but she cannot see the client's address or another other info about the client. In this scenario, what is the Location Data Security setting for the system? ****

answer

Restricted View

question

What are application properties? ****

answer

Application Properties are variables that configure the system for the organization.

question

A Working Pattern covers how many days? ****

answer

A Working Pattern defines the standard working hours over a 14 day period

question

What are the 3 main components of the Curam Verification Engine? ****

answer

1. Administration, 2. Case, 3. Participant

question

True or False: The only acceptable verifications are paper document or electronic images of a document ****

answer

FALSE

question

Define Verifiable Data Item ****

answer

A Verifiable Data Item is a piece of evidence that requires verification -- it corresponds to a single attribute within a specific evidence entity (table)

question

An evidence record cannot be _____________ until its associated verification requirement is satisfied ****

answer

ACTIVATED

question

Which verification element links the verification configuration to the appropriate case types? ****

answer

Verification Requirement Usage

question

Which verification element provides the rules of verification for a piece of data? ****

answer

Verification Requirements

question

What official document might be used to verify a client's age, that is, the evidence? This document is an example of which verification element? ****

answer

A) Birth Certificate B) Is an example of a Verification Item

question

Which element is at the top of the verification elements hierarchy? ****

answer

Verification Categories

question

Specific pieces of evidence that have a direct influence on the verification of a related data item are known as ______________ ****

answer

Dependent Data Items

question

Which verification element is used when a user can submit variable combinations of verification items to verify a piece of evidence? ****

answer

Verification Groups

question

What are the 2 categories of evidence sharing? ****

answer

1. Identical , and 2. Non-Identical

question

True or False: Evidence Broker can share evidence from a case to a Person or Prospect Person record ****

answer

TRUE

question

What is main function of the Evidence Broker? ****

answer

The Evidence Broker acts as a conduit that enables the sharing of evidence across cases.

question

Name the 2 main configuration settings when sharing verification items ****

answer

1. Always 2. If Applicable

question

True or False: Evidence sharing is unidirectional and per evidence type ****

answer

TRUE

question

What are the 3 main business functions that trigger a broadcast by the Evidence Broker? ****

answer

1. New Person (to a Target case), 2. Evidence Changes (to a Source case), 3. New Target Case

question

.

answer

.

question

.

answer

.

question

True or False: The caseworker must activate the incoming evidence before it can be accepted

answer

FALSE. It can be configured to activate evidence automatically or not

question

An SPM agency shares information about its clients across which 3 areas? ****

answer

1. New Person (to a Target case) 2. Evidence Changes (to a Source case) 3. New Target Case

question

True or False: Evidence Broker can be configured to allow manual acceptance or rejection of shared evidence ****

answer

TRUE

question

What type of evidence must be accepted manually? ****

answer

Non-Identical evidence

question

What are the four main user roles or positions associated with Provider Management? ****

answer

The 4 main Provider user roles or positions are: 1. CPM Administrator, 2. Resource Manager, 3. Facility Manager, 4. Financial User

question

Which Curam component determines eligibility for a product? ****

answer

Case Management

question

Which Curam component manages the contractual terms between the agency and the Product Provider? ****

answer

Provider Management

question

Which position enrolls a Product Provider as a Provider? ****

answer

Resource Manager

question

The Product Provider recently complete renovations that increased their in-patient capacity from 30 to 40 patients. Which positions enter this updated information into Curam Provider Management? ****

answer

Facility Manager

question

In addition to one kind of service the Product Provider now wants to offer a second kind of service. Which position authorizes the addition of this new service to the provider's offerings? ****

answer

Resource Manager

question

List 4 examples of data that can be maintained for a provider. ****

answer

1. Contacts 2. Approved Service Offerings 3. Approval Criteria 4. Financial Terms & Contracts

question

True or False: A provider inquiry must be created before the provider can be enrolled ****

answer

FALSE

question

Based on data that the agency collections, it seems that one of its providers is not maintaining a sufficiently high level of service. The agency does not want to use this provider until the situation is corrected. What action in the Provider Lifecycle does the Resource Manager take? ****

answer

Suspends the provider

question

True or False: The agency can define its own approval criteria for new providers

answer

TRUE

question

Name the 2 major functional components of Outcome Management ****

answer

1. Assessment 2. Outcome Planning

question

Which Curam component is used to create the question scripts contained in the assessment questionnaire? ****

answer

Intelligent Evidence Gather (IEG)

question

True or False: A factor can have only one classification ****

answer

FALSE

question

What are the 2 Curam tools used to determine the assessment results? ****

answer

1. CDA = Curam Decision Analyst (matrix) 2. CER = Curam Express Rule

question

A factor is typically categorized as a ___________ or a _________________. ****

answer

A factor is typically categorized as a NEED or a BARRIER.

question

True or False: There must be at least one role that is specified for an assessment before it can be run. ****

answer

TRUE

question

What type of date must be specified for each goal in an outcome plan? ****

answer

Expected End Date

question

Name the 3 activity types in an outcome plan? ****

answer

1. Services, 2. Referrals, 3. Actions

question

What is the name of the central area (screen) for developing and maintaining outcome plans? ****

answer

Activity Workspace

question

List 3 elements of an outcome plan that can be shared with members of the associated multi-disciplinary team (MDT). ****

answer

Services; Actions; Attachments; Referrals; Notes

question

What does MDT Stand for?

answer

Multi-Disciplinary Team

question

The eligibility rules that an SPM agency uses are drawn from which two main sources? ****

answer

1. Legislation; 2. Business Policy

question

True or False: The business team should build the framework of the rule set in the Rules Editor before they analyze the source documents. ****

answer

FALSE

question

Name the 4 types of CER rules ****

answer

1. Determination/Eligibility Rules, 2. Display Rules, 3. Advisor Rules, 4. Validation Rules

question

Boolean, String, Number, and Date are examples of? ****

answer

Data Types

question

When working in the Rules Editor, the graphical representation of the rules is visible in the ? ****

answer

Diagram Area

question

True or False: The CER editor has both a business and a technical view. ****

answer

TRUE

question

A caseworker is viewing a Curam screen that indicates that the client passed seven rules, failed two rules, and is eligible for a benefit of $500 per month. Which type of CER rules produced the information on this screen? ****

answer

Display Rules

question

True or False: When creating a CER rule set, the business analyst must know exactly where in the database the evidence resides ****

answer

FALSE

question

The benefit to be awarded is equal to 20% of the total net expenses. This statement is an example of which CER concept? ****

answer

Expression

question

Name the 4 main components of Curam Workflow ****

answer

1. Process Definition Toll -- aka: PDT, 2. Workflow Engine, 3. User Inbox, 4. Workflow Administration

question

What are the 10 workflow activity types? ****

answer

1. Loop, 2. Start, 3. Parallel, 4. End, 5. Manual, 6. Decision, 7. Subflow, 8. Automatic, 9. Event Wait, 10. Route

question

True or False: The Workflow Engine uses process definitions to create Workflow Process Instances ****

answer

TRUE

question

Define the term ALLOCATION TARGET and name the 6 kinds of allocation targets. ****

answer

A) An allocation target is a place where tasks get assigned B) User; Position; Job; Org Unit; Work Queue; Combo of all five

question

True or False: A WDO defines the data that passes through a workflow. ****

answer

TRUE. A Workflow Data Object (WDO) defines the data that passes through a workflow

question

Define Work Queue ****

answer

A Work Queue is an Allocation Target to which users can subscribe

question

List the 2 types of workflow notifications ****

answer

1. Alerts; 2. Emails

question

When a task is completed, the application raises an _______________ to signal the Workflow Engine to continue the process instance. ****

answer

EVENTS

question

When viewing a workflow process instance, which 3 actions can a workflow administrator perform on that process instance? ****

answer

1. Suspend 2. Resume 3. Abort

question

Which Workflow structural element connects one activity to another activity? ****

answer

Transition

question

Which processes, supported by Universal Access, asks questions that are designed to determine clients' immediate needs and direct them to service and programs? ****

answer

Triage

question

Name the 2 types of screen supported by Universal Access and explain the difference between them. ****

answer

1. Filtered Screening - is used to reduce the number of programs for which a citizen might want to screen. 2. Eligibility Screening - typically involves collecting answers to several more-detailed questions via an Intelligent Evidence Gather (IEG) script

question

True or False: A client can skip the screening process and directly apply for benefits ****

answer

TRUE. A Workflow Data Object (WDO) defines the data that passes through a workflow

question

True or False: A client must create a Citizen Account before completing the screening Process. ****

answer

FALSE

question

List 5 of the functional components of the Citizen Account ****

answer

1. Home Page 2. My Screenings 3. My Activities 4. Life Events 5. My Applications 6. My Payments 7. Contact Information

question

The submission of the application through Universal Access, triggers the creation of an _________. ****

answer

Application Case

question

In which section of the Citizen Home Page does the client inform the agency that they are recently divorced? ****

answer

Life Events

question

In order to use the Citizen Account functionality, the client's Universal Access account must be linked to their? ****

answer

Participant record

question

What are the 3 options provided by Universal Access for submitting an application for benefits? ****

answer

1. Online; 2. Phone; 3. PDF; 4. In Person

question

Universal Access provides a _____________ that specifies how many services are preselected in the mapping of the triage results. ****

answer

SYSTEM PROPERTY

question

What is a Citizen Account?

answer

The citizen account is a facility within IBM Cúram Universal Access which provides the client with a fast and convenient way to securely apply for programs and for the worker to perform triages and screenings. It also provides the client with access to his or her home page, applications, screenings, triages, life events, referrals, activities, and contact information. CCI provides the facility for the internal worker to create a citizen account on behalf of the client and link the account to the person's home page.

question

In Curam Workflow, which component creates the workflow? ***

answer

Process Definition Tool (PDT)

question

In Curam Workflow, which component runs the workflow? ***

answer

Workflow Engine

question

What are the 4 key Curam Provider Management (CPM) Positions? ***

answer

1. CPM Manager 2. Resource Manager 3. Facility Manager 4. Financial User

question

What are the 3 IBM Curam Solutions?

answer

ICI: 1. Income Support, 2. Income Support for Medical Assistance, 3. Child Welfare

question

What are the 9 IBM Curam Enterprise Modules?

answer

SAVE-LO-PUB: 1. Social Enterprise Collaboration, 2. Appeals, 3. Verification Engine, 4. Evidence Broker, 5. Life Event Management, 6. Outcome Management, 7. Provider Management, 8. Universal Access, 9. Business Intelligence & Analysis

question

What are the 3 tiers of the Curam Social Program Management?

answer

SES: 1. Solutions, 2. Enterprise Modules, 3. Social Program Management Platform (focus of our course is on the platform)

question

What does SPM stand for?

answer

Social Program Management (SPM)

question

What are 5 types of SPM organizations?

answer

Organizations: 1. Labor, 2. Human Services, 3. Health, 4. Social Security and Pensions, 5. Military and Veterans' Affairs

question

What are the 5 SPM Platform Components?

answer

the 5 SPM Platform Components are: CABAT:, 1. Case Management, 2. Administration Suite, 3. Business Services, 4. Application Development Environment, 5. Technical Services

question

What are the 5 areas of SPM Case Management?

answer

The 5 areas of SPM Case Management are: PEFEC:, 1. Participant Management, 2. Evidence Management, 3. Financial Management, 4. Eligibility and Entitlement (Rules), 5. Common Intake

question

What are the 5 areas of SPM Business Services?

answer

Business Services 1. Search 2. Task Management 3. Calendar Scheduling 4. Case Audit 5. Correspondence

question

What are the 6 areas of SPM Technical Services?

answer

Technical Services: SEW-WIM: 1. Security, 2. EAI, 3. Workflow, 4. Web Services, 5. IEG, 6. Multi-Channel Access

question

What are the 3 IBM Curam Solutions?

answer

Solutions: ICI: 1. Income Support, 2. Income Support for Medical Assistance, 3. Child Welfare

question

What are the 9 IBM Curam Enterprise Modules?

answer

Enterprise Modules: SAVE-LO-PUB: 1. Social Enterprise Collaboration, 2. Appeals, 3. Verification Engine, 4. Evidence Broker, 5. Life Event Management, 6. Outcome Management, 7. Provider Management, 8. Universal Access, 9. Business Intelligence & Analysis

question

What are the 3 tiers of the Curam Social Program Management?

answer

3 Tiers of SPM: SES: 1. Solutions, 2. Enterprise Modules, 3. Social Program Management Platform

question

What are 5 types of SPM organizations?

answer

Organizations: 1. Labor, 2. Human Services, 3. Health, 4. Social Security and Pensions, 5. Military and Veterans' Affairs

question

What are the 5 SPM Platform Components?

answer

Platform Components: CABAT: 1. Case Management, 2. Administration Suite, 3. Business Services, 4. Application Development Environment, 5. Technical Services

question

What are the 5 areas of SPM Case Management?

answer

Case Management (PEFEC) 1. Participant Management 2. Evidence Management 3. Financial Management 4. Eligibility and Entitlement (Rules) 5. Common Intake

question

What are the 5 areas of SPM Business Services?

answer

Business Services 1. Search 2. Task Management 3. Calendar Scheduling 4. Case Audit 5. Correspondence

question

What does IEG stand for?

answer

Internal Evidence Gathering (IEG)

question

What does EAI stand for?

answer

Enterprise Application Integration

question

What are the 6 areas of SPM Technical Services?

answer

Technical Services (SEW-WIM) 1. Security 2. EAI 3. Workflow 4. Web Services 5. IEG 6. Multi-Channel Access

question

Identify the 3 major components of the IBM Curam Social Program Management Platform User Interface (UI)

answer

3 Major UI Components (ASA) 1. Application Banner 2. Shortcuts Panel 3. Application Tabs

question

What does IEG stand for?

answer

Internal Evidence Gathering (IEG)

question

What does EAI stand fir?

answer

Enterprise Application Integration

question

What 3 pods are common to most Curam applications?

answer

3 common pods: 1. Quick Links, 2. My Appointments, 3. My Tasks.

question

Name some common Icons and Buttons on the Curam SPM Platform User Interface.

answer

Common Icons and Buttons 1. Action Menus 2. Magnifying Glass (Search) 3. Clear Entry 4. Calendar 5. Refresh 6. Help 7. Dropdown toggle

question

On the SPM Platform User Interface, what is the Action Menus buttons used for?

answer

"The Action Menus buttons is used to display the most commonly used actions that apply to the object.

question

There are 3 types of action menu in the Curam interface:

answer

1. Tab 2. Page 3. List

question

What are the 11 Curam participant roles types?

answer

11 Curam Participant Role Types (PEER-PUPPIES) 1. Person 2. Employer 3. External Party 4. Representative 5. Prospect Person 6. Utility 7. Prospect Employer 8. Product Provider 9. Information Provider 10. Educational Institute 11. Service Supplier

question

What is another word for Concern role?

answer

Participant

question

What is another word for Participant?

answer

Concern role

question

What is some Person-specific data?

answer

Person-specific data 1. Alternative Names 2. Cases 3. Citizenships 4. Deductions 5. Education 6. Employment 7. Foreign Residencies 8. Incidents 9. Insurance Contribution Line Items and Consolidations 10. Relationships 11. Special Cautions

question

What are the two Curam tools used to determine the assessment results?

answer

The two Curam tools used to determine the assessment results are Curam Decision Assist -- aka: CDA -- and Curam Express Rules -- aka: CER.

question

What are the 7 core Case types?

answer

7 Core Case Types are: 1. Screening Case (a container) 2. Assessment Case (includes rules sets) 3. Application Case (includes rule sets; determines actual eligibility) 4. Integrated Case (a container) 5. Product Deliver Case (includes rule sets; displays benefits) 6. Issue Case (holds any discrepancies in evidence) 7. Investigation Case

question

What are 3 types of Representatives?

answer

3 types of Representatives 1. Contact 2. Correspondent 3. Nominee

question

What are the 3 kinds of Employer-specific data?

answer

Employer-specific data: 1. Insurance Contributions, 2. Related Companies, 3. Trading Status

question

What are some kinds of External Participant-specific data?

answer

External Participant-specific data includes Office and Office Member.

question

What 3 core Case types include rule sets?

answer

Case Types with Rule Sets Assessment Case Application Case Product Deliver Case

question

What are the 2 stages of the Integrated Case lifecycle?

answer

Integrated Case lifecycle consists of two stages: (1) Open and (2) Closed.

question

What organizational objects can a Case Owner be? ***

answer

A Case Owner can be any of the following organization objects: 1. User, 2. Position, 3. Organization Unit, 4. Work Queue

question

What does the "Home" Case Element contain?

answer

The "Home" Case Element contains Case Details (Case Header Entity) and recent transaction. It displays summary details about a case.

question

List 5 of the functional components of the Citizen Account ****

answer

1. Home Page 2. My Screenings 3. My Activities 4. Life Events 5. My Applications 6. My Payments 7. Contact Information

question

What are the 6 main terms in CER?

answer

The 6 main terms in CER are: 1. Class, 2. Object, 3. Attribute, 4. Expression, 5. Set, 6. Session,

question

What are the 4 Universal Access Components?

answer

The 4 Universal Access Components are: 1. Triage, 2. Screening, 3. Application, 4. Citizen Account

question

What are the 4 types of CER Rules Types? ***

answer

The CER Rules Types are: 1. Determination or Eligibility Rules, 2. Display Rules, 3. Advisor Rules, 4. Validation Rules

question

When sharing evidence, what are the 3 screens available within the Evidence Workspace for a Person or Prospect Person record?

answer

The 3 screens available within the Evidence Workspace for a Person or Prospect Person are: 1. In Edit, 2. Incoming Evidence, 3. Evidence Comparison

question

What are the 4 key Curam Provider Management (CPM) Positions? ***

answer

Curam Provider Management (CPM) Positions 1. CPM Manager 2. Resource Manager 3. Facility Manager 4. Financial User

question

What are 3 User Security Profiles?

answer

1. Security Role (e.g. Caseworker_Role) 2. Security Groups (e.g. Caseworker_Group) 3. Security IDs (e.g. Create_Case, Modify_Case)

question

What are the 6 core building blocks of Financial Management?

answer

The 6 core building blocks of Financial Management are: FIF-PFP: 1. Financial Component, 2. Instruction Line Item (ILI), 3. Financial Instruction, 4. Payment Group, 5. Financial Instrument, 6. Payslip

question

What is a Financial Component?

answer

A Financial Component is a Schedule to pay or bill in relation to a case.

question

What information is included in a Financial Component?

answer

A Financial Component consists of: 1. Category -- payment or liability 2. Primary Client -- Client for whom entitlement of payment or liability was calculated 3. Case Nominee -- The Recipient of the payment or bill 4. Amount -- Amount to be paid or billed 5. Delivery Pattern -- Delivery method & frequency (how & how often) 6. Start and End Dates

question

What are the 2 Curam Case Elements 2?

answer

Curam Case Elements 2 contain the following: 1. Integrated Case specific elements: Evidence, Services, Referrals, Outcome Plans 2. Product Delivery Case specific elements: Determinations and Financials

question

What are Curam Case Elements 2 - Integrated Case elements?

answer

Integrated Case specific elements are: 1. Evidence, 2. Services, 3. Referrals, 4. Outcome Plans

question

What are Curam Case Elements 2 - Product Delivery Case elements?

answer

Product Delivery Case specific elements are: 1. Determinations, 2. Financials, which includes: Transactions, Certifications, Deductions, Components, Delivery Patterns, Nominees, Over ; Under Payments, and Payment Simulations.

question

What are the 4 types of CER Rules Types? ***

answer

The 4 types of C.E.R. Rules Types are: 1. Determination or Eligibility Rules, 2. Display Rules, 3. Advisor Rules, 4. Validation Rules

question

What is an example of a Rule Set? ***

answer

Rule Set - A rule set for a child benefit determination might include the Claim, Person, and Income classes.

question

What is the Curam Workflow Management System (WMS)? ***

answer

The Curam Workflow Management System (WMS) supports the automation of business processes and allows work to be routed amongst individuals and other organizational objects.

question

What are the 2 areas of the Curam Workflow Management System (WMS)? ***

answer

The 2 areas of the Curam Workflow Management System (WMS) are: 1. Workflow Infrastructure, and 2. Workflow Functionality

question

What are the 4 components of the Curam Workflow Management System (WMS)? ***

answer

The 4 components of the Curam Workflow Management System (WMS) are: 1. Process Definition Tool (PDT) -- which creates the workflow, 2. Workflow Engine - which runs the workflow, 3. User Inbox - which receives Tasks ; Notifications, and 4. Workflow Administration - which manages the workflow

question

What 2 components are associated with the Workflow Infrastructure in Curam Workflow Management System (WMS)? ***

answer

Workflow Infrastructure includes: 1. Process Definition Tool (PDT) -- creates the workflow 2. Workflow Engine - runs the workflow

question

What 2 components are associated with the Workflow Functionality in Curam Workflow Management System (WMS)? ***

answer

Workflow Functionality includes: 3. User Inbox - receives Tasks ; Notifications 4. Workflow Administration - manages the workflow

question

In Curam Workflow, which component creates the workflow? ***

answer

Process Definition Tool (PDT)

question

In Curam Workflow, which component runs the workflow? ***

answer

Workflow Engine

question

In Curam Workflow, which component receives Tasks ; Notifications? ***

answer

User Inbox

question

In Curam Workflow, which component manages the workflow? ***

answer

Workflow Administration

question

What does the Process Definition Tool (PDT) do?

answer

The Process Definition Tool (PDT) allows workflow process to be defined; create activities and rules for routing between activities; define the points at which human intervention is required for Manual and Decision activities

question

What are 5 Workflow Administration tasks that are executed by the workflow engine?

answer

The 5 Workflow Administration tasks that are executed by the workflow engine are: 1. Process Instance Search, 2. Suspend, 3. Resume, 4. Abort, 5. View Process Instance Errors

question

What are 3 components of a workflow process?

answer

The 3 components of a workflow process are: 1. Activities, 2. Transitions, 3. Workflow Data Objects (WDO)

question

What does WDO Stand for?

answer

Workflow Data Object (WDO)

question

In Curam Workflow, what enables dynamic definition and modification of workflow processes?

answer

The Process Definition Tool (PDT) enables dynamic definition and modification of workflow processes

question

In Curam Workflow, what is used to create workflow process definitions and to define the data that passes through workflow?

answer

In Curam Workflow, the -- Process Definition Tool aka: PDT -- is used to create workflow process definitions and to define the data that passes through workflow

question

What are Workflow Process Definitions?

answer

Workflow Process Definitions describe the sequence of activities and transitions that make up a business process workflow, including Case ID, Case Owner, dates, durations, amount.

question

What is the main Function of the Process Definition Tool (PDT)?

answer

The main Function of the Process Definition Tool (PDT) is to create workflow process definitions by defining the activities in a workflow and the transitions between them.

question

In Curam Workflow, what are the two important aspects of transitions?

answer

The two important aspects of transitions are: 1. How the split and join types for an activity influence the transitions to and from that activity, 2. The conditions that are placed on a transition. Transitions use conditions to decide what should happen next in the workflow process.

question

In Curam Workflow, what are transition conditions used for?

answer

Conditions are placed on transitions and are used to decide what should happen next in the workflow process.

question

What are the 10 Workflow Activities? ***

answer

The 10 Workflow Activities are: "AMPLE DRESS", 1. Automatic, 2. Manual (creates a task), 3. Parallel, 4. Loop, 5. Event Wait, 6. Decision (creates a task), 7. Route, 8. End, 9. Start, 10. Subflow

question

True or False: All workflow process definitions have a start and end activity

answer

TRUE

question

A workflow is completed when the transitions to the end activity are _________ and the end process activity is _____________

answer

A workflow is completed when the transitions to the end activity are EVALUATED and the end process activity is EXECUTED

question

In Workflow Activities, what is a "Manual" activity?

answer

Manual Activities are steps in the workflow that require the intervention of a human being. When a Manual Activity is executed, a task is created to specify the work that needs to be done.

question

In Workflow Activities, what is a Decision activity?

answer

A Decision activity is an activity that asks a user a question. A task is created when a Decision activity is executed.

question

In a Decision Activity, what are the 2 type of questions allowed?

answer

Multiple Choice and Free-Form Questions

question

In Workflow Activities, what is an Automatic activity?

answer

An Automatic activity is a step in a workflow process that is wholly automated.

question

In Workflow Activities, what is an Event Wait activity?

answer

An Event Wait activity is similar to a manual activity. It stops the workflow until a specific event is raised. However, a task is not created.

question

In Workflow Activities, what is a Route activity?

answer

A Route activity performs no business functionality. It is a null activity. Its primary purpose is to help flow control. Its used to place notifications at particular points in a workflow process.

question

In Workflow Activities, what is a Subflow activity?

answer

A Subflow activity allows another process definition to be enacted as part of another process.

question

In Workflow Activities, what is a Loop activity?

answer

A Loop Activity is a sequence of activities that continue to execute while some condition is true

question

In Workflow Activities, what is a Parallel activity?

answer

A Parallel activity acts as a wrapper around existing activities, allowing for activities to be executed in parallel.

question

What does the Workflow Engine do?

answer

The Workflow Engine runs the Workflow. It performs runtime execution of workflow processes that are based on process definitions. The Workflow Engine uses the process definition to create a Workflow Process Instance.

question

What does the Workflow Engine determine

answer

The Workflow Engine evaluates transitions and activities to determine:, 1. Which activities to execute, 2. The appropriate routes through the workflow, 3. When tasks are required, 4. When notifications are required

question

What is the main responsibility of the Workflow Engine?

answer

The main responsibility of the Workflow Engine is to enact all workflow processes at runtime.

question

True or False: The Workflow Engine creates tasks to notify users when manual work needs to be done.

answer

TRUE

question

What are the 10 Workflow Activities? ***

answer

The 10 Workflow Activities are: "AMPLE DRESS": 1. Automatic, 2. Manual (creates a task), 3. Parallel, 4. Loop, 5. Event Wait, 6. Decision (creates a task), 7. Route, 8. End, 9. Start, 10. Subflow

question

What is a Workflow Process Instance?

answer

A Workflow Process instance is created for each enactment of a workflow process definition. It may be considered as the runtime data for an enacted workflow process definition.

question

When a Workflow Process Instance fails, the ______ records information about the failure so it can use it to try and restart the Workflow Process Instance.

answer

When a Workflow Process Instance fails, the -- Workflow Engine -- records information about the failure so it can use it to try and restart the Workflow Process Instance.

question

In Curam Workflow, what does a Task do? ***

answer

Tasks enable the assignment and tracking of the work of system users.

question

In Curam Workflow, what are the 6 items that can be an Allocation Target? ***

answer

An Allocation Target can be any of the following Items:, "JO W CUP", 1. Job, 2. Organization Unit, 3. Work Queue, 4. Combination of any of these, 5. User, 6. Position

question

In Workflow, what is an allocation strategy?

answer

An allocation strategy details how a task created due to the execution of a manual or a decision activity is assigned to a user to perform the task.

question

What are the 3 categories of tasks?

answer

The 3 categories of tasks are: 1. Available, 2. Open, 3. Deferred

question

What are Available Tasks?

answer

Available Tasks are tasks that are allocated to a user or multiple users but not reserved by one of these allocation targets

question

What happens to Tasks once it is reserved?

answer

Once a task is reserved, it is removed from the list of available tasks and added to the "My Open Tasks" list.

question

True or False: Once a task has been reserved, can you make it available again?

answer

YES. Once it's made available again, it makes it available to the original assigned users.

question

When a user defers a task, what happens to the task?

answer

When a user defers a task, it is removed from the list of Open tasks and added to the list of Deferred tasks.

question

In Curam Workflow, what are the 6 items that can be an Allocation Target? ***

answer

An Allocation Target can be any of the following Items: "JO W CUP": 1. Job, 2. Organization Unit, 3. Work Queue, 4. Combination of any of these, 5. User, 6. Position

question

In Curam Workflow, what are the main 5 areas of a User Inbox?

answer

The main 5 areas of a User Inbox are: 1. Tasks (available, open, deferred), 2. Task Queries, 3. Task Preference, 4. Work Queues, 5. Notifications (Alerts)

question

In Curam Workflow, what are Work Queues?

answer

Work Queues are allocation targets to which users can subscribe. Users can reserve a task in one of their work queues.

question

In Curam Workflow, what is performed for Workflow Administration?

answer

Workflow Administration enables the administrator to monitor and control Workflow Process Instances

question

In Curam Workflow, what is used to monitor and control Workflow Process Instances?

answer

Workflow Administration

question

What are the 4 main functions of Workflow Administration?

answer

The 4 main functions of Workflow Administration are: 1. Process Instance Search, 2. View Process Instance Errors, 3. Suspend, Resume, Abort (the process instance) ***, 4. Events (Trigger, Transition)

question

In Curam Workflow, what is used to Suspend, Resume, or Abort Workflow Process Instances?

answer

Workflow Administration

question

In Curam Workflow, what are Events used for?

answer

Events are used to transition workflows or to enact process instances of workflows. Manual and Event Wait activities use events to progress a Workflow Process Instance.

question

What is Curam Universal Access?

answer

The Curam Universal Access allows citzens to interact with an agency of the Internet. Universal Access is a fully configurable citizen-facing application that enables agencies to provide a user-friendly and intuitive web self-service solution.

question

What are the 4 Universal Access Components?

answer

4 Universal Access Components: 1. Triage, 2. Screening, 3. Application, 4. Citizen Account

question

In Universal Access, what is the Triage component used for?

answer

The Triage component, enables the quick identification of immediate needs and the provision of details of services, service providers, and programs that address the citizen's needs. A Triage is normally performed when a citizen has an emergency need.

question

In Universal Access, what is the Intelligent Evidence Gathering (IEG) script used for?

answer

The Intelligent Evidence Gathering (IEG) script is used during Triage to capture information about the citizen. With IEG, information is gathered interactively by displaying a script of questions to which the citizen can provide answers.

question

What is shown in a citizen's Triage results?

answer

Based on the answers the citizen provides, a list of community services and government programs that might meet their needs is displayed to the citizen. These results are derived by using the Curam Express Rules (CER).

question

In Universal Access, what is the Screening component used for?

answer

Screening is used to determine a citizen's eligibility for programs.

question

In Universal Access, what are the 2 Screening Types?

answer

Screening Types: 1. Filtered Screening - used to reduce the number of programs for which a citizen might want to screen, 2. Eligibility Screening - typically involves collecting answers to server detailed questions via an Intelligent Evidence Gathering (IEG) script.

question

What are "authenticated" citizens?

answer

Citizens who create an account. - If authentication is enabled, the citizen can choose to be authenticated (log in to account) before proceeding with screening"

question

In Universal Access, what is the Application component used for?

answer

The Application Component is used to trigger an Application Case. An application is used to determine eligibility for a program.

question

In Universal Access, what is the Citizen Account component used for?

answer

The Citizen Account component allows citizens to securely apply for programs and perform triage and screening.

question

What are the 7 functional components of a Citizen Account?

answer

Citizen Account's Functional Components: 1. Home Page, 2. My Applications, 3. My Screenings, 4. My Payments, 5. My Activities, 6. Contact Information, 7. Life Events

question

Do you need to be a Person Participant in order to have a Citizen Account?

answer

YES

question

In Finance, what is a Transaction

answer

Transactions are the payments and bills that are issued for eligible and active product delivery cases

question

In Finance, what is a Ceritification

answer

Certifications are the eligility periods for the products,

question

In Finance, what is a Deduction

answer

Deductions are money that are subtracted from benefit payments,

question

In Finance, what is a Component

answer

Components represent various categories of payment for a product.

question

In Finance, what is a Delivery Pattern

answer

Delivery Patterns consist of the delivery method (e.g. cash, EFT) and delivery frequency (weekly, monthly) of benefit payments.

question

In Finance, what is a Nominee

answer

Nominees are the recipients of benefit payments. The Primary Person is the default nominee although a Representative participant type can also be a nominee.

question

In Finance, what is an Overpayment and an Underpayment

answer

An Overpayment occurs when too much is paid out on the case. An Underpayment occurs when too little is paid out on the case.

question

In Finance, what is a Payment Simulation used for

answer

Payment simulation allows a caseworker to see all payments and deductions due to a participant for a specific date before the payment is issued.

question

Mnemonics used for studying Core Curam are [part 1]:. SES for the 3 tiers of the Curam Social Program Management, ICI for the 3 IBM Curam Solutions, SAVE-LO-PUB for the 9 IBM Curam Enterprise Modules,

answer

CABAT for the 5 SPM Platform Components, PEFEC for the 5 areas of SPM Case Management, SEW-WIM for the 6 areas of SPM Technical Services,

question

Mnemonics used for studying Core Curam are [part 2]:. ASA for the 3 major components of the IBM Curam Social Program, TPCB for the 4 components of a Wizard, PEER PUPPIES for the 11 Curam Participant Role Types, TRI for the 3 kinds of Employer specific data,

answer

CCN for the 3 types of Representative participants, IT-IR-IA for the 3 processes in the Issues Case Type, UPOW for the 4 Case Owner objects and the Evidence Approval Check configuration options, FIF-PFP for the 6 core building blocks of Financial Management, ACE for the Applications that use CER,

question

Mnemonics used for studying Core Curam are [part 3]:. DGGG for the 4 Batch Processes that generate Payments & Liabilities, SAA-IPII for the 7 Core Case Types (this one is kinda sad), OORR for the 4 Location Data Security Options, CAP for the 3 main components of Curam Verificaton Engine,

answer

IPO for the 3 areas SPM Agency shares information with, SAR for the 3 activity types in an outcome plan, WPUN for the 4 Object with Security Levels, AMPLE DRESS for the 10 workflow activity types

question

Acronyms used in Curam are:, SPM is Social Program Management (SPM), TANF is Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF), EIS is Early Intervention Services (EIS), IEG is Internal Evidence Gathering (IEG), ILI is Instruction Line Items (ILI),

answer

CDA is Curam Decision Assist (CDA), CER is Curam Express Rules (CER), SID is Security Identifier (SID), FID is Financial Identifier (FID), MDT is Multi-Disciplinary Team (MDT), WDO is Workflow Data Object (WDO), PDT is Process Definition Tool (PDT),

question

Mnemonics you must know are:. SES for the 3 tiers of Social Program Management, ICI for the 3 Solutions, SAVE-LO-PUB for the 9 Enterprise Modules, CABAT for the 5 SPM Platform Components, PEER PUPPIES for the 11 Participant Role Types, AMPLE DRESS for the 10 workflow activity types,

answer

U-POW for the 4 Case Owner objects, FIF-PFP for the 6 core building blocks of Financial Management, DGGG for the 4 Batch Processes that generate Payments & Liabilities, SAR for the 3 activity types in an outcome plan, W-PUN for the 4 Objects with Security Levels,

question

Mnemonics you must know are:. SES for the 3 tiers of Social Program Management, ICI for the 3 Solutions, SAVE-LO-PUB for the 9 Enterprise Modules, CABAT for the 5 SPM Platform Components, PEER PUPPIES for the 11 Participant Role Types, AMPLE DRESS for the 10 workflow activity types,

answer

U-POW for the 4 Case Owner objects, FIF-PFP for the 6 core building blocks of Financial Management, DGGG for the 4 Batch Processes that generate Payments & Liabilities, SAR for the 3 activity types in an outcome plan, W-PUN for the 4 Objects with Security Levels,

question

Mnemonics you must know are:. SES for the 3 tiers of Social Program Management, ICI for the 3 Solutions, SAVE-LO-PUB for the 9 Enterprise Modules, CABAT for the 5 SPM Platform Components, PEER PUPPIES for the 11 Participant Role Types, AMPLE DRESS for the 10 workflow activity types,

answer

U-POW for the 4 Case Owner objects, FIF-PFP for the 6 core building blocks of Financial Management, DGGG for the 4 Batch Processes that generate Payments & Liabilities, SAR for the 3 activity types in an outcome plan, W-PUN for the 4 Objects with Security Levels,

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