question

Anesthesia services are reimbursed based in part on the amount of time anesthesia is administered.

answer

TRUE

question

The anesthesia code for the most complex procedure is assigned when multiple procedures are performed during the same operative session under the same type of anesthesia.

answer

TRUE

question

Preoperative and postoperative visits by the anesthesiologist can be reported in addition to the administration of the anesthesia.

answer

FALSE

question

When a second physician provides moderate conscious sedation in a nonfacility setting then this physician can report a moderate conscious sedation code.

answer

FALSE

question

When a physician performs the surgery and administers the anesthesia the modifier 47 (Anesthesia by surgeon) needs to be appended to the procedure code.

answer

TRUE

question

Physical Status Modifiers are used to indicate the condition of the patient at the time the anesthesia was administered.

answer

TRUE

question

The ASA Relative Value is a list of the charges for the anesthesia services performed.

answer

FALSE

question

Only one Qualifying Circumstances Code can be reported during the same operative session.

answer

FALSE

question

The appropriate Physical Status Modifier is decided by the medical coder and does not need to be documented by the anesthesiologist.

answer

FALSE

question

The procedure with the highest basic unit value is reported when multiple surgical procedures are performed during the same operative session.

answer

TRUE

question

Hospital Observation Services codes may only be assigned if the patient is in an area designated by the hospital as an observation area.

answer

FALSE

question

When a patient is admitted to a hospital directly from a physician's office report a code from the Initial Hospital Care Subcategory.

answer

TRUE

question

The anticoagulant management codes can be reported in the outpatient and inpatient setting.

answer

FALSE

question

When a patient and/or the family initiates a consultation (instead of a physician initiating it), a consultation code is reported.

answer

FALSE

question

HCPCS: When a physician orders that a patient be placed under observation, the patient's status is that of an inpatient.

answer

FALSE

question

HCPCS: The codes listed in the Chemotherapy Drugs category cover the cost of the chemotherapy and the administration.

answer

FALSE

question

Modifier 50 (Bilateral procedure) should be appended if a patient has bunionectomy procedures performed on both the right foot and the left foot during the same operative session (code 28292).

answer

TRUE

question

If a patient had multiple procedures performed during the same operative session, modifier 51 (Multiple procedures) would be added to the additional procedure codes.

answer

TRUE

question

When the description of a code includes the word bilateral you do not add the modifier 50 (Bilateral procedure) to the CPT® code.

answer

TRUE

question

There are no exceptions to adding the modifier 51 (Multiple procedures) to a CPT code when more than one procedure is performed during the same operative session.

answer

FALSE

question

For spine examinations using magnetic resonance angiography with contrast administered by intravascular injection, an additional code is reported for the intravascular injection.

answer

FALSE

question

A code designated as a separate procedure can never be reported by itself or in addition to other procedures or services.

answer

FALSE

question

The modifier 26 is reported when the physician provides only the professional component of the procedure.

answer

TRUE

question

When a physician both performs the procedure and provides imaging supervision and interpretation, a combination of procedure codes is reported.

answer

TRUE

question

The modifier TC is reported when the provider provides only the technical component of the procedure.

answer

TRUE

question

Debridement must be coded separately when debridement is carried out in conjunction with an intermediate or complex wound repair.

answer

FALSE

question

Code range 15002-15005 (Surgical preparation) is used for the initial wound recipient site preparation.

answer

TRUE

question

Destruction means the ablation of benign, premalignant, or malignant tissues by any method.

answer

TRUE

question

The initial cast application and removal are included in the open or closed treatment code.

answer

TRUE

question

Coding separately for external fixation may be done even when external fixation is part of the main code description.

answer

FALSE

question

All surgical endoscopies under the Surgery/Respiratory System include the diagnostic endoscopy.

answer

TRUE

question

Lung allotransplantations involve four distinct physician work components.

answer

FALSE

question

Backbench work in lung allograft includes work on the cadaver, single or double lung allograft, and preparation of pulmonary artery and bronchus.

answer

TRUE

question

A physician performing two procedures on the same date of service during the same operative session would append modifier-51 to the second procedure code.

answer

TRUE

question

It is not important to read special "notes" located under subheadings or subsections. Only notes that are part of the code description apply.

answer

FALSE

question

Routine postoperative follow-up care is covered under the surgical global package.

answer

TRUE

question

If follow-up care after a therapeutic surgical procedure is for a complication or other disease process the physician may code and report additional services separately.

answer

TRUE

question

When a code description includes the note "separate procedure," it should never be reported separately.

answer

FALSE

question

When destruction is carried out as part of a procedure, it is always coded separately.

answer

FALSE

question

Category III codes cannot be used in the place of Category I unlisted codes.

answer

FALSE

question

Category II codes are used to report emerging technologies.

answer

FALSE

question

Qualifying Circumstances Codes are considered Add-on Codes which means they cannot be reported without an anesthesia code.

answer

TRUE

question

The anesthesia formula is basic units + time units + conversion factor = total units. Total units X conversion factor = reimbursement rate.

answer

FALSE

question

The insertion of a central venous catheter is an example of an unusual form of monitoring and can be coded and billed separately from the anesthesia service code.

answer

TRUE

question

The cost of practicing medicine varies from one location to another. Therefore, the conversion factor is based on geographic location where the anesthesia service was performed.

answer

TRUE

question

Physical Status Modifiers are represented by the initial letter P followed by a single digit from 1 to 5.

answer

FALSE

question

The conversion factor is multiplied by the number of units to determine the reimbursement for the anesthesia services provided.

answer

TRUE

question

The basic unit value for each anesthesia code is listed in the Relative Value Guide (RVG) which is published by The American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA).

answer

TRUE

question

When multiple procedures are performed during the same operative session under the same type of anesthesia each code is reported separately.

answer

FALSE

question

When you cannot find a code that accurately describes a service or procedure you should report the code that most closely matches the service or procedure.

answer

FALSE

question

Modifiers provide additional information about the services provided to a patient.

answer

TRUE

question

Add-on codes are only reported when a procedure or service is performed by the same physician.

answer

TRUE

question

Evaluation and Management codes are used to report facility charges.

answer

FALSE

question

The guidelines for each section are listed at the beginning of each section.

answer

TRUE

question

The indented codes include the full code descriptions.

answer

FALSE

question

The guidelines contained within each section only apply to the codes that the guideline precedes.

answer

TRUE

question

The four types of main terms are procedure or service, organ or other anatomic site, condition, and synonyms, eponyms and abbreviations.

answer

TRUE

question

CPT® codes are organized by specialty and the use of them are restricted by specialty.

answer

FALSE

question

Instructional notes contain information about additional codes, modifiers, alternative code assignments, and deleted codes.

answer

TRUE

question

HCPCS: The Red Color Bar indicates contractor discretion.

answer

FALSE

question

HCPCS: The HCPCS code should be assigned when the CPT® and HCPCS code descriptions are identical.

answer

FALSE

question

HCPCS: A special report is used when a HCPCS modifier is reported.

answer

TRUE

question

HCPCS: The Yellow Color Bar indicates a service not covered by or invalid for patients covered by Medicare.

answer

FALSE

question

HCPCS: The route of administration column in the Table of Drugs lists the most common methods of delivering the referenced generic drug.

answer

TRUE

question

HCPCS: The use of HCPCS codes is mandatory on all Medicare and Medicaid claims submitted for payment of services provided by healthcare providers.

answer

TRUE

question

HCPCS: The Blue Color Bar instructs the coder there are special instructions associated with the assignment of the code.

answer

TRUE

question

HCPCS: The place of service codes listed in Appendix 6 are reported on hospital claims to describe the location where the services were provided.

answer

FALSE

question

HCPCS: The codes located in the Table of Drugs are provided only for the brand name of a drug.

answer

FALSE

question

HCPCS: The modifiers in the HCPCS codebook have the same purpose as the modifiers in the CPT codebook.

answer

TRUE

question

When a code does not exist that accurately describes the procedure/treatement, the coder should report an unlisted code.

answer

TRUE

question

Modifiers are used to identify when no procedure is done.

answer

FALSE

question

Appendix C contains coding examples to assist in the selection of the Evaluation and Management codes.

answer

TRUE

question

In Appendix A, modifier 22, applies to codes in the Surgical Section, as opposed to Evaluation and Management codes, because typical procedure times are not listed.

answer

TRUE

question

All procedures performed by physicians are found in the CPT codebook.

answer

FALSE

question

Evaluation and management visits represent the most common patient-physician interactions.

answer

TRUE

question

The chief complaint must be located under the heading CHIEF COMPLAINT.

answer

FALSE

question

The number of minutes a physician spends face-to-face with a patient can be a factor in selecting the correct E/M code.

answer

TRUE

question

Physician visits to hospital inpatients are coded and billed by an outpatient coder.

answer

TRUE

question

Medical coding specialists working for a healthcare facility such as a surgery center, hospital, or nursing home would bill facility charges, not E/M services.

answer

TRUE

question

Every E/M code category requires the medical coder to distinguish between new and established patients.

answer

FALSE

question

When selecting an E/M code, the chief complaint must always be identified.

answer

TRUE

question

Information in the physical examination should be objective information reported by the provider.

answer

TRUE

question

Surgery is defined as what takes place when the surgeon scrubs up to the moment the last stitch is placed.

answer

FALSE

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